TS PGECET 2026 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Question Paper: Download Answer Key with Solutions PDF

Which of the following cannot be an eigen value for an unitary matrix?

• (A) \(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}i\)
• (B) \(i\)
• (C) \(-i\)
• (D) \(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}i\)

If \(A\) is symmetric, \(P\) and \(B\) are skew symmetric matrices, then which of the following is correct?

• (A) \(A^{13}B^{26} - B^{26}A^{13}\) is a symmetric matrix
• (B) \(A^{26}P^{13} - P^{13}A^{26}\) is a skew symmetric matrix
• (C) \(P^{13}A^{26} + A^{26}P^{13}\) is a skew symmetric matrix
• (D) \(P^{13}B^{26} + B^{13}P^{26}\) is a skew symmetric matrix

The maximum value of \(x^2 y z^3\), subject to \(x + y + z = 42\) exist at \((x, y, z) = (\alpha, \beta, \gamma)\), then \(\alpha\beta\gamma =\)

• (A) \(6 \times 7^3\)
• (B) \(7 \times 6^3\)
• (C) \(14 \times 7 \times 21\)
• (D) \(12 \times 6 \times 24\)

The evaluation of the double integral \(\int_{-a}^{a} \int_{0}^{x} \frac{e^y}{(1+e^y)^2} \, dydx =\)

• (A) \(a\)
• (B) \(e^a\)
• (C) \(e^{a^2}\)
• (D) \(0\)

Given below are pair of functions \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\). Which pair is not linearly independent?

• (A) \(f(x) = \cos x + \sin x\), \(g(x) = -6\cos\frac{x}{3} - 8\cos^3\frac{x}{3}\)
• (B) \(f(x) = -\cos x + \sin x\), \(g(x) = \cos x\)
• (C) \(f(x) = \cos x\), \(g(x) = \cos^3 x - \sin^3 x\)
• (D) \(f(x) = \sin x\), \(g(x) = 6\sin\frac{x}{3} - 8\sin^3\frac{x}{3}\)

The solution of \(\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} = 4\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}\), \(t > 0\), \(-\infty < x < \infty\) satisfying the conditions \(u(x,0) = x\) and \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial t}(x,0) = 0\) is

• (A) \(x\)
• (B) \(\frac{x^2}{2} + t\)
• (C) \(x + 2t\)
• (D) \(\frac{t^2}{2} + x\)

If \(A\) and \(B\) are independent events and \(P\left(\left(\frac{A}{B}\right) \cup \left(\frac{B}{A}\right)\right) = k - P(A)P(B), then k =\)

• (A) \(P(A) - P(B)\)
• (B) \(\frac{P(A)}{P(B)}\)
• (C) \(P(A)P\left(\frac{B}{A}\right)\)
• (D) \(P(A) + P(B)\)

From a set \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7\}\) two numbers are selected at random. The random variable \(X\) is defined as the absolute difference of the numbers selected. The mean of \(X\) is

• (A) \(21\)
• (B) \(4\)
• (C) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
• (D) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Newton-Raphson method is used to find the root of \(x^2 - 3 = 0\). If the initial solution is taken as \(x = -2\), then the iterations tend to

• (A) \(-\infty\)
• (B) \(-\sqrt{3}\)
• (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
• (D) zero

While evaluating \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) \, dx\) using Trapezoidal rule and Simpson's one-third rule, \([a,b]\) is divided into n number of subintervals so that both the methods can be applied for the same division, then a possible value of n is

• (A) \(5\)
• (B) \(12\)
• (C) \(7\)
• (D) Any non-prime number

At \( t = \infty \) in an RL circuit with DC excitation, the inductor behaves as:

• (A) Open circuit
• (B) Capacitor
• (C) Short circuit
• (D) Dependent source

In a series RL circuit excited by DC, the current reaches 63.2% of its final value at:

• (A) \( t = RC \)
• (B) \( t = \frac{1}{RC} \)
• (C) \( t = \frac{R}{L} \)
• (D) \( t = \frac{L}{R} \)

If \( L = 1 H \), \( C = 1 F \) and \( R = 1\ \Omega \) in a series RLC circuit, then the circuit is:

• (A) Pure oscillating
• (B) Critically damped
• (C) Overdamped
• (D) Underdamped

In a series RLC circuit with \( R = 10\ \Omega \), \( L = 0.1 H \), \( C = 100\  \), the resonant frequency, Q-factor and bandwidth respectively are:

• (A) \( 50 Hz, 3.14, 15.9 Hz \)
• (B) \( 50 Hz, 2.15, 9 Hz \)
• (C) \( 40 Hz, 2.15, 9 Hz \)
• (D) \( 50 Hz, 3.14, 16 Hz \)

The cut-off frequency of an RC low-pass filter is:

• (A) \( \frac{1}{(2\pi RC)} \)
• (B) \( 2\pi RC \)
• (C) \( \frac{R}{(2\pi C)} \)
• (D) \( \frac{C}{(2\pi R)} \)

If a circuit has unity power factor, then reactive power is:

• (A) Maximum
• (B) Zero
• (C) Minimum
• (D) Inductive

Given \( v(t) = 100 \sin(100\pi t) \), the RMS value is:

• (A) \( 50 V \)
• (B) \( 100 V \)
• (C) \( 70.7 V \)
• (D) \( 141.4 V \)

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Norton current is equal to the short-circuit current at the output terminals.

Reason (R): Because Norton equivalent resistance is obtained by deactivating all independent sources and calculating the resistance seen from the output terminals.

The correct answer is:

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
• (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
• (D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

The Thevenin resistance of a circuit is zero, then this implies:

• (A) The circuit is open-circuited
• (B) The circuit behaves as an ideal current source
• (C) Maximum power transfer is impossible
• (D) The circuit behaves as an ideal voltage source

If admittance of a circuit is \( Y = 0.3 - j0.4 s \), then the magnitude of the impedance is:

• (A) \( 1\ \Omega \)
• (B) \( 2\ \Omega \)
• (C) \( 5\ \Omega \)
• (D) \( 10\ \Omega \)

A signal that exists only for a finite duration of time is called:

• (A) Periodic
• (B) Aperiodic
• (C) Even
• (D) Causal

In an operational amplifier, slew rate limitation affects:

• (A) High frequency large signal response
• (B) Input offset
• (C) Bandwidth only
• (D) DC gain

For an active low-pass filter of first order, the roll-off is:

• (A) \( -10 dB/dec \)
• (B) \( -40 dB/dec \)
• (C) \( -20 dB/dec \)
• (D) \( -60 dB/dec \)

At very high frequencies, MOSFET is preferred because of:

• (A) Infinite gain
• (B) Low threshold
• (C) High \(\beta\)
• (D) No minority carrier storage

In the ideal case, what is the input impedance of an operational amplifier?

• (A) Infinite
• (B) \( 1 M\Omega \)
• (C) Zero
• (D) \( 100\ \Omega \)

The transfer function of an LTI system is defined as:

• (A) Output signal
• (B) Frequency response
• (C) Impulse response
• (D) Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input (zero initial conditions)

1's complement and 2's complement of \((19)_{16}\) in hexadecimal are:

• (A) \( 06 \) and \( 07 \) respectively
• (B) \( 07 \) and \( 08 \) respectively
• (C) \( 07 \) and \( 07 \) respectively
• (D) \( 08 \) and \( 06 \) respectively

If the outputs of XNOR and XOR gates with inputs a, b are connected to an AND gate, then the output is:

• (A) \(a'b + ab'\)
• (B) \(ab + a'b'\)
• (C) \(0\)
• (D) \(1\)

Discrete-time LTI system is BIBO stable if:

• (A) The absolute sum of its impulse response converges
• (B) Its impulse response is finite
• (C) It has no poles
• (D) Its frequency response is zero

For a clock frequency of 20 MHz, the output frequency of a flip-flop is:

• (A) \(5 MHz\)
• (B) \(20 MHz\)
• (C) \(10 MHz\)
• (D) \(40 MHz\)

In ECG analysis, QRS detection is important because it represents:

• (A) Atrial depolarization
• (B) Ventricular depolarization
• (C) Ventricular repolarization
• (D) Atrial repolarization

The output voltage of a 6-bit ladder type DAC with a digital input of 111001 is (Assume maximum output voltage is 10 V):

• (A) \(9.04 V\)
• (B) \(9.20 V\)
• (C) \(9.06 V\)
• (D) \(8.90 V\)

An SAR type ADC and a Flash type ADC have identical resolution and reference voltage. If both of them have same input signal bandwidth and sampling rate, then which of the following statements is true?

