TS EAMCET 2024 Question Paper May 7 Shift 2: Download BiPC Question Paper with Solutions PDF

The question asks for an example of RNA-containing viruses.

• (A) Small pox virus and TMV
• (B) Adeno virus and HIV
• (C) TMV and HIV
• (D) Adeno virus and TMV

Asexual spores are generally not found in:

• (A) Basidiomycetes
• (B) Deuteromycetes
• (C) Ascomycetes
• (D) Phycomycetes

Match the following:


The correct answer is

• (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Sexual reproduction in plants was discovered by:

• (1) Linnaeus
• (2) Camerarius
• (3) Hutchinson
• (4) Bessey

Identify true sentences regarding leaf modifications in Nepenthes:

A. Petiole upper part is modified into tendril.
B. Petiole lower part is modified into phyllode.
C. Lamina is modified into pitcher.
D. Petiole lower part is modified into lid of pitcher.

• (1) B, C and D
• (2) A, B and C
• (3) A, B and D
• (4) A, C and D

Male flowers, female flowers and sterile gall flowers are present in:

• (1) Polychasial cyme
• (2) Verticillaster
• (3) Cyathium
• (4) Hypanthodium

Identify incorrect match:

A. Asparagus - Cladode - Balancing roots

B. Bougainvillea - Thorn - Runner

C. Dioscorea - Bulbil - Vegetative reproduction

D. Casuarina - Phylloclade - Xerophyte

• (1) A and B
• (2) A and C
• (3) B and C
• (4) B and D

Which of the following statement is correct?

• 1. Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
  2. Xenogamy occur by wind pollination only
  3. Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
  4. Zostera exhibits epihydrophily

Floral formula of mustard plant of Brassicaceae family is:

Characters of sunflower ovule.

I. Micropyle lie close to funicle

II. Inverted ovule

III. Ovule curvature is 180°

IV. Curved embryo sac

• (1) \( I, II \, and \, IV \)
• (2) \( I, II \, and \, III \)
• (3) \( I, II \, and \, III \)
• (4) \( I, II \, and \, IV \)

Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton?

• (1) Helps in intracellular transport
• (2) Mechanical support
• (3) Intercellular transport
• (4) Cell shape maintenance

‘A’ diploid chromosome number is 4. ‘B’ haploid chromosome number is twice to that of A. ‘C’ diploid chromosome number is thrice to that of A. A, B and C respectively are

• (1) \( A = Maize, B = House fly, C = Onion \)
• (2) \( A = Housefly, B = Potato, C = Onion \)
• (3) \( A = Haplopappus, B = House fly, C = Tomato \)
• (4) \( A = Haplopappus, B = Onion, C = House fly \)

Identify the wrong statement of the following:

• 1. Peroxisomes participate in photorespiration
  2. Lysosomes perform glycolate cycle
  3. Endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum, golgi, vacuoles, and lysosomes
  4. Aleuroplasts store proteins

Match the following:




The correct answer is

• (1) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
• (2) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• (3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• (4) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of

• (1) \( 2 \, polar nuclei and 1 synergid cell nucleus \)
• (2) \( 1 \, polar nuclei, 1 antipodal cell nucleus and 1 synergid cell nucleus \)
• (3) \( 2 \, polar nuclei and 1 male gamete nucleus \)
• (4) \( 2 \, antipodal cell nuclei and 1 male gamete nucleus \)

Identify the correct matching:

• (1) I and III
• (2) II and IV
• (3) I and II
• (4) \textbf{III and IV}

Based on the figure given below, which of the following statements are not correct?

• (1) Movement of solvent molecules occur from chamber A to B
• (2) Movement of solute molecules occur from chamber A to B
• (3) Semipermeable membrane is prerequisite for the process
• (4) Rate of osmosis depends on pressure gradient and concentration gradient of solutes

Match the following:








The correct answer is

• (1) \= A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. \= A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  3. \= A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. \= A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Choose the correct combination

Match the following:

Assertion (A): In Arachis, fruits are geocarpic.

Reason (R): Seeds are non-endospermic in Arachis.

• (1) \( (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (2) \( (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (3) \( (A) is correct but (R) is not correct \)
• (4) \( (A) is not correct but (R) is correct \)

Identify the wrong match.
I.  Acidy amino acid            Valine

II Neutral amino acid          Tryptophan

III. Aromatic amino acid      Tyrosine

IV. Basic amino acid             Lysine

• (1) \( I and III \)
• (2) \( I and II \)
• (3) \( I and IV \)
• (4) \( II and IV \)

Identify correct statements
   (1) In C\(_4\) plants PEP carboxylase is present in mesophyll cells.
   (2) In C\(_4\) plants mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme.

• (3) In C\(_4\) plants bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO enzyme.
• (4) In C\(_4\) plants bundle sheath cells lack PEP carboxylase.
• (1) I, II, III and IV
• (2) I, II and IV
• (3) II, III and IV
• (4) I, III and IV

Match the following


The correct answer is:

   (1)  A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Identify the enzyme of the following reaction: Phosphoglyceric acid + ATP \xrightarrow{Enzyme} Bisphosphoglyceric acid + ADP 

• (1) Phosphoglycero carboxylase
• (2) Phosphoglycero mutase
• (3) Phosphoglycero oxidase
• (4) {Phosphoglycerokinase}

Observe the diagrammatic representation of ATP synthesis in oxysome of mitochondria. Identify A, B and C respectively.

