CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper Set C with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was conducted by the Consortium of NLUs on December 1, 2024. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.
CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF Set C
| CLAT 2025 PG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set C) | Check Solutions |
CLAT PG 2025 Set C Questions with Solutions
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Comprehension: Read MoreJustice Nagarathna invoked Plato's curative theory of punishment, suggesting penalties should aim at reformation and improvement. She acknowledged the competing interests between the victims' right to justice and the convicts' right to a second chance. The Court questioned whether heinous crimes against women warrant remission or reduction of sentences, underscoring respect for women irrespective of their societal standing. Justice Nagarathna reiterated that liberty and fundamental rights, including equality under Article 14, can only prevail when the rule of law is upheld. The judgment highlighted the necessity of balancing societal justice and individual liberty within constitutional boundaries. (A) On the discretion of the appropriate government (B) On the central government’s discretion (C) On the state government’s discretion (D) None of the above |
(A) On the discretion of the appropriate government | Remission, referring to the reduction or suspension of a sentence, is generally granted at the discretion of the appropriate government under whose jurisdiction the offense occurred. | ||||||||||
| 2. Which of the following is not related to remission? (A) State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi) v. Prem Raj, 2003 7 SCC (B) Sarat Chandra Rabha v. Khagendranath, AIR 1961 SC 334 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | Both cases are related to different contexts of remission applications but do not directly address the legal principles of remission under the Cr.P.C. | ||||||||||
| 3. Which of the following needs to be considered while entertaining an application for remission under the provisions of Cr.P.C., 1973? (A) The application can only be before the government under whose jurisdiction the conviction occurred. (B) The convict must comply with Section 433A, which requires 14 years of imprisonment for life sentence remission. (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (A) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | Remission applications must be made before the appropriate government, and life sentence convicts must complete 14 years before applying, as per Section 433A. | ||||||||||
| 4. According to Section 432 (2) of Cr.P.C., how did the court interpret the expression “may” regarding the government’s duty to seek the opinion of the judge in the Bilkis Bano Case? (A) The expression “may” indicates optionality. (B) It allows seeking opinions of any judge. (C) It must be interpreted as “shall”. (D) The judge may refuse to provide an opinion. |
(C) It must be interpreted as “shall”. | In the Bilkis Bano case, the court clarified that the term “may” should be read as “shall,” making it mandatory for the government to seek the presiding judge's opinion. | ||||||||||
| 5. In Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision for commutation of a life sentence has replaced which term? (A) Not less than seven years (B) Not less than ten years (C) Not more than twenty years (D) Seven years |
(B) Not less than ten years | The provision replaced “not exceeding fourteen years or fine” with “not less than ten years” in the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe concept of double taxation implies that the same subject matter is taxed twice when it should be taxed only once. The GST law, as framed, does not envisage taxation of a transaction twice, and the fundamental principles of GST do not support such an imposition. Further, the importer, who is not the recipient of the service but is treated as a deemed recipient under the reverse charge mechanism, cannot be made liable to pay tax on a service that they have not directly availed. This stretches the scope of reverse charge mechanism beyond its intended purpose, which is to simplify tax collection by shifting the liability to pay tax from the service provider to the service recipient, particularly in cases where the service provider is located outside India and does not have a presence within the taxable territory. Moreover, the constitutional framework requires that a tax should be levied with legislative competence and should not contravene any fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. The imposition of IGST on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism without proper legislative backing undermines the very essence of taxation principles enshrined in the Constitution of India. (This extract is taken from Mohit Minerals v. Union of India CA No. 1390/2022) (A) Taxing both the importer and the exporter for the same service (B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports (C) Taxing the service provider and the service recipient for the same service (D) Taxing the importer for both the goods and the services separately |
(B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports | The Mohit Minerals case clarified that under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM), ocean freight for CIF imports is not taxable, as it leads to double taxation. | ||||||||||
| 7. Assertion (A): The importer should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism if they are not the direct recipient of the service. (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (C) A is true, but R is false (D) A is false, but R is true |
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A | Under RCM, even if the importer is not the direct recipient of the service, they bear the tax liability within India to ensure compliance with tax laws. | ||||||||||
| 8. Consider the following statements regarding the Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India judgment: 1. The Supreme Court ruled that imposing GST on ocean freight charges under the reverse charge mechanism leads to double taxation. 2. The importer, not being the direct recipient of the service, should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight. 3. The judgment emphasized that tax laws must have proper legislative backing to prevent contravention of fundamental rights. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 |
(D) 1, 2 and 3 | The judgment emphasized avoiding double taxation, exempting the importer from GST on ocean freight under RCM, and ensuring tax laws adhere to constitutional norms. | ||||||||||
| 9. Consider the following statements: 1. The reverse charge mechanism shifts the tax liability from the service provider to the service recipient. 2. The principle of single taxation was violated by imposing GST on ocean freight charges already included in the cost of imported goods. 3. The judgment clarified that importers can be liable for GST on services directly availed by them. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 |
(D) 1, 2 and 3 | All statements are correct: RCM shifts tax liability, GST on ocean freight violated single taxation, and importers are liable for services directly availed. | ||||||||||
| 10. According to the judgment, what is the constitutional requirement for levying a tax? (A) The tax should be easy to administer (B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights (C) The tax should be progressive in nature (D) The tax should only apply to domestic transactions |
(B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights | The judgment reinforced that taxes must align with legislative competence and not violate fundamental rights to ensure fairness and constitutional validity. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Supreme Court, in *State of Punjab & Ors. v. Davinder Singh & Ors. (2024)*, examined the constitutional vision of equality, including sub-categorization within reserved categories. Justice Bela Trivedi, dissenting, stated that the presidential list of Scheduled Castes under Article 341 can only be amended by Parliament. She argued that sub-classification by states undermines the intent of Article 341, depriving certain categories of their rights and violating constitutional principles. Justice Trivedi emphasized adhering to plain and literal interpretation and upheld the ruling in *E.V. Chinnaiah*, affirming that affirmative action must stay within constitutional boundaries. Sub-classification should be reasonable and ensure equality among all sub-groups without excluding any category. (A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore (B) T. Devadasan v. Union of India (C) Akhil Bharatiya Soshit Karamchari Sangh (Railway) v. Union of India (D) The State of Punjab & Ors. v. Davinder Singh & Ors. 2020 |
(A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore | The issue of sub-classification within a class for reservation first arose in the MR Balaji case, where the Supreme Court discussed the legality of such sub-classification. | ||||||||||
| 12. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, while proposing the inclusion of Articles 300A and 300B of the Draft Constitution, indicated that once notified, any elimination from the list or an addition to the list was to be made by Parliament and not by the President. This limitation was imposed to: (A) Protect the rights of the SCs and STs class people (B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive in disturbing the Schedule (C) To remove the discretion in the hands of the Executive (D) To eliminate “political factors” from disturbing the list |
(B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive in disturbing the Schedule | Dr. Ambedkar emphasized the need for legislative control to prevent executive and political interference in modifying the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. | ||||||||||
| 13. The trinity of Articles 14, 15, and 16 provides a tool to march towards social and economic equality. Along with these articles, which other articles aim to achieve social economic equality? (A) Arts. 46, 335 and 338 (B) Arts. 335, 341 and 342 (C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342 (D) Arts. 46, 335 and 342 |
(C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342 | Articles 46, 335, 338, 341, and 342 further support affirmative action and provide for the protection of underprivileged classes in education and employment. | ||||||||||
| 14. Hon’ble Justice B.R. Gavai, in the judgment, held that “sub-classification amongst the Scheduled Castes for giving more beneficial treatment is permissible in law.” Which criteria were outlined for sub-classification? (A) Criteria for exclusion of the creamy layer could differ from OBC criteria (B) Sub-classification permissible with reservation for the larger class (C) State must justify sub-classification based on empirical data (D) All of the above |
(D) All of the above | Sub-classification among Scheduled Castes is lawful if based on empirical data, justified inadequacy of representation, and criteria differing from OBC norms. | ||||||||||