• (A) Flash ADC consumes comparators exponentially
• (B) SAR ADC has better DNL performance inherently
• (C) SAR ADC has lower conversion latency always
• (D) Flash ADC has a simpler analog layout architecture

Increasing the resolution of an ideal N-bit ADC at constant reference voltage will:

• (A) Increase quantization noise power linearly
• (B) Decrease quantization noise power linearly
• (C) Not affect quantization noise power
• (D) Decrease quantization noise power exponentially

A 24 MHz microcontroller executes one instruction per clock cycle. If an interrupt service routine consumes 120 cycles, then the time taken by the ISR to execute is:

• (A) \(10\ \)
• (B) \(5\ \)
• (C) \(20\ \)
• (D) \(1\ \)

In an 8-bit microcontroller, if the program counter is 16-bit wide, then the maximum addressable memory space is:

• (A) \(64 kB\)
• (B) \(128 bytes\)
• (C) \(1 MB\)
• (D) \(256 kB\)

Which of the following statements is true?

• (A) I/O-mapped I/O reduces instruction set size
• (B) I/O-mapped I/O increases addressable memory space
• (C) Memory-mapped I/O allows use of all memory instructions
• (D) I/O-mapped I/O increases instruction set size

In a \(16k \times 8\) microprocessor, the number of address and data lines respectively are:

• (A) \(14,\ 8\)
• (B) \(16,\ 8\)
• (C) \(8,\ 16\)
• (D) \(8,\ 14\)

CPU utilization in polling-based I/O is:

• (A) Less than zero
• (B) Maximum
• (C) Zero
• (D) Independent of device speed

Signal conditioning is required mainly to:

• (A) Match signal level to ADC input range
• (B) Increase sampling rate
• (C) Increase resolution
• (D) Reduce memory requirement

Accuracy in measurement relates to:

• (A) Systematic error
• (B) Random error
• (C) Noise
• (D) Resolution

Q factor of a tuned amplifier does not depend on:

• (A) Capacitance
• (B) Gain
• (C) Resistance
• (D) Inductance

Which of the following is satisfied by a linear system?

• (A) Reciprocal property
• (B) Time invariance
• (C) Zero initial condition
• (D) Homogeneity

Transfer function is valid only for:

• (A) Linear time-invariant systems
• (B) Linear time-variant systems
• (C) Non-linear time-invariant systems
• (D) Non-linear time-variant systems

Which of the following statements is true?

• (A) More zeros always improve transient response
• (B) Zero in right hand plane affects steady-state error
• (C) Improper systems are physically unrealizable
• (D) Stability depends on zeros

The spike-and-wave complex of the EEG is detected using:

• (A) HPF
• (B) LPF
• (C) Wiener filter
• (D) Template Matching

The AZTEC algorithm converts the raw ECG sample points into:

• (A) Slopes and segments
• (B) Segments and curves
• (C) Points and plateaus
• (D) Plateaus and slopes

In the most commonly used derivative-based QRS detection technique, the weighting factors for the first and second derivatives respectively are around:

• (A) 1.3 and 1.1
• (B) 1.5 and 1.8
• (C) 1.5 and 0.8
• (D) 0.8 and 1.3

The adaptive filter used by Widrow to suppress the maternal ECG during fetal heart rate monitoring has following taps and a delay respectively:

• (A) 16, 1s
• (B) 16, 100 ms
• (C) 2, 129 ms
• (D) 32, 1s

In sleep, K-complex occurs spontaneously or in response to:

• (A) Very slowly changing stimulus
• (B) Very high stimulus
• (C) Very low stimulus
• (D) Sudden stimulus

The ST-segment analyzer measures:

• (A) ST amplitude and ST frequency
• (B) ST slope and ST segment level
• (C) ST frequency and ST slope
• (D) ST segment level and ST frequency

The optimal Wiener filter can be designed if noise is a stationary random process that is statistically:

• (A) Independent of the stationary signal
• (B) Dependent on the non-stationary signal
• (C) Independent of the non-stationary signal
• (D) Dependent on the stationary signal

Among the following which is not an ECG compression algorithm:

• (A) AZTEC
• (B) CORTES
• (C) Pan-Tompkins
• (D) TPA

The sleep spindle is an episodic rhythm with:

• (A) 30 Hz frequency and 50 mV amplitude
• (B) 14 Hz frequency and 50 \(\mu\)V amplitude
• (C) 50 Hz frequency and 50 \(\mu\)V amplitude
• (D) 60 Hz frequency and 50 mV amplitude

Integer filters are digital filters that use only integer coefficients for:

• (A) Real-time processing speeds
• (B) Low processing speeds
• (C) Medium processing speeds
• (D) High processing speeds

Linear phase is easily achievable in:

• (A) IIR filters
• (B) FIR filters
• (C) Analog filters
• (D) Band pass filters

Circular convolution occurs due to:

• (A) DFT operation
• (B) Sampling theorem
• (C) Correlation
• (D) Infinite-length signals

A first-order system has transfer function \(H(s) = \frac{1}{(s+2)}\). Its impulse response is:

• (A) \(2e^{-t}u(t)\)
• (B) \(2e^{-2t}u(t)\)
• (C) \(e^{-2t}u(t)\)
• (D) \(e^{-t}u(t)\)

If ROC of a Laplace transform is \(Re(s) > -2\), then the system is:

• (A) Unstable
• (B) Causal
• (C) Stable
• (D) Anti-causal

Among the following, which signal is aperiodic?

• (A) \(\cos(10t)\)
• (B) \(e^{j2\pi t}\)
• (C) \(\sin(4t + \pi)\)
• (D) \(e^{-2t}u(t)\)

Thermistors are generally sintered mixtures of:

• (A) Sulphides and oxalates of nickel, cobalt and manganese
• (B) Sulphides and oxides of nickel, cobalt and manganese
• (C) Oxalates and phosphates of nickel, cobalt and manganese
• (D) Phosphates and oxides of nickel, cobalt and manganese

The features of push-pull self-inductance transducer are

• (A) Immune to effects of external magnetic field and reduced mechanical input impedance
• (B) Immune to effects of external magnetic field and increased mechanical input impedance
• (C) Susceptible to effects of external magnetic field and reduced mechanical input impedance
• (D) Susceptible to effects of external magnetic field and increased mechanical input impedance

In a capacitive transducer used for the measurement of angular displacements and angular vibrations, the capacitance of the transducer, when all teeth are aligned is

• (A) Directly proportional to gap between the teeth and inversely proportional to number of pairs of teeth
• (B) Directly proportional to number of pairs of teeth and inversely proportional to length of each tooth
• (C) Directly proportional to length of each tooth and inversely proportional to number of pairs of teeth
• (D) Directly proportional to length of each tooth and inversely proportional to gap between the teeth

The Hall effect transducer is used as

• (A) Displacement transducer and position detector
• (B) Position detector and acceleration sensor
• (C) Displacement transducer, proximity detector and transducer for measuring magnetic fields
• (D) Displacement transducer, position detector and transducer for measuring electric fields

Among the following, torque is measured with

• (A) Cantilever-type bender bimorph
• (B) Parallel bimorph
• (C) Series bimorph
• (D) Piezoelectric strain multi morph

A differential amplifier has the following features

• (A) Susceptibility to common-mode signals, sensitivity to temperature, versatility
• (B) Immunity to common-mode signals, sensitivity to temperature, versatility
• (C) Insensitivity to temperature, high stability, versatility
• (D) Sensitivity to temperature, low stability, versatility

Typical amplitude of ECG signal is

• (A) 5 - 10 mV
• (B) 0.5 - 5 mV
• (C) 10 - 50 mV
• (D) 50 - 100 mV

EMG signal amplitude mainly depends on

• (A) Respiration
• (B) Electrode placement and muscle activity
• (C) Blood pressure
• (D) Body temperature

In transformer coupling employed for protection against leakage currents, a carrier signal is employed with

• (A) Frequency or pulse width modulation
• (B) Amplitude modulation
• (C) Phase modulation
• (D) Pulse amplitude modulation

The amplitude of the ERG voltage is typically

• (A) 50 mV and is a function of the movement of the eye
• (B) 5 mV and is a function of the intensity of the light falling on the eye
• (C) 500 \(\mu\)V and is a function of the intensity of the light falling on the eye
• (D) 50 \(\mu\)V and is a function of the movement of the eye

EEG alpha rhythm occurs in the frequency range

• (A) 0.5 - 4 Hz
• (B) 8 - 13 Hz
• (C) 4 - 7 Hz
• (D) 30 - 50 Hz

Power line interference affects the ECG signal recording and one way to minimize this interference is by

