TS EAMCET 2024 Question Paper May 8 Shift 1: Download BiPC Question Paper with Solutions PDF

In the following group of plants, sporophytes are dependent on gametophytes.

• (1) Bryophyta
• (2) Pteridophyta
• (3) Gymnosperms
• (4) Angiosperms

Assertion (A): Endosperm is haploid in Gymnosperms

Reason (R): Female gametophytic tissue acts as endosperm in Gymnosperms

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Assertion (A): Ascospores are produced endogenously in ascus

Reason (R): Basidiospores are produced exogenously on the basidium

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

The number of stamens found in a single male flower of Cyathium inflorescence is:

• (1) Many
• (2) Three
• (3) Two
• (4) One

‘Pepo’ fruit develops from the following type of ovary:

• (1) Tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Unilocular, Parietal placentation
• (2) Tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Trilocular, Parietal placentation
• (3) Tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Unilocular, Axile placentation
• (4) Tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Trilocular, Axile placentation

Match the following:

List - I (Plant name) \hspace{1cm List - II (Tendril modified from)

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

The ploidy of 'perisperm':

• (1) n
• (2) 2n
• (3) 3n
• (4) 4n

Intine of pollen grain is made up of:

• (1) Sporopollenin
• (2) Cellulose and Lignin
• (3) Chitin and Lignin
• (4) Cellulose and Pectin

The ratio of microspore mother cell to male gametes in a typical angiospermic plant:

• (1) 1:1
• (2) 1:2
• (3) 1:4
• (4) 1:8

"Families of flowering plants" book was written by:

• (1) Bentham and Hooker
• (2) Engler and Prantl
• (3) Hutchinson
• (4) Linnaeus

Match the following:

• (1) A-I, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

The following type of ribosome sub-units are present in an eukaryotic cell:

• (1) 30S, 50S only
• (2) 40S, 60S only
• (3) 50S, 60S only
• (4) 30S, 40S, 50S and 60S

The site of t-RNA synthesis:

• (1) Cytoplasm
• (2) Nucleus
• (3) Ribosome
• (4) Centrosome

DNA molecule having the length of 68Å, contains 10% Adenine. How many number of hydrogen bonds are present between nitrogen bases totally in that DNA?

• (1) 44
• (2) 56
• (3) 20
• (4) 40

Assertion (A): Crossing-over leads to genetic recombinations.

Reason (R): Crossing-over is the exchange of chromatin bits between two sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

The following type of cell divisions occurs in microspore mother cells to increase their number in microsporangium:

• (1) Meiosis
• (2) Mitosis
• (3) Amitosis
• (4) Endomitosis

The following characters are found common to both mitochondria and chloroplast:

Lateral roots develop (originate) from the following tissue:

• (1) Epidermis
• (2) Hypodermis
• (3) Endodermis
• (4) Pericycle

Among the following the most important pollinator for agricultural purposes is:

• (1) Silkworms
• (2) Honeybees
• (3) Butterflies
• (4) Nematodes

The following is not a microelement:

• (1) Zn
• (2) Fe
• (3) Cl
• (4) P

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

The first reaction in photosynthesis is:

• (1) Photolysis of water
• (2) Excitation of chlorophyll molecule
• (3) Reduction of CO\(_2\)
• (4) Utilisation of assimilatory power \vspace{0.5cm

Find out the correct statements among the following:

A. In C4 plants photosrespiration is absent.

B. In the photorespiration pathway, there is no synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

C. C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient plants.

D. Kranz anatomy is found in C4 and CAM plants.

• (1) A and C only
• (2) A, B and C only
• (3) A, C and D only
• (4) A only

During the process of aerobic respiration, O\(_2\) utilisation occurs in the following stage only:

• (1) Glycolysis
• (2) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
• (3) Krebs cycle and ETS
• (4) ETS (Electron Transport System)

The final acceptor of e\(^{-}\) (electrons) during non-cyclic photophosphorylation is:

• (1) NADP
• (2) NADPH\(_2\)
• (3) NADP\(^+\)
• (4) H\(_2\)O

In Phloem, the food material is mostly translocated in the following form:

• (1) Glucose
• (2) Fructose
• (3) Sucrose
• (4) Starch

Cytochrome ‘C’ transfers the electrons between:

• (1) Complex I and II
• (2) Complex II and III
• (3) Complex III and IV
• (4) Complex IV and ATP synthase

The type of nucleic acid found in a virus:

• (1) DNA only
• (2) RNA only
• (3) DNA or RNA
• (4) DNA and RNA

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant, the percentage of progeny having dwarf character is:

• (1) 0
• (2) 25
• (3) 50
• (4) 100

The percentage of 'ab' genotype gametes produced by ‘AaBb’ parent plant is:

