TS EAMCET 2024 Question Paper May 7 Shift 1 : Download BiPC Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Botany

Question 1:

Flask-shaped ascocarp with an apical opening is:

• (1) Perithecium
• (2) Cleistothecium
• (3) Apothecium
• (4) Cystocarp

In which of the following organisms, cell wall is not found in any stage?

• (1) Dinoflagellates
• (2) Chrysophytes
• (3) Slime moulds
• (4) Protozoans

Assertion (A): In Rhodophyceae, food is stored as floridean starch.

Reason (R): Floridean starch is similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• (4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Identify the wrong pair:

• (1) Pineapple - Bromeliaceae - Syconus
• (2) Paddy - Apiaceae - Legume
• (3) Cucumis - Poaceae - Caryopsis
• (4) Jackfruit - Moraceae - Sorosis
• (1) A, B, and D
• (2) A, C, and D
• (3) B, C, and D
• (4) A, B, and C

Match the following:

• (1) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
• (2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
• (3) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
• (4) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Genetic nature of Ribonucleic acid was discovered by:

• (1) Boveri
• (2) Hugo de Vries
• (3) Frankel Conrat
• (4) Khorana

Variation in lengths of filaments of stamens within a flower is seen in:

• (1) Salvinia and Brassica
• (2) Brassica and Musa
• (3) Salvia and Brassica
• (4) Salvia and Datura

Assertion (A): Direct pollination is found in gymnosperms.

Reason (R): Ovules of gymnosperms are naked.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• (4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) B-II, C-III, D-IV, A-I

Ategmic, Unitegmic, and Bitegmic ovules are present serially in:

• (1) Cycas - Loranthus - Helianthus
• (2) Lathyrus - Loranthus - Cycas
• (3) Loranthus - Cycas - Helianthus
• (4) Loranthus - Helianthus - Lathyrus

Floral formula of Solanum nigrum:

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-II, C-I, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-I

In one helix of DNA, minimum and maximum number of hydrogen bonds present between nitrogen bases:

• (1) 20 and 20
• (2) 20 and 30
• (3) 30 and 20
• (4) 30 and 40

The "R" group amino acids of Glycine, Alanine, and Serine respectively are:

• (1) \( CH_2OH; H; CH_2 \)
• (2) \( H; CH_2OH; CH_2 \)
• (3) \( H; CH_3; CH_2OH \)
• (4) \( H; CH_2; CH_2OH \)

Cell organelles included in the endomembrane system are:

• (1) Golgi, Lysosomes, and Vacuoles
• (2) Golgi, Mitochondria, and Vacuoles
• (3) Lysosomes, Ribosomes, and Vacuoles
• (4) Golgi, Chloroplasts, and Vacuoles

Dehydration occurs during the formation of the following types of bonds:

• (1) Peptide bond and Hydrogen bond
• (2) Hydrogen bond and Glycosidic bond
• (3) Hydrogen bond and Ester bond
• (4) Peptide bond, Glycosidic bond, and Ester bond

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

The site of transcription and translation in eukaryotic cells are respectively:

• (1) Nucleus; Cytoplasm
• (2) Tonoplast; Cytoplasm
• (3) Cytoplasm; Nucleus
• (4) Peroxisomes; Polysomes

Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are:

• (1) Complementary cells
• (2) Subsidiary cells
• (3) Bulliform cells
• (4) Lenticels

Identify the correct statement with reference to the diagram given below:

• (1) Water moves from A to B
• (2) Water moves from C to A
• (3) B has the highest water potential
• (4) C has the highest water potential

Identify the incorrect pair:

• (A) Casuarina — Succulent root — Phylloclade
• (B) Asparagus — Succulent leaf — Phylloclade
• (C) Opuntia — Succulent stem — Phylloclade
• (D) Aloe — Succulent leaf — Xerophyte
• (A) I and III
• (B) I and IV
• (C) I and II
• (D) III and IV

Assertion (A): Disulphide bridges help in stabilization of protein structure.

Reason (R): Sulphur forms disulphide bridges in the quaternary structure of proteins.

• (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• (D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Match the following:

• (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Per one Calvin cycle, the number of CO\(_2\) molecules fixed, ATP utilized, and the number of Glucose, NADPH molecules produced respectively are:

• (A) \( 6; 18; 1; 12 \)
• (B) \( 6; 12; 1; 18 \)
• (C) \( 6; 1; 12; 18 \)
• (D) \( 12; 1; 6; 18 \)

In C\(_4\) plants, the Oxaloacetic acid is formed by this reaction:

• (A) Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
• (B) Carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvic acid
• (C) Oxidation of malic acid
• (D) Oxidative decarboxylation of malic acid

Identify the correct sentences regarding the role of physiological responses of phytohormones:

I. Ethylene initiates sprouting of potato tubers

II. Gibberellins promote senescence

III. Auxins promote flowering in pineapple

IV, Abscisic acid inhibits seed germination
 

• (A) II, III, and IV
• (B) I, III, and IV
• (C) I, II, and IV
• (D) I, II, and III