• (A) Shielding and grounding each lead at the ECG machine
• (B) Raising the skin-electrode impedances
• (C) Reducing the magnetic field strength in the vicinity of the ECG machine
• (D) Shielding the ECG machine

Among the voltage-limiting devices used to protect the electrocardiograph, the miniature neon lamps provide a break down voltage in the range of:

• (A) \( 20-50 mV \)
• (B) \( 20-50 V \)
• (C) \( 5-9 V \)
• (D) \( 50-90 V \)

As compared to those employed for ECG recording, the electrodes and the preamplifier for EEG recording must have:

• (A) Lower contact impedance and higher input impedance respectively
• (B) Lower contact impedance and lower input impedance respectively
• (C) Higher source impedance and higher input impedance respectively
• (D) Higher source impedance and lower input impedance respectively

Surgical diathermy causes electromagnetic interference and in this process, the lead wires and the subject serve as:

• (A) Out-of-band noise source
• (B) Antenna
• (C) Shielding
• (D) Attenuator

In the microtip fiber optic pressor sensor for in-vivo measurements, the characteristic curve between the sensor output and the membrane displacement is:

• (A) Almost linear at very low displacements
• (B) Highly non-linear at very low displacements
• (C) Highly non-linear at all displacements
• (D) Linear at higher displacements

The most important features of thermocouples are:

• (A) Fast response time, high sensitivity and small size
• (B) Long-term stability, high sensitivity and low output voltage
• (C) Low sensitivity, ease of fabrication and fast response time
• (D) Long-term stability, slow response time and difficulty in fabrication

The range of resistivity of thermistors which are used in medical applications, is:

• (A) \( 1 and 20 \ \Omega \)
• (B) \( 0.1 and 100 \ \Omega \)
• (C) \( 50 and 1000 \ \Omega \)
• (D) \( 0.5 and 1000 \ \Omega \)

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the blood pressure measurement involving an occlusive cuff?

• (A) The length of the cuff is approximately 4 times the arm circumference
• (B) Positioning of the cuff does not matter if a shorter cuff is used
• (C) Longer cuff leads to misalignment
• (D) The width of the cuff is approximately 0.4 times the arm circumference

In the blood volume determination, the movement of the photoplethysmography relative to the tissue causes change in the:

• (A) Baseline reflectance leading to sensor overload
• (B) Baseline transmittance leading to amplifier saturation
• (C) Baseline transmittance leading to sensor overload
• (D) Sensor sensitivity leading to amplifier saturation

Which of the following statement is false?

• (A) Transformer voltage develops in electromagnetic flowmeters employing AC magnetic current with sine wave excitation
• (B) The best technique to minimize the transformer voltage effect is to employ quadrature suppression circuit
• (C) In sine wave blood flowmeters, the signal-to-noise ratio is enhanced by employing low-noise FETs at amplifier output stage and half-wave demodulators
• (D) In sine wave blood flowmeters, the signal-to-noise ratio is enhanced by employing low-noise FETs at amplifier input stage and full-wave demodulators

In sine wave blood flowmeters, the signal-to-noise ratio is enhanced by employing:

• (A) Low-noise FETs at amplifier output stage and half-wave demodulators
• (B) Full-wave demodulators and low-noise FETs at amplifier output stage
• (C) Half-wave demodulators and proper turns ratio for the step-down transformer
• (D) Low-noise FETs at amplifier input stage and full-wave demodulators

Arterial oxygen saturation at the forehead, chest and limbs can be measured with a:

• (A) Transcutaneous reflectance oximeter
• (B) Percutaneous transmittance oximeter
• (C) Transcutaneous transmittance oximeter
• (D) Blood gas analyzer

In pulse oximetry, the light sources used are typically:

• (A) Blue and green
• (B) Green and yellow
• (C) Red and infrared
• (D) Ultraviolet and visible

The energies required for defibrillation using implantable defibrillators and transthoracic defibrillators respectively are:

• (A) \( 5 to 30 W and 50 to 100 W \)
• (B) \( 5 to 30 W-sec and 50 to 100 W-sec \)
• (C) \( 15 to 50 J and 500 to 1000 J \)
• (D) \( 15 to 30 W-sec and 150 to 1000 W-sec \)

In the human cell, the rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to its outer surface and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum manufactures and packages:

• (A) DNA into vesicles
• (B) Hormones into vesicles
• (C) Glucose into vesicles
• (D) Lipids into vesicles

The four primary types of tissues in the human body are:

• (A) Muscular, nervous, connective and epithelial
• (B) Adipose, nervous, connective and epithelial
• (C) Muscular, adipose, connective and epithelial
• (D) Bone, muscular, nervous and epithelial

The electrical impulse generated by the SA node travels through the AV node, Purkinje fibers and ventricular muscle respectively at speeds of (in m/s):

• (A) \( 0.5, \ 2 and 1 \)
• (B) \( 1, \ 0.3 and 2 \)
• (C) \( 0.05, \ 3 and 0.5 \)
• (D) \( 0.5, \ 1 and 2 \)

With reference to the nervous system, which of the following statements is false?

• (A) In a divergent circuit, each axonal branch of the presynaptic neuron connects with the dendrite of a different postsynaptic neuron
• (B) In a convergent circuit, axons from several presynaptic neurons meet at the dendrite(s) of a single postsynaptic neuron
• (C) A three-neuron circuit consists of a sensory neuron, an interneuron in the spinal cord, and a motor neuron
• (D) Reflex arc is a special type of neural circuit with only 3 neurons

In the muscular system, which of the following statement is true?

• (A) The H zone and the area in which the actin and myosin overlap form the I band
• (B) The H zone and the area in which the actin and myosin overlap form the A band
• (C) The I band consists exclusively of thick myosin filaments
• (D) The H zone contains both thin and thick structural filaments

Under what type of loading and direction, the human cortical bone exhibits highest ultimate strength?

• (A) Compressive, longitudinal
• (B) Tensile, axial
• (C) Bending, longitudinal
• (D) Torsion, axial

On application of tensile forces, cancellous bone exhibits a brittle behavior but yielding occurs under:

• (A) Longitudinal bending
• (B) Transverse bending
• (C) Compressive loading
• (D) Torsion

In Poiseuille flow, the flow rate is directly proportional to:

• (A) Length of the vessel, pressure, coefficient of viscosity
• (B) Pressure drop, length of the vessel, coefficient of viscosity
• (C) Pressure drop, diameter of the vessel
• (D) Radius of the vessel, coefficient of viscosity

The percentage of body's blood volume that veins hold is:

• (A) \( 40% \)
• (B) \( 60% \)
• (C) \( 50% \)
• (D) \( 30% \)

As their aspect ratio is high, collagen fibers are not effective under:

• (A) Axial tension
• (B) Transverse tension
• (C) Transverse compression
• (D) Axial compression

The ligament connects:

• (A) Two muscles
• (B) Two bones
• (C) Muscle and bone
• (D) Bone and cartilage

Among the viscoelastic models:

• (A) Voigt model behaves as a viscoelastic solid
• (B) Kelvin model behaves as a viscoelastic fluid
• (C) Maxwell model behaves as a viscoelastic fluid
• (D) Maxwell model behaves as a viscoelastic solid

Distance between corresponding successive points of heel contact of the opposite feet is termed step length and its mean value for a normal adult is around:

• (A) 30 inches
• (B) 20 inches
• (C) 15 inches
• (D) 25 inches

Which of the following is true with respect to the mobility of the joints?

• (A) Amphiarthrodial > Diarthrodial > Synarthrodial
• (B) Diarthrodial > Synarthrodial > Amphiarthrodial
• (C) Diarthrodial < Synarthrodial < Amphiarthrodial
• (D) Diarthrodial > Amphiarthrodial > Synarthrodial

An agonist muscle causes movement through concentric contraction and an antagonist muscle controls the movement through:

• (A) Concentric contraction
• (B) Eccentric contraction
• (C) Isovolumic contraction
• (D) Isometric contraction

High efficiency in CT detectors results in:

• (A) High dynamic range and minimum patient dose
• (B) Minimum patient dose and low dynamic range
• (C) High dynamic range and high patient dose
• (D) High contrast and low patient dose

Cardiac images obtained with conventional CT may not be precise due to:

• (A) Limited number of detectors
• (B) Size of the detectors
• (C) Power line interference
• (D) Motion artifact

In a PET scanner, the positron combines with:

• (A) Neutron and emits one gamma ray
• (B) Electron and emits photon
• (C) Electron and emits high-energy photo
• (D) Electron and emits two gamma rays

In MRI system, longitudinal relaxation time is slower than:

• (A) Phase relaxation time
• (B) Spin lattice relaxation time
• (C) Transverse relaxation time
• (D) De-phasing relaxation time

CT imaging reconstructs cross-sectional images primarily using:

• (A) Reflection of X-rays
• (B) Mathematical reconstruction from multiple projections
• (C) Magnetic resonance
• (D) Ultrasound echoes

The atomic number of the anode material in an X-ray tube is \( Z \). If the X-ray tube has an anode-to-cathode voltage of \( V \), the efficiency of X-ray production is proportional to:

• (A) \( \frac{Z}{V} \)
• (B) \( ZV^2 \)
• (C) \( \frac{V^2}{Z} \)
• (D) \( ZV \)

In an image intensifier, the factors contributing to brightness gain are:

• (A) Electronic gain and voltage gain
• (B) Geometric gain and power gain
• (C) Electronic gain and geometric gain
• (D) Current gain and voltage gain

Acoustic impedance of a medium is defined as the product of:

• (A) Density and wavelength
• (B) Pressure and velocity
• (C) Density and velocity of sound
• (D) Frequency and wavelength

With reference to Ultrasonography, the correct order of the materials/tissues with ascending values for the half value layer is:

• (A) Bone, fat, water
• (B) Water, fat, bone
• (C) Water, fat, brain
• (D) Fat, muscle, brain

SPECT systems are not suitable for dynamic studies because:

• (A) They must enhance the variations in attenuation of the patient
• (B) They must compensate for variations in attenuation of the patient
• (C) They must enhance the attenuation coefficient of the patient which is a time-consuming process
• (D) They must compensate for variations in acoustic coefficient of the patient which is complex

In an ultrasonic transducer with radius \( R \) and ultrasound wavelength \( \lambda \), the near field extends to a distance given by:

• (A) \( \left(\frac{R^2}{\lambda}\right) - \left(\frac{\lambda}{4}\right) \)
• (B) \( \left(\frac{R^2}{\lambda}\right) - \left(\frac{\lambda}{16}\right) \)
• (C) \( \left(\frac{R}{\lambda}\right) - \left(\frac{\lambda}{2}\right) \)
• (D) \( \left(\frac{R^2}{2\lambda}\right) - \left(\frac{\lambda}{4}\right) \)

Among the piezoelectric materials, PZT crystals show better electro-mechanical conversion efficiency than Quartz crystals upto a frequency of about:

• (A) \( 15 MHz \)
• (B) \( 25 MHz \)
• (C) \( 25 kHz \)
• (D) \( 15 kHz \)

The correct combination of biomaterials and their medical applications are:

• (A) Zirconia - Cochlear replacements, PVC - Intraocular lenses
• (B) Nylon - Artificial heart valves, Zirconia - Cochlear replacements
• (C) Cellulose - Drug delivery, PVC - Facial prostheses
• (D) Gold - Electrodes, PVC - Intraocular lenses

Metals are commonly used as biomaterials mainly because of their:

• (A) High strength and toughness
• (B) High corrosion rate
• (C) Low density
• (D) Optical transparency

Carbonated apatite and brushite are the different atomic phases of calcium phosphate and they are:

• (A) Polymeric biomaterials
• (B) Metallic biomaterials
• (C) Ceramic biomaterials
• (D) Composite biomaterials

For a compound, Agar diffusion test is used to evaluate:

• (A) Mechanical strength
• (B) Thermal conductivity
• (C) Corrosion resistance
• (D) Cytotoxicity

The common characterization technique used to measure Young's modulus of a brittle biomaterial is:

• (A) Compression test
• (B) Dynamic mechanical analysis
• (C) Three- and four-point bend test
• (D) Tensile test

To produce high-resolution images, Transmission Electron Microscope uses a high-energy electron beam of typically:

• (A) \( 5000 - 10000 V \)
• (B) \( 1000 - 300 kV \)
• (C) \( 50 - 80 kV \)
• (D) \( 200 - 1000 kV \)

The capacity of a material to decompose naturally in a biological environment is biodegradability and it is brought by:

• (A) Hormones and enzymes
• (B) Microorganisms and liver
• (C) Hormones and liver
• (D) Microorganisms and enzymes

Which of the following is the first level of biocompatibility testing?

• (A) Secondary test
• (B) In vitro test
• (C) Clinical trial
• (D) In vivo animal model test