AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Andhra University, Visakhapatnam on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering exam on April 29 in Shift 2. AP PGECET is a state-level entrance exam conducted online for admission into M.Tech./M.Pharm./Pharm.D (PB) courses.

  • AP PGECET Question Paper consists of 120 questions divided into two sections- Mathematics and Engineering Domain Specific.
  • Each correct answer answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Solutions

AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

Consider an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle working on R-134a refrigerant. The COP of the cycle is 10 and the refrigeration capacity is 150 kJ/kg. The heat rejected by the refrigerant in the condenser is _______ kJ/kg.

  • (A) 165
  • (B) 148
  • (C) 126
  • (D) 137

Question 2:

The critical speed of a rotating shaft depends on

  • (A) Mass and stiffness
  • (B) Mass and eccentricity
  • (C) Stiffness and eccentricity
  • (D) Mass, stiffness and eccentricity

Question 3:

What happens to the total potential energy of a system if the external work done by applied loads is greater than the increase in internal strain energy?

  • (A) The total potential energy decreases
  • (B) The system is in unstable equilibrium
  • (C) The material has exceeded its yield point
  • (D) The system reaches a higher energy state

Question 4:

The truss which follows the law \(n =\) _________ is known as simple truss

  • (A) \(n = 2j + 3\)
  • (B) \(n = 2j - 3\)
  • (C) \(n = 3j + 2\)
  • (D) \(n = 3j - 2\)

Question 5:

A solid uniform metal bar of diameter D and length L is hanging vertically from its upper end. The elongation of the bar due to self-weight is

  • (A) Proportional to L and inversely proportional to \(D^2\)
  • (B) Proportional to \(L^2\) and inversely proportional to \(D^2\)
  • (C) Proportional to L and independent to D
  • (D) Proportional to D and inversely proportional to \(L^2\)

Question 6:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a transportation problem?

  • (A) Supply and demand constraints
  • (B) Minimization of transportation cost
  • (C) Assignment of tasks to agents
  • (D) Distribution of goods from sources to destinations

Question 7:

Determine the atmospheric pressure at a location where the barometric reading is 700 mmHg and the gravitational acceleration is \(g = 10 m/s^2\). Assume the mercury density is \(14000 kg/m^3\).

  • (A) 200 kPa
  • (B) 100 kPa
  • (C) 98 kPa
  • (D) 101.03 kPa

Question 8:

The control volume approach in fluid mechanics is primarily used to analyse:

  • (A) Fluid properties at a point
  • (B) Fluid flow across a defined region
  • (C) Molecular interactions in fluids
  • (D) Surface tension effects

Question 9:

Which of the following processes is an example of an isothermal process?

  • (A) A gas expanding with no heat exchange and increasing temperature.
  • (B) A gas expanding at constant temperature.
  • (C) A gas compressed rapidly causing temperature to rise.
  • (D) A gas heated at constant volume.

Question 10:

In a Diesel cycle, the parameter that affects efficiency in addition to compression ratio is

  • (A) Cut-off ratio
  • (B) Pressure ratio
  • (C) Heat rejection
  • (D) Mean effective pressure

Question 11:

What happens to the entropy of a pure substance during a phase change at constant temperature and pressure?

  • (A) It decreases.
  • (B) It remains constant.
  • (C) It increases.
  • (D) It becomes zero.

Question 12:

In free convection, which dimensionless number represents the ratio of buoyancy forces to viscous forces?

  • (A) Reynolds Number
  • (B) Grashof Number
  • (C) Prandtl Number
  • (D) Nusselt Number

Question 13:

Angle of twist of a shaft of diameter 'd' is inversely proportional to

  • (A) d
  • (B) \(d^2\)
  • (C) \(d^3\)
  • (D) \(d^4\)

Question 14:

The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of elasticity for a Poisson's ratio of 1 would be

  • (A) 0.5
  • (B) 0.4
  • (C) 0.25
  • (D) 1

Question 15:

A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and height 50 mm is forged between two frictionless flat dies to a height of 25 mm. The percentage change in diameter is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2.07
  • (C) 20.7
  • (D) 41.4

Question 16:

Which dimensionless number characterizes the ratio of convective to conductive heat transfer in a fluid?

  • (A) Reynolds number
  • (B) Prandtl number
  • (C) Nusselt number
  • (D) Grashof number

Question 17:

For an air refrigeration cycle, COP improves when

  • (A) Compressor exit temperature increases
  • (B) Turbine exit temperature decreases
  • (C) Refrigeration temperature increases
  • (D) Heat rejection temperature increases

Question 18:

What is the main cause of irreversibility in thermodynamic processes?