• (1) \( 3H^{+}, F_0, F_1 \)
• (2) \( 2H^{+}, F_1, F_0 \)
• (3) \( 3e^{-}, F_1, F_0 \)
• (4) \( 1H^{+}, F_0, F_1 \)

Find out A, B, C, and D products of anaerobic respiration pathway cited below

• (1) \( A- Glucose, B- Pyruvic acid, C- Ethanol, D- Sucrose \)
• (2) \( A- Glucose, B- Pyruvic acid, C- Ethanol, D- Lactic acid \)
• (3) \( A- Glucose, B- Pyruvic acid, C- Lactic acid, D- Ethanol \)
• (4) \( A- Glucose, B- Lactose, C- Ethanol, D- Pyruvic acid \)

Assertion (A): Abscisic acid is called stress hormone.

Reason (R): Abscisic acid increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.

• (1) \( (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (2) \( (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (3) \( (A) is correct but (R) is not correct \)
• (4) \( (A) is not correct but (R) is correct \)

Mad Cow disease causing prion, may reach man through beef and cause

• (1) \( Hepatitis B disease \)
• (2) \( Chicken Pox disease \)
• (3) \( Influenza disease \)
• (4) \( Creutzfeldt - Jacob disease \)

Match the following





The correct answer is

• (1) \( A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III \)
• (2) \( A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III \)
• (3) \( A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV \)
• (4) \( A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III \)

The separated DNA fragments can be visualised after staining with 'X' and exposure to 'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y' are

• (1) \( Ethidium iodide, \, X = X-Rays, Y = X-Rays \)
• (2) \( Ethidium bromide, \, X = UV-Rays, Y = UV-Rays \)
• (3) \( Ethidium chloride, \, X = \gamma-Rays, Y = \gamma-Rays \)
• (4) \( Ethidium fluoride, \, X = \beta-Rays, Y = \beta-Rays \)

Assertion (A): \( \sigma \) (Sigma) and \( \rho \) (Rho) factors are essential for transcription in bacteria.
Reason (R): \( \sigma \) (sigma) factor helps in initiation and \( \rho \) (Rho) factor helps in termination of transcription.

• (1) \( (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (2) \( (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) \)
• (3) \( (A) is correct but (R) is not correct \)
• (4) \( (A) is not correct but (R) is correct \)

Dual functions of codon AUG

• (1) Initiator codon and code for phenylalanine 
• (2) Universal codon and code for phenylalanine 
• (3) End codon and code for methionine 
• (4) Initiator codon and code for methionine 

Identify wrong matching

I.  Roundup ready = Soyabean = Herbicide tolerant

II.  Transgenic Plant = Papaya = Pseudomonas resistant

III. Taipei variety = Rice = rich in Vitamin B

IV.  Flavr savr = Tomato  = Bruise resistant

• (1) \( I and IV \)
• (2) \( III and IV \)
• (3) \( II and III \)
• (4) \( I and II \)

Assertion (A): Protoxin of Bacillus thuringensis become active in gut of insects.

Reason (R): Alkaline pH of intestine gut solubilizes the crystals of toxin to make it active.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 

In Morgan’s experiments on Drosophila linkage, the percentage of white-eyed, yellow body recombinants and the percentage of white-eyed, miniature winged recombinants in F\textsubscript{2} generation respectively:

• (1) 37.2% and 1.3%
• (2) 1.3% and 37.2%
• (3) 62.8% and 37.2%
• (4) 98.7% and 1.3%

Arrange the ratios in the order of monohybrid test cross: incomplete dominance; and dihybrid cross.

• (A) \( 9:3:3:1 \)
• (B) \( 1:2:1 \)
• (C) \( 1:1 \)
• (1) B-C-A
• (2) C-B-A
• (3) B-A-C
• (4) A-B-C

Match the following




The correct answer is

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Match the following:

• (1) I-D-W, II-C-X, III-B-Y, IV-A-Z
• (2) I-D-W, II-C-X, III-A-Y, IV-B-Z
• (3) I-C-W, II-D-X, III-B-Z, IV-A-Y
• (4) I-A-Y, II-C-X, III-D-W, IV-B-Z

Cyclosporin A is produced by:

• (1) Trichoderma polysporum
• (2) Monascus purpureus
• (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
• (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:

[(I)] All the threatened species are listed in red data book
[(II)] National parks, Sanctuaries, Biosphere Reserves etc. are some of the methods of ex-situ conservation
[(III)] An area which is set aside, minimally disturbed for conservation of the resources of an area is called Biosphere Reserve
[(IV)] \(\beta\)-diversity is measured by counting the number of taxa within a particular area

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, IV

Study of cell as a structural and functional unit of living organisms is called:

• (1) Anatomy
• (2) Cytology
• (3) Morphology
• (4) Cell Biology

Assertion (A): Pancreas is a merocrine gland.

