CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper Set B with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was conducted by the Consortium of NLUs on December 1, 2024. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.
CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF Set B
| CLAT 2025 PG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set B) | Check Solutions |
CLAT PG 2025 Set B Questions with Solutions
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe lack of reliable electricity supply for many citizens not only hinders economic development but also disproportionately affects communities, including women and low-income households, further perpetuating inequalities. Therefore, the right to a healthy environment encapsulates the principle that every individual has the entitlement to live in an environment that is clean, safe, and conducive to their well-being. The promotion of renewable energy sources plays a crucial role in promoting social equity by ensuring access to clean and affordable energy for all segments of society, especially in rural and underserved areas. This contributes to poverty alleviation, enhances quality of life, and fosters inclusive growth and development across the nation. Therefore, transitioning to renewable energy is not just an environmental imperative but also a strategic investment in India’s future prosperity, resilience, and sustainability. The right to equality under Art. 14 and the right to life under Art. 21 must be appreciated in the context of the decisions of this court, the actions and commitments of the state on the national and international levels, and scientific consensus on climate change and its adverse effects. By recognising the right to a healthy environment, states are compelled to prioritise environmental protection and sustainable development, thereby addressing the root cause of climate change and safeguarding the well-being of present and future generations. 1. What is the objective of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)? (A) To enforce international environmental treaties on climate change at national level (B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change (C) To stabilize carbon footprints and oversee global diversity protection efforts (D) All of the above |
(B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change | The main objective of the UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations to prevent dangerous human-induced climate change, as stated in Article 2 of the Convention. |
| 2. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) specifically addresses climate change? (A) SDG 31 (B) SDG 13 (C) SDG 12 (D) SDG 15 |
(B) SDG 13 | SDG 13 focuses on urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts, targeting the global climate crisis and its adverse effects. |
| 3. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that any disturbance of the basic environment elements namely air, water, and soil, which are necessary for life, would be hazardous to ‘life’ within the meaning of Article 21 of the Constitution of India? (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 2000 SC (B) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 2000 SC (C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC (D) M.C. Mehta v. Union Carbide Commission, 1991 SC |
(C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC | The Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum case expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include the right to a healthy environment, emphasizing the protection of air, water, and soil as fundamental to life. |
| 4. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) The people of India do not have a right against the adverse effects of climate change as previous interpretations of Article 21 solely focused on individual freedoms and the right to a clean and pollution-free environment. (B) The Supreme Court for the first time recognized the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change in its recent judgment MK Ranjitsinh and Ors v. Union of India, 2024 SC. (C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’. (D) None of the Above |
(C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’. | The Supreme Court has included protection from climate change under the right to a clean and healthy environment, which is part of Article 21, without recognizing it as a separate right. |
| 5. Which of the following protocols focuses on limiting global temperature rise by reducing carbon emissions and combating climate change? (A) The Montreal Protocol (B) The Kyoto Protocol (C) The Paris Agreement (D) The Rio Declaration |
(C) The Paris Agreement | The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, focusing on reducing carbon emissions and combating climate change through international cooperation. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreOngwen was found guilty of 61 counts of crimes against humanity and war crimes, including murder, torture, enslavement, forced marriage, rape, and conscription of children under the age of 15 into armed groups. The ICC’s judgment emphasized the importance of accountability for leaders who exploit children in conflicts and commit sexual and gender-based crimes. A critical aspect of the judgment was the consideration of Ongwen’s own history as a child soldier. Ongwen was abducted by the LRA at around the age of nine and was forced to commit atrocities as he rose through the ranks. The court balanced this background against the gravity of his crimes, ultimately ruling that his personal history did not absolve him of responsibility for his actions as an adult commander. The judgment is also notable for its comprehensive approach to reparations for victims. The ICC ordered collective reparations, including symbolic measures like memorials, physical and psychological rehabilitation, and financial compensation to support the victims and their communities. This case reinforces the ICC’s commitment to addressing serious international crimes, particularly those involving vulnerable populations such as children and women and underscores the principles of justice and reparation in international criminal law. (A) Sovereign immunity (B) Command responsibility (C) Diplomatic immunity (D) Universal jurisdiction |
(B) Command responsibility | The principle of "Command responsibility" ensures that leaders can be held accountable for crimes committed by subordinates. This principle was applied in the Dominic Ongwen case, where he was held responsible for actions under his command. |
| 7. In the context of international criminal law, what does the principle of “individual criminal responsibility” entail? (A) Only states can be held accountable for international crimes (B) Individuals can be held personally liable for committing war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide (C) Individuals are immune from prosecution if they act under state orders (D) Only military personnel can be held responsible for international crimes |
(B) Individuals can be held personally liable | The principle of "individual criminal responsibility" establishes that individuals, not just states, can be held accountable for international crimes like war crimes and genocide, as highlighted in the Ongwen case. |
| 8. The concept of “crimes against humanity” includes which of the following acts, as exemplified in the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case? (A) Piracy and terrorism (B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence (C) Espionage and sabotage (D) Intellectual property theft |
(B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence | "Crimes against humanity" encompass severe offenses such as enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence, as demonstrated in the Ongwen case. These are systematic attacks targeting civilians. |
| 9. What is the significance of the principle of “complementarity” in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? (A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so (B) The ICC has primary jurisdiction over all international crimes (C) The ICC can only prosecute crimes committed within its member states (D) The ICC shares jurisdiction equally with national courts |
(A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so | The principle of complementarity ensures that the ICC steps in only when national courts fail to prosecute international crimes, thereby respecting state sovereignty while ensuring justice. |
| 10. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case in the context of international criminal law? (A) It was the first case to address environmental crimes in international conflicts (B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence and the exploitation of children in armed conflicts (C) It was the first case to involve cybercrimes committed by international armed groups (D) It primarily focused on the financial aspects of running an armed group |
(B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence | The Ongwen case was significant as it marked progress in addressing crimes like sexual violence and child exploitation, highlighting the ICC's focus on vulnerable populations during conflicts. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreWe cannot allow our judicial thinking to be constricted by reference to the law as it prevails in England or any other foreign country. While we are open to insights from foreign sources, we must build our own jurisprudence. The argument that new law does not recognize strict and absolute liability cannot deter us from adopting it. Enterprises engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities must conduct them with the highest safety standards. The court also discussed the scope of Epistolary jurisdiction, emphasizing that procedural hurdles should not impede access to justice, as procedure is merely a handmaid of justice. (A) Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC (B) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai, 1976 SC (C) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, 1976 SC (D) Amba Devi v. Union of India, 1984 SC |
Correct Answer: (A) | The term "Epistolary Jurisdiction" was first used in the case of Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC. The Supreme Court allowed letters to be treated as writ petitions, thus broadening access to justice. |
| 12. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) has a strict liability connotation? (A) Theft under Section 378 IPC (B) Defamation under Section 499 IPC (C) Bigamy under Section 494 IPC (D) Selling adulterated food or drink under Section 272 IPC |
Correct Answer: (D) | Section 272 of the IPC deals with the sale of adulterated food or drink and imposes strict liability. The seller is liable regardless of intent or knowledge. |
| 13. What does Fuller refer to with the term “promulgation”? (A) The retroactive application of laws (B) The consistent application of laws (C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect (D) The economic impact of laws |
Correct Answer: (C) | Fuller emphasizes that laws must be clearly communicated to those they affect. Without proper communication, laws cannot be effectively followed or enforced. |
| 14. The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable: (A) When the escape is due to vis major or act of God (B) When the damage is due to the wrongful or malicious act of a stranger (C) When the escape is due to the plaintiff’s own fault (D) All of the above |
Correct Answer: (D) | The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher has exceptions, including acts of God (vis major), wrongful acts by strangers, and the plaintiff's own fault. |
| 15. In India, the ‘Absolute Liability’ theory on the basis of injuries caused by hazardous industries was propounded by: (A) V.R. Krishna Iyer, J. (B) P.N. Bhagwati, C.J. (C) Kuldip Singh, J. (D) M.N. Venkatachaliah, C.J. |