Match the following:

• (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Substrate-level phosphorylation does not occur in the following reactions of aerobic respiration:

• (A) 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid → 3 phosphoglyceric acid
• (B) 3 phosphoglyceric acid → 2 phosphoglyceric acid
• (C) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid → Pyruvic acid
• (D) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid

Match the following:

• (A) I-A-Y; II-B-X; III-C-W; IV-D-Z
• (B) I-C-Z; II-B-Y; III-A-X; IV-D-W
• (C) I-D-W; II-B-X; III-C-Y; IV-A-Z
• (D) I-D-W; II-C-X; III-B-Y; IV-A-Z

Identify the correct combinations:

• (A) I and II
• (B) II and III
• (C) III and IV
• (D) I and IV

The table given below is related to the checkerboard of dihybrid F\(_2\) progeny of Mendel’s experiment. Identify the correct combinations:

• (A) I and II
• (B) II and IV
• (C) III and IV
• (D) I and IV

Assertion (A): Beggiatoa is not a chemoautotrophic bacterium.

Reason (R): Chemoautotrophic bacteria derive carbon from CO\(_2\) and energy from oxidation of inorganic compounds.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
• (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

In Morgan’s experiments on linkage in Drosophila, the percentage of white-eyed, miniature-winged recombinants in the F\(_2\) generation is:

• (A) 13%
• (B) 98.7%
• (C) 37.2%
• (D) 62.8%

Match the following:

• (A) A-IV, B-II, C-II, D-I
• (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Identify the correct definitions of the following molecular biology terms:

I. Splicing = Removal of introns

II. Capping = Addition of unusual methyl guanosine triphosphate added to 5" end of hn RNA

III. Tailing = Deletion of adenylate residues at 3'end of hn RNA

IV. Anticodon= Specifies termination of polynucleotide chain

• (A) I and II
• (B) II and III
• (C) III and IV
• (D) I and IV

Given is the schematic structure of the transcription unit. Select the correct answer regarding A, B, C, and D:

• (A) A - Terminator, B - Promoter, C - Template strand, D - Coding strand
• (B) A - Promoter, B - Terminator, C - Coding strand, D - Template strand
• (C) A - Promoter, B - Terminator, C - Template strand, D - Coding strand
• (D) A - Terminator, B - Promoter, C - Coding strand, D - Template strand

Tetracycline resistance gene of pBR322 consists of this restriction site:

• (A) BamHI
• (B) EcoRI
• (C) PstI
• (D) HindIII

Assertion (A): In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments get separated and move toward the anode.

Reason (R): DNA fragments are positively charged molecules.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq Polymerase) enzyme is isolated from the following bacterium:

• (A) Thiobacillus denitrificans
• (B) Haemophilus gallinarum
• (C) Thermus aquaticus
• (D) Salmonella typhi

Match the following:

• (A) I-d-s, II-c-r, III-a-q, IV-b-p
• (B) I-d-p, II-c-q, III-b-s, IV-a-r
• (C) I-c-q, II-d-s, III-b-r, IV-a-p
• (D) I-a-s, II-c-r, III-d-q, IV-b-p

Zoology

Question 41:

Study the following and pick the correct statements:

• (A) A biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat of extinction from humans is called a biosphere reserve.
• (B) Cryopreservation, in-vitro culture, gene banks, etc., are some methods of ex-situ conservation.
• (C) Species diversity between two adjacent ecosystems is called beta (\(\beta\)) diversity.
• (D) Digitalin is obtained from the Foxglove plant.
• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, IV

Maintenance of relatively constant internal conditions different from the surrounding environment is called:

• (A) Homeothermy
• (B) Haemostasis
• (C) Homeostasis
• (D) Homozygous

Assertion (A): Some adult gastropods (e.g., snail) are asymmetrical.

Reason (R): Torsion takes place during the development of gastropods.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
• (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Match the following:

• (A) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-II
• (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (D) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Symmetry of sea anemone is:

• (A) Asymmetry
• (B) Radial symmetry
• (C) Bilateral symmetry
• (D) Biradial symmetry

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (A) I and II
• (B) II and III
• (C) III and IV
• (D) I and IV

Auricularia is the larval form of:

• (A) Sea stars
• (B) Sea cucumbers
• (C) Sea urchins
• (D) Sea lilies

Match the following:

• (A) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-II
• (B) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II
• (C) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-IV
• (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-I

Number of cervical vertebrae in most mammals is:

• (A) 8
• (B) 7
• (C) 5
• (D) 11

Flagellum in Peranema is:

• (A) Stichonematic
• (B) Pantonematic
• (C) Acronematic
• (D) Pantacronematic

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:

• (A) Sphaerospora is a hyperparasite.
• (B) Housefly is a mechanical vector for Plasmodium.
• (C) Man is an intermediate host for Plasmodium.
• (D) Ascaris is a coelozoic parasite of man.