• (1) 50
• (2) 25
• (3) 12.5
• (4) 75

Find out the correct statements among the following:

A. DNA is (-Ve) charged, Histone proteins are (+Ve) charged.

B. DNA is (+Ve) charged, Histone proteins are (-Ve) charged.

C. Euchromatin is transcriptionally active.

D. Euchromatin and heterochromatin both are transcriptionally inactive.

• (1) A, C
• (2) B, C
• (3) A, D
• (4) B, D

The haploid content of human DNA contains:

• (1) 3.3 x \(10^9\) bp
• (2) 3.3 x \(10^6\) bp
• (3) 4.6 x \(10^9\) bp
• (4) 4.6 x \(10^6\) bp

UUU, CCC, AAA, GGG are the codons codes for the following amino acids respectively:

• (1) Phe, Val, Gly, Lys
• (2) Phe, Pro, Lys, Gly
• (3) Phe, Gly, Pro, Asp
• (4) Gly, Asp, Lys, Pro

Identify the correct statements among the following:

A. RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.

B. Bt-toxin gene, CryIIAb controls cotton bollworms.

C. Mycorrhiza helps the plants for more absorption of potassium.

D. Elusion is a technique of extracting separated bands of DNA from agarose gel.

• (1) A, B, C
• (2) B, C, D
• (3) A, C, D
• (4) A, B, D

Match the following:

List - I (Item) \hspace{1cm List - II (Description)

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Identify the correct statements among the following:

A. Probes are generally ss RNA or ss DNA

B. Probes are complementary to desired DNA

C. The efficiency of uptaking DNA fragments by bacteria decreases when they are treated with Ca\(^{2+}\) ions

D. Cloning vectors should have low molecular weight

• (1) A, B, C only
• (2) A, B, D only
• (3) A, C, D only
• (4) B, C, D only

Use of microbes to remove the toxic (waste) substances that are released into the environment is:

• (1) Biofortification
• (2) Bioremediation
• (3) Bioterrorism
• (4) Bioinformatics

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:

I. Greater biodiversity is found in temperate regions

II. Invasion of alien species is a threat for local species

III. Loris tardigradus is one of the threatened species in our country

IV. A biographic region with significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat of extinction from humans is called a sanctuary

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

Species is considered as a group of individuals which are showing similarity in karyote. Hence, species is a

• (1) Breeding unit
• (2) Ecological unit
• (3) Evolutionary unit
• (4) Genetic unit

Assertion (A): Most of the cranial bones are dermal bones

Reason (R): They are formed by the ossification in the embryonic mesenchyme

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-IV
• (4) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Pseudocoelom is the body cavity of:

• (1) Flat worms
• (2) Earthworms
• (3) Round worms
• (4) Acorn worms

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, IV

Molluscs having closed circulatory system are included in the class

• (1) Gastropoda
• (2) Cephalopoda
• (3) Scaphopoda
• (4) Pelecypoda

Match the following:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II

Eggs of reptiles are

• (1) Microlecithal and cleidoic
• (2) Mesolecithal and teleolecithal
• (3) Megalecithal and cleidoic
• (4) Mesolecithal and Isolecithal

Flagellum in Polytoma is

• (1) Stichonematic
• (2) Pantonematic
• (3) Acronematic
• (4) Anematic

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:

I. Opioids are obtained from \textit{Cannabis sativa

II. Heroin is obtained by the acetylation of Morphine

III. Barbiturates cause sleeplessness

IV. Benzodiazepines are tranquilizers

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) III, IV

Assertion (A): Syngamy in \textit{Plasmodium is anisogamy

Reason (R): The gametes are similar in size


The correct answer is: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Parasite responsible for hyperplasia in its host is:

• (1) Wuchereria
• (2) Plasmodium
• (3) Sacculina
• (4) Fasciola

Benign tertian malaria is caused by:

• (1) Plasmodium vivax
• (2) Plasmodium ovale
• (3) Plasmodium falciparum
• (4) Plasmodium malariae

These cells of cockroach contain symbiotic bacteria:

• (1) Trophocytes
• (2) Mycetocytes
• (3) Oenocytes
• (4) Urate cells

In cockroach, egg case is secreted by these glands:

• (1) Colleterial glands
• (2) Utricular gland
• (3) Phalic gland
• (4) Mushroom shaped gland

In cockroach, thermoreceptor sensillae lie:

• (1) In thorax
• (2) In abdomen
• (3) On trochanter
• (4) On first three tarsomeres

This rule states that with the increase of every 10° C, the rate of metabolic activities double:

• (1) Allen’s rule
• (2) Van’t Hoff’s rule
• (3) Bergman’s rule
• (4) Jordon’s rule

Statement I: The animals that are capable of swimming in water are known as neuston.