Correct Answer: (B) | The concept of 'Absolute Liability' was introduced by Chief Justice P.N. Bhagwati in the M.C. Mehta v. Union of India case (1987 SC). It ensures industries are liable for harm caused by hazardous activities. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe law relating to custody of a child requires courts to consider statutes and rights but not be bound solely by them. The court acts under *parens patriae* jurisdiction to prioritize the child’s welfare, including physical comfort, health, education, intellectual development, and moral and ethical values. If the child is old enough to form a preference, the court may consider it but retains the final authority. Similarly, in ‘Gaurav Nagpal v. Semedha Nagpal,’ the Supreme Court stated that when parents present conflicting demands, courts must focus on the child's welfare over legalistic interpretations, considering human angles and moral and ethical aspects. As observed in the ‘Mausami Moitra Ganguli’ case, moral and ethical values are as important, if not more, than physical comforts for the child's welfare. (A) Financial ability of the parents (B) Sex of the child and its age at the relevant time (C) Physical Comfort, possibility of recreational activities of the child (D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values |
(D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values | The most indispensable consideration in matters of child custody, according to the passage, is ensuring that the environment is conducive to the development of moral and ethical values, which is paramount in the best interest of the child. |
| 17. The provision of custody of child under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 gives: (A) Right of custody to mother, if child is below five years of age (B) Preferential custody right to father (C) Custody right to any close relative who is found suitable (D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age |
(D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age | Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, there is preferential consideration given to the mother for the custody of a child below the age of five years, reflecting the importance of maternal care at an early stage. |
| 18. The sensitivity in judicial decision making is manifest in this passage from the court’s observation that: (A) Custody of child can be given to grandparents (B) Welfare of child is paramount consideration (C) Ethical and moral wellbeing is given priority (D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch |
(D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch | The passage emphasizes that custody cases should not be decided purely on legal provisions but should be approached with sensitivity, acknowledging the importance of human touch in addressing the welfare of the child. |
| 19. What does the passage state about the opinion of a child who is old enough to state its preference regarding custody? (A) The child has a right to get custody order according to his preference (B) The child’s preference in relation to his custody is immaterial (C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody (D) Court is bound by the child’s preference in relation to custody even if it differs in its opinion about whom to grant the custody |
(C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody | The passage mentions that the child’s preference regarding custody must be considered, but it is ultimately the court’s decision to determine the custody arrangement, with the child’s welfare as the guiding principle. |
| 20. The considerations for the decision in relation to custody of child, is subject to which of the following basis as mentioned in Sec.13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956? (A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration (B) Wishes of the child form the primary basis in custody cases (C) Child’s health and educational needs are primary considerations (D) Suitability of the person claiming custody is the basic consideration |
(A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration | Section 13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 clearly establishes that the welfare of the child is the paramount consideration in deciding matters of custody, overriding other factors. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe environmental rule of law enhances understanding of past and present environmental challenges and the future risks posed by humanity's actions. It bridges science, regulatory decisions, and policy perspectives, involving all stakeholders in addressing environmental degradation, climate change, and habitat destruction. It emphasizes concepts like sustainable development and the polluter pays principle, recognizing the indivisible and integrated nature of the environment. It acknowledges that the state of the environment in one region impacts others globally due to the interconnectedness of natural elements. The environmental rule of law strives for a unified approach to solving pressing issues, such as rising sea levels, desertification, and temperature increases, which threaten the survival of the global ecosystem and humanity. (A) Its exclusive focus on legal principles (B) Its emphasis on environmental governance (C) Its reliance on judicial decisions (D) Its alignment with international treaties |
(B) Its emphasis on environmental governance | The environmental rule of law primarily focuses on environmental governance, which includes principles, regulations, and frameworks dedicated to addressing environmental protection, unlike the broader rule of law that encompasses a variety of legal domains. |
| 22. What is the primary objective of the environmental rule of law? (A) To protect wildlife habitats (B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges (C) To promote economic development (D) To enforce local environmental regulations |
(B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges | The primary objective of the environmental rule of law is to enhance understanding of environmental challenges and ensure that legal frameworks effectively address issues related to environmental protection and governance at all levels. |
| 23. Environmental Protection and Improvement were incorporated into the Constitution of India by inserting Articles 48-A and 51-A (g) by virtue of which of the following amendments? (A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 (C) 45th Amendment Act, 1980 (D) 35th Amendment Act, 1974 |
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 | The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, incorporated environmental protection into the Indian Constitution by adding Articles 48-A (to direct the state to protect and improve the environment) and 51-A(g) (to make it a fundamental duty of citizens). |
| 24. In which international forum did the ‘Environmental rule of Law’ find recognition for the first time? (A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970 (B) Rio Declaration on Environment, 1992 (C) Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development, 2002 (D) UNEP’s Governing Council Decision 279, 2013 |
(A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970 | The concept of the ’Environmental Rule of Law’ was first recognized at the Stockholm Conference on Human Environment in 1970, which laid the groundwork for the international environmental governance framework. |
| 25. What does the environmental rule of law seek to achieve beyond local and national boundaries? (A) Economic growth (B) Environmental justice (C) Political stability (D) Cultural preservation |
(B) Environmental justice | The environmental rule of law seeks to achieve environmental justice on a global scale by ensuring that environmental laws and regulations are applied consistently and equitably across borders, contributing to sustainable development. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe word ‘right’ derives from the Latin *ius* and relates to concepts of justice and jurisprudence. Aquinas recognized rights as subjective (belonging to individuals) and objective (morally or legally correct actions). In contrast, Hobbes, inspired by Benthamite and Austinian positivism, defined rights as liberties in the absence of duties, claiming individuals had most rights in a state of nature. This view represents a regression, as it ignores the correlation between rights and duties. Without duties, rights lose their significance, as no individual would be protected from harm or interference. Hohfeld’s framework clarified this relationship, categorizing rights into claim-rights, liberties, powers, and immunities, each correlating with corresponding duties, ensuring their functional coherence. (A) Duty (B) Liability (C) No right (D) Disability |
(C) No right | The Jural Correlative of Privilege is “No right”. Privilege refers to the freedom to act without interference, and the jural correlative for such freedom is the absence of a corresponding duty or right on the part of others. |
| 27. Which of the following statements is not true about Treatise on Law by St. Thomas Aquinas? (A) He classified law into eternal law, natural law, human law, and divine law (B) He belonged to the Historical School of Jurisprudence (C) According to him, human nature is perfected or fully realised by harmonious and habitual excellence in the exercise of its intrinsic capacities and powers (D) The first primary precept is that good is to be pursued and done and evil avoided |
(B) He belonged to the Historical School of Jurisprudence | St. Thomas Aquinas did not belong to the Historical School of Jurisprudence. Instead, his philosophy was grounded in natural law, and he classified laws into eternal, natural, human, and divine. His approach focused on moral theology and ethics. |
| 28. Who said, “Right is an interest which is to be recognised, protected and enforced by law”? (A) Roscoe Pound (B) Salmond (C) Holland (D) Bentham |
(A) Roscoe Pound | Roscoe Pound defined a right as an interest that is to be recognized, protected, and enforced by law. Pound’s theory emphasizes the role of law in recognizing and securing individual interests. |
| 29. Which of the following theories can be identified as a theory of right? (A) Bracket theory (B) Fiction theory (C) Will theory (D) Concession theory |
(C) Will theory | The Will Theory identifies rights as the power of an individual to exercise their will. It emphasizes individual autonomy and the ability of a person to decide for themselves within the legal framework. |
| 30. Consider the given statements: Statement I: Rights in Rem are the rights in the things of others, also called encumbrances. Statement II: Rights in Re propria means the right available against the whole world. Statement III: Rights in Personam mean the rights in one’s own things. Choose the correct answer: (A) Statement I is correct (B) Statements I & II are correct (C) Statements I, II & III are correct (D) None of the above |
(D) None of the above | Statement I is incorrect because Rights in Rem are rights against the world at large, not just encumbrances. Statement II is incorrect, as “Rights in Re propria” refers to rights over one’s own property, not against the world. Statement III is also incorrect; Rights in Personam are rights against specific individuals, not related to one’s own things. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreJustice Ahmadi stressed that sufficient time has passed since the establishment of tribunals under Articles 323-A and 323-B, warranting an evaluation of whether they have met their intended objectives. He recommended that the Law Commission of India conduct a comprehensive study of tribunals to ensure their independence and improve public confidence in their functioning. The study should propose changes to relevant statutes and suggest a model for constituting tribunals with enhanced autonomy. The ineffectiveness of alternative mechanisms for judicial review was also criticized, reaffirming that judicial review and remedy are fundamental rights of citizens. Justice delivery through tribunals was deemed inadequate, necessitating immediate attention for reform. (A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997 (B) R.K. Jain v. Union of India 1993 (C) S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India 1985 (D) Kesvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 1973 |