  • (A) Perfect insulation.
  • (B) Friction and unrestrained expansion.
  • (C) Slow, quasi-static changes.
  • (D) Reversible heat transfer.

Question 19:

In a concentric tube counter flow heat exchanger, hot oil enters at \(102 ^{\circ}C\) and leaves at \(65 ^{\circ}C\). Cold water at \(25 ^{\circ}C\) and leaves at \(42 ^{\circ}C\). The log mean temperature difference (LTMD) is _______

  • (A) \(65.25 ^{\circ}C\)
  • (B) \(49.32 ^{\circ}C\)
  • (C) \(74.12 ^{\circ}C\)
  • (D) \(102.6 ^{\circ}C\)

Question 20:

The criterion of static load carrying capacity is the permanent deformation of the parts of bearing. The limiting value of permanent deformation is

  • (A) 0.001 of the ball diameter
  • (B) 0.0001 of the ball diameter
  • (C) 0.1 of the ball diameter
  • (D) 0.01 of the ball diameter

Question 21:

What is the primary purpose of forecasting in production planning?

  • (A) To determine the exact number of employees needed
  • (B) To predict future demand for products or services
  • (C) To schedule daily work shifts
  • (D) To control inventory costs

Question 22:

In rolling of metals, when reduction per pass is increased while all other conditions are kept constant, the required rolling force

  • (A) decreases due to smaller contact length
  • (B) Increases because deformation zone and strain work increase
  • (C) Remains constant
  • (D) Becomes zero at large reductions

Question 23:

The compressor of a gas turbine plant, operating on an ideal intercooled Brayton cycle, accomplishes an overall pressure ratio of 6 in a two-stage compression process. Intercooling is used to cool the air coming out from the first stage to the inlet temperature of the first stage, before its entry to the second stage. Air enters the compressor at 300 K and 100 kPa. If the properties of gas are constant, the intercooling pressure for minimum compressor work is _______

  • (A) 321.15 kPa
  • (B) 479.16 kPa
  • (C) 244.95 kPa
  • (D) 195.35 kPa

Question 24:

In forced convection inside a pipe, the Nusselt number for fully developed laminar flow with constant wall temperature is:

  • (A) 3.66
  • (B) 4.36
  • (C) 5.66
  • (D) 6.36

Question 25:

The two plates are welded by a butt joint and is subjected to tensile force P as shown in figure. The average tensile stress in the weld is

  • (A) \(\sigma_t = 2P / (hl)\)
  • (B) \(\sigma_t = P / (2hl)\)
  • (C) \(\sigma_t = P / (hl)\)
  • (D) \(\sigma_t = 2P / (3hl)\)

Question 26:

Which theory is commonly used to predict the failure of ductile materials under multiaxial stress states?

  • (A) Coulomb's theory
  • (B) Rankine's theory
  • (C) Maximum distortion energy theory
  • (D) Tresca's theory

Question 27:

In a Carnot cycle, which process occurs between the two isothermal processes?

  • (A) Isobaric processes
  • (B) Isochoric processes
  • (C) Adiabatic processes
  • (D) Isenthalpic processes

Question 28:

The virtual work done by external active forces on an ideal mechanical system in equilibrium is ______ for any and all virtual displacements consistent with the constraints.

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Unit
  • (C) Twice
  • (D) Thrice

Question 29:

One kg of air, initially at a temperature of \(127 ^{\circ}C\) expands reversibly at a constant pressure until the volume is doubled. If the gas constant of air is \(287 J/kg K\), the magnitude of work transfer is _______ kJ.

  • (A) 168.12
  • (B) 203.48
  • (C) 196.56
  • (D) 114.8

Question 30:

A cylindrical vessel is said to be thin if the ratio of its internal diameter to the wall thickness is

  • (A) Less than 20
  • (B) Equal to 20
  • (C) More than 20
  • (D) Equal to 25

Question 31:

If the coefficient of friction between brake lining and drum decreases, the braking effort required

  • (A) Increases
  • (B) Decreases
  • (C) Remains constant
  • (D) Becomes zero

Question 32:

A surface behaves as a perfect black body at 600 K. Another black body is at 300 K. The ratio of emissive powers is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 16

Question 33:

A cylinder contains \(5 m^3\) of an ideal gas at a pressure of 1 bar. The gas is compressed in a reversible isothermal process until the pressure increases to 5 bar. Determine the work required for this compression (kJ).