| 15. Which of the following is not required for sub-classification of the Scheduled Castes? (A) The inadequacy of representation of a caste/group because of its backwardness (B) Data must be collected by the State on inadequacy of representation (C) Efficiency of administration must promote inclusion and equality as per Article 16(1) (D) The State is not required to further classify Scheduled Castes |
(D) The State is not required to further classify Scheduled Castes | Sub-classification requires adequate data collection and considerations of inclusion, while the State may choose not to classify unless empirical data justifies it. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreUnder Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, bankers, wharfingers, attorneys, and policy brokers have a general right to lien, allowing them to retain possession of goods until debts are cleared. This right, recognized as a possessory right, ensures temporary possession of goods without selling them without prior notice. In *Syndicate Bank v. Vijay Kumar and Others*, the Supreme Court held that the banker’s right to lien is a legal right rooted in customary law rather than contract. The judgment affirmed the applicability of Halsbury’s Laws of England, highlighting that this right is guaranteed by law and not contingent on contractual agreements. (i) Factors (ii) Brokers (iii) Wharfingers (iv) Attorneys (A) iv (B) iv and ii (C) i and iii (D) All of them |
(D) All of them | A general lien can be exercised by factors, brokers, wharfingers, and attorneys in the absence of any contract provision. | ||||||||||
| 17. The Bailee’s right to retain the goods until he receives due remuneration for the services he has rendered in respect of them is known as: (A) Particular Lien (B) General Lien (C) Particular Retention (D) General Retention |
(B) General Lien | A general lien refers to the bailee's right to retain possession of goods until payment is made for the services rendered, even if the goods are unrelated to the particular service. | ||||||||||
| 18. With respect to bailment, a Banker: (A) Has a right to a particular lien on fixed deposits (B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits (C) Has a right to a general lien on savings account (D) Has no right to a lien on a savings account or fixed deposits |
(B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits | A banker can exercise a general lien over fixed deposits and securities to cover any dues owed by the depositor. | ||||||||||
| 19. Which one of the following is not an essential characteristic of Bailment? (A) Physical delivery of goods (B) Delivery of goods for some purpose (C) After the purpose is accomplished, the goods must be returned (D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them |
(D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them | In bailment, goods must be returned to the owner after the purpose is accomplished. Disposition according to directions is not an essential characteristic of bailment. | ||||||||||
| 20. Which one of the following are bailments? (i) Hiring a Locker facility in a Bank (ii) Taking a Gold loan from the Bank (iii) Hypothecation of the vehicle for loan to the Bank (iv) Giving car for valet parking (A) iv (B) iv and ii (C) i and iii (D) All of them |
(A) iv | Bailment involves delivery of goods for a specific purpose with an agreement to return them. Giving a car for valet parking is a classic example of bailment. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreAquinas treated rights (ius/iura) as subjective, belonging to individuals, and synonymous with justice. Hobbes, influenced by Benthamite and Austinian positivism, defined rights as liberties in the absence of duty, leading to a state of nature with no binding obligations. This regression in philosophy highlights the correlation between rights and duties. According to Hohfeld, rights only make sense as claim-rights (correlating to someone’s duty), liberties (protected by non-interference duties), powers (enforced by officials’ duties), and immunities (secured by officials’ duties against interference). The interdependence of rights and duties ensures the coherence of legal and moral philosophy. (A) Duty (B) Liability (C) No right (D) Disability |
(C) No right | The Jural Correlative of Privilege is “No right”. Privilege refers to the freedom to act without interference, and the jural correlative for such freedom is the absence of a corresponding duty or right on the part of others. | ||||||||||
| 22. Which of the following statements is not true about Treatise on Law by St. Thomas Aquinas? (A) He classified law into eternal law, natural law, human law, and divine law (B) He belonged to the Historical School of Jurisprudence (C) According to him, human nature is perfected or fully realised by harmonious and habitual excellence in the exercise of its intrinsic capacities and powers (D) The first primary precept is that good is to be pursued and done and evil avoided |
(B) | St. Thomas Aquinas did not belong to the Historical School of Jurisprudence. Instead, his philosophy was grounded in natural law, and he classified laws into eternal, natural, human, and divine. | ||||||||||
| 23. Who said, “Right is an interest which is to be recognised, protected and enforced by law”? (A) Roscoe Pound (B) Salmond (C) Holland (D) Bentham |
(A) | Roscoe Pound defined a right as an interest that is to be recognized, protected, and enforced by law, emphasizing the role of law in securing individual interests. | ||||||||||
| 24. Which of the following theories can be identified as a theory of right? (A) Bracket theory (B) Fiction theory (C) Will theory (D) Concession theory |
(C) | The Will Theory identifies rights as the power of an individual to exercise their will, emphasizing individual autonomy within the legal framework. | ||||||||||
| 25. Consider the given statements: Statement I: Rights in Rem are the rights in the things of others, also called encumbrances. Statement II: Rights in Re propria means the right available against the whole world. Statement III: Rights in Personam mean the rights in one’s own things. Choose the correct answer: (A) Statement I is correct (B) Statements I & II are correct (C) Statements I, II & III are correct (D) None of the above |
(D) | All statements are incorrect: Rights in Rem are rights against the world at large; Rights in Re propria refer to rights over one’s own property, not against the world; Rights in Personam are rights against specific individuals. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreHenkin described international organisations as “new laws at its birth,” highlighting their role in transforming international law’s sources, actors, and processes. Since its establishment with 51 member states, the UN has grown into a multidimensional institution with 193 members, positioning itself as a global constitutional organisation. Its primary objective is to safeguard world order and maintain peace and security. Specialised agencies like the WHO, OECD, and ILO have further contributed to shaping international law over the last century, underscoring the importance of these organisations in global governance. (A) State Aircraft (B) Civil Aircraft (C) War Aircraft (D) All of the above |
(B) Civil Aircraft | The Convention on International Civil Aviation applies exclusively to Civil Aircraft. It sets out the rules and standards for international air travel and aviation safety, excluding military, state, or war aircraft. | ||||||||||
| 27. Meaning of the Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ as in legal term, is: (A) According to the equitable and good (B) On the basis of equity and fairness (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | The Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ means to decide a case based on equity, fairness, and justice rather than strict legal rules. It is commonly used in arbitration and international law when legal rules may not adequately resolve the dispute. | ||||||||||
| 28. The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly distributed as: (A) African States and Asia Pacific States (B) Eastern European, Western European and other States (C) Latin American and Caribbean States (D) All of the Above |
(D) All of the Above | The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) consists of 54 members, with representation from all global regions: African States, Asia-Pacific States, Eastern European States, Western European States, and Latin American and Caribbean States. | ||||||||||
| 29. Under which Art. of UN Charter General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions? (A) Art. 19 of UN Charter (B) Art. 20 of UN Charter (C) Art. 21 of UN Charter (D) Art. 22 of UN Charter |
(D) Art. 22 of UN Charter | Article 22 of the UN Charter grants the General Assembly the power to establish subsidiary organs as necessary to perform its functions. This enables the Assembly to create specialized agencies and committees. | ||||||||||
| 30. Article 21 of the Constitution of WHO, each Member has undertaken the obligation to take action acceptance on Conventions adopted by: (A) One third votes of the Health Assembly (B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly (C) Special Majority means Three-Fourth votes of the Health Assembly (D) All of the above |
(B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly | Article 21 of the WHO Constitution states that Member States are obliged to accept the Conventions adopted by the Health Assembly with a two-thirds majority vote. This ensures broad consensus among members on important health conventions. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe lack of reliable electricity impacts economic development and exacerbates inequalities, particularly for women and low-income households. Promoting renewable energy fosters social equity, poverty alleviation, and inclusive growth. Transitioning to renewable energy is a strategic investment in sustainability and resilience. The right to equality under Article 14 and the right to life under Article 21 are intertwined with environmental protection. Recognizing the right to a healthy environment obligates states to prioritize sustainable development, address climate change, and safeguard future generations. (Extract from *MK Ranjitsinh and Ors v. Union of India, 2024 SC*) (A) To enforce international environmental treaties on climate change at national level (B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change (C) To stabilize carbon footprints and oversee global diversity protection efforts (D) All of the above |
(B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change | The main objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with the climate system. | ||||||||||
| 32. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) specifically addresses climate change? (A) SDG 31 (B) SDG 13 (C) SDG 12 (D) SDG 15 |
(B) SDG 13 | SDG 13 aims to take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts. It specifically targets measures to reduce adverse effects on ecosystems and communities globally. | ||||||||||
| 33. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that any disturbance of the basic environment elements namely air, water, and soil, which are necessary for life, would be hazardous to ‘life’ within the meaning of Article 21 of the Constitution of India? (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 2000 SC (B) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 2000 SC (C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC (D) M.C. Mehta v. Union Carbide Commission, 1991 SC |