Reason (R): The apical parts of the pancreatic cells are pinched off along with the secretory product.

• (1) \( (A) \) and \( (R) \) are correct. \( (R) \) is the correct explanation of \( (A) \)
• (2) \( (A) \) and \( (R) \) are correct, but \( (R) \) is not the correct explanation of \( (A) \)
• (3) \( (A) \) is correct, but \( (R) \) is not correct
• (4) \( (A) \) is not correct, but \( (R) \) is correct

Match the following




The correct answer is

• (1) \( A-III, \, B-I, \, C-IV, \, D-II \)
• (2) \( A-III, \, B-I, \, C-V, \, D-II \)
• (3) \( A-IV, \, B-I, \, C-II, \, D-III \)
• (4) \( A-II, \, B-V, \, C-I, \, D-III \)

Parazoans exhibit:

• (1) Tissue level organization
• (2) Organ level organization
• (3) Cellular level organization
• (4) Organ system level organization

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

Botryoidal tissue in body cavity is characteristic of:

• (1) Cockroach
• (2) Earthworm
• (3) Liver fluke
• (4) Leech

Match the following:



The correct answer is

• (1) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Vertebrae of birds are

• (1) Procoelous
• (2) Opisthocoelous
• (3) Amphicoelous
• (4) Heterocoelous

Pseudopodia in Euglpha are

• (1) Lobopodia
• (2) Filopodia
• (3) Reticulopodia
• (4) Axopodia

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:
(I) Due to Sacculina, its host becomes sterile
(II) Plasmodium frequently changes its surface antigens
(III) Fasciola causes hypertrophy of RBC in sheep
(IV) Malaria is spread by female Culex

• (1) I,II
• (2) II,III
• (3) III,IV
• (4) I,IV

Assertion (A) : Eggs of Ascaris are described as mamillated eggs.
Reason (R) : Each egg is surrounded by a protein coat with rippled surface.

• (1)  (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 

Marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja are described as

• (1) Opioids
• (2) Cannabinoids
• (3) Barbiturates
• (4) Amphetamines

Identify the hyperparasite

• (1) Sphaerospora
• (2) Ascaris
• (3) Entamoeba
• (4) Nosema

In cockroach, depression of wings is due to contraction of

• (1) Dorsoventral muscles
• (2) Alary muscles
• (3) Dorsolongitudinal muscles
• (4) Adductor muscles

In cockroach expiration takes place through

• (1) Prothoracic spiracles
• (2) Thoracic spiracles
• (3) All spiracles
• (4) Abdominal spiracles

Statement I: Spiral cuticular thickenings of trachea in cockroach are called taenidia.
Statement II: In cockroach, inspiration is a passive process.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is correct. But II is false
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is correct

The oriented locomotor movements of an organism towards or away from light is known as

• (1) Phototaxis
• (2) Photokinesis
• (3) Phototropism
• (4) Photoperiodism

Statement I:Natural aging of a lake by enrichment of nutrients is known as eutrophication.

Statement II:Increase of concentration of pollutant at successive trophic levels in aquatic food chain is known as biomagnification.

• (1) Both statements I and II are true.
• (2) Both statements I and II are false.
• (3) Statement I is true. But II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true.

Match the following




The correct answer is

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-V
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

These enzymes function actively in acidic medium.

• (1) Trypsin and chymotrypsin
• (2) Tripeptidase and steapsin
• (3) Rennin and pepsin
• (4) Dipeptidase and enterokinase

Assertion(A) :The reaction between \( CO_2 \) and \( H_2O \) in the RBC is much faster than in blood plasma.
Reason(R) :Red blood cells contain a very high concentration of carbonic anhydrase

• (1)  (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 
• (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 

Statement I:Angina pectoris is a warning signal of deprivation of blood supply to the heart muscles.

Statement II:Coronary artery disease is also called atherosclerotic heart disease.

• (1) Both statements I and II are true.
• (2) Both statements I and II are false.
• (3) Statement I is true. But II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true.

During glomerular filtration, net filtration pressure that causes filtration of blood in glomerular capillaries of Bowman's capsule is

• (1) \( 60 \, mm Hg \)
• (2) \( 18 \, mm Hg \)
• (3) \( 32 \, mm Hg \)
• (4) \( 10 \, mm Hg \)

The thick filaments in a sarcomere of a myofibril are held together by a thin fibrous membrane called

• (1) Dobie’s line
• (2) Krause’s membrane
• (3) Z – Line
• (4) M – Line

Study the following and pick up the incorrect statements:

I.The axolemma has more \( K^+ \) leakage channels than \( Na^+ \) leakage channels.

II.Ligand gated channels open or close in response to electrical stimuli.

III.Voltage gated channels open in response to a change in membrane potential.

IV.Speed of conduction of nerve impulse is more in non myelinated nerve fibre than the myelinated nerve fibre.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

The secretions of this gland play major role in differentiation of T- lymphocytes.