(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997 | In the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court held that while judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, the judicial review powers could be vested in alternative mechanisms such as administrative tribunals. However, this would not violate the basic structure, as long as the mechanism is effective and a real substitute. |
| 32. The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 shall not apply to: (A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union (B) Officer or servant of the Supreme Court or of any High Court or Courts subordinate (C) Person appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament or to the secretarial staff of any State Legislature or a House thereof or, in the case of a Union Territory having a Legislature, of that Legislature (D) All of the above |
(A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union | The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 do not apply to members of the armed forces (military, naval, air) under Section 14 of the Act. Hence, the correct answer is (A). |
| 33. The first tribunal established in India is: (A) Central Administrative Tribunal (B) Railway Claims Tribunal (C) Armed Forces Tribunal (D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal |
(D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal | The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) was the first tribunal established in India in 1941. It deals with disputes related to income tax. |
| 34. Articles 323-A and 323-B of the Indian Constitution for the establishment of tribunal to adjudicate disputes in specific matters. While both articles deal with tribunals, there are key differences in their scope and application. Which of the following statement correctly reflects the distinction between Articles 323-A and 323-B? (A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms (B) While tribunals under Article 323-A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323-B can only be established by State legislature, with matters falling within their legislative competence (C) Under Article 323-A, only one tribunal for centre and no tribunal for state may be established. As far as Article 323-B is concerned, there is no hierarchy of tribunals (D) Article 323-A grant tribunals the power to hear appeals directly from the Supreme Court, by passing the High Court. Under Article 323-B there is no such power |
(A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms | Article 323-A deals with administrative tribunals for matters related to public services, whereas Article 323-B provides for tribunals on a wider range of subjects, such as taxation, land reforms, and industrial disputes. Thus, option (A) is the correct distinction. |
| 35. The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in the year: (A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 2009 (D) 2010 |
(D) 2010 | The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in 2010 to provide for the establishment of the National Green Tribunal for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma*, it was noted that while live-in relationships are not offences, the DV Act was enacted to protect women in such arrangements, provided the relationship qualifies as "in the nature of marriage" under Section 2(f). Other statutes like Section 125 Cr.P.C., Section 498-A IPC, and the Dowry Prohibition Act address women’s rights and protection in specific contexts, such as maintenance, mental cruelty, and dowry-related offences. The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act and the Hindu Marriage Act address maintenance, marriage solemnisation, and divorce for legally wedded Hindu wives. The judgment emphasized the need for a detailed examination of facts to determine whether a relationship qualifies as one "in the nature of marriage," as opposed to a live-in relationship simpliciter. (A) Considering the number of children born in a live-in relationship (B) Considering only the cohabitation period of the relationship and their emotional connectivity (C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets (D) Evaluating only the financial aspects and mutual agreements of the relationship, and if there is any written agreement between the partner |
(C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets | The relationship in the nature of marriage under Section 2(f) of the Domestic Violence Act involves a comprehensive analysis of the relationship. It includes not only cohabitation and emotional connectivity but also factors such as financial support, mutual agreements, and shared responsibilities. |
| 37. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court read down the word “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? (A) Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma (B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora (C) Uma Narayan v. Priya Krishna Prasad (D) All of the above |
(B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora | In the case of Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora, the Supreme Court read down the term “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, to include women in relationships of domestic violence. |
| 38. As per Section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, while disposing of an application under Section 12(1), the Magistrate may direct the respondent to pay monetary relief to the aggrieved person so that the aggrieved person can: (A) Live a life that meets at least the bare minimum needs for survival and basic well-being (B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed (C) Live a life that is consistent with her parent’s standard of living (D) Live a life which can cover her medical expenses and expenses incurred due to litigation of domestic violence |
(B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed | Section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act allows the magistrate to provide monetary relief so that the aggrieved person can continue to live a life consistent with her standard of living, as she was accustomed before the domestic violence. |
| 39. In which case, the three-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court has recently interpreted the term “shared household” and has held that “. . . lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship. . . ” have to be given its normal and purposeful meaning? (A) Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja (B) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra (D) B.R. Mehta v. Atma Devi |
(C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra | In the case of S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra, the Supreme Court clarified that the term "shared household" should have a normal, purposeful meaning and cannot apply to a casual or fleeting living arrangement. The woman’s living in a household must have some permanency. |
| 40. Under Indian Law, can a woman in a live-in relationship claim maintenance under S. 125, Cr.P.C. despite not being a legally wedded wife? (A) No, as per the interpretation of statute ‘wife’ means legally wedded wife and includes who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from her husband (B) Yes, a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation (C) A woman in live-in relationship can only claim maintenance if she has been cohabiting for more than five years and dependent children from the relationship (D) A woman in live-in relationship can claim maintenance only through a civil suit as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA) does not apply to live-in relationships |
(B) Yes, a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation | Under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C., a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance even without being legally married, as long as there is proof of cohabitation. The requirement of strict marriage proof is not necessary. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreSection 271 of the Companies Act, 2013 allows winding up of companies on specific grounds, including those unrelated to financial distress, such as special resolutions or fraudulent conduct. In contrast, the IBC focuses on reviving insolvent companies through sacrifices by all stakeholders, including workmen, secured creditors, and the government, to achieve survival and regeneration. These distinct frameworks cannot be equated when examining alleged violations of Article 14 or Article 21 of the Constitution. The waterfall mechanism under the IBC ensures fairness in allocating proceeds during insolvency but differs in purpose and application from the Companies Act provisions. The judgment in *Moser Baer Karamchari Union v. Union of India (2023)* highlighted that the objectives of these two laws are distinct, addressing different circumstances and requiring separate judicial interpretations. (A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd (B) R. K. Dalmia v. Delhi Administration (C) Dale And Carrington Invt. P. Ltd. v. P.K. Prathapan (D) Rohtas Industries Ltd v. S.D. Agarwal & Anr |
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd | In the case of Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd (1986), the Supreme Court addressed the rights of shareholders, the role of the Board of Directors, and the scope of judicial intervention in corporate matters, especially concerning decisions affecting the rights of minority shareholders. |
| 42. The extent to which a corporation as a legal person can be held criminally liable for its acts and omissions and for those of the natural persons employed by it is called (A) Corporate manslaughter (B) Lifting the corporate veil (C) Corporate criminal liability (D) Corporate social responsibility |
(C) Corporate criminal liability | Corporate criminal liability refers to the legal principle that a corporation, as a legal entity, can be held criminally liable for its own acts or the acts of its employees or agents within the scope of their employment. |
| 43. In which of the following cases, the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was upheld by the Supreme Court? (A) RPS Infrastructure Ltd. v. Union of India (B) Paschimanchal Vidyut Vitran Nigam Ltd. v. Union of India (C) Union Bank of India v. Financial Creditors of M/s Amtek Auto Limited (D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India |
(D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India | In the case of Swiss Ribbons Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India (2019), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, affirming that the provisions of the Code do not violate the Constitution. |
| 44. A Director other than a managing Director or a whole-time Director or a nominee Director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company/Directors other than the remuneration is called (A) Impartial Director (B) Promoter (C) Independent Director (D) Associate Director |
(C) Independent Director | An Independent Director is a director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company or its directors, except for their remuneration, and is not involved in the day-to-day management of the company. |
| 45. Which among the following is not a duty of a Director of the company? (A) To file return of allotments (B) To disclose interest (C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings (D) To convene General meeting |
(C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings | Directors have several duties, including filing returns of allotments, disclosing their interest, and convening General Meetings, but it is not their duty to call upon shareholders to attend Board meetings. This is generally the responsibility of the Board itself. |