Assertion (A): Wuchereria bancrofti is an intercellular parasite.

Reason (R): It lives among the cells of the tissues of the host.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

In man, Microsporum causes:

• (A) Filaria
• (B) Typhoid
• (C) Ringworm
• (D) Malaria

It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine:

• (A) Cocaine
• (B) Charas
• (C) Heroin
• (D) Morphine

In cockroach, wings are elevated by the contraction of:

• (A) Dorso-ventral muscles
• (B) Alary muscles
• (C) Dorso-longitudinal muscles
• (D) Adductor muscles

In cockroach, inspiration takes place through:

• (A) Abdominal spiracles
• (B) Prothoracic spiracles
• (C) Thoracic spiracles
• (D) All spiracles

In an experiment, Malpighian tubules of a cockroach are removed. Which substance might be absent in its fecal pellets?

• (A) Undigested matter
• (B) Urea
• (C) Uric acid
• (D) Undigested proteins

The influence of light on non-directional movement of organisms is known as:

• (A) Phototaxis
• (B) Photokinesis
• (C) Phototropism
• (D) Photoperiodism

Statement I: Acid rains are due to pollution of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

Statement II: Incinerators are used to dispose of electronic wastes.

• (A) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (B) Both statements I and II are false.
• (C) Statement I is correct, but II is false.
• (D) Statement I is false, but II is correct.

Match the following:

• (A) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (C) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV
• (D) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III

The enzyme present in the gastric juice of infants is:

• (A) Renin
• (B) Trypsin
• (C) Peptidase
• (D) Prorennin

Assertion (A): During inspiration, the rib cage and sternum lift up, causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis.

Reason (R): Due to relaxation of the diaphragm muscles, the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Statement I: In the foetal heart of human beings, the interatrial septum has a pore called foramen Manro.

Statement II: A fibrous strand, known as ligamentum arteriosum, is present at the point of contact of the systemic and pulmonary arches in the human heart.

• (A) Both statements I and II are true.
• (B) Both statements I and II are false.
• (C) Statement I is true, but II is false.
• (D) Statement I is false, but II is true.

Excretory organs in adult molluscs are:

• (A) Malpighian tubules
• (B) Green glands
• (C) Coxal glands
• (D) Pericardial glands

Regulatory proteins in a myofibril are:

• (A) Actin and myosin
• (B) Troponin and actin
• (C) Troponin and tropomyosin
• (D) Actin and tropomyosin

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:
The center of the posterior portion of the retina is called the macula lutea.
The site of the retina where the optic nerve exits the eye is called the blind spot.
Cones contain a visual pigment called iodopsin.
Rods contain a protein called rhodopsin.

• (A) I only
• (B) I and II only
• (C) I, II and III only
• (D) I, II, III and IV

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (A) I, III
• (B) II, IV
• (C) I, II
• (D) II, III

Chemically, oestrogens (oestradiol) are:

• (1) Amine hormones
• (2) Peptide hormones
• (3) Steroid hormones
• (4) Protein hormones

Match the following:

These glands of the female reproductive system of human beings are homologous to the bulbourethral glands of males.

• (1) Bartholin’s glands
• (2) Skene’s glands
• (3) Prostate gland
• (4) Seminal vesicles

Pick up the incorrect pair.

• (1) Gonorrhea - Neisseria
• (2) Syphilis - Treponema
• (3) Cervical cancer - Herpes simplex virus
• (4) Genital warts - Human papilloma virus

If a man with blood group A (homozygous) marries a woman with blood group B (homozygous), the following blood groups are not expected in their children.

• (1) A and AB only
• (2) A, B, and O
• (3) B and AB only
• (4) A and B only

Karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is:

• (1) 45(X)
• (2) 47(+21st)
• (3) 47(XXY)
• (4) 47(+13th)

If sex index ratio in Drosophila is 0.33, the sexual phenotype of it is:

• (1) Metamale
• (2) Metafemale
• (3) Female
• (4) Intersex

Eusthenopteron is a transitional form between:

• (1) Fishes and Amphibians
• (2) Amphibians and Reptiles
• (3) Reptiles and Aves
• (4) Aves and Mammals

Statement I: Absence of gene exchange between populations is called reproductive isolation.

Statement II: Natural selection is the driving force of evolution.

• (1) Both statements I and II are true
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
• (4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

Hardy-Weinberg law is applicable to:

• (1) Small population
• (2) Large population
• (3) Very small population
• (4) Small community

Assertion (A): Continued close breeding usually reduces fertility and even productivity.

Reason (R): Inbreeding depression.