(C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC | In the case of Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that disturbance of the environment—air, water, and soil—is a violation of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. | ||||||||||
| 34. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) The people of India do not have a right against the adverse effects of climate change. (B) The Supreme Court for the first time recognized the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change. (C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’. (D) None of the Above |
(C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’. | The Supreme Court has recognized the 'right to a clean and healthy environment' as part of the right to life under Article 21. This inherently includes protection from the adverse effects of climate change. | ||||||||||
| 35. Which of the following protocols focuses on limiting global temperature rise by reducing carbon emissions and combating climate change? (A) The Montreal Protocol (B) The Kyoto Protocol (C) The Paris Agreement (D) The Rio Declaration |
(C) The Paris Agreement | The Paris Agreement (2015) focuses on limiting global temperature rise to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and aims to reduce carbon emissions through international cooperation and nationally determined contributions. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Court stated that judicial thinking should not be constrained by outdated laws or foreign legal systems. Instead, India must develop its own jurisprudence to meet modern needs. It highlighted the rule of strict and absolute liability, mandating that enterprises engaged in hazardous activities adhere to the highest safety standards. The scope of Epistolary jurisdiction was also discussed, affirming that procedural formalities must not obstruct access to justice. Justice should prioritize substance over technicalities, ensuring laws are dynamic and responsive to industrial and societal advancements. (A) Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC (B) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai, 1976 SC (C) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, 1976 SC (D) Amba Devi v. Union of India, 1984 SC |
(A) Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC | The term "Epistolary Jurisdiction" was first used in India in the case of Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC. The Supreme Court allowed letters to be treated as writ petitions, broadening access to justice. | ||||||||||
| 37. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) has a strict liability connotation? (A) Theft under Section 378 IPC (B) Defamation under Section 499 IPC (C) Bigamy under Section 494 IPC (D) Selling adulterated food or drink under Section 272 IPC |
(D) Selling adulterated food or drink under Section 272 IPC | Section 272 of the IPC imposes strict liability for selling adulterated food or drink, holding the seller liable regardless of intent or knowledge of the adulteration. | ||||||||||
| 38. “The Rule of Law is that the person who, for his own purpose, brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril.” Above rule has been evolved by: (A) Lord Burrough (B) Justice Blackburn (C) Lord Baron Diplock (D) None of the above |
(B) Justice Blackburn | The rule was articulated by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), establishing the principle of strict liability for damages caused by escape of hazardous materials from land. | ||||||||||
| 39. The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable: (A) When the escape is due to vis major or act of God (B) When the damage is due to the wrongful or malicious act of a stranger (C) When the escape is due to the plaintiff’s own fault (D) All of the above |
(D) All of the above | The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher does not apply in cases involving vis major (act of God), malicious acts of a stranger, or the plaintiff's own fault. | ||||||||||
| 40. In India, the ‘Absolute Liability’ theory on the basis of injuries caused by hazardous industries was propounded by: (A) V.R. Krishna Iyer, J. (B) P.N. Bhagwati, C.J. (C) Kuldip Singh, J. (D) M.N. Venkatachaliah, C.J. |
(B) P.N. Bhagwati, C.J. | The 'Absolute Liability' theory was propounded by Chief Justice P.N. Bhagwati in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), holding hazardous industries absolutely liable for any harm caused, irrespective of intent. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Industrial Disputes Act broadly defined ‘industry,’ but interpretations varied, creating confusion. The Board argued it was not an industry as its purpose was public welfare, not profit. The Supreme Court, led by Chief Justice M. Hameedullah Beg, provided a broad and inclusive definition, emphasizing the nature of activity and the employer-employee relationship. This judgment extended labour protections to workers in public utilities, statutory bodies, and even some non-profit organizations. It underscored the judiciary's role in ensuring social justice and worker protections in a rapidly industrializing nation. (A) The profit-making motive of the employer (B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given (C) The nature of the activity and the authority of the employer over its employees (D) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, all the activities must be considered. Even if one activity is commercial, the employees will not get the benefit of workman of an industry under the Industrial Dispute Act |
(B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given | The Supreme Court ruled that when an establishment carries out multiple activities, its dominant function determines whether it constitutes an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act. If the dominant function is non-commercial, workers may still receive benefits under the Act. | ||||||||||
| 42. Which of the following best describes the broader impact of the judgment? (A) It reduced labour protections for workers (B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers (C) It had no significant impact on labour laws (D) It only affected private sector workers |
(B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers | The judgment broadened the definition of "industry," allowing more workers, including those in previously excluded sectors, to benefit from labour protections under the Industrial Disputes Act. | ||||||||||
| 43. Which of the following best describes the term ‘industry’ as defined by the Supreme Court in this judgment? (A) Any activity involving profit-making (B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services (C) Only activities conducted by private enterprises (D) Activities limited to manufacturing sectors |
(B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services | The Supreme Court defined "industry" as any systematic activity involving employer-employee cooperation for producing or distributing goods and services, regardless of profit motives. | ||||||||||
| 44. In which of the following landmark judgments, the Supreme Court held that when an association or society of apartment owners employs workers for personal services to its members, those workers do not qualify as workmen under the Act and the association is not an “Industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act? (A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC (B) Anand Vihar Apartment Owners’ Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2024 SC (C) Kanchanjunga Building Employees Union v. Kanchanjunga Flat Owners Society & Anr., 2024 SC (D) None of the above |
(A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC | In Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen (2009), the Supreme Court ruled that workers employed for personal services by apartment owners' societies do not qualify as workmen under the Industrial Disputes Act. | ||||||||||
| 45. Under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947, what is the role of the “Works Committee” and which of the following correctly describes its function? (A) The Works committee is a body formed by the Central government to address wage disputes between employer and employee in public sector industries (B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee (C) The Works Committee is responsible for making binding decisions on industrial disputes related to layoffs, retrenchment, and closure of industrial units (D) All of the above |
(B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee | The Works Committee is a grievance redressal body formed by the employer to promote harmonious relations between employers and employees. It addresses grievances but does not make binding decisions on industrial disputes. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreAn ostensible sale with transfer of possession and ownership, but containing a clause for reconveyance in accordance with Section 58(c) of the Act, will clothe the agreement as a mortgage by conditional sale. Referring to Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act the observed, “A deeming fiction was added in the negative that a transaction shall not be deemed to be a mortgage unless the condition for reconveyance is contained in the document which purports to effect the sale.” The issue under adjudication was whether the transaction between the parties was an absolute sale of the property or it was a mortgage. The court relied upon the case Bishwanath Prasad Singh v. Rajendra Prasad and Anr, 2006 SC and held that A bare perusal of the said provision clearly shows that a mortgage by conditional sale must be evidenced by one document whereas a sale with condition of retransfer may be evidenced by more than one document. A sale with a condition of retransfer is not a mortgage. It is not a partial transfer. By reason of such a transfer all rights have been transferred reserving only a personal right to the purchaser and such a personal right would be lost unless the same is exercised within the stipulated time. The execution of separate agreement for reconveyance, either contemporaneously or subsequently, shall militate against the agreement being mortgaged by conditional sale. There must exist a debtor and creditor relationship. The valuation of the property, and the transaction value, along with the duration of time for reconveyance, are important considerations to decide the nature of the agreement. There will have to be a cumulative consideration of these factors, along with the recitals in the agreement, intention of the parties, coupled with other attendant circumstances, considered in a holistic manner. The language used in the agreement may not always be conclusive. (Extract from Prakash (Dead) By LR. V. G. Aradhya Ors, 2023 SC) (A) to institute a suit for sale (B) to suit for recovery of money (C) to institute a suit for foreclosure (D) Both (A) and (B) |
(D) Both (A) and (B) | In a mortgage by conditional sale, the mortgagee has two remedies: filing a suit for sale to recover the debt or suing for the recovery of money if the mortgagor defaults. Both remedies are valid under this arrangement. | ||||||||||