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Comprehension: Read More(2) The mandates of the law must be communicated to the people to whom they are directed. (3) Newly announced principles of law, except on rare occasions, should be applied only in a prospective manner. Retroactive application of changes in prescribed norms, subject to the presence of compelling extenuating circumstances, should be avoided. (4) Standards of action and inaction should be clearly stated. Fuller concedes that the lawmaker cannot specify with absolute clarity exactly what is demanded of each individual in every instance when the law may affect him. He does, however, assert that the duty to clarify the law should be delegated to the enforcement bodies only to the extent that such action is required by the environment in which the law must operate. (5) Arguing that respect for the law calls for consistency, Fuller maintains that the originators of laws should take great pains to see that the body of law is as free as possible from contradictory mandates. (6) Emphasizing that law is tied to the capabilities of human beings, Fuller insists that those who prescribe the norms required of individuals must refrain from imposing impossible standards of action or inaction. A stated norm which demands an absurd course of action would violate Fuller’s idea of the “internal morality of law.” (7) While stare decisis, of recent date, has been viewed by some, if not many people, as a barrier on the pathways to needed change, Fuller is of the opinion that abiding by previously announced norms is desirable in and of itself. He finds that frequency of change, by its very nature, tends to have a deleterious impact upon the persons who are subjected to an abrupt alteration of the requirements which the law imposes upon them. (8) The student of American history is familiar with Andrew Jackson’s assertion to the effect that while the Supreme Court might render a judgment, it lacked the means by which it might be implemented. (A) The retroactive application of laws (B) The consistent application of laws (C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect (D) The economic impact of laws |
(C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect | Fuller uses the term “promulgation” to emphasize the need for laws to be clearly communicated to the people they affect. Laws that are not properly communicated cannot be effectively followed or enforced. |
| 47. Which of the following best describes the central issue in the Hart-Fuller debate? (A) The influence of morality on state (B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected (C) The role of judges in interpreting morality (D) The influence of religious values on legal system |
(B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected | The central issue in the Hart-Fuller debate concerns whether law and morality are inherently connected. Hart, representing legal positivism, argued that law is separate from morality, while Fuller believed that laws must align with moral standards to be valid. |
| 48. What was Lon Fuller’s main criticism of Hart’s legal positivism? (A) It ignores moral obligations of a judge to make decisions on ethics (B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication (C) It ignores the role of international law in shaping domestic legal systems (D) All of the above |
(B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication | Fuller’s main criticism of Hart’s legal positivism is that it focuses too much on the structure of legal rules without addressing their moral implications. Fuller argues that law must be intertwined with morality to ensure justice. |
| 49. Why does Fuller argue that legal standards should be free from contradictions? (A) To allow for greater judicial discretion (B) To ensure laws are adaptable to different situations (C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency (D) To simplify legal education |
(C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency | Fuller argues that legal standards should be free from contradictions to maintain respect for the law. Contradictory laws undermine the rule of law and create confusion, making it difficult for individuals to comply with legal norms. |
| 50. Which of the following best describes the concept of “internal morality” in law according to Lon Fuller? (A) Law should be flexible and adaptive to individual circumstances (B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision (C) Law should prioritize economic efficiency (D) Law should be created by popular vote |
(B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision | Fuller’s concept of “internal morality” in law emphasizes that laws should be clear, precise, and understandable, ensuring that individuals can follow them. This clarity is essential for ensuring that laws are just and functional. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe court held that a mortgage by conditional sale must be evidenced by a single document under Section 58(c), whereas a sale with a condition of retransfer may involve multiple documents. The execution of a separate agreement for reconveyance suggests the transaction is not a mortgage. To determine the nature of the agreement, factors like the existence of a debtor-creditor relationship, property valuation, transaction value, reconveyance duration, and intent of the parties are considered. The language of the agreement is important but not always conclusive. In *Prakash (Dead) By LR. v. G. Aradhya Ors (2023)*, the court emphasized that all factors must be assessed holistically to discern the true nature of the transaction. (A) to institute a suit for sale (B) to suit for recovery of money (C) to institute a suit for foreclosure (D) Both (A) and (B) |
(D) Both (A) and (B) | In a mortgage by conditional sale, the mortgagee has two remedies: 1. He can file a suit for sale if the mortgagor defaults, allowing the sale of the property to recover the debt. 2. He can also sue for the recovery of money if the mortgagor fails to repay the loan as per the agreement. Thus, both (A) and (B) are correct. |
| 52. One of the conditions of mortgage by conditional sale is that: (A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable (B) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall become void (C) the mortgagee shall receive the rent and profits and will appropriate the same towards the dues (D) All of the above |
(A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable | In a mortgage by conditional sale, the sale becomes voidable on payment of the mortgage money, meaning the mortgagor can redeem the property. Option (C) is true for mortgage by possession, not conditional sale. Thus, the correct answer is (A). |
| 53. What is the common clause between mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage? (A) Transfer of ownership of mortgaged property (B) Transfer of possession of mortgaged property (C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property (D) Delivery of documents of title |
(C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property | Both mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage allow the mortgagee to sell the mortgaged property in case of default. The key distinction is that in an English mortgage, the mortgagee holds the property in trust until the loan is repaid, while in a conditional sale, the property is sold conditionally. Thus, the correct answer is (C). |
| 54. What is the limitation period in case of mortgage by conditional sale? (A) 3 years (B) 12 years (C) 30 years (D) No time limit |
(B) 12 years | The limitation period for the redemption of a mortgage by conditional sale is 12 years. This is the period within which the mortgagor can reclaim the property after payment of the mortgage debt. Thus, the correct answer is (B). |
| 55. Which of the following expresses the distinction between a mortgage by conditional sale and a sale with a condition of repurchase? (A) In a mortgage the debt subsists and a right to redeem remains with the debtor, but a sale with a condition of repurchase is not a lending and borrowing arrangement (B) In a mortgage by conditional sale, generally the amount of consideration is far below the value of the property in the market, but in a sale with a condition of repurchase, the amount of consideration is generally equal to or close to the value of the property (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | Option (A): In a mortgage, the debt remains, and the mortgagor has a right to redeem. In a sale with a condition of repurchase, the transaction is considered a sale with a repurchase option and not a borrowing arrangement. Option (B): In a mortgage by conditional sale, the consideration is often less than the property value, while in a sale with a condition of repurchase, the consideration is closer to the property’s value. Thus, the correct answer is (C). |
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989)*, the court affirmed that the power to pardon is exercised on the advice of the Executive under Article 74(1) of the Constitution. This power enables the President to re-examine evidence and decide on guilt or sentence without altering the judicial record. The Presidential power under Article 72 is distinct from judicial authority, and its exercise does not constitute an extension of judicial powers. Even though reasons for granting pardon need not be disclosed, the decision must be based on legitimate and relevant considerations. The judgment in *Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014)* highlighted the President’s constitutional responsibility in the context of pardoning powers and emphasized that the affected party is not entitled to reasons for the decision. (A) The power to grant pardon is a constitutional duty. Hence, judicial review is available, just as any executive action (B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon (C) The constitution expressly conferred the power to grant pardon to the President hence, the President is not bound to rely on the aid advice of the executive (D) The President’s power to grant pardon can be reviewed on the grounds of non-application of mind |
(B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon | The President’s power to grant pardon is a discretionary power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India. Judicial review is generally not available against the decision of the President, as it is considered a privilege. Judicial review is not available unless there is an issue of the non-application of mind or mala fide intentions. |
| 57. In the above case the Supreme Court held that a minimum period of days be stipulated between the receipt of communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution. (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 14 (D) No such time was fixed |
(B) 30 | In the case of Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that there should be a minimum period of 30 days between the communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution. |
| 58. What is not true about Art. 21 of Constitution of India? (A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence (B) Right to life of a person continues till his last breath and that Court will protect that right even if the noose is being tied on the condemned person’s neck (C) The anguish of alternating hope and despair, the agony of uncertainty and the consequence of such suffering on the mental, emotional and physical integrity and health violates Art. 21 of the prisoners (D) Art. 21 is a substantive right and not merely procedural |
(A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence | Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to life and personal liberty, and this right cannot be taken away except according to the procedure established by law. Insanity is a valid factor for the commutation of a death sentence under Article 21. The Supreme Court has held that mental agony caused by prolonged uncertainty is a violation of the right to life. |
| 59. In which case, the Supreme Court held that if the crime is brutal and heinous and involves the killing of a large number of innocent people without any reason, delay cannot be the sole factor for the commutation of the death sentence to life imprisonment? (A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi (B) V. Sriharan Murugan v. Union of India (C) Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra (D) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India |