• (1) (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
• (4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

In an ECG of a normal healthy person, the duration of the R-R interval is about:

• (1) 0.12 sec
• (2) 0.08 sec
• (3) 0.8 sec
• (4) 0.4 sec

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Physics

Question 81:

A supposition without assuming that it is true is:

• (1) A hypothesis
• (2) An axiom
• (3) A model
• (4) A postulate

The density of a substance of mass 5.318 g which occupies a volume of 2.43 cm³ is (up to correct significant figures):

• (1) 2.188 g/cm³
• (2) 2.180 g/cm³
• (3) 2.19 g/cm³
• (4) 2.18 g/cm³

Pebbles are dropped freely for every half second into a river from a bridge above it. When the first pebble is about to strike the surface of the water, the fifth pebble is dropped. Then the height from the surface of the water from which the pebbles are dropped is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s²).

• (1) 20 m
• (2) 31.25 m
• (3) 125 m
• (4) 80 m

A cannon fires two similar shells one after the other each with a velocity of 100 m/s at angles 60\(^\circ\) and 30\(^\circ\) respectively with the horizontal such that they both hit the target at the same time. The time interval between the firing of the two shells is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s²).

• (1) 6.57 s
• (2) 7.32 s
• (3) 8.28 s
• (4) 3.14 s

A 60 kg man standing on a bridge, jumps vertically down onto a 540 kg boat moving in the river below him with a speed of 10 m/s. The change in the speed of the boat is:

• (1) 9 m/s
• (2) 10 m/s
• (3) 1 m/s
• (4) 0.9 m/s

A body of mass 'm' tied to one end of a string is whirled in a vertical circle of radius 'R' with zero tension in the string at its highest point. The angle made by the string with the vertical when the kinetic energy of the body becomes half of its maximum kinetic energy is:

• (1) \( \theta = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right) \)
• (2) \( \theta = \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right) \)
• (3) \( \theta = \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right) \)
• (4) \( \theta = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) \)

An incompressible fluid is flowing through a tube of uniform cross-section. The increase in the power of the pump required to double the rate of flow is:

• (1) 200%
• (2) 100%
• (3) 700%
• (4) 800%

Two solid spheres of radii \( r_1 \) and \( r_2 \) (\( r_2 > r_1 \)) made of the same material are kept in contact. The distance of their center of mass from their point of contact is:

• (1) \( \frac{r_1^3 (r_1 + r_2)}{r_1^3 + r_2^3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{r_2 (r_1 + r_2)}{r_1^2 + r_2^2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{r_1^4 + r_2^4}{r_1^3 + r_2^3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{r_2^3 (r_1 + r_2)}{r_1^3 + r_2^3} \)

An arc making an angle \(15^\circ\) at the center is removed from a ring of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \). The moment of inertia of the remaining ring about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is:

• (1) \( \frac{23}{24} M R^2 \)
• (2) \( \frac{M R^2}{24} \)
• (3) \( \frac{M R^2}{23} \)
• (4) \( \frac{24}{23} M R^2 \)

The displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion is given by:
\[ x = A_0 \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{2} t \right) \]

The distance traveled by the particle in the interval between \( t = 2 \) and \( t = 5 \) seconds and its position at \( t = 5 \) second are:

• (1) \( A_0 \) and mean position
• (2) \( A_0 \) and extreme position
• (3) \( 3 A_0 \) and mean position
• (4) \( 3 A_0 \) and extreme position

The ratio of the values of acceleration due to gravity at heights \( h_1 \) and \( h_2 \) from the surface of the earth is \( 16:9 \). If height \( h_1 = 2R_E \), then \( h_2 \) is:

• (A) \( 4R_E \)
• (B) \( 3R_E \)
• (C) \( 5R_E \)
• (D) \( 6R_E \)

The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B made of same material is 2:1. The diameter of wire A is twice the diameter of wire B. If both the wires are stretched by same tension, the ratio of the energies stored in wires A and B is:

• (A) \( 1:4 \)
• (B) \( 1:1 \)
• (C) \( 1:2 \)
• (D) \( 1:8 \)

Two spherical rain drops of radii in the ratio 4:5 are falling vertically through air. The ratio of the terminal velocities of the rain drops is:

• (A) \( 64:125 \)
• (B) \( 16:25 \)
• (C) \( 4:5 \)
• (D) \( 1:1 \)

A liquid drop of diameter 2 mm breaks into 125 identical drops, then the change in the surface energy is:

• (A) \( 3.52 \times 10^{-6} \, J \)
• (B) \( 1.76 \times 10^{-7} \, J \)
• (C) \( 2.48 \times 10^{-6} \, J \)
• (D) \( 5.27 \times 10^{-6} \, J \)

A metal block of mass 120 g is heated to a temperature of 100\(^\circ\)C and placed on a huge block of ice at 0\(^\circ\)C. The specific heat capacity of the metal is 0.12 cal/\(^\circ\)C and the latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g. The mass of the ice melted is:

• (A) 120 g
• (B) 128 g
• (C) 115 g
• (D) 18 g

A black body at a temperature of 125\(^\circ\)C emits heat at the rate of 32 W. The rate of heat emitted by the body when the temperature of the body is increased by 398 K is:

• (A) 64
• (B) 128
• (C) 512
• (D) 256

The temperatures of the source and sink of a Carnot’s heat engine are 27\(^\circ\)C and 127\(^\circ\)C respectively. If the absolute temperature of the sink is decreased by 10%, the efficiency of the engine:

• (A) Decreases by 32.5%
• (B) Decreases by 7.5%
• (C) Increases by 32.5%
• (D) Increases by 7.5%

A uniform narrow tube of length one metre with one end closed contains 25 cm long mercury thread, which traps a column of air at the closed end. When the tube is held vertically with the open end up, the length of the air column near the closed end is 21 cm and when the tube is held horizontally, the length of the air column near the closed end is ‘L’. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to the pressure of 75 cm of mercury, then \( L \) is:

• (A) \( 35 \, cm \)
• (B) \( 28 \, cm \)
• (C) \( 7 \, cm \)
• (D) \( 14 \, cm \)

If the tension applied to a string is decreased by 36%, then the fundamental frequency of the transverse waves of the string is:

• (A) Increases by 10%
• (B) Decreases by 10%
• (C) Increases by 20%
• (D) Decreases by 20%

The frequency of sound heard by a stationary observer is \( f_1 \), when the source of sound is approaching the observer with a speed of 10% of the speed of sound. If the same source of sound is moving away from the stationary observer with a speed of 20% of the speed of sound, the frequency of sound heard by the observer is \( f_2 \). Then \( f_1 : f_2 \) is:

• (A) \( 1:2 \)
• (B) \( 9:11 \)
• (C) \( 4:3 \)
• (D) \( 1:1 \)

A boy of height 1.2 m is standing in front of a large concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 m at a distance of 40 m from the mirror. The distance of the image of the boy from the boy is:

• (1) \( \frac{40 \, m}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{80 \, m}{3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{20 \, m}{3} \)
• (4) \( 40 \, m \)

A block is placed in front of a convex lens as shown in the figure. Choose the most appropriate image of the block from the following options:

• (1) \(\quad\)
• (2) \(\quad\)
• (3) \(\quad\)
• (4) \(\quad\)

When unpolarized light incident from air on another medium at an angle of 60°, the reflected light is completely polarized. The refractive index of the medium is:

• (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
• (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Two identical balls having like charges placed at a certain distance apart, repel each other with a force \( F \). When they are brought in contact and then moved apart to a distance equal to half of their initial separation, the force of repulsion between them becomes \( 4.5F \). The ratio of the initial charges of the balls is:

• (1) \( 2:1 \)
• (2) \( 3:1 \)
• (3) \( 4:1 \)
• (4) \( 6:1 \)

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 1.5 µF. If the distance between the plates is halved and the space between the plates is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 3, then the new capacitance is:

• (1) 4.5 µF
• (2) 1.5 µF
• (3) 9 µF
• (4) 6 µF

If the relaxation time is doubled and the applied electric field is tripled, then the drift speed of electrons:

• (1) becomes three times of its initial value
• (2) decreases by six times of its initial value
• (3) becomes 1.5 times of its initial value
• (4) decreases by six times of its initial value

Two equal resistances are connected in the two gaps of a meter bridge. If the resistance in the right gap is doubled, then the change in the balancing length is:

• (1) \( \frac{20}{3} \, cm \)
• (2) \( \frac{40}{3} \, cm \)
• (3) \( 100 \, cm \)
• (4) \( \frac{50}{3} \, cm \)

A current \( i \) flows through a circular loop of radius \( R \). The ratio of the magnetic field produced at its centre to the field produced at a point at a distance \( \frac{R}{\sqrt{3}} \) from its centre on its axis is:

• (1) \( 1:8 \)
• (2) \( 8:1 \)
• (3) \( 1:4 \)
• (4) \( 4:1 \)

Two particles of charges in the ratio \( 1:2 \) and masses in the ratio \( 2:3 \) moving along a straight line enter a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. If the radii of the circular paths of the particles in the magnetic field are in the ratio \( 3:4 \), then the ratio of the initial linear momenta of the two particles is:

• (1) \( 1:1 \)
• (2) \( 3:4 \)
• (3) \( 3:8 \)
• (4) \( 2:3 \)

Magnetic field on the axis of a short bar magnet of magnetic moment \( M \), at a distance \( x \) from its centre is:

• (1) \( \frac{\mu_0 M}{2 \pi x^3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\mu_0 M}{4 \pi x^3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2 \mu_0 M}{\pi x^3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{4 \mu_0 M}{\pi x^3} \)

The self-induced emf of a coil is 36 V. If the current in the coil is changed from 12 A to 24 A in one second, then the change in the energy stored in the coil is:

• (1) \( 648 \, J \)
• (2) \( 462 \, J \)
• (3) \( 486 \, J \)
• (4) \( 572 \, J \)

The quality factor of a series LCR resonant circuit is 75. If the resistance is decreased by 50% and the inductance is increased by 100%, then the quality factor of the circuit is:

• (1) \( 150 \)
• (2) \( 150 \sqrt{2} \)
• (3) \( 300 \)
• (4) \( 300 \sqrt{2} \)