  • (A) 804.7
  • (B) 953.2
  • (C) 981.7
  • (D) 1012.2

Question 34:

A strip of 200 mm wide and 10 mm thick is reduced to 8 mm in one pass. Roll diameter = 100 mm, average flow stress = 200 MPa. Rolling load is:

  • (A) 0.4 MN
  • (B) 0.8 MN
  • (C) 1.2 MN
  • (D) 1.6 MN

Question 35:

Which forecasting method is most appropriate when the data exhibits trend but no seasonality?

  • (A) Simple moving average
  • (B) Naive forecasting
  • (C) Double exponential smoothing
  • (D) Seasonal index method

Question 36:

Virtual work method is particularly useful for analysing

  • (A) Determinate structures
  • (B) Indeterminate structures
  • (C) Simple beams
  • (D) Particles

Question 37:

Air (ideal gas) enters a perfect insulated compressor of a temperature of 310 K. The pressure ratio of compressor is 6, Specific heat at constant pressure for air 1005 J/kgK and ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume is 1.4. Assume that specific heat of air is constant. If the isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 85 percent, the difference in enthalpies of air between the exit and inlet of the compressor is _______

  • (A) 148.2 kJ/kg
  • (B) 245.2 kJ/kg
  • (C) 238.2 kJ/kg
  • (D) 198.3 kJ/kg

Question 38:

What is the primary cause of buoyant force acting on a submerged object?

  • (A) The object's weight
  • (B) The pressure difference between the top and bottom of the object
  • (C) The viscosity of the fluid
  • (D) The surface tension of the fluid

Question 39:

The Reynolds number for flow of oil through a 1 cm diameter pipe is 1000. The kinematic viscosity, \(\nu = 1.0 \times 10^{-6} m^2/s\). What is the velocity at a point 0.25 cm away from the wall?

  • (A) 0.1 m/s
  • (B) 0.15 m/s
  • (C) 0.2 m/s
  • (D) 0.3 m/s

Question 40:

Two beams of equal cross sectional areas are subjected to equal bending moment. If one beam has square cross section and the other has circular section, then

  • (A) Both beams will be equally stronger
  • (B) Circular section beam will be stronger
  • (C) Square section beam will be stronger
  • (D) Cannot comment

Question 41:

A bar having a cross sectional area of \(700 mm^2\) is subjected to axial loads at the positions indicated in figure. Find the value of stress in the segment QR?

  • (A) 60 Mpa
  • (B) 70 Mpa
  • (C) 120 Mpa
  • (D) 40 Mpa

Question 42:

A solid sphere has characteristic length \(L_c = 0.02 m\), thermal conductivity \(K = 40 W/mK\), and convective heat transfer coefficient \(h = 10 W/m^2K\). Find the correct statement.

  • (A) Lumped system valid
  • (B) Lumped system not valid
  • (C) Boundary layer negligible
  • (D) Steady state condition

Question 43:

What is the main difference between PERT and CPM?

  • (A) PERT uses deterministic activity times; CPM uses probabilistic times
  • (B) CPM uses deterministic activity times; PERT uses probabilistic times
  • (C) PERT uses deterministic activity times; CPM uses deterministic activity times
  • (D) CPM uses probabilistic times; PERT uses probabilistic times

Question 44:

Match the processes with their characteristics:

  • (A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  • (C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
  • (D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Question 45:

For a closed, simple compressible system, which of the following thermodynamic relations is always valid, irrespective of the process, assuming only reversible processes and equilibrium states?

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\right)_T = T \left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T}\right)_V - P\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right)_T = -T \left(\frac{\partial V}{\partial T}\right)_P - V\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial P}\right)_T = -\left(\frac{\partial V}{\partial T}\right)_P\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial P}\right)_T = -\left(\frac{\partial V}{\partial T}\right)_P - P\)

Question 46:

In a probabilistic inventory model, which distribution is commonly used to model demand?

  • (A) Uniform distribution
  • (B) Normal distribution
  • (C) Exponential distribution
  • (D) Binomial distribution

Question 47:

The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) method is used to:

  • (A) Calculate heat exchanger effectiveness
  • (B) Determine heat exchanger pressure drop
  • (C) Calculate the average temperature difference during heat transfer
  • (D) Find the overall heat transfer coefficient

Question 48:

A mould cavity of \(1200 cm^3\) volume has to be filled through a sprue of \(10 cm\) length feeding a horizontal runner. Cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is \(2 cm^2\). Consider acceleration due to gravity as \(9.81 m/s^2\). Neglecting frictional losses due to molten metal flow, the time taken to fill the mould cavity is

  • (A) 4.28 s
  • (B) 5.26 s
  • (C) 7.23 s
  • (D) 5.36 s

Question 49:

The Reynolds number is a ratio of:

  • (A) Inertial forces to viscous forces
  • (B) Gravitational forces to inertial forces
  • (C) Viscous forces to pressure forces
  • (D) Surface tension forces to inertial forces

Question 50:

What is the name of the surface that is generated with linear interpolation of two curves?