Statement II: Decomposers are absent in limnetic zone.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is correct. But II is false
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true

Match the following:

• (1) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
• (3) A-I, B-I, C-V, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-V

From the cells of intestinal villi, chylomicrons are transported into the:

• (1) Blood capillaries
• (2) Lacteals
• (3) Interstitial fluid
• (4) Veins

Assertion (A): Female human beings produce a high pitch voice.

Reason (R): The vocal cords in females are long and thick.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Statement I: Right atrio ventricular aperture in human heart is guarded by a tricuspid valve.

Statement II: Blood plasma without fibrinogen and some other plasma proteins is called lymph.

• (1) Both Statement I and II are true
• (2) Both Statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is true, But II is false
• (4) Statement I is false, But II is true

These structures eliminate sterols, hydrocarbons, waxes etc. in human beings:

• (1) Lungs
• (2) Liver
• (3) Sweat glands
• (4) Sebaceous glands

Dentalveolar joint is an example for:

• (1) Gomphoses
• (2) Syndesmoses
• (3) Sutures
• (4) Synchondroses

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:

I. Superior colliculi are concerned with auditory function

II. Inferior colliculi are concerned with visual function

III. Pneumotaxic centre lies in pons varoli

IV. Thermoregulatory centre lies in the hypothalamus

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, IV

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, IV

These hormones are commonly called catecholamines:

• (1) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
• (2) Thyroxine and calcitonin
• (3) Somatotropin and prolactin
• (4) Calcitriol and aldosterone

Match the following:

• (1) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-I, D-V
• (4) A-I, B-V, C-II, D-III

Hormone secreted by Sertoli cells of testes in human beings:

• (1) Testosterone
• (2) Inhibin
• (3) Progesterone
• (4) Interstitial cell stimulating hormone

Pick up the incorrect pair:

• (1) Vasectomy - male
• (2) Tubectomy - Female
• (3) Amniocentesis - Brain disorders
• (4) Contraceptive pill - Saheli

If a red eyed male Drosophila and white eyed female Drosophila are crossed, the eye color in their offspring is:

• (1) Females red eyed and males white eyed
• (2) All are red eyed
• (3) All are white eyed
• (4) Female white eyed and males red eyed

A person is with short stature, small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth and retarded physical, psychomotor and mental development. The person is said to be suffering from this genetic disorder:

• (1) Turner syndrome
• (2) Down syndrome
• (3) Edward syndrome
• (4) Klinefelter syndrome

In human genome, the highest number of genes are present in:

• (1) Chromosome 13
• (2) Chromosome 21
• (3) X-chromosome
• (4) Chromosome 1

Cynognathus is a transitional form between:

• (1) Fishes and amphibians
• (2) Amphibians and reptiles
• (3) Reptiles and birds
• (4) Reptiles and mammals

Statement I: Jean Baptiste de Lamarck stated that acquired characters are inherited to the next generations.

Statement II: August Weismann strongly supported the view of inheritance of acquired characters.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is true, but II is false
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true

If one species diverges to become two or more species, it is called:

• (1) Cladogenesis
• (2) Anagenesis
• (3) Phyletic evolution
• (4) Convergent evolution

Assertion (A): Magnetic Resonance Imaging is generally a very safe procedure.

Reason (R): It does not use ionising radiation.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Prolonged P-R interval in ECG indicates:

• (1) Tachycardia
• (2) Myocardial infarction
• (3) Bradycardia
• (4) Hyperkalemia

Match the following:

List-1:

A Direct ELISA
B Indirect ELISA
C EEG
D CAT


List-2:

I Antibodies
II Brain
III Antigens
IV Tomogram
V Heart

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

When two resistors of resistances \( (123 \pm 2) \, \Omega \) and \( (227 \pm 4) \, \Omega \) are connected in series, then the value of equivalent resistance is:

• (1) \( (350 \pm 6) \, \Omega \)
• (2) \( (350 \pm 1) \, \Omega \)
• (3) \( (350 \pm 12) \, \Omega \)
• (4) \( (350 \pm 3) \, \Omega \)

Starting from rest, a car accelerates with uniform acceleration of \( 4 \, m/s^2 \) for some time after which it comes to rest with uniform deceleration of \( 6 \, m/s^2 \). If the total time of travel is 5 s, then the total distance travelled by the car is:

• (1) 25 m
• (2) 30 m
• (3) 60 m
• (4) 125 m

Two bodies A and B are projected simultaneously with velocities \( 20 \, ms^{-1} \) and \( 40 \, ms^{-1} \), respectively. Body A is projected vertically up from the top of a tower of height 80 m and body B is projected vertically up from the bottom of the same tower. The bodies A and B meet in time of:

• (1) 5 s
• (2) 3 s
• (3) 6 s
• (4) 4 s

A body is projected from the surface of the earth with a velocity of \( 10 \sqrt{3} \, m/s \) such that its range is maximum. The velocity of the body at half of the maximum height is:

• (1) \( 10 \sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1} \)
• (2) \( 15 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (3) \( 15 \sqrt{2} \, ms^{-1} \)
• (4) \( 30 \, ms^{-1} \)

A body of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface. If the force applied on the body is increased by 80 N, then the acceleration of the body increases by:

• (1) \( 16 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (2) \( 12 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (3) \( 8 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (4) \( 10 \, ms^{-2} \)

A block enters a rough horizontal surface with a speed of \( 6 \, ms^{-1} \) at \( x = 1.5 \, m \) and leaves the rough horizontal surface with a speed of \( 4 \, ms^{-1} \) at \( x = 2.5 \, m \). If the retarding force acting on the block is \( F = -25x \, N \) (where \( F \) is in newton and \( x \) is in meter), then the mass of the block is:

• (1) 2.5 kg
• (2) 10 kg
• (3) 5 kg
• (4) 4 kg

A body of mass 3 kg is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a velocity of \( 10 \, ms^{-1} \). If the maximum height reached by the body is 4.7 m, then the loss of energy due to air resistance is:

• (1) 9 J
• (2) 18 J
• (3) 30 J
• (4) 47 J

Four bodies of masses 8 kg, 2 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed at the four corners A, B, C and D respectively of a square ABCD of diagonal 80 cm. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the corner A is:

• (1) 30 cm
• (2) 40 cm
• (3) 60 cm
• (4) 20 cm

A thin circular ring of mass 0.2 kg is rotating about its axis with an angular speed of 51 rad/s. Two particles having mass 2 g each are now attached at diametrically opposite points on the ring. Then the angular speed of the system is:

• (1) 100 rad/s
• (2) 50 rad/s
• (3) 51 rad/s
• (4) 102 rad/s

The amplitude of a damped harmonic oscillator becomes \( \frac{1}{n} \) times its initial amplitude \( A_0 \) at the end of 20 oscillations. The amplitude of the oscillator when it completes 40 oscillations is:

• (1) \( \frac{A_0}{n^3} \)
• (2) \( A_0 \)
• (3) \( \frac{A_0}{n^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{A_0}{n} \)

A body weighs the same on the surfaces of two planets of densities \( p_1 \) and \( p_2 \). The ratio of the radii of the planets is:

• (1) \( \frac{p_2}{p_1} \)
• (2) \( \frac{p_2^2}{p_1^2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{p_2^{3/2}}{p_1^{3/2}} \)
• (4) \( \frac{p_2^4}{p_1^4} \)

A copper wire of cross-sectional area 0.01 cm\(^2\) is subjected to a tension of 22 N. If Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio of copper are \(1.1 \times 10^{11}\) Nm\(^2\) and 0.32 respectively, then the change in the cross-sectional area of the wire is:

• (1) \( 1.28 \times 10^{-6} \, cm^2 \)
• (2) \( 1.16 \times 10^{-6} \, cm^2 \)
• (3) \( 0.64 \times 10^{-6} \, cm^2 \)
• (4) \( 0.58 \times 10^{-6} \, cm^2 \)

A soap bubble is given a negative charge. The pressure inside the bubble:

• (1) increases
• (2) becomes equal to atmospheric pressure
• (3) does not change
• (4) decreases

A wooden cube is floating in a bucket of water with \(\frac{3}{4}\) of its volume immersed. If this bucket with the wooden block is now placed in a lift moving down with an acceleration of \(\frac{g}{2}\), the fraction of volume of the wooden cube immersed in water is:

• (1) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
• (2) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
• (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
• (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

The initial and the final temperatures of a black body are \(27^\circ C\) and \(177^\circ C\) respectively. The increase in the amount of radiation emitted per second is:

• (1) 506.25%
• (2) 150.25%
• (3) 225.75%
• (4) 406.25%

The change in moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass \( M \), radius \( R \), for a small change in temperature \( \Delta t \) is:

• (1) \(\frac{2}{5} MR^2 \alpha \Delta t\)
• (2) \(\frac{4}{5} MR^2 \alpha \Delta t\)
• (3) \(\frac{7}{5} MR^2 \alpha \Delta t\)
• (4) \(\frac{3}{5} MR^2 \alpha \Delta t\)

The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If it is placed in a room at a temperature of 39°C, the temperature inside the refrigerator is:

• (1) 13°C
• (2) 32.5°C
• (3) -13°C
• (4) -32.5°C

The ratio of the degrees of freedom of monatomic and diatomic gas molecules is:

• (1) 5:7
• (2) 3:5
• (3) 3:4
• (4) 5:6

An observer is standing below a freely falling source of sound of frequency 900 Hz. The change in the frequency noticed by the observer after 3 seconds of free fall of the source is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms\(^{-1}\) and acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

• (1) 990 Hz
• (2) 818.18 Hz
• (3) 81.82 Hz
• (4) 90 Hz

An observer is standing below a freely falling source of sound of frequency 900 Hz. The change in the frequency noticed by the observer after 3 seconds of free fall of the source is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms\(^{-1}\) and acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

• (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \, second
• (2) \( \frac{1}{4} \, second
• (3) \( \frac{1}{8} \, second
• (4) \( \frac{1}{16} \, second

A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed coaxially at a distance of 4 cm to the right of another convex lens of focal length 16 cm. If an object is placed at a distance of 8 cm to the left of the convex lens of focal length 16 cm, then the distance of the final image from the object is:

• (1) 28 cm
• (2) 40 cm
• (3) 36 cm
• (4) 32 cm

A prism having angle \(\theta\) and refractive index of the material of prism ‘n’ are related by
\[ \theta = 2\sin^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2 + 1}} \right) \]

- If the angle of minimum deviation is \(60^\circ\), then the angle of the prism is

• (1) \(54^\circ\)
• (2) \(60^\circ\)
• (3) \(30^\circ\)
• (4) \(45^\circ\)

A polaroid sheet ‘P’ is placed on another similar polaroid sheet ‘Q’ such that the angle between their axes is \(45^\circ\).

- The ratio of the intensities of the light emerged from polaroid ‘Q’ and the unpolarised light incident on polaroid ‘P’ is

• (1) \(1:4\)
• (2) \(1:2\)
• (3) \(1:\sqrt{3}\)
• (4) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)

A charged particle of mass 5 g and charge 20 μC is thrown with a velocity of 16 m/s\(^-1\) in a direction opposite to the direction of a uniform electric field of \( 2 \times 10^5 \) N/C. The distance travelled by the particle before coming to rest is:

• (1) \( 24 cm \) 
• (2) \( 12 cm \) 
• (3) \( 16 cm \) 
• (4) \( 20 cm \) 

Two positive point charges of \(10 \, \mu C\) and \(12 \, \mu C\) are kept in air with a separation of 12 cm.

- To make the distance between the charges 4 cm, the work done is

• (1) \(24 \, J\)
• (2) \(18 \, J\)
• (3) \(9 \, J\)
• (4) \(12 \, J\)

A storage battery of emf \(10V\) and internal resistance \(1 \Omega\) is being charged by a \(100V\) dc supply using a series resistor of \(17 \Omega\).

- The terminal voltage of the battery during charging is

• (1) \(25V\)
• (2) \(30V\)
• (3) \(20V\)
• (4) \(15V\)

In a meter bridge, when an unknown resistance ‘R’ is connected in the left gap, the null point is obtained at 25 cm from the left end of the wire.

- If the resistance in the left gap is increased by 100%, the distance of the null point from the left end of the wire increases by

• (1) \(50%\)
• (2) \(40%\)
• (3) \(60%\)
• (4) \(80%\)

An electron moving with a velocity of \(4.8 \times 10^6 \, ms^{-1}\) enters a uniform magnetic field of \(0.182 \, T\) in a direction perpendicular to the field.

- The radius of the circular path in which the electron moves under the influence of the magnetic field is

- (Mass of electron \(= 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \, kg\) and charge of electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C\))

• (1) \(1.5 \times 10^{-4} \, m\)
• (2) \(1.5 \times 10^{-3} \, m\)
• (3) \(2.5 \times 10^{-3} \, m\)
• (4) \(2.5 \times 10^{-4} \, m\)

A long solenoid of length \(75\) cm carries a current of \(3.5\) A. If the number of turns of the solenoid is \(600\), the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is

• (1) \(7 \times 10^{-3} \, T\)
• (2) \(2.48 \times 10^{-3} \, T\)
• (3) \(3 \times 10^{-3} \, T\)
• (4) \(3.52 \times 10^{-3} \, T\)

A coil of 200 turns and area of cross-section \(5 \times 10^{-3} \, m^2\) carries a current of 3 A.