(A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi | In the case of Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi, the Supreme Court ruled that even if there is a delay in the execution of the death sentence, if the crime is heinous and brutal, involving large-scale loss of innocent lives, delay alone cannot justify commutation to life imprisonment. |
| 60. The President’s power to grant a pardon (A) Can be delegated to the Council of Ministers (B) Cannot be delegated as it is an essential legislative function (C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President (D) Can be delegated to the Vice-president in the absence of the President |
(C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President | The power to grant pardon is explicitly conferred on the President by Article 72 of the Constitution of India. This power cannot be delegated to any other body, including the Council of Ministers or the Vice President. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreSection 47 of the Registration Act ensures that a registered document operates from the time it would have commenced to operate had registration not been required. Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, however, mandates that the transfer of immovable property valued above Rs. 100 can only be made through a registered instrument. The Supreme Court referred to *Ram Saran Lall v. Domini Kuer*, which balanced Section 54’s requirements with Section 47’s deeming fiction. The Court highlighted that Section 54 differentiates between the transfer of tangible immovable property valued above Rs. 100, which requires registration, and property valued below Rs. 100, which may be transferred through a registered document or delivery of possession. The decision reaffirms the importance of registration in transferring ownership of immovable property. (A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property (B) As long as the terms, grant or disposition is in writing and fulfills the criteria of S. 91 of the Indian Evidence Act, it will be admitted as evidence (C) Procedure is a handmaid of justice and registration is merely a procedural requirement. Non-registration does not make the document less admissible in court (D) The unregistered document can be adduced in evidence if the party adducing it is able to prove its bonafide |
(A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property | Section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908 lays down that an unregistered document which is required to be registered by law cannot be used as evidence in court to prove the transaction affecting immovable property. |
| 62. A property from one person to the other can be transferred by way of: (A) Court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment (B) Dedication, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment (C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication (D) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance |
(C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication | Transfer of property can happen through several methods including court sale, private sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, and dedication. |
| 63. Where the member of the family agrees to divide the property amongst themselves, not necessarily in accordance with the quantum as specified in law or according to their entitlement. It can take into its fold non-family members as well. Once effected, it is binding on all the members who were parties to it and is enforceable. This division is called: (A) Transfer of property under the Transfer of Property Act (B) Partition of joint Hindu Family (C) Family Arrangement (D) Partition in Interested parties |
(C) Family Arrangement | A Family Arrangement is an informal agreement between family members, often to settle disputes or divide property among them, which is binding once agreed upon, even if it does not strictly adhere to the legal entitlements. |
| 64. Property and interest in the property as a general rule are transferable. This rule of transferability is based on the maxim: (A) Alienation rei praefertur juri accrescendi (B) Cuius est solum eius est usque ad coelum et usque ad infernos (C) Res nullius (D) Nemo dat quod non habet |
(D) Nemo dat quod non habet | The maxim "Nemo dat quod non habet" means "No one can give what they do not have". This maxim establishes the principle that property rights are transferable only if the person transferring the property has those rights. |
| 65. In a given case where a sale deed is executed and the entire agreed consideration is paid on or before execution of the sale deed, after it is registered, it will operate from: (A) Date of registration of the sale deed (B) Date of execution of the sale deed (C) Date on which communication of proposal was complete (D) None of the above |
(B) Date of execution of the sale deed | A sale deed operates from the date of execution, even though it is registered at a later date, as long as the agreed consideration is paid and the deed is executed. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 broadly defined ‘industry’ to include business, trade, manufacture, and related activities. However, ambiguity remained about statutory bodies and non-profit organizations. In this case, the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board argued that it was not an industry due to its statutory duties and public welfare objectives. Conversely, the respondents contended that the Board’s activities fell under the Act’s definition of industry, entitling its employees to labour protections. The Supreme Court, led by Chief Justice M. Hameedullah Beg, provided a broad and inclusive definition of ‘industry,’ focusing on the nature of the activity and the employer-employee relationship. This interpretation extended labour protections to workers in public utility services, statutory bodies, and some non-profit organizations. The judgment emphasized the judiciary’s role in promoting social justice and safeguarding workers’ rights in a rapidly industrializing nation. (A) The profit-making motive of the employer (B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given (C) The nature of the activity and the authority of the employer over its employees (D) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, all the activities must be considered. Even if one activity is commercial, the employees will not get the benefit of workman of an industry under the Industrial Dispute Act |
(B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given | The Supreme Court ruled that when an establishment carries out multiple activities, its dominant function determines whether the establishment constitutes an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act. If the dominant function is not commercial, workers can still receive benefits under the Act. |
| 67. Which of the following best describes the broader impact of the judgment? (A) It reduced labour protections for workers (B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers (C) It had no significant impact on labour laws (D) It only affected private sector workers |
(B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers | The judgment significantly expanded labour protections by broadening the definition of ”industry,” allowing more workers, including those in sectors previously excluded, to benefit from the protections provided under the Industrial Disputes Act. |
| 68. Which of the following best describes the term ‘industry’ as defined by the Supreme Court in this judgment? (A) Any activity involving profit-making (B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services (C) Only activities conducted by private enterprises (D) Activities limited to manufacturing sectors |
(B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services | The Supreme Court defined ”industry” as any activity that involves systematic cooperation between an employer and employees for the purpose of producing or distributing goods and services, regardless of whether it is profit-oriented or not. |
| 69. In which of the following landmark judgements, the Supreme Court held that when an association or society of apartment owners employs workers for personal services to its members, those workers do not qualify as workmen under the Act and the association is not an “Industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act? (A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC (B) Anand Vihar Apartment Owners’ Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2024 SC (C) Kanchanjunga Building Employees Union v. Kanchanjunga Flat Owners Society & Anr., 2024 SC (D) None of the above |
(A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC | In the 2009 case, the Supreme Court ruled that when apartment owners’ societies employ workers for personal services to members, these workers do not qualify as ”workmen” under the Industrial Disputes Act, and the society is not considered an ”industry.” |
| 70. Under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947, what is the role of the “Works Committee” and which of the following correctly describes its function? (A) The Works committee is a body formed by the Central government to address wage disputes between employer and employee in public sector industries (B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee (C) The Works Committee is responsible for making binding decisions on industrial disputes related to layoffs, retrenchment and closure of industrial units (D) All of the above |
(B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee | The Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act is a body formed by the employer to address grievances and promote amicable relations between the employer and employees. It plays an important role in creating a cooperative work environment but does not have the authority to make binding decisions on industrial disputes related to layoffs or retrenchment. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreJustice Nagarathna emphasized that liberty cannot be protected in violation of the law and that rule of law must prevail for all fundamental rights, including liberty under Article 21 and equality under Article 14, to be upheld. She invoked Plato's curative theory of punishment, likening penalties to medicine intended to reform offenders and reduce their burden on society. However, she also noted the competing interests of justice for victims' families and the convicts' right to a second chance through remission. She questioned whether heinous crimes against women should allow for remission and reduction in sentence, highlighting the societal and ethical considerations in balancing punishment with justice and reform. (A) On the discretion of the appropriate government (B) On the central government’s discretion (C) On the state government’s discretion (D) None of the above |
(A) On the discretion of the appropriate government | Remission refers to the reduction or suspension of a sentence, and it is generally granted at the discretion of the appropriate government. The appropriate government is the state government under whose jurisdiction the offense was committed and the convict was sentenced. |
| 72. Which of the following is not related to remission? (A) State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi) v. Prem Raj, 2003 7 SCC (B) Sarat Chandra Rabha v. Khagendranath, AIR 1961 SC 334 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | Both the cases mentioned are related to the application of remission in different contexts but are not directly linked to the legal principles of remission under Cr.P.C. and related case law. |
| 73. Which of the following needs to be considered while entertaining an application for remission under the provisions of Cr.P.C., 1973? (A) The application for remission under Section 432 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 could be only before the Government of the State within whose territorial jurisdiction the applicant was convicted (appropriate Government) and not before any other Government (B) A consideration for remission must be by way of an application under Section 432 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 which has to be made by the convict or on his behalf. Compliance with Section 433A of the Cr.P.C., 1973 must be noted, requiring a life sentence convict to complete fourteen years of imprisonment before seeking remission (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (A) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | According to Section 432 of Cr.P.C., remission applications can only be made before the appropriate government. Additionally, compliance with Section 433A is required, stipulating that a life sentence convict must complete fourteen years of imprisonment before applying for remission. |