| 47. One of the conditions of mortgage by conditional sale is that: (A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable (B) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall become void (C) the mortgagee shall receive the rent and profits and will appropriate the same towards the dues (D) All of the above |
(A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable | In a mortgage by conditional sale, the sale becomes voidable upon payment of the mortgage money, allowing the mortgagor to redeem the property. This does not apply to mortgages involving possession or other arrangements. | ||||||||||
| 48. What is the common clause between mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage? (A) Transfer of ownership of mortgaged property (B) Transfer of possession of mortgaged property (C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property (D) Delivery of documents of title |
(C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property | Both mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage allow the mortgagee to sell the property in case of default. The distinction lies in the conditions governing the transaction. | ||||||||||
| 49. What is the limitation period in case of mortgage by conditional sale? (A) 3 years (B) 12 years (C) 30 years (D) No time limit |
(B) 12 years | The limitation period for redemption of a mortgage by conditional sale is 12 years, during which the mortgagor can reclaim the property upon payment of the mortgage debt. | ||||||||||
| 50. Which of the following expresses the distinction between a mortgage by conditional sale and a sale with a condition of repurchase? (A) In a mortgage the debt subsists and a right to redeem remains with the debtor, but a sale with a condition of repurchase is not a lending and borrowing arrangement (B) In a mortgage by conditional sale, generally the amount of consideration is far below the value of the property in the market, but in a sale with a condition of repurchase, the amount of consideration is generally equal to or close to the value of the property (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | In a mortgage, the debt remains, and the mortgagor retains a right to redeem the property. In contrast, a sale with a condition of repurchase involves a transaction closer to a straightforward sale. Additionally, the consideration in a mortgage is typically lower than the market value of the property. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreUnder Section 271 of the Companies Act, even financially sound companies can be wound up for specified reasons, unlike insolvency cases under the IBC, which focus on revival or winding up due to inability to pay debts. The Supreme Court emphasized that these situations cannot be equated when evaluating potential violations of Article 14 or 21 of the Constitution. Revival under the IBC often requires sacrifices from stakeholders, including workers and creditors, which are acceptable unless they are manifestly unjust. The Court rejected a word-by-word comparison of the waterfall mechanisms under the Companies Act and IBC, highlighting that the two enactments serve distinct objectives and cannot be conflated. (A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd (B) R. K. Dalmia v. Delhi Administration (C) Dale And Carrington Invt. P. Ltd. v. P.K. Prathapan (D) Rohtas Industries Ltd v. S.D. Agarwal & Anr |
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd | In the case of Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd (1986), the Supreme Court addressed the rights of shareholders, the role of the Board of Directors, and the scope of judicial intervention in corporate matters, especially concerning decisions affecting the rights of minority shareholders. | ||||||||||
| 52. The extent to which a corporation as a legal person can be held criminally liable for its acts and omissions and for those of the natural persons employed by it is called (A) Corporate manslaughter (B) Lifting the corporate veil (C) Corporate criminal liability (D) Corporate social responsibility |
(C) Corporate criminal liability | Corporate criminal liability refers to the legal principle that a corporation, as a legal entity, can be held criminally liable for its own acts or the acts of its employees or agents within the scope of their employment. | ||||||||||
| 53. In which of the following cases, the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was upheld by the Supreme Court? (A) RPS Infrastructure Ltd. v. Union of India (B) Paschimanchal Vidyut Vitran Nigam Ltd. v. Union of India (C) Union Bank of India v. Financial Creditors of M/s Amtek Auto Limited (D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India |
(D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India | In the case of Swiss Ribbons Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India (2019), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, affirming that the provisions of the Code do not violate the Constitution. | ||||||||||
| 54. A Director other than a managing Director or a whole-time Director or a nominee Director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company/Directors other than the remuneration is called (A) Impartial Director (B) Promoter (C) Independent Director (D) Associate Director |
(C) Independent Director | An Independent Director is a director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company or its directors, except for their remuneration, and is not involved in the day-to-day management of the company. | ||||||||||
| 55. Which among the following is not a duty of a Director of the company? (A) To file return of allotments (B) To disclose interest (C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings (D) To convene General meeting |
(C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings | Directors have several duties, including filing returns of allotments, disclosing their interest, and convening General Meetings. However, it is not their duty to call upon shareholders to attend Board meetings, which is generally the responsibility of the Board itself. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Shambu Nath Mehra vs. The State of Ajmer (1956 SCR 199)*, the learned Judge has stated the legal principle thus: “This lays down the general rule that in a criminal case the burden of proof is on the prosecution and section 106 is designed to meet certain exceptional cases in which it would be impossible, or at any rate disproportionately difficult for the prosecution to establish facts which are ‘especially’ within the knowledge of the accused and which he could prove without difficulty or inconvenience. The word ‘especially’ underscores facts that are pre-eminently or exceptionally within the knowledge of the accused. It added, if the section were to be interpreted otherwise, it would lead to the very startling conclusion that in a murder case the burden lies on the accused to prove that he did not commit the murder because who could know better than him whether he did or did not.” It is evident that it cannot be the intention and Privy Council has twice refused to construe this section, as reproduced in certain other Acts outside India, to mean that the burden lies on the accused person to show that he did not commit the crime for which he is tried. These cases are *Attygalle v. The King. 1936 PC 169 (AIR V 23) (A)* and *Seneviratne v. R, 1936-3 All ER 36 at p.49 (B)*. In case resting on circumstantial evidence, an accused person’s failure to provide a reasonable explanation as required by S. 106 could serve as an additional link in the chain of circumstances. (Based on facts from *State of West Bengal vs. Mir Mohammad Omar Ors, AIR 2000 SUPREME COURT 2988*) (A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101 (B) Section 106 is intended to relieve the prosecution of their duty to prove the case beyond reasonable doubt under Section 101 (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B |
(A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101 | Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides that the burden of proof lies on the prosecution. However, Section 106 provides an exception, shifting the burden of proof to the accused in certain cases where the facts are within his special knowledge. | ||||||||||
| 57. ‘Any person’ in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to: (A) A party to the suit/proceeding (B) A stranger to the suit/proceeding (C) A witness (D) None of the above |
(A) A party to the suit/proceeding | The term "any person" in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to a party to the suit or proceeding, and not necessarily a stranger or witness. This person is expected to provide evidence related to facts within their knowledge. | ||||||||||
| 58. In which of the recent following cases, Supreme Court expounded the principles relating to the applicability of S. 106 of Indian Evidence Act? (A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC (B) Anita v. NCT of Delhi, 2024 SC (C) Abhay v. Union of India, 2024 SC (D) Anish v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC |
(A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC | In the case of Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC, the Supreme Court expounded on the applicability of Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act. The section deals with the burden of proof where a party has special knowledge regarding a fact. | ||||||||||
| 59. What is the phrase “Presumptions are like bats, flitting in the twilight but disappearing in the sunshine of facts” indicate? (A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented (B) Presumption is a substantive piece of evidence and it completely relieves the prosecution of its burden of proof, as long as the presumption is established in the beginning of the trial (C) There are different categories of presumptions and the highest degree of presumption shifts the burden of proof permanently to the accused, who must disprove the presumption beyond reasonable doubt (D) Presumptions are irrefutable facts that, once established, cannot be negated by evidence brought forth in the case |
(A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented | The phrase illustrates that presumptions are not irrefutable. They can be rebutted if evidence disproving them is presented, thus shifting the burden of proof back to the original party. | ||||||||||
| 60. Which of the theories emanate from Section 106 of Indian Evidence Act? 1. Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor 2. Theory of reverse burden of proof 3. Doctrine of last seen together 4. Presumption of innocence Select the correct option: (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 |