- The magnetic moment of the coil is

• (1) \(12 \, Am^2\)
• (2) \(3 \, Am^2\)
• (3) \(6 \, Am^2\)
• (4) \(9 \, Am^2\)

When a diamagnetic substance of relative permeability \(0.5\) is filled inside a solenoid, then its self-inductance

• (1) becomes doubled
• (2) becomes half
• (3) is quadrupled
• (4) becomes one-fourth

When an alternating voltage given by \(E = 100 \sin(10^2 t)\), where \(E\) is in volts and \(t\) is in seconds, is applied across a capacitor of capacitance \(20 \, \mu F\), the peak current flowing in the circuit is

• (1) \(20 \, A\)
• (2) \(2 \, A\)
• (3) \(0.2 \, A\)
• (4) \(0.02 \, A\)

If two electromagnetic waves with electric fields given by
\[ \vec{E_1} = E_0 \sin (kx - \omega t) \hat{j} \]

and
\[ \vec{E_2} = E_0 \sin (kx - \omega t + \pi) \hat{j} \]

- interfere, then the peak value of the electric field of the resultant wave is

• (1) \(E_0\)
• (2) \(\frac{E_0}{2}\)
• (3) \(\frac{E_0}{\sqrt{2}}\)
• (4) Zero

If the wavelength of the incident radiation on a photosensitive metal surface is decreased from \(3100 \, Å\) to \(1550 \, Å\), the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is tripled.

- The work function of the metal surface is

• (1) \(3 \, eV\)
• (2) \(4 \, eV\)
• (3) \(2 \, eV\)
• (4) \(6 \, eV\)

In Geiger-Marsden experiment, if the initial speed of \(\alpha\) particle is doubled, then the closest distance of approach of the \(\alpha\) particle from the gold nucleus

- (Assume \(\alpha\) particle is projected straight towards the gold nucleus)

• (1) becomes doubled
• (2) becomes quadrupled
• (3) becomes half
• (4) becomes one-fourth

The energy equivalent of \(3.2 \, \mu g\) of mass is

• (1) \(18 \times 10^{26} \, J\)
• (2) \(18 \times 10^{20} \, MeV\)
• (3) \(18 \times 10^{23} \, MeV\)
• (4) \(32 \times 10^{26} \, J\)

If the nucleus \(X^{240}\), initially at rest, splits into two daughter nuclei \(Y^{100}\) and \(Z^{140}\), then the ratio of the kinetic energies of \(Y\) and \(Z\) is

• (1) \(5:7\)
• (2) \(7:5\)
• (3) \(1:1\)
• (4) \(49:25\)

In a common emitter transistor circuit, if the emitter current is changed by 4 mA, the collector current changes by 3.5 mA, then the current gain is

• (1) \(0.875\)
• (2) \(3.5\)
• (3) \(7\)
• (4) \(0.5\)

The power delivered by the battery shown in the figure is

- (Take the forward and reverse biased resistances of the diode are zero and infinity respectively)
  

• (1) \(2.50 \, W\)
• (2) \(5.00 \, W\)
• (3) \(7.50 \, W\)
• (4) \(3.75 \, W\)

A \(5\) kHz frequency signal is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency \(2\) MHz.

- One possible frequency of the resultant signal is

• (1) \(1995 \, kHz\)
• (2) \(1985 \, kHz\)
• (3) \(1975 \, kHz\)
• (4) \(1965 \, kHz\)

The momentum of an electron is \(6.625 \times 10^{-28} \, kg \cdot ms^{-1}\). What is its wavelength in nm?

- (Given: \( h = 6.625 \times 10^{-34} \, J \cdot s\))

• (1) \(100\)
• (2) \(1000\)
• (3) \(500\)
• (4) \(6625\)

The following orbital energies (\(E\)) are compared. Identify the correct sets

(I) \quad E_2(H) = E_2(H)

(II) \quad E_3(H) = E_3(He)

(III) \quad E_{2s(H) < E_{2s(He)

(IV) \quad E_{3s(He) < E_{3s(H)

• (1) I, II only
• (2) I, II, III, IV
• (3) III, IV only
• (4) I, IV only

The atomic numbers of elements A, B, D, E respectively are \(7, 17, 13, 11\). The element which forms basic oxide among them is

• (1) E
• (2) B
• (3) D
• (4) A

The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of oxygen, sulphur, selenium respectively are

• (1) \(-195, -200, -141\)
• (2) \(-195, -141, -200\)
• (3) \(-141, -200, -195\)
• (4) \(-141, -195, -200\)

Among the following, the molecule in which all atoms obey the octet rule is

• (1) \(BCl_3\)
• (2) \(BeH_2\)
• (3) \(SF_6\)
• (4) \(SCl_2\)

Identify the number of molecules having permanent dipole moment from the following:
\[ CCl_4, NF_3, H_2S, HBr, SF_4, SiF_4, XeF_4, BeCl_2, SnCl_2, BrF_5, SO_2 \]

• (1) \(5\)
• (2) \(7\)
• (3) \(6\)
• (4) \(6\)

What is the correct equation that relates kinetic energy (\(E_{ke}\)) and pressure (\(P\)) of one mole of an ideal gas?