| 74. According to Section 432 (2) of Cr.P.C., when deciding on an application for remission, the government may seek the opinion of the presiding judge. In Bilkis Bano Case, how did the court interpret the expression “may” regarding the government’s duty to seek the opinion of the judge? (A) The expression “may” indicate that it is optional for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge (B) The expression “may” mean that government can seek the opinion of any judge, not necessarily the presiding judge (C) The expression “may” must be interpreted as “shall”, making it mandatory for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge (D) The expression “may” allow the presiding judge to refuse providing an opinion on the application for remission |
(C) The expression “may” must be interpreted as “shall”, making it mandatory for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge | In the Bilkis Bano case, the court held that the word “may” in Section 432(2) should be interpreted as “shall,” making it mandatory for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge before granting remission. |
| 75. In Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision for commutation of a sentence of imprisonment of life has replaced the term ‘not exceeding fourteen years or of fine’ of the Cr.P.C. with: (A) not less than seven years (B) not less than ten years (C) not more than twenty years (D) seven years |
(B) not less than ten years | In the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision for commutation of a life sentence has replaced the earlier provision of “not exceeding fourteen years or fine” with “not less than ten years.” |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe term "representative-in-interest" includes the assignee of a contractual interest. While the Contract Act does not explicitly address assignability, courts have consistently held that obligations cannot be assigned without the consent of the promisee. This principle, highlighted in *Khardah Co. Ltd. v. Raymon & Co. (India) (P) Ltd. (1962)*, states that such consent results in novation, effectively substituting liabilities. Conversely, rights under a contract are assignable unless the contract is personal in nature or assignment is restricted by law or agreement. These principles ensure clarity in handling contractual interests while respecting the original intent of the parties. (A) The agreement is invalid (B) The agreement is not valid because a conditional sale deed containing a clause for repurchase cannot be executed (C) The agreement is not valid because the time period provided for repurchase by the vendor is very long, i.e., seven years (D) The agreement is valid |
(D) The agreement is valid | A conditional sale deed that includes a clause for repurchase within a reasonable period, even if it extends to seven years, is valid under the Indian Contract Act, as long as it is agreed upon by both parties and does not contravene any statutory provisions. |
| 77. Which of the following is correct regarding the assignability of the contract? (A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (B) A party to a contract can transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party (C) A party to a contract cannot transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party (D) Transfer of obligation can be made to anyone without permission of anyone |
(A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 | Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, govern the assignment of contracts, detailing the assignment of rights and liabilities. Liabilities cannot be transferred without consent unless explicitly allowed. |
| 78. Who among the following is not ‘representative-in-interest’ for the purpose of obtaining specific performance? (A) The person to whom the interest in the contract is transferred for a valuable consideration (B) The person to whom the interest in the contract devolves by succession (C) The person to whom the interest in contract is gifted by a gift deed (D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler |
(D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler | A "rank trespasser" or intermeddler has no legitimate interest or standing to enforce specific performance of a contract. |
| 79. Consider the following statements: I. The benefit of a contract is assignable in cases where it can make no difference to the person on whom the obligation lies to which of two persons, he is to discharge it. II. A contract involving personal skill or qualifications is not assignable. III. Rights for payment of money or building work do not involve personal considerations and are not personal contracts. Choose the correct answer: (A) I and II are correct (B) II and III are correct (C) Only III is correct (D) I, II and III are correct |
(C) Only III is correct | Statement III is correct: Rights for payment of money or building work are typically not personal and can be assigned. Statements I and II are incorrect due to their broad or misleading phrasing. |
| 80. Consider the following statements: I. Where a party has obtained substituted performance, such contract is not specifically enforceable. II. A contract involving continuous duties, which the court cannot supervise, is not specifically enforceable. III. After the 2018 Amendment, a contract for which compensation is adequate relief is not specifically enforceable. Choose the correct answer: (A) All are correct (B) I and II are correct (C) II and III are correct (D) Only II is correct |
(C) II and III are correct | Statement II: Contracts requiring continuous duties that courts cannot supervise are not enforceable. Statement III: The 2018 Amendment clarified that contracts with adequate compensation are not specifically enforceable. Statement I is incorrect. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Supreme Court, in *State of Punjab & Ors. v. Davinder Singh & Ors. (2024)*, examined the constitutional vision of equality and the sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes (SCs). Justice Bela Trivedi dissented, asserting that the presidential list of SCs under Article 341 can only be amended by Parliament, not by states. Sub-classification within this list, she argued, would violate Article 341’s intent, create exclusions, and constitute a colorable exercise of power. Justice Trivedi emphasized adherence to the plain interpretation of the Constitution, stating that preferential treatment for sub-classes undermines equality and deprives others within the same category of their rights. She upheld the decision in *E.V. Chinnaiah*, emphasizing that affirmative action must remain within constitutional boundaries. (A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore (B) T. Devadasan v. Union of India (C) Akhil Bharatiya Soshit Karamchari Sangh (Railway) v. Union of India (D) The State of Punjab & Ors. v. Davinder Singh & Ors. 2020 |
(A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore | The issue of sub-classification within a class for reservation first arose in the case of MR Balaji v. State of Mysore, where the Supreme Court discussed whether the State could further sub-classify backward classes for the purpose of reservations. |
| 82. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, while proposing the inclusion of Articles 300A and 300B of the Draft Constitution (which correspond to Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution), indicated that once notified, any elimination from the list or an addition to the list was to be made by Parliament and not by the President. This limitation was imposed to: (A) Protect the rights of the SCs and STs class people (B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive having a play in the matter of the disturbance in the Schedule so published by the President (C) To remove the discretion in the hands of Executive to save the interest of the SCs and STs people (D) To eliminate “political factors” from disturbing the list |
(B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive having a play in the matter of the disturbance in the Schedule so published by the President | Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s intent in making Parliament the authority to modify the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was to remove executive discretion and political interference, ensuring stability and fairness in the inclusion and exclusion process. |
| 83. The trinity of Articles 14, 15, and 16 has provided a tool to march towards social and economic equality. What are the other articles of the Constitution along with these, that contribute to achieving this objective? (A) Arts. 46, 335 and 338 (B) Arts. 335, 341 and 342 (C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342 (D) Arts. 46, 335 and 342 |
(C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342 | In addition to Articles 14, 15, and 16, Articles 46, 335, 338, 341, and 342 also contribute to achieving social and economic equality through affirmative actions, reservations, and protection for underprivileged classes. |
| 84. Hon’ble Justice B.R. Gavai held that, “sub-classification amongst the Scheduled Castes for giving more beneficial treatment is permissible in law”. Which of the following criteria may be implemented by the State? (A) The criteria for exclusion of the creamy layer from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for affirmative action could differ from that applicable to Other Backward Classes (B) Sub-classification would be permissible only if there is a reservation for a sub-class as well as the larger class (C) The State must justify sub-classification based on empirical data showing inadequate representation (D) All of the above |
(D) All of the above | Justice B.R. Gavai’s ruling made it clear that sub-classification among Scheduled Castes is permissible, provided there is empirical data to justify underrepresentation. The criteria for exclusion from the creamy layer may differ from that of Other Backward Classes. |
| 85. Which of the following is not required for sub-classification of the Scheduled Caste? (A) The inadequacy of representation of a caste/group because of its backwardness (B) The data must be collected by the State on the inadequacy of representation of a caste in the “services of the State” because it is used as an indicator of backwardness (C) Efficiency of administration must be viewed in a manner which promotes inclusion and equality as required by Article 16(1) (D) The State in exercise of the power under Articles 15(4) and 16(4) is not required to further classify the Scheduled Castes |
(D) The State in exercise of the power under Articles 15(4) and 16(4) is not required to further classify the Scheduled Castes | For sub-classification of the Scheduled Castes, it is essential to assess inadequacy of representation, collect data, and consider promoting inclusion and equality. However, the State must justify such classification with empirical evidence. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreSection 11 of the SEBI Act mandates SEBI to protect investor interests, regulate the securities market, and promote its development through necessary measures. Section 30 empowers SEBI to frame regulations consistent with the Act. SEBI exercises wide-ranging powers, including delegated legislative, administrative, and adjudicatory powers, to enforce its regulations. These regulations form the backbone of India’s securities market framework. SEBI follows a consultative process while framing and amending regulations, involving advisory committees with experts, market players, retired judges, academicians, and representatives from industry and investor associations. The process includes public consultation, ensuring transparency and adaptability in regulating the dynamic securities market. (A) Technical Advisory Committee (B) Competition Advisory Committee (C) Intermediary Advisory Committee (D) Market Data Advisory Committee |