• (1) Pineal gland
• (2) Thymus gland
• (3) Thyroid gland
• (4) Adrenal gland

Match the following:




The correct answer is

• (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-V
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-I

These glands of the female reproductive system of human beings are homologous to the prostate gland of male:

• (1) Skene's glands
• (2) Bartholin's glands
• (3) Mammary glands
• (4) Bulbo urethral glands

Pick up the incorrect pair:

• (1) Natural method - Lactational amenorrhea
• (2) Barrier - Vault
• (3) Contraceptive pill - Saheli
• (4) Intra uterine device - Cervical cap

If karyotype of a Drosophila is AA-XXXY, its sexual phenotype is

• (1) Matafemale
• (2) Metamale
• (3) Intersex
• (4) Female with Y chromosome

It is an example for monosomy

• (1) Klinefelter syndrome
• (2) Turner syndrome
• (3) Down syndrome
• (4) Edward syndrome

Vision of the children born to a colour blind father and normal homozygous mother is

• (1) Normal
• (2) Females colour blind, males normal
• (3) Males colour blind, females carriers
• (4) Colour blind

Seymouria is a transitional form between

• (1) Fishes and amphibians
• (2) Amphibians and reptiles
• (3) Reptiles and birds
• (4) Birds and mammals

Statement I:Disruptive selection operates when homogeneous environment changes into a heterogeneous type.

Statement II: Change the frequency of a gene that occurs by chance and not by selection in small populations is called directional selection

• (1) Both statements I and II are true
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is true. But II is false
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true

Existence of deleterious genes in a population is called:

• (1) Gene flow
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Genetic load
• (4) Sewall Wright effect

Assertion (A): Influenza vaccine is an inactivated whole agent vaccine.


Reason (R): It contains killed microbes.

• (1) \( A \) and \( R \) are correct. \( R \) is the correct explanation of \( A \).
• (2) \( A \) and \( R \) are correct, but \( R \) is not the correct explanation of \( A \).
• (3) \( A \) is correct but \( R \) is not correct.
• (4) \( A \) is not correct but \( R \) is correct.

Tall T-wave in an ECG indicates ECG

• (1) \( Hypokalemia \)
• (2) \( Hyperkalemia \)
• (3) \( Bradycardia \)
• (4) \( Tachycardia \)

Match the following





The correct answer is

   (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-II

The theory currently accepted as proper framework for explaining microscopic phenomena is

• (1) Classical physics
• (2) Quantum theory
• (3) Wave theory
• (4) Electromagnetic theory

The displacement of a particle in wave motion is given by:
y = a \sin (\beta x + \gamma t) where \( x \) and \( t \) represent displacement and time, respectively. Then, the dimensional formula for
\frac{\beta{\gamma is:

• (1) \(\mathbf{[M^0L^1T^{-1}]}\)
• (2) \(\mathbf{[M^0L^1T^{0}]}\)
• (3) \(\mathbf{[M^1L^1T^{-1}]}\)
• (4) \(\mathbf{[M^1L^0T^{-1}]}\)

A body thrown vertically upwards with certain velocity from the ground reaches a maximum height \( H \). The ratio of the times at which the body is at a height of \( \frac{H}{2} \) is:

• (1) \( 3:2 \)
• (2) \( \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2} \)
• (3) \( (\sqrt{3} - 1) : (\sqrt{3} + 1) \)
• (4) \(\mathbf{(\sqrt{2} -1) : (\sqrt{2} +1)}\)

The maximum range of a projectile is 80 m. If the projectile is projected with the same speed at an angle of \( \frac{\pi}{12} \) with the horizontal, then the range of the projectile is:

• (1) \(\mathbf{40 m}\)
• (2) \(80 m\)
• (3) \(20 m\)
• (4) \(60 m\)

A force of 20 N acts on a body at rest for a time of 2 s and then a force of 60 N acts for a time of 1.5 s in the opposite direction. If the final velocity of the body is 10 m/s in the direction of the 60 N force, then the mass of the body is:

• (1) \( 10 kg \)
• (2) \( 8 kg \)
• (3) \(\mathbf{5 kg}\)
• (4) \( 16 kg \)

A body of mass 4 kg is falling freely from rest from a height of 30 m from the ground. If the velocity of the body when it is at a height of 10 m from the ground is 10 m/s\(^1\), then the loss of energy due to air resistance on the body is:

• (1) \( 400 \, J \)
• (2) \( 600 \, J \)
• (3) \( 300 \, J \)
• (4) \( 100 \, J \)

A ball of mass 200 g moving with certain velocity collides with another ball of mass 600 g at rest.
If the coefficient of restitution is 0.6, the ratio of the velocity of 600 g ball after collision
and the velocity of 200 g ball before collision is:

• (1) \( 1:2 \)
• (2) \( 3:5 \)
• (3) \( 2:3 \)
• (4) \(\mathbf{2:5}\)

A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal surface without slipping. The ratio of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of the sphere is

• (1) \( 3:2 \)
• (2) \( 7:2 \)
• (3) \( 5:2 \)
• (4) \( 7:5 \)

Two particles each of mass \(m\) are separated by a distance \(d\). If the mass of one of the particles is doubled without changing the distance between the two particles, then the shift in the position of the center of mass is

• (1) \( \frac{d}{6} \)
• (2) \( \frac{d}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{d}{4} \)
• (4) \( \frac{d}{5} \)