  • (A) Bezier surface
  • (B) B-spline surface
  • (C) Planar surface
  • (D) Ruled surface

Question 51:

The emissivity of a grey surface is:

  • (A) Equal to 1
  • (B) Less than 1 and independent of wavelength
  • (C) Greater than 1
  • (D) Equal to the absorptivity at all wavelengths

Question 52:

Two shafts A and B are made up of the same material. The diameter of the shaft A is twice as that of shaft B. The power transmitted by the shaft A will be 'X' times of shaft B. What is the value of 'X'?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 16

Question 53:

Maximum velocity in laminar flow in a pipe is

  • (A) Equal to the average velocity
  • (B) Twice the average velocity
  • (C) Half the average velocity
  • (D) Four times the average velocity

Question 54:

A cantilever beam of rectangular cross section is subjected to a load W at its free end. If the depth of the beam is doubled and the load is halved, the deflection of the free end as compared to original deflection will be _______.

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/8
  • (C) 1/16
  • (D) 2.0

Question 55:

What is the significance of availability (or exergy) in thermodynamics?

  • (A) It measures the total energy content of a system.
  • (B) It quantifies the maximum useful work obtainable from a system.
  • (C) It is the heat lost during a process.
  • (D) It represents the entropy generated in a process.

Question 56:

A hole of \(25H_7\) is to be checked. IT7 tolerance = \(0.021 mm\). Hole limits are:

  • (A) 25.000 -- 25.021 mm
  • (B) 24.979 -- 25.000 mm
  • (C) 25.021 -- 25.042 mm
  • (D) 24.979 -- 25.021 mm

Question 57:

A 50 mm diameter disc is to be punched out from a carbon steel sheet 1.0 mm thick. The diameter of the punch should be

  • (A) 49.925 mm
  • (B) 50.00 mm
  • (C) 50.075 mm
  • (D) 49.754 mm

Question 58:

In the Basic Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model, if the holding cost per unit increases, the EOQ will:

  • (A) Increase
  • (B) Decrease
  • (C) Remain unaffected
  • (D) Double

Question 59:

Which aggregate production planning strategy focuses on maintaining a stable workforce and using inventory to absorb demand fluctuations?

  • (A) Chase strategy
  • (B) Level strategy
  • (C) Hybrid strategy
  • (D) Just-in-time strategy

Question 60:

A rod of steel of \(1 cm^{2}\) in cross-sectional area and \(100 cm\) long is subjected to an axial pull of \(20000 N\). If \(E = 20 \times 10^{6} N/cm^{2}\), the elongation will be

  • (A) \(1 cm\)
  • (B) \(0.2 cm\)
  • (C) \(0.1 cm\)
  • (D) \(0.15 cm\)

Question 61:

The relative humidity of ambient air at \(300 K\) is \(50%\) with a partial pressure of water vapour equal to \(P_{v}\). The saturation pressure of water at \(300 K\) is \(p_{sat}\). The correct relation for the air-water mixture is

  • (A) \(P_{v} = p_{sat}\)
  • (B) \(P_{v} = 0.622 p_{sat}\)
  • (C) \(P_{v} = 0.5 p_{sat}\)
  • (D) \(P_{v} = 2 p_{sat}\)

Question 62:

Fatigue failure occurs due to

  • (A) Single static load
  • (B) Repeated or fluctuating stresses
  • (C) High temperature
  • (D) Creep deformation

Question 63:

If a heat exchanger has effectiveness = 1, it means:

  • (A) No heat transfer
  • (B) Maximum possible heat transfer occurs
  • (C) Temperature difference becomes zero
  • (D) Both fluids exit at same temperature

Question 64:

During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is

  • (A) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite
  • (B) fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite, martensite
  • (C) martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spherodite
  • (D) spherodite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite

Question 65:

In a project network, two parallel activities start from the same node and merge at the same succeeding node. Their durations are: Activity A = 6 days, Activity B = 9 days. Which statement is correct?