(B) 2 and 3 | Section 106 is linked to the theory of reverse burden of proof (where the accused must disprove certain facts) and the doctrine of last seen together (relevant in criminal cases involving circumstantial evidence). | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989)*, the Supreme Court affirmed that the President acts under a constitutional power distinct from judicial authority. This power permits the President to reach a different conclusion regarding guilt or sentence without modifying the judicial record. While the President is not obligated to disclose reasons for the decision, the exercise of this power must be based on legitimate and relevant reasons. In *Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014)*, the Court reiterated that the Presidential act does not alter the judicial record but operates on a separate constitutional plane to ensure justice and clemency in deserving cases. (A) The power to grant pardon is a constitutional duty. Hence, judicial review is available, just as any executive action (B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon (C) The constitution expressly conferred the power to grant pardon to the President hence, the President is not bound to rely on the aid advice of the executive (D) The President’s power to grant pardon can be reviewed on the grounds of non-application of mind |
(B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon | The President’s power to grant pardon is a discretionary power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India. Judicial review is generally not available against the decision of the President, unless there is an issue of non-application of mind or mala fide intentions. | ||||||||||
| 62. In the above case the Supreme Court held that a minimum period of days be stipulated between the receipt of communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution. (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 14 (D) No such time was fixed |
(B) 30 | In the case of Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that there should be a minimum period of 30 days between the communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution. | ||||||||||
| 63. What is not true about Art. 21 of Constitution of India? (A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence (B) Right to life of a person continues till his last breath and that Court will protect that right even if the noose is being tied on the condemned person’s neck (C) The anguish of alternating hope and despair, the agony of uncertainty and the consequence of such suffering on the mental, emotional and physical integrity and health violates Art. 21 of the prisoners (D) Art. 21 is a substantive right and not merely procedural |
(A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence | Insanity is a valid factor for the commutation of a death sentence under Article 21. Mental agony caused by prolonged uncertainty is also considered a violation of the right to life. | ||||||||||
| 64. In which case, the Supreme Court held that if the crime is brutal and heinous and involves the killing of a large number of innocent people without any reason, delay cannot be the sole factor for the commutation of the death sentence to life imprisonment? (A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi (B) V. Sriharan Murugan v. Union of India (C) Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra (D) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India |
(A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi | The Supreme Court ruled in this case that a delay in execution cannot justify commutation to life imprisonment if the crime is heinous and brutal, involving large-scale loss of innocent lives. | ||||||||||
| 65. The President’s power to grant a pardon (A) Can be delegated to the Council of Ministers (B) Cannot be delegated as it is an essential legislative function (C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President (D) Can be delegated to the Vice-president in the absence of the President |
(C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President | The power to grant pardon is explicitly conferred on the President by Article 72 of the Constitution of India and cannot be delegated to any other body, including the Council of Ministers or the Vice President. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Court held that while rights under a contract are generally assignable unless the contract is of a personal nature or prohibits assignment, obligations cannot be assigned without the consent of the other party. This principle was affirmed in *Khardah Co. Ltd. v. Raymon & Co. (India) (P) Ltd. (1962)*, which noted that the assignment of obligations requires consent, effectively creating a novation of the contract. On the other hand, rights can be transferred unless explicitly restricted by the contract or by law. The term "representative-in-interest" includes assignees, but obligations, being personal and based on the promisee’s reliance on the promisor, cannot be transferred without mutual agreement. (A) The agreement is invalid (B) The agreement is not valid because a conditional sale deed containing a clause for repurchase cannot be executed (C) The agreement is not valid because the time period provided for repurchase by the vendor is very long, i.e., seven years (D) The agreement is valid |
(D) The agreement is valid | A conditional sale deed that includes a clause for repurchase within a reasonable period, even if it extends to seven years, is valid under the Indian Contract Act, as long as it is agreed upon by both parties and does not contravene any statutory provisions. | ||||||||||
| 67. Which of the following is correct regarding the assignability of the contract? (A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (B) A party to a contract can transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party (C) A party to a contract cannot transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party (D) Transfer of obligation can be made to anyone without permission of anyone |
(A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 | The Indian Contract Act, 1872, explicitly governs the assignment of contracts under Sections 130-137. Transfer of obligations or liabilities without the other party's consent is generally prohibited unless allowed by the contract. | ||||||||||
| 68. Who among the following is not ‘representative-in-interest’ for the purpose of obtaining specific performance? (A) The person to whom the interest in the contract is transferred for a valuable consideration (B) The person to whom the interest in the contract devolves by succession (C) The person to whom the interest in contract is gifted by a gift deed (D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler |
(D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler | A “rank trespasser” or intermeddler has no legal standing to enforce specific performance of a contract, as they have no legitimate interest or title in the contract. | ||||||||||
| 69. Consider the following statements: I. The benefit of a contract is assignable in ‘cases where it can make no difference to the person on whom the obligation lies to which of two persons, he is to discharge it’. II. A contract which is such that the promisor must perform it in person, viz. involving personal considerations or personal skill or qualifications (such as his credit), are by their nature not assignable. III. The contractual rights for the payment of money or to building work do not involve personal considerations and are not contracts of a personal nature. Choose the correct answer: (A) I and II are correct (B) II and III are correct (C) Only III is correct (D) I, II and III are correct |
(C) Only III is correct | Contracts related to money and building work are typically not personal in nature and can often be assigned. Statement I is incorrect as the benefit of a contract is assignable only if the obligation on the other party remains unaffected. | ||||||||||
| 70. Consider the following statements: I. Where a party to the contract has obtained substituted performance of the contract as per law, such contract is not specifically enforceable. II. A contract, the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise, is not specifically enforceable. III. After the Amendment Act of 2018, a contract for non-performance for which compensation is an adequate relief is not specifically enforceable. Choose the correct answer: (A) All are correct (B) I and II are correct (C) II and III are correct (D) Only II is correct |
(C) II and III are correct | Contracts requiring ongoing duties that cannot be supervised by the court are not specifically enforceable. After the 2018 Amendment, contracts where compensation is an adequate relief are also not specifically enforceable. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreSEBI exercises wide-ranging powers under the SEBI Act, SCRA, and Depositories Act of 1996, including legislative, administrative, and adjudicatory authority. Section 11 mandates SEBI to regulate the securities market and protect investor interests, while Section 30 empowers it to frame regulations consistent with the Act. SEBI adopts a consultative approach, involving domain experts, market players, and the public in drafting and reviewing regulations. This dynamic framework ensures SEBI’s regulations align with the evolving securities market and maintain its integrity. (A) Technical Advisory Committee (B) Competition Advisory Committee (C) Intermediary Advisory Committee (D) Market Data Advisory Committee |
(B) Competition Advisory Committee | SEBI has established various advisory committees to help in formulating regulations and policies. However, the "Competition Advisory Committee" is not one of them. SEBI focuses on committees like the Technical Advisory Committee, Intermediary Advisory Committee, and Market Data Advisory Committee to regulate the market and its participants. | ||||||||||
| 72. Which among the following is not a function of SEBI? (A) Regulating substantial acquisition of shares and takeover of companies (B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations (C) Prohibiting insider trading in securities (D) Promoting investors’ education and training of intermediaries of securities markets |
(B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations | While SEBI is responsible for regulating various aspects of the securities market, including acquisitions, insider trading, and investor education, it does not directly regulate self-regulatory organizations. This function is handled by the organizations themselves under SEBI's oversight. | ||||||||||
73. Match List I with List II:
(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I |
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II | - Section 6 deals with the removal of a member from office (III). - Section 11 outlines the functions of the SEBI Board (IV). - Section 27 refers to offences by companies (I). - Section 30 grants the SEBI Board the power to make regulations (II). Correct matching: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. |
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| 74. The process by which an organisation thinks about and evolves its relationships with stakeholders for the common good, and demonstrates its commitment in this regard by adoption of appropriate business processes and strategies is called: (A) Annual general meeting (B) Corporate social responsibility (C) Issuing Shelf prospectus (D) Incorporation of a company |
(B) Corporate social responsibility | The process described is Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which involves a company’s efforts to assess and take responsibility for its effects on environmental and social well-being by adopting sustainable business strategies. | ||||||||||