The time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is \( T \). The time period of the same pendulum at a height of 1280 km from the surface of the earth is

• (1) \( 1.5T \)
• (2) \( 1.2T \)
• (3) \( 2T \)
• (4) \( 2.4T \)

The escape speed of a body from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s.
The escape speed of a body from the surface of a planet whose mass is 8 times that of the earth
and mean density same as that of the earth is:

• (1) \( 5.6 km/s \)
• (2) \( 16.8 km/s \)
• (3) \( 11.2 km/s \)
• (4) \(\mathbf{22.4 km/s}\)

If the length of a cylinder made with a material of Poisson’s ratio 0.4 is increased by 5%, then the decrease in its diameter is:

• (1) \( 0.5% \)
• (2) \( 2.0% \)
• (3) \( 1.0% \)
• (4) \( 1.5% \)

A 31.4 kg girl wearing high heel shoes balances on a single heel. The heel is circular with a diameter of 2 cm. The pressure exerted by the heel on the horizontal floor is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s\(^2\)):

• (1) \( 10^6 \, Pa \)
• (2) \( 2.5 \times 10^5 \, Pa \)
• (3) \( 10^5 \, Pa \)
• (4) \( 2.5 \times 10^6 \, Pa \)

Two soap bubbles of volumes \( 27V \) and \( 64V \) coalesce under isothermal conditions.
The volume of the bigger bubble formed is:

• (1) \( 225V \)
• (2) \( 91V \)
• (3) \( 105V \)
• (4) 125V

Consider an isolated system of two concentric spherical black bodies.
The inner sphere of radius \( R \) is at temperature \( T \),
and the outer sphere of radius \( 4R \) is at temperature \( 2T \).
The rate of absorption of radiant energy by the outer sphere is:

• (1) \( \mathbf{4 \sigma \pi R^2 T^4} \)
• (2) \( 8 \sigma \pi R^2 T^4 \)
• (3) \( 16 \sigma \pi R^2 T^4 \)
• (4) \( 64 \sigma \pi R^2 T^4 \)

Three identical rods are joined as shown in the figure.
The left and right ends are kept at \( 0^\circ C \) and \( 90^\circ C \) as shown in the figure.
The temperature \( \theta \) at the junction of the rods is:

• (1) \( \mathbf{60^\circ C} \)
• (2) \( 45^\circ C \)
• (3) \( 30^\circ C \)
• (4) \( 20^\circ C \)

The gas that gives the highest fractional conversion of heat to work in an isobaric process is:

• (1) Monatomic gas
• (2) Diatomic gas
• (3) Polyatomic gas
• (4) All types of gases give the same fractional conversion

If the average speed of molecules of an ideal gas in a container is doubled
and the volume of the container is halved, then the increase in the pressure of the gas is:

• (1) \( 100% \)
• (2) \( 400% \)
• (3) \( 800% \)
• (4) 700%

A and B are two points of a string, in which a standing wave of wavelength \( \lambda \) is set up.
If the distance between the points A and B is \( \frac{3\lambda}{4} \), then the phase difference between A and B is:

• (1) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
• (4) \pi

Consider the wave represented by the equation \( y = (0.02) \sin \left( \pi x + 8\pi t \right) \), where all quantities are in SI units. The wavelength and speed of this wave respectively are \( y = (0.02) \sin \left( \pi x + 8\pi t \right) \).

• (1) \( 2 \, m, \, 8 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (2) \( 2 \, m, \, 0.02 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (3) \( 0.02 \, m, \, 8 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (4) \( 4 \, m, \, 8 \, ms^{-1} \)

A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.3.
If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, then the focal length of the lens
when immersed in the liquid is:

• (1) \( 20 \) cm
• (2) \( 35 \) cm
• (3) \( \mathbf{65} \) cm
• (4) \( 40 \) cm

When a light ray incident on an equilateral prism, the angle of minimum deviation is found to be half of the angle of prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism is:

• (1) 1.5
• (2) 2
• (3) \( \sqrt{3} \)
• (4) \( \sqrt{2} \)

In Young's double slit experiment, the wavelength of the monochromatic light used is \( \lambda \), the distance between the slits is \( 5\lambda \) and the distance of the screen from the plane of the slits is 100 cm. If the maximum intensity on the screen is \( I_0 \), then the intensity at a point on the screen which is at 5 cm from the central maximum is:

• (1) \( \frac{I_0}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3I_0}{4} \)
• (3) \( \frac{I_0}{4} \)
• (4) \( I_0 \)

Sixteen point charges each of charge \( q \) are placed on the circumference of a circle of radius \( r \) with equal angular spacing. If one of the charges is removed, then the net electric field at the centre of the circle is \( \varepsilon_0 \) (where \( \varepsilon_0 \) is the permittivity of free space). What is the net electric field at the centre?