(B) Competition Advisory Committee | SEBI has established various advisory committees to help in formulating regulations and policies. However, the "Competition Advisory Committee" is not one of them. SEBI focuses on committees like the Technical Advisory Committee, Intermediary Advisory Committee, and Market Data Advisory Committee to regulate the market and its participants. |
| 87. Which among the following is not a function of SEBI? (A) Regulating substantial acquisition of shares and takeover of companies (B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations (C) Prohibiting insider trading in securities (D) Promoting investors’ education and training of intermediaries of securities markets |
(B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations | While SEBI is responsible for regulating various aspects of the securities market, including acquisitions, insider trading, and investor education, it does not regulate self-regulatory organizations. Such functions are generally handled by the organizations themselves under SEBI's oversight. |
| 88. Match List I with List II: List I (Section of Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992) A. Section 6 B. Section 11 C. Section 27 D. Section 30 List II (Provision for) I. Offences by companies II. Power to make regulations III. Removal of member from office IV. Functions of Board Choose the correct answer: (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I |
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II | Section 6 deals with the removal of a member from office (III). Section 11 outlines the functions of the SEBI Board (IV). Section 27 refers to offences by companies (I). Section 30 grants the SEBI Board the power to make regulations (II). Thus, the correct matching is: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. |
| 89. The process by which an organisation evolves its relationships with stakeholders for the common good is called: (A) Annual general meeting (B) Corporate social responsibility (C) Issuing Shelf prospectus (D) Incorporation of a company |
(B) Corporate social responsibility | The process described is called Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), involving a company's efforts to assess and take responsibility for its environmental and social impact. CSR strategies promote social good and sustainability. |
| 90. In which of the following cases did the court strike down the attempt of the government to nationalize banks and pay minimal compensation to the shareholders? (A) Shri Sunil Siddharthbhai Etc v. Union of India (B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (C) United Bank of India v. Satyawati Tondon Ors (D) Punjab National Bank v. Union of India |
(B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India | In the case of R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the government's attempt to nationalize banks and pay minimal compensation to shareholders was unconstitutional. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreAs described by Henkin, international organisations represent "new laws at its birth." The UN Charter and agencies such as the WHO, OECD, and ILO have transformed the sources, actors, and processes of international law. Since its inception with 51 member states, the UN has grown to 193 members, evolving into a diverse institution that safeguards global order. Recognised as a global constitutional organisation, the UN is crucial for maintaining international peace and security. These organisations have profoundly impacted the evolution and functionality of international law over the past century. (A) State Aircraft (B) Civil Aircraft (C) War Aircraft (D) All of the above |
(B) Civil Aircraft | The Convention on International Civil Aviation applies exclusively to Civil Aircraft. It sets out the rules and standards for international air travel and aviation safety, excluding military, state, or war aircraft. |
| 92. Meaning of the Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ as in legal term, is: (A) According to the equitable and good (B) On the basis of equity and fairness (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above |
(C) Both (A) and (B) | The Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ means to decide a case based on equity, fairness, and justice rather than strict legal rules. It is commonly used in arbitration and international law when legal rules may not adequately resolve the dispute. |
| 93. The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly distributed as: (A) African States and Asia Pacific States (B) Eastern European, Western European and other States (C) Latin American and Caribbean States (D) All of the Above |
(D) All of the Above | The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) consists of 54 members, with representation from all global regions: African States, Asia-Pacific States, Eastern European States, Western European States, and Latin American and Caribbean States. |
| 94. Under which Art. of UN Charter General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions? (A) Art. 19 of UN Charter (B) Art. 20 of UN Charter (C) Art. 21 of UN Charter (D) Art. 22 of UN Charter |
(D) Art. 22 of UN Charter | Article 22 of the UN Charter grants the General Assembly the power to establish subsidiary organs as necessary to perform its functions. This enables the Assembly to create specialized agencies and committees. |
| 95. Article 21 of the Constitution of WHO, each Member has undertaken the obligation to take action acceptance on Conventions adopted by: (A) One third votes of the Health Assembly (B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly (C) Special Majority means Three-Fourth votes of the Health Assembly (D) All of the above |
(B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly | Article 21 of the WHO Constitution states that Member States are obliged to accept the Conventions adopted by the Health Assembly with a two-thirds majority vote. This ensures broad consensus among members on important health conventions. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreFor a duty of care to exist, three conditions must be satisfied: (i) foreseeability of damage, (ii) proximity of relationship, and (iii) whether it is “just, fair, and reasonable” to impose a duty. In *Caparo Industries Plc. v. Dickman (1990)*, the court emphasized the standard of care required in the circumstances and whether the defendant’s conduct fell below it. The process of determining a breach of duty involves three steps: identifying the qualities of a reasonable person, determining the care such a person would take under the circumstances, and assessing if the defendant took less care than required. Negligence as a tort consists of a legal duty, breach of that duty, and resulting damage, as reiterated in *Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum (1997)*. (A) A doctor prescribes the wrong medication to a patient, but the patient’s immune system prevents any harmful side effects and the patient does not suffer any injury (B) A driver runs a red light, narrowly avoiding an accident with another car and both vehicles continue without any collision or harm (C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender (D) A construction company delays necessary maintenance on a bridge and despite having major cracks, the bridge remains functional |
(C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender | In negligence cases, the essential elements include duty of care, breach of duty, causation, and injury. Option (C) demonstrates all these elements: the hotel had a duty to ensure safety, the lifeguard’s breach of duty led to a fatal accident, which resulted in harm. |
| 97. Reasonable foreseeability means: (A) Mere possibility (B) Expectation of sensible person (C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person (D) Remote possibility of a particular consequence of his act by a reasonable person |
(C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person | Reasonable foreseeability refers to the ability of a reasonable person to predict the probable consequences of their actions. Option (C) defines it precisely as the foreseeability of probable consequences by an average prudent person. |
| 98. A renowned judgment in which reasonable foreseeability test was discussed by the Privy Council, was: (A) Scott v. Shephard (B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson (D) Re Polemis and Furness, Withy Co |
(B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) | The Wagon Mound case (Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock) is the famous Privy Council judgment in which the test for reasonable foreseeability was laid down. It established that a defendant is only liable for the foreseeable consequences of their actions. |
| 99. In which of the following judgment the neighbour principle was propounded? (A) Scott v. Shephard (B) Rylands v. Fletcher (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson (D) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) |
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson | The neighbour principle was propounded in Donoghue v. Stevenson, where Lord Atkin established that one must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions that could foreseeably harm their neighbors—those closely and directly affected by one’s actions. |
| 100. Compensation is to be assessed on the basis of: (A) Rough estimate of loss generally resulting from death (B) Approximate calculation of damage as a result of death (C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits (D) Closeness in relationship between claimants and the deceased |
(C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits | Compensation in wrongful death cases is typically assessed based on the legitimate expectation of pecuniary benefits that the deceased would have provided, such as income or other financial support to the claimants. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreIt is a fundamental rule of natural justice that no material should be relied upon without giving the affected party an opportunity to respond. The right to know the evidence or material is part of the right to defend oneself. If a decision is made without disclosing such material, it amounts to a denial of a fair opportunity and vitiates the decision. The Supreme Court emphasized that a quasi-judicial authority must disclose any material it relies on during adjudication. The test for disclosure is whether the material is relevant to the adjudication. The affected party must demonstrate that non-disclosure caused prejudice, such as showing that the outcome would have been different if the material had been disclosed. These principles were reiterated in *Deepak Ananda Patil v. State of Maharashtra (2023)*. (A) Nemo judex in causa sua (B) Audi alteram partem (C) Ignorantia juris non excusat (D) Jus necessitatis |
(B) Audi alteram partem | The principle applied in this judgment is “Audi alteram partem,” which means “hear the other side.” This principle ensures that both parties in a dispute are given an equal opportunity to present their case. |
| 102. Non-Disclosure of material invalidates the order if: (A) The authority has not relied on the material (B) No prejudice is caused to the party (C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication (D) The outcome would not have been any different if it was disclosed |
(C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication | Non-disclosure of material will invalidate an order if the material was relevant for the adjudication process. The material must be crucial to the case, and its omission can lead to an unfair decision. |
| 103. ‘Real and effective opportunity’ in the context of this judgment refers to: (A) Personal hearing (B) Right to rebut the evidence supplied to the party (C) Right to adduce evidence (D) Right to know the evidence against oneself |