The ratio between electric field energy density and magnetic field energy density of an electromagnetic wave, in its region is:

• (1) \( 1:1 \)
• (2) \( 1:c^2 \)
• (3) \( 1:c \)
• (4) \( c:1 \)

Two photons of energies 2.5 eV and 5.5 eV incident on a metal surface of work function 1.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the photoelectrons emitted from the metal surface is:

• (1) \( 1:4 \)
• (2) \( 1:2 \)
• (3) \( 1:1 \)
• (4) \( 5:11 \)

In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, if the difference between the radii of \( n^{th} \) and \( (n+1)^{th} \) orbits is equal to the radius of the \( (n-1)^{th} \) orbit, then the value of \( n \) is:

• (1) \( 1 \)
• (2) \( 2 \)
• (3) \( 4 \)
• (4) \( 3 \)

In a nuclear reactor of efficiency 25%, the number of fissions taking place per second is \( 5 \times 10^{13} \). If 200 MeV energy is released per fission, then the output power of the reactor is:

• (A) \( 6400 \, W \)
• (B) \( 1600 \, W \)
• (C) \( 800 \, W \)
• (D) \( 400 \, W \)

In a radioactive sample \( 2 \times 10^8 \) nuclei reduce to \( 10^8 \) nuclei in 15 minutes, then the half-life of the sample in minutes is:

• (A) 5
• (B) 10
• (C) 15
• (D) 30

Three logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. If the inputs are \( A = 0 \), \( B = 1 \), and \( C = 1 \), then the values of \( y_1 \), \( y_2 \), and \( y_3 \) are respectively:

• (A) \( 0, 0, 1 \)
• (B) \( 0, 1, 1 \)
• (C) \( 1, 0, 1 \)
• (D) \( 1, 1, 0 \)

The power gain of a transistor operating in common emitter configuration is 32,000. If the input and output resistances of the circuit are 1200 \( \Omega \) and 6000 \( \Omega \) respectively, then the current gain is:

• (A) 8000
• (B) 800
• (C) 80
• (D) 6400

If two linear antennas having lengths in the ratio 2:3 are emitting radiations of wavelengths in the ratio 8:9, then the ratio of effective powers radiated by them are in the ratio:

• (A) \( 9:16 \)
• (B) \( 27:32 \)
• (C) \( 16:27 \)
• (D) \( 32:18 \)

Chemistry

Question 121:

Electromagnetic radiation has electric and magnetic field components. These two components:

• (A) have same wavelength \( \lambda \), same frequency \( \nu \), same speed \( c \), and same amplitude
• (B) have same wavelength \( \lambda \), same frequency \( \nu \), same speed \( c \), and different amplitude
• (C) have same wavelength \( \lambda \), same frequency \( \nu \), same amplitude, and different speed \( c \)
• (D) have same frequency \( \nu \), same speed \( c \), same amplitude, and different wavelength \( \lambda \)

The wavenumbers of the first three emission lines of Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum are respectively \( \nu_1, \nu_2, \nu_3 \). Similarly, the wavenumbers of first three emission lines of Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum are \( \nu_4, \nu_5, \nu_6 \), respectively. Identify the correct relationship:

• (A) \( \nu_1 = 5 \nu_4 \)
• (B) \( \nu_2 = 5 \nu_5 \)
• (C) \( \nu_3 = 5 \nu_6 \)
• (D) \( \nu_1 = 5 \nu_2 \)

The first ionization enthalpies of the elements X, Y, Z of the second period are 899, 1402, 520 kJ/mol respectively. X, Y, Z respectively are:

• (A) Li, B, N
• (B) Be, N, Li
• (C) Be, Li, N
• (D) Li, N, Be

The number of amphoteric, basic, and acidic oxides among the following respectively are: \[ CrO_3, \, MgO, \, K_2O, \, B_2O_3, \, Al_2O_3, \, In_2O_3, \, PbO, \, As_2O_3 \]

• (A) 3, 2, 3
• (B) 3, 3, 2
• (C) 3, 4, 1
• (D) 2, 5, 3

Identify the correct statements:

(i) LiF has more covalent character compared to KF
(ii) Dipole moment of \( NF_3 \) is greater than that of \( NH_3 \)
(iii) The bond order is same for \( F_2 \) and \( O_2 \)
(iv) Ionic compounds possess low melting and boiling points

• (A) i, ii, iv only
• (B) i, ii, iv, iii
• (C) ii, iii, iv only
• (D) i, iii only

Which of the following sets are not correctly matched? \[ Molecule \quad Hybridization \] \[ (i) \, XeF_4 \quad dsp^2 \quad (ii) \, BrF_5 \quad sp^3d^2 \quad (iii) \, PF_5 \quad sp^3d \quad (iv) \, SF_4 \quad sp^3 \]

• (A) i, iii only
• (B) ii, iv only
• (C) i, iv only
• (D) iii, iv only

At 400 K, the following graph is obtained for \( x \) moles of an ideal gas. \( x \) is equal to (R = gas constant, P = pressure, V = volume)

• (1) \( \frac{m}{400R} \)
• (2) \( \frac{400R}{m} \)
• (3) \( 400mR \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{400R} \)

In Ostwald process of manufacture of nitric acid, 12 moles of NH3 was completely oxidized in air by a catalyst at 500 K and 9 bar. The resultant NO(g) was completely oxidized to NO2(g) and dissolved in water to form nitric acid and NO(g). What is the weight (in g) of nitric acid formed?