• (1) \( \frac{14q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{16q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{q}{2\pi \varepsilon_0 r^2} \)

The radii of two conducting spheres A and B of each charge +90 µC are 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. When the two spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then the charge flowing from sphere A to sphere B is:

• (1) \( 15 \, \mu C \)
• (2) \( 30 \, \mu C \)
• (3) \( 10 \, \mu C \)
• (4) \( 45 \, \mu C \)

The relation between the charge \( Q \) (in coulombs) passing through a resistor of resistance 200 \(\Omega\) and the time of flow of charge \( t \) (in seconds) is \( Q = 3t - 4t^2 \). The total heat produced in the resistor up to the time when instantaneous current becomes zero is:

• (1) \( 225 \, J \)
• (2) \( 200 \, J \)
• (3) \( 450 \, J \)
• (4) \( 400 \, J \)

A cell of emf 2 V is connected to an external resistor. If the current through the resistor is 200 mA and the terminal voltage of the cell is 87.5% of the emf of the cell, then the internal resistance of the cell is:

• (1) \( 1.50 \, \Omega \)
• (2) \( 1.25 \, \Omega \)
• (3) \( 2 \, \Omega \)
• (4) \( 2.25 \, \Omega \)

A galvanometer of resistance 99.9 \( \Omega \) gives a full scale deflection when 5 mA current is passed through it. The resistance to be connected to the galvanometer such that it can be converted into an ammeter of range 0-5 A is:

• (1) \( 0.01 \, \Omega \)
• (2) \( 10 \, \Omega \)
• (3) \( 1 \, \Omega \)
• (4) \( 0.1 \, \Omega \)

A current carrying wire is first bent in the form of a circular loop and then bent in the form of a square loop. The ratio of the magnetic fields induced at the centres of the loops in the two cases is:

• (1) \( \frac{\pi^2}{4\sqrt{3}} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\pi^2}{8\sqrt{2}} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}} \)

A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube of side 3 cm has a magnetic moment of \(243 \times 10^{-6}\) Am\(^2\), when a magnetic field of intensity \(150 \times 10^{3}\) Am\(^{-1}\) is applied. The susceptibility of the substance is:

• (1) \(8 \times 10^{-5}\)
• (2) \(12 \times 10^{-5}\)
• (3) \(6 \times 10^{-5}\)
• (4) \(3 \times 10^{-5}\)

A coil of 100 turns and 0.10 m\(^2\) area, making two rotations per second is placed in a 0.01 T uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its axis of rotation. The maximum voltage generated in the coil is:

• (1) 0.1 V
• (2) 12.56 V
• (3) 1.256 V
• (4) 0.628 V

Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a circuit only if:

• (1) L and R are present in the circuit
• (2) C and R are present in the circuit
• (3) R and Z are present in the circuit
• (4) L and C are present in the circuit

The physical quantity which has the same value for green light, \(\gamma\)-radiation, and X-rays is:

• (1) Frequency
• (2) Momentum
• (3) Wavelength
• (4) Speed

A photoelectron emitted when a light of wavelength 2480 \(\mathring{A}\) falls on a metal, enters a uniform magnetic field of \( \frac{1}{4} \times 10^{-5} \) T perpendicular to it and moves in a circular path of maximum radius 1 m. The work function of the metal is nearly:

• (1) \( 2.45 \) eV
• (2) \( 3.45 \) eV
• (3) \( 4.45 \) eV
• (4) \( 1.45 \) eV

If the total energy of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is \(-13.6\) eV, then the potential and kinetic energies of an electron in this state respectively are:

• (1) \( 27.2 \) eV and \( 13.6 \) eV
• (2) \( -13.6 \) eV and \( -27.2 \) eV
• (3) \( -27.2 \) eV and \( 13.6 \) eV
• (4) \( 27.2 \) eV and \( -13.6 \) eV

If a substance decays from 32 g to 1 g in 25 days, then its half-life is:

• (1) 3 days
• (2) 4 days
• (3) 5 days
• (4) 6 days

Reactor used to produce fissile material is:

• (1) batch reactor
• (2) breeder reactor
• (3) chemical reactor
• (4) pipe reactor

The energy gap between conduction and valence bands of silicon is:

• (1) 5.4 eV
• (2) 1.1 eV
• (3) 0.7 eV
• (4) 1.4 eV

The current gain of a transistor in common emitter configuration is 45. If the resistances in collector and base sides of the circuit are 4.5 kΩ and 900 Ω, the voltage gain of the amplifier is:

• (1) 90
• (2) 150
• (3) 225
• (4) 135

The height of a transmitting antenna is 320 m and the height of a receiving antenna is 20 m. The maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode is:

• (1) 16 km
• (2) 64 km
• (3) 80 km
• (4) 45.5 km

Which of the following gives proof of quantized electronic energy levels in hydrogen atom?

• (1) Atomic spectrum
• (2) Photoelectric effect
• (3) Emission of blackbody radiation
• (4) Davisson - Germer experiment

What is the energy (in J) required to transfer the electron from \( n = 1 \) to \( n = 2 \) state in \( Li^{2+} \)? (K = constant \( 2.18 \times 10^{-18} \) J)

• (1) \( \frac{4K}{27} \)
• (2) \( 9K \)
• (3) \( 8K \)
• (4) \( \frac{27K}{4} \)

Match the following





The correct answer is

• (1) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
• (2) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
• (3) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
• (4) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III

The electronic configuration of four elements are given below:



The correct order of magnitude (without sign) of their electron gain enthalpies is:

• (1) \( II > III > IV > I \)
• (2) \( II > I > III > IV \)
• (3) \( I > IV > III \)
• (4) \( II > I > IV > III \)

Identify the sets containing isostructural molecules from the following
I. \(SiF_4\), \(SF_4\)

II. \(IO_3^-\), \(XeO_3\)

III. \(BH_4^-\), \(NH_4^+\)

IV, \(PF_6^-\), \(SF_6\)

The correct option is

• (2) I, II, III only
• (3) III, IV only
• (4) II, IV only

Which one of the following order is correct regarding the covalent character of given molecules?