(D) Right to know the evidence against oneself | The term “real and effective opportunity” refers to the right to know the evidence against oneself, ensuring the party has an adequate chance to respond to the allegations or evidence presented. |
| 104. Which of the following requires compliance with the rule of fair hearing? (A) A notification bringing an Act into operation (B) Price Control Order under Essential Commodities Act (C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority (D) Reasoned Decision by competent authority |
(C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority | The rule of fair hearing is required in cases where a person is entitled to a hearing, like a notice issued by a disciplinary authority. Fair hearing ensures that the affected individual can present their case before a decision is made. |
| 105. Which of the following statements is false? (A) Proving prejudice to the party concerned is necessary to quash a quasi-judicial order on the ground of non-disclosure of evidence (B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions (C) Speaking order is a third principle of natural justice (D) Legal representation can be validly disallowed before a quasi-judicial proceeding |
(B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions | Statement (B) is false. The principles of natural justice can have exceptions, especially in certain statutory or emergency situations. The principle of natural justice must be balanced with practical limitations in certain cases. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreIt is a fundamental rule of natural justice that no material should be relied upon without giving the affected party an opportunity to respond. The right to know the evidence or material is part of the right to defend oneself. If a decision is made without disclosing such material, it amounts to a denial of a fair opportunity and vitiates the decision. The Supreme Court emphasized that a quasi-judicial authority must disclose any material it relies on during adjudication. The test for disclosure is whether the material is relevant to the adjudication. The affected party must demonstrate that non-disclosure caused prejudice, such as showing that the outcome would have been different if the material had been disclosed. These principles were reiterated in *Deepak Ananda Patil v. State of Maharashtra (2023)*. (i) Factors (ii) Brokers (iii) Wharfingers (iv) Attorneys (A) iv (B) iv and ii (C) i and iii (D) All of them |
(D) All of them | In the absence of any contract provision, the general lien can be exercised by factors, brokers, wharfingers, and attorneys. These professionals retain goods or documents to ensure payment or services rendered. |
| 107. The Bailee’s right to retain the goods until he receives due remuneration for the services, he has rendered in respect of them is known as: (A) Particular Lien (B) General Lien (C) Particular Retention (D) General Retention |
(B) General Lien | A general lien refers to the right of a bailee to retain possession of goods until they are paid for services provided, even if the goods are unrelated to the specific service. |
| 108. With respect to bailment, a Banker: (A) Has a right to a particular lien on fixed deposits (B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits (C) Has a right to a general lien on savings account (D) Has no right to a lien on a savings account or fixed deposits |
(B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits | A banker can exercise a general lien over fixed deposits and securities held by them to cover any dues owed by the depositor. |
| 109. Which one of the following is not an essential characteristic of Bailment? (A) Physical delivery of goods (B) Delivery of goods for some purpose (C) After the purpose is accomplished, the goods must be returned (D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them |
(D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them | Bailment requires physical delivery of goods for a specific purpose and their return after the purpose is achieved. Disposing of goods according to the deliverer's directions is not an essential characteristic of bailment. |
| 110. Which one of the following are bailments? (i) Hiring a Locker facility in a Bank (ii) Taking a Gold loan from the Bank (iii) Hypothecation of the vehicle for loan to the Bank (iv) Giving car for valet parking (A) iv (B) iv and ii (C) i and iii (D) All of them |
(A) iv | Bailment occurs when goods are delivered for a specific purpose with an agreement to return them. Giving a car for valet parking is a classic example of bailment, whereas hiring a locker or taking a loan involves different legal relationships. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreIn *Shambu Nath Mehra v. State of Ajmer (1956)*, Justice Vivian Bose explained that Section 106 addresses exceptional circumstances where certain facts are "especially" within the accused's knowledge. The section does not shift the burden of proving innocence onto the accused but requires them to explain facts pre-eminently within their knowledge. Interpreting it otherwise would lead to an untenable conclusion, such as requiring the accused to prove they did not commit a crime. In cases relying on circumstantial evidence, the accused’s failure to provide a reasonable explanation under Section 106 may serve as an additional link in the chain of circumstances, as noted in *State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar Ors. (2000)*. (A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101 (B) Section 106 is intended to relieve the prosecution of their duty to prove the case beyond reasonable doubt under Section 101 (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B |
(A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101 | Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act provides an exception to Section 101, shifting the burden of proof to the accused in cases where the facts are within their special knowledge. |
| 112. ‘Any person’ in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to: (A) A party to the suit/proceeding (B) A stranger to the suit/proceeding (C) A witness (D) None of the above |
(A) A party to the suit/proceeding | The term "any person" in Section 106 refers to a party to the suit or proceeding and not necessarily a stranger or a witness. |
| 113. In which of the recent following cases, Supreme Court expounded the principles relating to the applicability of S. 106 of Indian Evidence Act? (A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC (B) Anita v. NCT of Delhi, 2024 SC (C) Abhay v. Union of India, 2024 SC (D) Anish v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC |
(A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC | The Supreme Court in Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC elaborated on the applicability of Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, particularly regarding facts within the accused's special knowledge. |
| 114. What is the phrase “Presumptions are like bats, flitting in the twilight but disappearing in the sunshine of facts” indicate? (A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented (B) Presumption is a substantive piece of evidence and it completely relieves the prosecution of its burden of proof, as long as the presumption is established in the beginning of the trial (C) There are different categories of presumptions and the highest degree of presumption shifts the burden of proof permanently to the accused, who must disprove the presumption beyond reasonable doubt (D) Presumptions are irrefutable facts that, once established, cannot be negated by evidence brought forth in the case |
(A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented | The phrase means presumptions are not irrefutable and can be rebutted. Once disproving evidence is presented, the burden of proof shifts back to the original party. |
| 115. Which of the theories emanate from Section 106 of Indian Evidence Act? 1. Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor 2. Theory of reverse burden of proof 3. Doctrine of last seen together 4. Presumption of innocence Select the correct option: (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 |
(B) 2 and 3 | Section 106 relates to the theory of reverse burden of proof and the doctrine of last seen together, particularly in cases of circumstantial evidence in criminal trials. |
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Comprehension: Read MoreThe Court held that double taxation occurs when the same subject matter is taxed twice. GST principles do not allow for such imposition. The importer, treated as a deemed recipient under the reverse charge mechanism, cannot be taxed for a service they have not directly availed. This interpretation stretches the scope of the reverse charge mechanism, intended to simplify tax collection by shifting liability from the service provider to the recipient, especially when the service provider is outside India. The Court emphasized that taxation must have legislative backing and align with constitutional principles, including non-contravention of fundamental rights. The IGST levy on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism without proper legislative authority was found unconstitutional. (A) Taxing both the importer and the exporter for the same service (B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports (C) Taxing the service provider and the service recipient for the same service (D) Taxing the importer for both the goods and the services separately |
(B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports | The Supreme Court in Mohit Minerals ruled that taxing ocean freight under RCM for CIF imports results in double taxation. Thus, such tax is not payable. |
| 117. Assertion (A): The importer should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism if they are not the direct recipient of the service. (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (C) A is true, but R is false (D) A is false, but R is true |
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A | The importer, though not the direct recipient of the service, is liable to pay GST under RCM. The rationale ensures foreign service providers do not face tax obligations in India. |
| 118. Consider the following statements regarding the Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India judgment: 1. The Supreme Court ruled that imposing GST on ocean freight charges under the reverse charge mechanism leads to double taxation. 2. The importer, not being the direct recipient of the service, should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight. 3. The judgment emphasized that tax laws must have proper legislative backing to prevent contravention of fundamental rights. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 |
(D) 1, 2 and 3 | All three statements are correct. The Supreme Court highlighted double taxation issues under RCM and stressed the importance of legislative backing for tax laws. |
| 119. Consider the following statements: 1. The reverse charge mechanism shifts the tax liability from the service provider to the service recipient. 2. The principle of single taxation was violated by imposing GST on ocean freight charges already included in the cost of imported goods. 3. The judgment clarified that importers can be liable for GST on services directly availed by them. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 |
(D) 1, 2 and 3 | All statements are accurate. The reverse charge mechanism shifts liability, and taxing ocean freight under RCM violates the principle of single taxation. |
| 120. According to the judgment, what is the constitutional requirement for levying a tax? (A) The tax should be easy to administer (B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights (C) The tax should be progressive in nature (D) The tax should only apply to domestic transactions |
(B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights | The Constitution mandates that taxes must be legislatively competent and should not contravene fundamental rights. |







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