  • (A) Both activities lie on the critical path
  • (B) Only Activity A lies on the critical path
  • (C) Only Activity B lies on the critical path
  • (D) Neither activity lies on the critical path

Question 66:

Water (\(C_{p} = 4.18 kJ/kg\cdotK\)) at \(80^\circC\) enters a counter-flow heat exchanger with a mass flow rate of \(0.5 kg/s\). Air (\(C_{p} = 1 kJ/kg\cdotK\)) enters at \(30^\circC\) with a mass flow rate of \(2.09 kg/s\). If the effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.8, the LMTD (\(^\circC\)) is

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 5

Question 67:

The continuity equation for an incompressible fluid states that:

  • (A) The velocity is constant everywhere
  • (B) The volume flow rate is constant along a streamline
  • (C) The pressure is constant along a streamline
  • (D) The density changes with velocity

Question 68:

The Number of Transfer Units (NTU) method is primarily used to:

  • (A) Design heat exchangers based on effectiveness
  • (B) Calculate pressure drop in pipes
  • (C) Determine fluid velocity in convection
  • (D) Analyze radiation heat transfer

Question 69:

Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton) cycle and a gas turbine with perfect regeneration. In both the cycles, the pressure ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats of the working medium is 1.4. The ratio of minimum to maximum temperatures is 0.3 (with temperatures expressed in K) in the regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal efficiency of the simple cycle to that of the regenerative cycle is

  • (A) 0.1859
  • (B) 0.8141
  • (C) 0.6256
  • (D) 0.3744

Question 70:

In a clock mechanism, hour and minute hands are connected by _________ gear train.

  • (A) Simple
  • (B) Epicyclic
  • (C) Compound
  • (D) Reverted

Question 71:

Which of the following processes is isobaric?

  • (A) Expansion of gas at constant pressure.
  • (B) Compression of gas at constant volume.
  • (C) Heating of gas with no change in temperature.
  • (D) Expansion of gas with no heat exchange.

Question 72:

What is the primary reason for using a key in shaft and gear assemblies?

  • (A) To reduce friction between shaft and gear
  • (B) To transmit torque without relative rotation
  • (C) To allow axial movement of the gear
  • (D) To increase the shaft diameter

Question 73:

Heat transfer of 800 kJ occurs from a source at 500 K to surroundings at 300 K. Calculate maximum available work.

  • (A) 320 KJ
  • (B) 280 KJ
  • (C) 420 KJ
  • (D) 340 KJ

Question 74:

What is the significance of the "instantaneous center of zero velocity" in mechanism analysis?

  • (A) It is the point where velocity is maximum
  • (B) It is the point about which a link is instantaneously rotating
  • (C) It is the point where acceleration is zero
  • (D) It is the point where torque is applied

Question 75:

A shaft is required to transmit a power of 25 kW at 360 rpm. The force analysis due to attached parts results in Bending Moment of 830 Nm at a section between bearings. If permissible stresses in the shaft are 60 N/mm\(^2\) in bending and 40 N/mm\(^2\) in shear, calculate the diameter of the shaft.

  • (A) 51 mm
  • (B) 41 mm
  • (C) 36 mm
  • (D) 60 mm

Question 76:

In the entrance region of a pipe, the boundary layer grows and the inviscid core accelerates. This is accompanied by the fluid's pressure drop per unit length is

  • (A) lower compared to the fully developed region
  • (B) same compared to the fully developed region
  • (C) Lower or same compared to the fully developed region
  • (D) higher compared to the fully developed region

Question 77:

What is the main difference between annealing and tempering?

  • (A) Annealing increases hardness, while tempering decreases hardness
  • (B) Tempering produces martensite while annealing produces pearlite
  • (C) Annealing softens the metal, tempering reduces brittleness after quenching
  • (D) Annealing is a rapid cooling process; tempering is slow cooling

Question 78:

Air enters an adiabatic nozzle at 300 kPa and 500 K with a velocity of 10 m/s. It leaves the nozzle at 100 kPa with a velocity of 180 m/s. The specific heat of air \(C_{p} = 1008 J/kg\cdotK\). The exit temperature of air is

  • (A) 516 K
  • (B) 532 K
  • (C) 484 K
  • (D) 468 K

Question 79:

Which comparator type uses a dial indicator to measure deviations from a standard?

  • (A) Optical comparator
  • (B) Mechanical comparator
  • (C) Electronic comparator
  • (D) Pneumatic comparator

Question 80:

In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at \(120^\circC\) and leaves at \(80^\circC\). Cold fluid enters at \(20^\circC\) and leaves at \(60^\circC\). Find the log mean temperature difference (LMTD).