• (A) \( KF > KI \)
• (B) \( SnCl_2 > SnCl_4 \)
• (C) \( LiF > KF \)
• (D) \( NaCl > CuCl \)

At \( T(K) \), three moles of an ideal gas is present in a 10 L vessel. If the kinetic energy of an ideal gas is \( 3000 \) J mol\(^{-1}\), the approximate pressure of the gas (in atm) is:

• (1) \( 59.2 \)
• (2) \( 5.92 \)
• (3) \( 0.592 \)
• (4) \( 11.84 \)

A hydrocarbon containing C and H has 92.3% of C. When 52 g of hydrocarbon is completely burnt in oxygen, \( x \) moles of water and \( y \) moles of CO\(_2\) were formed. The liberated water is sufficient to liberate one mole of H\(_2\) when reacted with sodium metal. What is the weight (in g) of O\(_2\) consumed?

• (1) \( 80 \) g
• (2) \( 160 \) g
• (3) \( 240 \) g
• (4) \( 320 \) g

At \( T(K) \), a vessel contains \( V \) litres of an ideal gas. The vessel was partitioned into three equal parts. The volume (in L) and temperature (in K) in each part are respectively

• (1) \( \frac{V}{3} \, , \frac{T}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{V}{3} \, , T \)
• (3) \( 3V \, , T \)
• (4) \( \frac{V}{3} \, , 3T \)

Identify the reaction for which \( K_p = K_c \):

• (1) \( A_2(g) + B_2(g) \rightleftharpoons A_2B_4(g) \)
• (2) \( 2A_2(g) + B_2(g) \rightleftharpoons A_4B_2(g) \)
• (3) \( A_2(g) + B_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2AB(g) \)
• (4) \( A_2(s) + B_2(g) \rightleftharpoons C_2(s) \)

What is X in the following reaction? \[ CO(g) + 2H_2(g) \xrightarrow{X} CH_3OH(l) \]

• (1) \( Co \)
• (2) \( Mg/dry ether \)
• (3) \( Na \)
• (4) \( Mo_2O_3 \)

The number of products formed by thermal decomposition of lithium nitrate, sodium nitrate respectively are:

• (1) 2, 3
• (2) 2, 2
• (3) 3, 3
• (4) 3, 2

Which of the following statements are not correct?

i) BeO has rock-salt structure 

ii) BeSO_4 is readily soluble in water 

iii) The maximum coordination number of beryllium is four 

iv) Be(OH)_2 is basic in nature 

• (1) ii, iii only
• (2) ii, iii, iv
• (3) i, iv only
• (4) iii, iv only

Observe the following compounds/ions: \[ H_3BO_3, \, [B(OH)_4]^-, \, BH_4^-, \, [BCI_3 \cdot NH_3], \, SiO_4^{2-} \]
The number of compounds/ions with tetrahedral shape is:

• (1) 5
• (2) 4
• (3) 2
• (4) 3

Which of the following sets of oxides are correctly matched?

Which radical is responsible for depletion of ozone in stratosphere?

• (A) \( \cdot Cl \)
• (B) \( \cdot F \)
• (C) \( \cdot CH_3 \)
• (D) \( \cdot CF_2Cl \)

The number of benzenoid and non-benzenoid aromatic species present in the following list are respectively
Naphthalene, Toluene, Cycloheptatrienyl cation, Anthracene

• (A) 3, 1
• (B) 2, 2
• (C) 4, 0
• (D) 0, 4

The IUPAC names of the compounds A and B respectively are

• (A) 1-Propyl-2-isopropylcyclopentane; 3-Hydroxycyclopentanamine
• (B) 1-Isopropyl-2-propylcyclopentane; 3-Aminocyclopentanol
• (C) 1-Isopropyl-2-propylcyclopentane; 3-Hydroxycyclopentanamine
• (D) 1-Propyl-2-isopropylcyclopentane; 3-Aminocyclopentanol

0.1435 g of silver chloride was obtained from 0.0945 g of an organic compound by Carius method. The percentage of chlorine by weight in the compound is (molar mass of AgCl = 143.5 g mol\(^{-1}\))

• (A) 18.9 %
• (B) 37.6 %
• (C) 24.9 %
• (D) 56.7 %

In the following reaction sequence X and Y respectively are

• (A) \( V_2O_5 \),
• (B) \( Cr_2O_3 \),
• (C) \( AlCl_3 \),
• (D) \( Cu \),

The diffraction pattern of a crystalline solid gave a peak at \( 2\theta = 60^\circ \). Its ‘d’ value is 1.54 Å. What is the wavelength (in cm) of X-rays used?