| 75. In which of the following cases did the court strike down the attempt of the government to nationalise banks and pay minimal compensation to the shareholders? (A) Shri Sunil Siddharthbhai Etc v. Union of India (B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (C) United Bank of India v. Satyawati Tondon Ors (D) Punjab National Bank v. Union of India |
(B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India | In the case of R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down the government’s attempt to nationalize banks and pay minimal compensation to shareholders, ruling that such an action was unconstitutional. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Nil Ratan Kundu and another v. Abhijit Kundu* (2008), the Court emphasized that custody decisions require a human touch and cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions. The Court stated that the child’s comfort, health, education, intellectual development, and moral and ethical values are essential considerations. The child’s intelligent preference should be considered, but the final decision must prioritize their welfare. Similarly, in *Gaurav Nagpal v. Semedha Nagpal* (2009), the Court reiterated that the welfare of the child, including moral and ethical values, outweighs legalistic arguments and conflicting parental claims. These principles ensure that custody decisions focus on the child’s holistic well-being. (A) Financial ability of the parents (B) Sex of the child and its age at the relevant time (C) Physical Comfort, possibility of recreational activities of the child (D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values |
(D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values | The most indispensable consideration in matters of child custody is ensuring an environment conducive to the development of moral and ethical values, as it is paramount to the child’s welfare. | ||||||||||
| 77. The provision of custody of child under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 gives: (A) Right of custody to mother, if child is below five years of age (B) Preferential custody right to father (C) Custody right to any close relative who is found suitable (D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age |
(D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age | Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, mothers are given preferential consideration for custody if the child is below five years of age, emphasizing the importance of maternal care. | ||||||||||
| 78. The sensitivity in judicial decision making is manifest in this passage from the court’s observation that: (A) Custody of child can be given to grandparents (B) Welfare of child is paramount consideration (C) Ethical and moral wellbeing is given priority (D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch |
(D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch | The passage highlights that custody cases demand a sensitive approach, balancing legal principles with human considerations to ensure the child’s welfare. | ||||||||||
| 79. What does the passage state about the opinion of a child who is old enough to state its preference regarding custody? (A) The child has a right to get custody order according to his preference (B) The child’s preference in relation to his custody is immaterial (C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody (D) Court is bound by the child’s preference in relation to custody even if it differs in its opinion about whom to grant the custody |
(C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody | While a child’s preference is important, the court has the ultimate authority to decide custody arrangements, focusing on the child’s welfare. | ||||||||||
| 80. The considerations for the decision in relation to custody of child, is subject to which of the following basis as mentioned in Sec.13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956? (A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration (B) Wishes of the child form the primary basis in custody cases (C) Child’s health and educational needs are primary considerations (D) Suitability of the person claiming custody is the basic consideration |
(A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration | Section 13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, prioritizes the welfare of the child as the paramount consideration in custody decisions. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreDuty is an obligation recognised by law to avoid conduct fraught with unreasonable risk of damage to others. The question whether duty exists in a particular situation involves determination of law. Hence, three ingredients are necessary for the existence of a duty of care: (i) foreseeability of the damage, (ii) proximity of relationship between the parties, and (iii) whether it is “just, fair and reasonable” that the law should impose a duty of care. In *Caparo Industries Plc. v. Dickman* (1990), the court held that breach of duty is concerned with the standard of care that ought to have been adopted in the circumstances and whether the defendant’s conduct fell below that standard, i.e., whether he was careless. The court, quoting *Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum* (1997), stated that as a tort, negligence consists of legal duty to take care and breach of that duty. Duty determines whether the type of loss suffered by the plaintiff in the particular way in which it occurred can ever be actionable. The process of determining a breach of duty involves three steps: First, it is necessary to ascertain the qualities of the reasonable person, given the qualities attributed to him, would have taken in the circumstances. The factors that are permissible to take into account in this regard are prescribed by law, but the amount of care that the reasonable person would have taken is a question of fact. Lastly, it must be determined whether the defendant took less care than the reasonable person would have taken. (A) A doctor prescribes the wrong medication to a patient, but the patient’s immune system prevents any harmful side effects and the patient does not suffer any injury (B) A driver runs a red light, narrowly avoiding an accident with another car and both vehicles continue without any collision or harm (C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender (D) A construction company delays necessary maintenance on a bridge and despite having major cracks the bridge remains functional |
(C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender | In negligence cases, all elements must be present: duty of care, breach, causation, and injury. Option (C) satisfies these criteria as the lifeguard’s breach caused the tragic accident. | ||||||||||
| 82. Reasonable foreseeability means: (A) Mere possibility (B) Expectation of sensible person (C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person (D) Remote possibility of a particular consequence of his act by a reasonable person |
(C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person | Reasonable foreseeability is about predicting probable consequences of one’s actions based on what an average prudent person would anticipate. | ||||||||||
| 83. A renowned judgment in which reasonable foreseeability test was discussed by the Privy Council, was: (A) Scott v. Shephard (B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson (D) Re Polemis and Furness, Withy Co |
(B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) | The Wagon Mound case established the principle that liability in negligence is limited to reasonably foreseeable consequences of an act. | ||||||||||
| 84. In which of the following judgments was the neighbour principle propounded? (A) Scott v. Shephard (B) Rylands v. Fletcher (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson (D) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) |
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson | The neighbor principle was established in Donoghue v. Stevenson, defining the duty of care owed to those closely affected by one’s actions. | ||||||||||
| 85. Compensation is to be assessed on the basis of: (A) Rough estimate of loss generally resulting from death (B) Approximate calculation of damage as a result of death (C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits (D) Closeness in relationship between claimants and the deceased |
(C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits | Compensation in wrongful death cases is based on the legitimate expectation of financial benefits the deceased would have provided to the claimants. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Court emphasized the necessity for the Law Commission of India to undertake a comprehensive review of tribunals to enhance their independence and efficiency. It also suggested evolving a model for constituting or reconstituting tribunals to build public confidence in their functioning. The Court expressed concern over the ineffectiveness of alternative mechanisms devised for judicial review, stressing that judicial review and remedies are fundamental rights. The quality of justice dispensed by tribunals was deemed unsatisfactory, calling for urgent reforms to uphold the rights of citizens. (A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997 (B) R.K. Jain v. Union of India 1993 (C) S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India 1985 (D) Kesvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 1973 |
(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997 | The Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar case (1997) ruled that judicial review, a basic feature of the Constitution, can be entrusted to alternative mechanisms, provided they are effective and real substitutes for High Courts. | ||||||||||
| 87. The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 shall not apply to: (A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union (B) Officer or servant of the Supreme Court or of any High Court or Courts subordinate (C) Person appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament or to the secretarial staff of any State Legislature or a House thereof or, in the case of a Union Territory having a Legislature, of that Legislature (D) All of the above |
(A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union | Section 14 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 excludes members of the armed forces (military, naval, air) from its provisions. | ||||||||||
| 88. The first tribunal established in India is: (A) Central Administrative Tribunal (B) Railway Claims Tribunal (C) Armed Forces Tribunal (D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal |
(D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal | The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), established in 1941, was the first tribunal in India, focusing on resolving income tax disputes. | ||||||||||
| 89. Articles 323-A and 323-B of the Indian Constitution for the establishment of tribunal to adjudicate disputes in specific matters. While both articles deal with tribunals, there are key differences in their scope and application. Which of the following statement correctly reflects the distinction between Articles 323-A and 323-B? (A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms (B) While tribunals under Article 323-A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323-B can only be established by State legislature, with matters falling within their legislative competence (C) Under Article 323-A, only one tribunal for centre and no tribunal for state may be established. As far as Article 323-B is concerned, there is no hierarchy of tribunals (D) Article 323-A grant tribunals the power to hear appeals directly from the Supreme Court, by passing the High Court. Under Article 323-B there is no such power |