  • (A) \(30^\circC\)
  • (B) \(40^\circC\)
  • (C) \(60^\circC\)
  • (D) \(80^\circC\)

Question 81:

For an ideal Rankine cycle operating between pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar the work output from the turbine is 903kJ/kg and the work input to the feed pump is 3kJ/kg. The specific steam consumption is ________ kg/kWh

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 82:

The device used to demonstrate laminar and turbulent flow in pipes is:

  • (A) Pitot tube
  • (B) Venturimeter
  • (C) Reynolds apparatus
  • (D) Orifice meter

Question 83:

Which of the following is a key assumption in linear programming?

  • (A) The relationship between variables is nonlinear
  • (B) Variables can only take integer values
  • (C) The objective function and constraints are linear
  • (D) There are no constraints on variables

Question 84:

The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip system, respectively, for a face-centered cubic (FCC) crystal are

  • (A) 4, 12
  • (B) 3, 12
  • (C) 3, 3
  • (D) 4, 48

Question 85:

A closed system undergoes a process in which it interacts with the surroundings maintained at \(T_{0} = 300 K\) and \(P_{0} = 100 kPa\). During the process:
\(\bullet\) The system receives 1000 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1200 K.
\(\bullet\) The system does 500 kJ of boundary work on the surroundings.
\(\bullet\) There is no change in kinetic or potential energy, and the process ends at the dead state (equilibrium with surroundings).
Which of the following statements is most correct?

  • (A) The maximum useful work (availability) from the given heat input is 750 kJ, and the irreversibility is 750 kJ.
  • (B) The maximum useful work (availability) from the given heat input is 500 kJ, and the irreversibility is 250 kJ.
  • (C) The maximum useful work (availability) from the given heat input is 750 kJ, and the irreversibility is 500 kJ.
  • (D) The maximum useful work (availability) from the given heat input is 750 kJ, and the irreversibility is 250 kJ.

Question 86:

Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) primarily refers to

  • (A) Using computers only in design
  • (B) Integration of manufacturing activities through computer systems
  • (C) Manual control of manufacturing operations
  • (D) Replacement of machines by computers

Question 87:

For an air-standard Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 8 and the ratio of specific heats (\(\gamma\)) is 1.4. The air-standard efficiency of the cycle is _______.

  • (A) 56.5
  • (B) 62.8
  • (C) 35.8
  • (D) 49.8

Question 88:

Consider a large cubic ice block floating in water with top surface of the ice block parallel to the surface of the sea. The specific gravities of ice and seawater are 0.9 and 1.0, respectively. If a 20-cm-high portion of the ice block extends above the surface of the water, determine the height of the ice block below the surface.

  • (A) 0.9 m
  • (B) 1.0 m
  • (C) 1.6 m
  • (D) 1.8 m

Question 89:

Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism of material removal in Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM)

  • (A) Thermal melting and vaporization by spark energy
  • (B) Electrochemical dissolution in the dielectric
  • (C) Re-solidification and flushing of molten droplets
  • (D) No direct mechanical contact

Question 90:

In turbulent flow through a pipe, the Reynolds number is typically:

  • (A) Less than 2000
  • (B) Between 2000 and 4000
  • (C) Greater than 4000
  • (D) Exactly 2300

Question 91:

A liquid of specific gravity 1.0 flows in a pipe at a rate of 900 lit/s, from point 1 to point 2 which is 1 m above point 1. The areas at section 1 and 2 are 0.6 m\(^2\) and 0.3 m\(^2\) respectively. If the pressure at section 1 is 20 kPa, determine the pressure at section 2. (Assume g = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (A) 6.625 kPa
  • (B) 3.3125 kPa
  • (C) 13.25 kPa
  • (D) 16.625 kPa

Question 92:

In the case of bi-axial state of normal stresses, the normal stress on 45\(^\circ\) plane is equal to ________.

  • (A) the sum of the normal stresses
  • (B) the difference of normal stresses
  • (C) half the sum of the normal stresses
  • (D) half the difference of normal stresses

Question 93:

In Mohr's circle for plane stress, what do the points on the circle represent?

  • (A) Principal stresses and their directions
  • (B) Shear stresses only
  • (C) Normal stresses only
  • (D) Strain energy values

Question 94:

Which type of bearing is best suited for high-speed applications with moderate radial loads?