- (V = Volume)

• (1) \( P = \frac{2E_{ke}}{3V} \)
• (2) \( P = \frac{3V}{2E_{ke}} \)
• (3) \( P = \frac{3V^2}{2E_{ke}} \)
• (4) \( P = \frac{2(E_{ke})^2}{3V} \)

A hydrocarbon has 85.7% of carbon by weight. 56 g (2 moles) of hydrocarbon was completely burnt in oxygen and obtained \( CO_2 \) and \( H_2O \). What is the weight (in g) of \( CO_2 \) formed?

- (C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u)

• (1) \(176\)
• (2) \(88\)
• (3) \(132\)
• (4) \(352\)

At T(K), the following graph is obtained for an ideal gas.



- Which of the following graphs correctly represents the work done on the gas (shaded part)?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I. Conjugate base of chloric acid is \( ClO^- \)

II. \( AlCl_3 \) is a Lewis acid

III. Conjugate base of \( NH_3 \) is \( NH_2^- \)

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, III only

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I. \( H_2O_2 \) oxidizes PbS to \( PbSO_4 \)

II. \( H_2O_2 \) is used in the industrial preparation of sodium perborate

III. \( H_2O_2 \) is insoluble in water

• (1) I, II only
• (2) I, III only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, II, III

The anions present in baking soda, caustic soda, and washing soda respectively are

• (1) \( CO_3^{2-}, OH^-, HCO_3^- \)
• (2) \( HCO_3^-, CO_3^{2-}, OH^- \)
• (3) \( CO_3^{2-}, OH^-, OH^- \)
• (4) \( HCO_3^-, OH^-, CO_3^{2-} \)

The products formed in the reaction of \( BeCl_2 \) with \( LiAlH_4 \) are

• (1) Be, \( Li[AlCl_4] \), \( H_2 \)
• (2) \( BeH_2 \), \( LiCl \), \( AlCl_3 \)
• (3) Be, \( AlH_3 \), \( LiCl \), \( HCl \)
• (4) \( BeH_2 \), \( Li[AlCl_4] \)

Identify the reaction in which hydrogen gas is not liberated

• (1) \( Al(s) + HCl(aq) \rightarrow \)
• (2) \( NaBH_4 + I_2 \rightarrow \)
• (3) \( BF_3 + LiAlH_4 \rightarrow \)
• (4) \( Al(s) + NaOH(aq) \rightarrow \)

Assertion (A): Silicones are used in surgical and cosmetic plants

Reason (R): Silicones have high thermal stability

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

The minimum concentration (ppm) of dissolved oxygen in water that is required for the growth of fish is

• (1) 10
• (2) 8
• (3) 12
• (4) 6

Observe the following formula





The groups/atoms in the plane of the paper are

• (1) H, Cl, C
• (2) CH\(_3\), Cl
• (3) H, CH\(_3\), C
• (4) CH\(_3\), C\(_2\)H\(_5\), C

IUPAC name of neohexyl alcohol is

• (1) 3,3-Dimethylbutan-2-ol
• (2) 3,3-Dimethylbutan-1-ol
• (3) 2,3-Dimethylbutan-1-ol
• (4) 2,3-Dimethylbutan-2-ol

From the following, identify the set that contains all meta directing groups:

• (1) \(-NHCOCH_3\), \(-Cl\), \(-CHO\)
• (2) \(-OCH_3\), \(-NO_2\), \(-NH_2\)
• (3) \(-CN\), \(-COCH_3\), \(-COOCH_3\)
• (4) \(-OH\), \(-CN\), \(-CH_3\)

Two statements are given below



Statement I: The resonance structure with more number of covalent bonds is less stable.

Statement II: The position of nuclei does not change in resonance structures.

• (1) Both statement I and II are correct
• (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
• (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

A crystal is formed by X (cations) and Y (anions). Atoms of Y form ccp and atoms of X occupy half of octahedral voids and half of tetrahedral voids. What is the molecular formula of the crystal?

• (1) \(X_2Y_3\)
• (2) \(XY_3\)
• (3) \(X_3Y\)
• (4) \(X_3Y_2\)

Two statements are given below

Statement I: Liquid A and liquid B form a non-ideal solution with positive deviation.
\hspace{0.5cm The interactions between A and B are weaker than A–A and B–B interactions.

Statement II: For an ideal solution, \(\Delta_{mix} H = 2 kJ mol^{-1} \); \(\Delta_{mix} V = 0\).