(A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms | Article 323-A specifically covers administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B encompasses a broader range of tribunal subjects, such as taxation and land reforms. | ||||||||||
| 90. The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in the year: (A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 2009 (D) 2010 |
(D) 2010 | The National Green Tribunal Act was enacted in 2010 to establish the National Green Tribunal, which focuses on the expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of natural resources. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreSection 47 of the Registration Act states that a registered document operates from the time it would have commenced to operate if no registration had been required. Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act mandates that a transfer of immovable property of value above Rs. 100 must be made through a registered deed. The Court reiterated that without a duly stamped and registered deed, no right, title, or interest in immovable property can be transferred. Referring to *Ram Saran Lall v. Domini Kuer*, the Court noted the harmonious balance between Section 54 and the deeming fiction under Section 47. Section 54 distinguishes between transfers of tangible immovable property above Rs. 100, which require registration, and transfers below Rs. 100, which can be made through delivery or a registered instrument. (A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property (B) As long as the terms, grant or disposition is in writing and fulfills the criteria of S. 91 of the Indian Evidence Act, it will be admitted as evidence (C) Procedure is a handmaid of justice and registration is merely a procedural requirement. Non-registration does not make the document less admissible in court (D) The unregistered document can be adduced in evidence if the party adducing it is able to prove its bonafide |
(A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property | Section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908, states that an unregistered document required to be registered cannot be used as evidence in court for transactions involving immovable property. | ||||||||||
| 92. A property from one person to the other can be transferred by way of: (A) Court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment (B) Dedication, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment (C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication (D) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance |
(C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication | Property transfer can occur through private sale, court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, or dedication, encompassing multiple modes under Indian law. | ||||||||||
| 93. Where the member of the family agrees to divide the property amongst themselves, not necessarily in accordance with the quantum as specified in law or according to their entitlement. It can take into its fold non-family members as well. Once effected, it is binding on all the members who were parties to it and is enforceable? This division is called: (A) Transfer of property under the Transfer of Property Act (B) Partition of joint Hindu Family (C) Family Arrangement (D) Partition in Interested parties |
(C) Family Arrangement | A Family Arrangement is an informal agreement that divides property among family members and is binding once agreed, even if it does not adhere strictly to legal entitlements. | ||||||||||
| 94. Property and interest in the property as a general rule are transferable. This rule of transferability is based on the maxim: (A) Alienation rei praefertur juri accrescendi (B) Cuius est solum eius est usque ad coelum et usque ad infernos (C) Res nullius (D) Nemo dat quod non habet |
(D) Nemo dat quod non habet | The maxim "Nemo dat quod non habet" means "No one can give what they do not have," indicating that property rights are transferable only if the transferor possesses those rights. | ||||||||||
| 95. In a given case where a sale deed is executed and the entire agreed consideration is paid on or before execution of the sale deed, after it is registered, it will operate from: (A) Date of registration of the sale deed (B) Date of execution of the sale deed (C) Date on which communication of proposal was complete (D) None of the above |
(B) Date of execution of the sale deed | A sale deed operates from the date of its execution, provided the consideration is paid and the deed is registered subsequently. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Lata Singh v. State of U.P. (2006)*, the Supreme Court held that live-in relationships between consenting heterosexual adults are not offences, though they may be perceived as immoral. The Domestic Violence Act (DV Act) was enacted to protect women from domestic violence and to cover relationships "in the nature of marriage." The distinction lies in a close analysis of the relationship's nature, as outlined in Section 2(f) of the DV Act. Other legislations, such as Section 125 Cr.P.C., Section 498-A IPC, and Section 304-B IPC, address maintenance, mental cruelty, and dowry deaths, respectively. However, the DV Act explicitly covers relationships resembling marriage, providing women legal remedies for protection and maintenance. (A) Considering the number of children born in a live in relationship (B) Considering only the cohabitation period of the relationship and their emotional connectivity (C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets (D) Evaluating only the financial aspects and mutual agreements of the relationship, and if there is any written agreement between the partner |
(C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets | Section 2(f) of the DV Act requires a comprehensive analysis of cohabitation, emotional connectivity, financial support, mutual agreements, and shared responsibilities to define a “relationship in the nature of marriage.” | ||||||||||
| 97. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court read down the word “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? (A) Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma (B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora (C) Uma Narayan v. Priya Krishna Prasad (D) All of the above |
(B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora | The Supreme Court in Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora expanded the definition of "adult male" in Section 2(q) to include women in domestic violence cases. | ||||||||||
| 98. As per Section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, while disposing of an application under Section 12(1), the Magistrate may direct the respondent to pay monetary relief to the aggrieved person so that the aggrieved person can: (A) Live a life that meets at least the bare minimum needs for survival and basic well-being (B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed (C) Live a life that is consistent with her parent’s standard of living (D) Live a life which can cover her medical expenses and expenses incurred due to litigation of domestic violence |
(B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed | Section 20 ensures monetary relief to help the aggrieved person maintain her accustomed standard of living before the domestic violence. | ||||||||||
| 99. In which case, the three-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court has recently interpreted the term “shared household” and has held that “. . . lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship. . . ” have to be given its normal and purposeful meaning? (A) Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja (B) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra (D) B.R. Mehta v. Atma Devi |
(C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra | The Supreme Court in S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra emphasized that a "shared household" must involve a living arrangement with some permanency, excluding casual or fleeting arrangements. | ||||||||||
| 100. Under Indian Law, can a woman in a live-in relationship claim maintenance under S. 125, Cr.P.C. despite not being a legally wedded wife? (A) No, as per the interpretation of statute ‘wife’ means legally wedded wife and includes who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from her husband (B) Yes, a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation (C) A woman in live-in relationship can only claim maintenance if she has been cohabiting for more than five years and dependent children from the relationship (D) A woman in live-in relationship can claim maintenance only through a civil suit as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA) does not apply to live-in relationships |
(B) Yes, a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation | Under Section 125, Cr.P.C., a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance based on proof of cohabitation without strict evidence of marriage. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe environmental rule of law creates essential tools to structure environmental protection, facilitating a shared understanding between science, regulatory decisions, and policy perspectives. It recognizes that environmental governance must involve all stakeholders, not just lawyers and judges, to address pressing challenges such as climate change, habitat destruction, and degradation. This rule emphasizes the interconnectedness of the natural world, highlighting that environmental issues in one region affect the entire ecosystem. By understanding and addressing global environmental issues, such as rising temperatures, melting glaciers, and desertification, the environmental rule of law aims to safeguard humanity’s future and the survival of ecosystems worldwide. (A) Its exclusive focus on legal principles (B) Its emphasis on environmental governance (C) Its reliance on judicial decisions (D) Its alignment with international treaties |
(B) Its emphasis on environmental governance | The environmental rule of law focuses specifically on environmental governance, creating a framework for addressing environmental protection distinct from the broader rule of law. | ||||||||||
| 102. What is the primary objective of the environmental rule of law? (A) To protect wildlife habitats (B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges (C) To promote economic development (D) To enforce local environmental regulations |
(B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges | The environmental rule of law seeks to enhance understanding and create legal frameworks that address environmental challenges effectively. | ||||||||||
| 103. Environmental Protection and Improvement were incorporated into the Constitution of India by inserting Articles 48-A and 51-A(g) by virtue of which of the following amendments? (A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 (C) 45th Amendment Act, 1980 (D) 35th Amendment Act, 1974 |