  • (A) Plain (sliding) bearing
  • (B) Ball bearing
  • (C) Roller bearing
  • (D) Thrust bearing

Question 95:

A viscous damping system with free vibrations is said to be critically damped if the damping factor is

  • (A) Less than one
  • (B) More than one
  • (C) One
  • (D) Zero

Question 96:

During an adiabatic process in an ideal gas, which of the following is true?

  • (A) Heat is transferred to the system.
  • (B) Temperature remains constant.
  • (C) No heat is transferred to or from the system.
  • (D) Pressure remains constant.

Question 97:

A mould has a down sprue whose length is 20 cm and the cross-sectional area at the base of the down sprue is 1 cm\(^2\). The down sprue feeds a horizontal runner leading into the mould cavity of volume 1000 cm\(^3\). The time required to fill the mould cavity will be

  • (A) 4.05 s
  • (B) 5.05 s
  • (C) 6.05 s
  • (D) 7.25 s

Question 98:

The thermal stress in terms of modules of elasticity(E), co-efficient of thermal expansion(\(\alpha\)), Temperature(T) is given by

  • (A) \(E\alpha T\)
  • (B) \(ET/\alpha\)
  • (C) \(E\alpha/T\)
  • (D) \(1/E\alpha T\)

Question 99:

In bulk metal forming, the load required for forging depends primarily on:

  • (A) Surface finish of the workpiece
  • (B) Flow stress and deformation volume
  • (C) Ambient temperature only
  • (D) Type of lubricant used

Question 100:

What is the main goal of the assignment problem?

  • (A) To minimize the total cost of assigning tasks to agents
  • (B) To maximize the flow in a network
  • (C) To schedule project activities
  • (D) To determine the shortest route for transportation

Question 101:

A thin cylindrical shell of diameter 'd', length 'l' and thickness 't' is subjected to an axial or internal pressure 'P'. What is the ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain in terms of Poisson's ratio (1/m)

  • (A) (m-2) / (2m+1)
  • (B) (2m-1) / (m-2)
  • (C) (m-2) / (2m-1)
  • (D) (2m+1) / (m-2)

Question 102:

The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is ________

  • (A) One
  • (B) Maximum
  • (C) Minimum
  • (D) Changing sign

Question 103:

The shape factor in radiative heat transfer depends on:

  • (A) Surface temperatures only
  • (B) Surface emissivities only
  • (C) Geometry and relative orientation of surfaces
  • (D) Thermal conductivity of surfaces

Question 104:

In a DC arc welding operation, the voltage-arc length characteristic was obtained as \(V_{arc} = 20 + 5L\), where the arc length L was varied between 5 mm and 7mm. Here \(V_{arc}\) denotes the arc voltage in volts. The arc current was varied from 400 A to 500 A. Assuming linear power source characteristics, the open circuit voltage and short circuit current for the welding operation are:

  • (A) 45 V, 450 A
  • (B) 75 V, 550 A
  • (C) 95 V, 950 A
  • (D) 150 V, 1500 A

Question 105:

Which of the following is a critical design consideration for gating systems in casting?

  • (A) Minimizing turbulence of molten metal flow
  • (B) Maximizing mould weight
  • (C) Increasing solidification time
  • (D) Reducing mould permeability

Question 106:

In a reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle, the refrigerating effect is increased if

  • (A) pressure ratio increases
  • (B) pressure ratio decreases
  • (C) compressor efficiency decreases
  • (D) turbine efficiency decreases

Question 107:

What is the effect of increasing the rake angle of a cutting tool?

  • (A) Increases cutting forces
  • (B) Reduces cutting forces and improves chip flow
  • (C) Increases tool wear
  • (D) Decreases tool life drastically

Question 108:

A heat engine operates between a hot source at \(T_{H} = 900 K\) and a cold sink at the ambient temperature \(T_{0} = T_{C} = 300 K\). During one cycle the engine receives \(Q_{H} = 12,000 kJ\) from the hot source and rejects \(Q_{C} = 8,000 kJ\) to the cold sink. Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) The entropy generation per cycle is \(S_{gen} = 4.00 kJ/K\).
  • (B) The process is reversible because the work equals the Carnot work for these temperatures.
  • (C) The entropy generation per cycle is \(S_{gen} = 13.333 kJ/K\).
  • (D) The entropy generation is zero.