• (1) Both statement I and II are correct
• (2) Both statement I and II are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

At 300 K, aqueous KCl and aqueous K\(_2\)SO\(_4\) solutions were electrolyzed separately using Pt electrodes. The gases liberated at cathodes in these two electrolytic processes are respectively:

• (1) \( Cl_2, O_2 \)
• (2) \( O_2, O_2 \)
• (3) \( H_2, O_2 \)
• (4) \( H_2, H_2 \)

Identify the correct graph for a first-order reaction (A → P)

Given:

- \( x \)-axis = time (\( t \))

- \( a \) = Initial concentration of A

- \( (a-x) \) = Concentration of A at time \( t \)

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

A few sols are given below:

As_2S_3 sol, starch sol, Al_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O sol, TiO_2 sol, gold sol, congo red sol, blood, methylene blue sol, CdS sol

The number of positively charged sols in the above list is:

• (1) \( 4 \)
• (2) \( 5 \)
• (3) \( 6 \)
• (4) \( 7 \)

Match the following:

• (1) \( A - V, B - I, C - II, D - III \)
• (2) \( A - V, B - II, C - I, D - III \)
• (3) \( A - V, B - I, C - IV, D - III \)
• (4) \( A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV \)

Identify the correct statements from the following:

• (A) In PCl\(_5\), equatorial bonds are longer than axial bonds.
• (B) Zinc reacts with dilute nitric acid to give NO\(_2\).
• (C) Rhombic sulphur is yellow in colour.
• (D) The reaction \( 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) \xrightarrow{V_2O_5} 2SO_3(g) \) is exothermic.
• (1) \( i, ii, iii \)
• (2) \( ii, iii, iv \)
• (3) \( i, iv \)
• (4) \( iii, iv \)

The iodine oxide which is used in the estimation of carbon monoxide is:

• (1) \( I_2O_4 \)
• (2) \( I_2O_5 \)
• (3) \( I_2O_7 \)
• (4) \( I_2O \)

Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus has two P-H bonds?

• (1) Hypophosphoric acid
• (2) Orthophosphoric acid
• (3) Pyrophosphoric acid
• (4) Hypophosphorous acid

The metal having the highest melting point among lanthanides is

• (1) Ce
• (2) Sm
• (3) Yb
• (4) Dy

Which of the following is correct?

• (1) Ruby is \( Al_2O_3 \) containing 5% \( Cr^{3+} \) ions
• (2) \( Mn_2(CO)_{10} \) contains two bridged carbonyl groups
• (3) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \) is an inner orbital complex whereas \( [Ni(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \) is an outer orbital complex
• (4) \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \), \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \) both have tetrahedral geometry

Match the following:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-I
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-III
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I

The amino acid obtained from cheese is

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Which of the following is used as a substitute for sucrose?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (3)
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An alkene \( X \) (\( C_5H_{10} \)) on reaction with \( HBr \) gave \( Y \) (\( C_5H_{11}Br \)). \( Y \) undergoes hydrolysis via an \( S_N1 \) mechanism. What is \( X \)?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (4)
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The products of the following reactions \( X \) and \( Y \) respectively are



Reaction:

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

What are the reagents A, B, C respectively in the following reaction sequence?


Reaction Sequence:

• (1) \(KMnO_4/OH^- ; NH_3 ; P_2O_5\)
• (2) \(KMnO_4/OH^- ; NH_3 ; Br_2/OH^- \)
• (3) \(CrO_2Cl_2, H^+ ; NH_2OH ; (CH_3CO)_2O \)
• (4) \(CrO_2Cl_2, H^+ ; NH_2OH ; P_2O_5 \)

Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition.


Given compounds:

• (1) \(A > C > D > B\)
• (2) \(A > C > B > D\)
• (3) \(C > A > D > B\)
• (4) \(C > A > B > D\)

Which of the following sequence of reagents converts benzoic acid to benzaldehyde?

• (1) \( C_2H_5OH, H^+ \); (i) DIBAL-H (ii) \( H_2O \)
• (2) \( SOCl_2 \); \( H_2, Ni \)
• (3) \( C_2H_5OH, H^+ \); \( LiAlH_4, H_2O \)
• (4) \( LiAlH_4, H_2O \); \( KMnO_4, H^+ \)

An organic compound \( C_7H_5N \) on reduction with reagent X gave Y. Reaction of Y with p-toluene sulphonyl chloride gave Z which is insoluble in alkali. X and Y respectively are:

• (1) \( LiAlH_4,\)
• (2) \( NaBH_4,\)
• (3) \( H_2 | Ni,\)
• (4) \( H_2 | Ni,\)

Correct Answer:{(4) \( H_2 | Ni \), 
View Solution