• (1) 756 g
• (2) 378 g
• (3) 504 g
• (4) 252 g

Observe the following two statements:
I. For an isolated system, \( \Delta U = 0 \); \( q = 0 \)
II. For a closed system, \( \Delta U = 0 \); \( q \neq 0 \)
The correct answer is

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct

For the reaction at \( T(K) \), \( A_2(g) \rightleftharpoons B_2(g) \), \( K_c \) for the reaction at \( T(K) \) is 39.0. In a closed 1L flask, one mole of \( A_2(g) \) was heated to \( T(K) \). What is the concentration of \( B_2(g) \) at equilibrium (in mol L\(^{-1}\))?

• (1) 0.975
• (2) 0.015
• (3) 0.65
• (4) 0.035

Two statements are given below:
I. Sodium hexametaphosphate is used in calgon method for removal of permanent hardness of water
II. Lithium forms interstitial hydrides
Identify the correct answer

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct

The correct order of reducing power of alkali metals in aqueous solution is

• (1) \( Li > Rb > K > Na \)
• (2) \( Li > Na > K > Rb \)
• (3) \( Rb > K > Na > Li \)
• (4) \( Rb > Na > K > Li \)

Observe the following statements

Statement I : Ca(OH)\(_2\); is used in white wash

Statement 11 : \(CaCO_3\) is used as mild abrasive in tooth paste

• (1) Both the statements are correct
• (2) Both the statements are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct \textbf{Correct Answer:} (1) Both the statements are correct

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I. \(In_2O_3\) is a basic oxide.

II. \(TiCl_2\) is more ionic in nature than \(TiCl_3\).

III. Boron reacts with dinitrogen at high temperature to form BN.

• (1) I, II only
• (2) I, III only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, II, III \textbf{Correct Answer:} (4) I, II, III

In group 14 elements, the element with highest melting point is X and element with lowest melting point is Y. X and Y respectively are

• (1) Si, C
• (2) Si, Pb
• (3) C, Sn
• (4) Sn, C \textbf{Correct Answer:} (4) Sn, C

The oxygen carrying capacity of blood is reduced due to binding of haemoglobin with

• (1) SO\(_2\)
• (2) CO
• (3) CO\(_2\)
• (4) NO\(_2\) \textbf{Correct Answer:} (2) CO

The technique used to purify an organic compound present in aqueous medium and which is less soluble in organic solvent is

• (1) Steam distillation
• (2) Differential extraction
• (3) Continuous extraction
• (4) Fractional distillation \textbf{Correct Answer:} (3) Continuous extraction

The number of molecules with electrophilic centres in the following is
CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Br, CH\(_3\)COCH\(_3\), CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CN, (CH\(_3\))\(_2\)Cd

• (1) 3
• (2) 4
• (3) 2
• (4) 1 \textbf{Correct Answer:} (1) 3

Arrange the following halides in decreasing order of their reactivity towards dehydrohalogenation:

• (1) B > D > A > C
• (2) B > D > C > A
• (3) D > B > C > A
• (4) D > B > A > C \textbf{Correct Answer:} (3) D > B > C > A

An alkene ‘X’ (C\(_4\)H\(_8\)) does not exhibit cis/trans isomerism. Reaction of ‘X’ with Br\(_2\)/CCL\(_4\), followed by reaction with reagent ‘Y’ gave ‘Z’ (C\(_6\)H\(_6\)). What are ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively?

• (1) aq.KOH ; CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)C = CH
• (2) alc.KOH ; CH\(_3\)C = CCH\(_3\)
• (3) (i) alc.KOH, (ii) NaNH\(_2\) ; CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)C = CH
• (4) (i) alc.KOH, (ii) NaNH\(_2\) ; CH\(_3\)C = CCH\(_3\) \textbf{Correct Answer:} (3) (i) alc.KOH, (ii) NaNH\(_2\) ; CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)C = CH

Identify the correct set

• (1) \( SiO_2 \) - ionic solid - conductor - high melting point
• (2) \( SiO_2 \) - network solid - conductor - low melting point
• (3) \( SiO_2 \) - network solid - insulator - high melting point
• (4) \( NaCl \) - ionic solid - insulator in solid state - high melting point

At 300 K, the vapour pressure of liquids A and B are 600 and 500 mm of Hg respectively. Two moles of A and three moles of B are mixed. The mole fractions of A and B in vapor state are respectively

• (1) 0.4, 0.6
• (2) 0.7, 0.3
• (3) 0.444, 0.555
• (4) 0.666, 0.3

What is the electrode potential (in V) of copper electrode dipped in \( 10^{-2} \, M \, Cu^{2+} \) solution?