• (1) \( 1.54 \)
• (2) \( 8.89 \times 10^{-9} \)
• (3) \( 1.54 \times 10^{8} \)
• (4) \( 1.54 \times 10^{-8} \)

The concentration of 1 L of CaCO\(_3\) solution is \(10^{-5}\) M. Its concentration in ppm is.
(Ca=40u; C=12u; O=16u)

• (1) \(10\)
• (2) \(1000\)
• (3) \(100\)
• (4) \(1\)

The following graph is obtained for KCl solution at 300 K. What is \( \Lambda_m^0 \) (in S cm² mol\(^{-1}\)) of KCl?

• (1) \( 150 \)
• (2) \( 90 \)
• (3) \( 150 \times 90 \)
• (4) \( 150 + 90 \)

Identify the correct statements from the following:


I. The order of reaction is determined from experiment only

II.The order of reaction can be zero , positive integer or a fraction

III.In a multistep reaction, the slow step determines the rate

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, III only

The following graph is obtained for the adsorption of a gas on the surface of a catalyst. The values of k and n are respectively

\left( x\text{-axis = \log p ; \, y\text{-axis = \log \left( \frac{x{m \right)

• (1) \(2, \frac{1}{m}\)
• (2) \(1, 2\)
• (3) \(100, 1\)
• (4) \(m, 100\)

In which of the following metal extraction, \( CO_2 \) is used?

• (1) \( Cu \)
• (2) \( Zn \)
• (3) \( Fe \)
• (4) \( Al \)

The oxide of nitrogen, 'X' is a blue solid and is acidic in nature. \( X \) is

• (1) \( N_2O_4 \)
• (2) \( N_2O_3 \)
• (3) \( N_2O_5 \)
• (4) \( NO_2 \)

Observe the following reactions (not balanced)


\text{Cl_2 + \text{NaOH \rightarrow \text{NaCl + X + \text{H_2\text{O


\text{Cl_2 + \text{NaOH \rightarrow \text{NaCl + Y + \text{H_2\text{O

• (1) \( -1, \, +1 \)
• (2) \( +5, \, +1 \)
• (3) \( +1, \, -1 \)
• (4) \( +1, \, +5 \)

Which of the following is not correct?

• (1) XeO\(_2\) is a colourless explosive gas
• (2) SO\(_2\) is highly soluble in water
• (3) Noble gases have very low boiling points
• (4) The boiling point of sulphur is more than that of oxygen

Identify the oxidizing reactions of KMnO\(_4\) in acidic medium.

I.Liberation of iodine from KI

II.Conversion of \(Fe^{2+}\) to \(Fe^{3+}\)

III.Oxidation of nitrite to nitrate

IV.Oxidation of iodide to iodate

• (1) II, III, IV only
• (2) II, III only
• (3) I, III, IV only
• (4) I, II, III only

The set of complex ions having the same number of unpaired electrons is

• (1) \( [FeF_6]^{3-}, \, [MnCl_6]^{3-} \)
• (2) \( [Co(CO_4)]^{3-}, \, [CoF_6]^{3-} \)
• (3) \( [MnCl_6]^{3-}, \, [CoF_6]^{3-} \)
• (4) \( [FeCl_6]^{3-}, \, [CoF_6]^{3-} \)

A polymer contains 800 molecules of molar mass 1000, 100 molecules of molar mass 2000 and 100 molecules of molar mass 5000. What is its number average molecular weight (\(M_n\))?

• (1) 150
• (2) 15000
• (3) 1500
• (4) 150000

The vitamin that can be stored in the body and whose deficiency results in disease is:

• (1) Scurry
• (2) Rickets
• (3) Convulsions
• (4) Beri beri

The drug which is obtained from opium poppy and its use are respectively:

• (1) Heroin, antiseptic
• (2) Codeine, hypnotic
• (3) Morphine, analgesic
• (4) Aspirin, analgesic

Hydrolysis of an alkyl halide \( X \) (\(C_6H_5Br\)) follows second order kinetics. Reaction of \( X \) with \( C_6H_5Cl \) in the presence of Na/dry ether gave \( Y \). Oxidation of \( Y \) in the presence of \( KMnO_4 / OH^- \) gave \( Z \). What are \( Y \) and \( Z \) respectively?

A carbonyl compound \( X(C_3H_6O) \) on oxidation gave carboxylic acid \( Y(C_3H_6O_2) \). The oxime of \( X \) is:

• (1) \( CH_3CH_2CH = NNH_2 \)
• (2) \( CH_3CH_2CH = NOH \)
• (3) \( (CH_3)_2C = N-NH_2 \)
• (4) \( (CH_3)_2C = N-OH \)

Two statements are given below:

Statement I: The boiling points of alcohols increase with increase of branching in carbon chain.

Statement II: The solubility of alcohol decreases with increase in size of alkyl group.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct.
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct.
• (4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct.

Match the following carboxylic acids with their pKa values.

• (1) \ A-I, B-I, C-III
• (2) \ A-II, B-III, C-I
• (3) \ A-I, B-III, C-II
• (4) \ A-II, B-I, C-III

The major product of the following reaction is

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)