Question 109:

The relationship between modulus of elasticity(E), Poisson's ratio(\(\mu\)) and bulk modulus(K) is given by

  • (A) \(K = \frac{E}{3(1-2\mu)}\)
  • (B) \(K = \frac{E}{3(1+2\mu)}\)
  • (C) \(G = \frac{E}{2(1+\mu)}\)
  • (D) \(G = \frac{E}{2(1-\mu)}\)

Question 110:

A slot of 25 mm \(\times\) 25 mm is to be milled in a workpiece of 300 mm length using a side and face milling cutter of diameter 100 mm, width 25 mm, and having 20 teeth. For a depth of cut of 5 mm, feed per tooth 0.1 mm, cutting speed 35 m/min, and approach distance and over-travel distance of 5 mm each, determine the time required for milling the slot.

  • (A) 8.07 s
  • (B) 8.07 min
  • (C) 9.02 min
  • (D) 9.02 s

Question 111:

Let \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 2026 & 2025 & 2024 \\
2025 & 2024 & 2023 \\
2024 & 2023 & 2023 \end{pmatrix}\) be a matrix. Then, \(\det(A)\) is equal to _______

  • (A) -1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 1
  • (D) -4051

Question 112:

If a \(2 \times 2\) matrix \(A\) has eigenvalues 1 and 4 with the corresponding eigenvectors \(\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\
-1 \end{pmatrix}\) and \(\begin{pmatrix} 2 \\
1 \end{pmatrix}\), respectively, then \(A\) is ________

  • (A) \(\begin{pmatrix} -4 & -8 \\
    5 & 9 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{pmatrix} 9 & -8 \\
    5 & -4 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 2 \\
    1 & 3 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{pmatrix} 3 & 2 \\
    1 & 2 \end{pmatrix}\)

Question 113:

Consider the statements.
I. if \(s_{n} = \frac{1}{n}\), the sequence \(\{s_{n}\}\) is divergent.
II. if \(s_{n} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \dots + \frac{1}{n}\), the sequence \(\{s_{n}\}\) is convergent.
Which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) Both I and II are true
  • (B) I is true, but II is false
  • (C) I is false, but II is true
  • (D) Neither I nor II is true

Question 114:

Consider the statements.
I. If \(f\) is a differentiable scalar field, then \(curl(grad\, f) = \vec{0}\).
II. If \(\vec{f}\) is a differentiable vector field, then \(div(curl\, \vec{f}) = 0\).
Which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) I is true, but II is false
  • (B) I is false, but II is true
  • (C) Both I and II are true
  • (D) Neither I nor II is true

Question 115:

The solution of the differential equation \(x \frac{d^{2} y}{dx^{2}} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0\) is

  • (A) \(y = c_{1} \sin x + c_{2}\)
  • (B) \(y = c_{1} \cos x + c_{2}\)
  • (C) \(y = c_{1} \log x + c_{2}\)
  • (D) \(y = c_{1} e^{x} + c_{2} e^{-x}\)

Question 116:

The absolute maximum of the function \(f(x) = x^{3} - 3x + 2\) in the interval \([0, 2]\) is ________

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6

Question 117:

The system of equation \(x - y + 3z = 0, x + z = 0, x + y - z = 0\) has _______

  • (A) a unique solution
  • (B) finitely many solutions
  • (C) infinitely many solutions
  • (D) no solution

Question 118:

If A, B and C are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events of a random experiment such that \(P(A) = \frac{1}{3} P(B)\) and \(P(B) = 2 P(C)\), then \(P(A \cup C)\) is equal to _______

  • (A) 7/11
  • (B) 5/13
  • (C) 7/13
  • (D) 5/11

Question 119:

A continuous random variable X has a probability density function \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} 3x^{2}, & if 0 \leq x \leq 1
0, & otherwise \end{cases} \] If \(P(X \leq a) = P(X > a)\), then the value of a is equal to _______

  • (A) \(1/33^{1/3}\)
  • (B) \(1/32^{1/3}\)
  • (C) \(1/22^{1/3}\)
  • (D) \(1/2^{1/3}\)

Question 120:

The values of a function \(f(x)\) obtained for different values of x are given below



Using Simpson's one-third rule, the value of \(\int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx\) is approximately equal to ______

  • (A) 1.4
  • (B) 1.5
  • (C) 1.6
  • (D) 1.7

AP PGECET 2026 Mechanical Engineering Topic-wise weightage

Major Subject Approx. Number of Questions Expected % (Approx.)
Engineering Mathematics 12–18 10–15%
Applied Mechanics & Design 14–18 12–15%
Fluid Mechanics & Thermal Sciences 18–22 15–18%
Manufacturing & Industrial Engineering 18–22 15–18%
Theory of Machines 10–14 8–12%
Machine Design 10–14 8–12%

AP PGECET 2026 Preparation Strategy