• (1) 0.399
• (2) 0.1405
• (3) 0.199
• (4) 0.281

A \(\rightarrow\) P is a first-order reaction. The change in concentration of A with time is shown below. The instantaneous rate at points X, Y and Z is \( R_X \), \( R_Y \), and \( R_Z \), respectively. What is the correct order of \( R_X \), \( R_Y \), and \( R_Z \)?

• (1) \( R_Y > R_X > R_Z \)
• (2) \( R_Y > R_Z > R_X \)
• (3) \( R_X > R_Y > R_Z \)
• (4) \( R_Z > R_X > R_Y \)

Two statements are given below.
Statement I: Adsorption of a gas on the surface of charcoal is primarily an exothermic process.

Statement II: A closed vessel containing \( O_2(g) \), \( H_2(g) \), \( Cl_2(g) \), \( NH_3(g) \) has a pressure of 9 atm. About 1 g of charcoal was added to this vessel and after some time its pressure is \( P' \) atm. It is observed that \( P' > P \).

Choose the correct answer.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct

Match the following:

• (1) A-III B-I C-V D-II
• (2) A-III B-IV C-I D-II
• (3) A-III B-V C-I D-II
• (4) A-IV B-V C-II D-I

Identify the set of molecules which act as bleaching agents only by oxidation

• (1) \( SO_2, O_3 \)
• (2) \( O_3, NO \)
• (3) \( Cl_2, O_3 \)
• (4) \( SO_2, O_3, Cl_2 \)

Which of the following is correct statement?

• (1) High temperature, low pressure are the favourable conditions for the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the contact process
• (2) Moist sulfur dioxide behaves as an oxidizing agent
• (3) Noble gases are easily soluble in water
• (4) Noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpies

Which of the following does not evolve \( O_2 \) when made to react with water?

• (1) \( F_2 \)
• (2) \( XeF_2 \)
• (3) \( XeF_6 \)
• (4) \( XeF_4 \)

Observe the following reaction:
\[ xI^- + y \, \, MnO_4^- + z \, H^+ \rightarrow a \, Mn^{2+} + b \, H_2O + cl_2 \]

Which of the following are correct?

(i) \( y : x = 2 : 5 \)

(ii) \( y : a = 1 : 1 \)

(iii) \( x : c = 1 : 2 \)

(iv) \( y : e = 2 : 5 \)

• (1) i, ii, iii only
• (2) ii, iii, iv only
• (3) i, ii, iv only
• (4) i, iii, iv only

Which of the following are inner orbital paramagnetic complexes?

• (1) II, III, IV only
• (2) I, V
• (3) VI, VII only
• (4) I, VII only

The number average molecular weight (M\(_n\)) of a polymer is 1500. In this polymer, 800 molecules of molar mass 1000, 100 molecules of molar mass 2000 and x molecules of molar mass 5000 are present. What is the value of x?

• (1) 200
• (2) 400
• (3) 100
• (4) 50

Phosphodiester linkage that joins nucleotides together is present between which carbons of pentose sugar?

• (1) 3', 3'
• (2) 5', 3'
• (3) 5', 2'
• (4) 3', 2'

Which of the following is used in liquid detergents?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3) \(C_{17}H_{35}COONa\)
• (4) \((CH_3)_3N (CH_2)_{15} CH_3\)

Given below are the two statements regarding chlorobenzene

Statement I: Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution due to the -I effect of chlorine.

Statement II: Because of the -I effect of chlorine, it is a meta directing group.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct.
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct.
• (4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct.

Which of the following sequence of reagents convert benzaldehyde to 4-chlorotoluene?

• (1) \( NaBH_4 ; \, Cl_2 | Fe\)
• (2) \( NaBH_4 ; \, Cl_2| \, hv \)
• (3) \( Zn-Hg, \, HCl;Cl_2 \,| Fe \)
• (4) \( Zn-Hg, \, Cl_2 |\, hv \)

Phenatole can be prepared from which of the following reactants?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

In the following reaction sequence, what are X and Y respectively?

• (1)
• (2) \( NH_2NH_2 ; \, Zn-Hg, \, HCl \)
• (3)
• (4) \( NH_2OH ; \, Zn-Hg, \, HCl \)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Identify 'Z' in the following sequence of reactions:

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

In the following reaction sequence, what are X and Y respectively?

• (1) \( H_2|Pd, ( CH_3CO_2O)_2 \)
• (2) \( H_2|Pd, C_6H_5SO_2Cl, Pyridine \)
• (3) \( (i) \, DIBAL-H, (ii) \, H_2O, (CH_3CO_2)O \)
• (4) \( (i) \, DIBAL-H, (ii) \, H_2O, C_6H_5SO_2Cl \)