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 | The 42nd Amendment Act introduced Articles 48-A and 51-A(g) into the Indian Constitution, emphasizing environmental protection and making it a fundamental duty of citizens. | ||||||||||
| 104. In which international forum did the ‘Environmental rule of Law’ find recognition for the first time? (A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970 (B) Rio Declaration on Environment, 1992 (C) Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development, 2002 (D) UNEP’s Governing Council Decision 279, 2013 |
(A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970 | The Stockholm Conference (1970) marked the first recognition of the environmental rule of law, laying the foundation for international environmental governance. | ||||||||||
| 105. What does the environmental rule of law seek to achieve beyond local and national boundaries? (A) Economic growth (B) Environmental justice (C) Political stability (D) Cultural preservation |
(B) Environmental justice | The environmental rule of law aims to achieve environmental justice globally by ensuring consistent and equitable application of environmental laws across borders. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe environmental rule of law creates essential tools to structure environmental protection, facilitating a shared understanding between science, regulatory decisions, and policy perspectives. It recognizes that environmental governance must involve all stakeholders, not just lawyers and judges, to address pressing challenges such as climate change, habitat destruction, and degradation. This rule emphasizes the interconnectedness of the natural world, highlighting that environmental issues in one region affect the entire ecosystem. By understanding and addressing global environmental issues, such as rising temperatures, melting glaciers, and desertification, the environmental rule of law aims to safeguard humanity’s future and the survival of ecosystems worldwide. (A) Sovereign immunity (B) Command responsibility (C) Diplomatic immunity (D) Universal jurisdiction |
(B) Command responsibility | The principle of command responsibility holds leaders accountable for crimes committed by subordinates under their control, even if they didn’t directly commit the crimes, as highlighted in the Ongwen case. | ||||||||||
| 107. In the context of international criminal law, what does the principle of “individual criminal responsibility” entail? (A) Only states can be held accountable for international crimes (B) Individuals can be held personally liable for committing war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide (C) Individuals are immune from prosecution if they act under state orders (D) Only military personnel can be held responsible for international crimes |
(B) Individuals can be held personally liable for committing war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide | Individual criminal responsibility emphasizes personal liability for committing serious international crimes such as genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. | ||||||||||
| 108. The concept of “crimes against humanity” includes which of the following acts, as exemplified in the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case? (A) Piracy and terrorism (B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence (C) Espionage and sabotage (D) Intellectual property theft |
(B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence | Crimes against humanity include acts such as enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence committed as part of widespread or systematic attacks on civilians. | ||||||||||
| 109. What is the significance of the principle of “complementarity” in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? (A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so (B) The ICC has primary jurisdiction over all international crimes (C) The ICC can only prosecute crimes committed within its member states (D) The ICC shares jurisdiction equally with national courts |
(A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so | Complementarity ensures that the ICC intervenes only when national jurisdictions fail to prosecute international crimes, maintaining respect for national sovereignty. | ||||||||||
| 110. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case in the context of international criminal law? (A) It was the first case to address environmental crimes in international conflicts (B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence and the exploitation of children in armed conflicts (C) It was the first case to involve cybercrimes committed by international armed groups (D) It primarily focused on the financial aspects of running an armed group |
(B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence and the exploitation of children in armed conflicts | The Ongwen case highlighted the ICC's commitment to addressing crimes such as sexual violence, enslavement, and child exploitation in armed conflicts. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Court noted from MP Jain SN Jain’s treatise on Principles of Administrative Law that a fundamental principle of natural justice requires disclosing material evidence relied upon during adjudication. Without such disclosure, the decision is vitiated as it denies the affected party a real and effective opportunity to defend themselves. The Court emphasized that the test for disclosure hinges on whether the material is relevant for adjudication. If prejudice can be demonstrated by showing that the undisclosed material could have altered the outcome, the decision is deemed unfair and contrary to natural justice principles. (A) Nemo judex in causa sua (B) Audi alteram partem (C) Ignorantia juris non excusat (D) Jus necessitatis |
(B) Audi alteram partem | The principle of "Audi alteram partem" ensures fairness by allowing both parties in a dispute to present their case, reinforcing the core tenet of natural justice. | ||||||||||
| 112. Non-Disclosure of material invalidates the order if: (A) The authority has not relied on the material (B) No prejudice is caused to the party (C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication (D) The outcome would not have been any different if it was disclosed |
(C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication | Non-disclosure of material crucial to adjudication can lead to invalidation of the order, as it undermines the fairness of the process. | ||||||||||
| 113. ‘Real and effective opportunity’ in the context of this judgment refers to: (A) Personal hearing (B) Right to rebut the evidence supplied to the party (C) Right to adduce evidence (D) Right to know the evidence against oneself |
(D) Right to know the evidence against oneself | "Real and effective opportunity" ensures a party is aware of the evidence against them, providing a fair chance to respond to allegations. | ||||||||||
| 114. Which of the following requires compliance with the rule of fair hearing? (A) A notification bringing an Act into operation (B) Price Control Order under Essential Commodities Act (C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority (D) Reasoned Decision by competent authority |
(C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority | Compliance with the rule of fair hearing is necessary in disciplinary proceedings, ensuring affected individuals can present their case. | ||||||||||
| 115. Which of the following statements is false? (A) Proving prejudice to the party concerned is necessary to quash a quasi-judicial order on the ground of non-disclosure of evidence (B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions (C) Speaking order is a third principle of natural justice (D) Legal representation can be validly disallowed before a quasi-judicial proceeding |
(B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions | Principles of natural justice can have exceptions, especially in emergency situations or where statutory provisions explicitly provide otherwise. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension: Read MoreFuller argued that principles of law must be generally applicable, communicated effectively, and applied prospectively. They should have clear standards, avoid contradictions, and refrain from imposing impossible obligations. Consistency is essential, and frequent changes to laws can negatively impact those subjected to abrupt alterations. Fuller stressed that laws should respect human capabilities and practical realities. Additionally, he highlighted that implementation mechanisms are critical for the effectiveness of any law, as exemplified in historical contexts. (A) The retroactive application of laws (B) The consistent application of laws (C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect (D) The economic impact of laws |
(C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect | Fuller emphasizes that laws must be clearly communicated to the individuals they affect. Without proper communication, laws cannot be effectively followed or enforced. | ||||||||||
| 117. Which of the following best describes the central issue in the Hart-Fuller debate? (A) The influence of morality on state (B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected (C) The role of judges in interpreting morality (D) The influence of religious values on legal system |
(B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected | The Hart-Fuller debate focuses on whether laws should be inherently connected to moral principles. Hart argued for separation, while Fuller believed that laws must align with morality for validity. | ||||||||||
| 118. What was Lon Fuller’s main criticism of Hart’s legal positivism? (A) It ignores moral obligations of a judge to make decisions on ethics (B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication (C) It ignores the role of international law in shaping domestic legal systems (D) All of the above |
(B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication | Fuller criticized Hart's positivism for overemphasizing legal structure while neglecting the moral responsibilities embedded within laws, crucial for ensuring justice. | ||||||||||
| 119. Why does Fuller argue that legal standards should be free from contradictions? (A) To allow for greater judicial discretion (B) To ensure laws are adaptable to different situations (C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency (D) To simplify legal education |
(C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency | Fuller argued that contradictory laws undermine respect for the rule of law and create confusion, making consistent and fair application of laws impossible. | ||||||||||
| 120. Which of the following best describes the concept of “internal morality” in law according to Lon Fuller? (A) Law should be flexible and adaptive to individual circumstances (B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision (C) Law should prioritize economic efficiency (D) Law should be created by popular vote |
(B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision | Fuller's concept of "internal morality" requires laws to be clear, precise, and understandable, ensuring justice and functionality. |







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