The IBSAT 2021 question paper with solutions is available here for free download. IBSAT 2021 was conducted by ICFAI Foundation for Higher Education (IFHE) in December 2021 as a computer-based test, and the paper carried 140 MCQs to be solved in 120 minutes across four sections.

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IBSAT 2021 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to GARNER.

  • (A) Pulverize
  • (B) Marinate
  • (C) Enthrall
  • (D) Collect

Question 2:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to IMPERIOUS.

  • (A) Domineering
  • (B) Ravenous
  • (C) Striking
  • (D) Effervescent

Question 3:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to CONTUMACIOUS.

  • (A) Pristine
  • (B) Conservative
  • (C) Disobedient
  • (D) Optimistic

Question 4:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to QUIESCENT.

  • (A) Serene
  • (B) Concomitant
  • (C) Dormant
  • (D) Clammy

Question 5:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to DISQUIETUDE.

  • (A) Easiness
  • (B) Discussion
  • (C) Passion
  • (D) Anxiety

Question 6:

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to VITIATE.

  • (A) Trust
  • (B) Deaden
  • (C) Drain
  • (D) Rectify

Question 7:

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to TRITE.

  • (A) Peaceful
  • (B) Powerful
  • (C) Noiseless
  • (D) Original

Question 8:

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to CONTRITE.

  • (A) Unrepentant
  • (B) Expanded
  • (C) Remorseful
  • (D) Unresolved

Question 9:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.
SQUANDER

  • (A) Depart
  • (B) Preserve
  • (C) Forfeit
  • (D) Fortify

Question 10:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.
INDIGENT

  • (A) Modest
  • (B) Impetuous
  • (C) Profitable
  • (D) Prosperous

Question 11:

Choose the option that completes the analogy in the same way as the given pair.
Song : Cycle :: Sonnet : ?

  • (A) Ballad
  • (B) Melody
  • (C) Rhyme
  • (D) Sequence

Question 12:

Choose the option that completes the analogy in the same way as the given pair.
Lumber : Bear :: Waddle : ?

  • (A) Parrot
  • (B) Pigeon
  • (C) Goose
  • (D) Hawk

Question 13:

Choose the option that completes the analogy in the same way as the given pair.
Archipelago : Island :: Constellation : ?

  • (A) Garden
  • (B) Flower
  • (C) Star
  • (D) Valley

Question 14:

Choose the option that completes the analogy in the same way as the given pair.
Range : Mountains :: String : ?

  • (A) Ribbons
  • (B) Toys
  • (C) Beads
  • (D) Keys

Question 15:

Choose the option that completes the analogy in the same way as the given pair.
Bracket : Shelf :: Strut : ?

  • (A) Bucket
  • (B) Valve
  • (C) Girder
  • (D) Rafter

Question 16:

Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
If a nation is unable to come to on interpreting its own past, it will be unable to its national interests.

  • (A) conclusion ... plan
  • (B) terms ... design
  • (C) decision ... comprehend
  • (D) consensus ... formulate

Question 17:

Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Globalization both prosperity and .

  • (A) causes ... development
  • (B) spreads ... distress
  • (C) reveals ... doom
  • (D) condemns ... bliss

Question 18:

Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Unscrupulous use of chemical insecticides to the pests leads to pest .

  • (A) aggravate ... modification
  • (B) disintegrate ... mobility
  • (C) rectify ... revival
  • (D) control ... resurgence

Question 19:

Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

A relationship with Moscow will help New Delhi to its ties with both Washington and Beijing.

  • (A) robust ... leverage
  • (B) healthy ... enhance
  • (C) mutual ... lose
  • (D) perfect ... ally

Question 20:

Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

A judge tries to his duties to the best of his .

  • (A) fulfill ... quality
  • (B) discharge ... capacity
  • (C) execute ... strength
  • (D) perform ... power

Question 21:

Each sentence below is divided into four parts. Find the part that has a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark the No error option.

Language cannot be static; it must constant evolve to keep up with changing times and remain relevant.

  • (A) Language cannot be static;
  • (B) it must constant evolve
  • (C) to keep up with changing times
  • (D) and remain relevant.

Question 22:

Each sentence below is divided into four parts. Find the part that has a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark the No error option.

If he would have taken rest, as advised by the doctor, he might not have had a second heart attack.

  • (A) If he would have taken rest,
  • (B) as advised by the doctor,
  • (C) he might not have
  • (D) had a second heart attack.

Question 23:

Each sentence below is divided into four parts. Find the part that has a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark the No error option.

The total allocation for education in this year's budget is Rs. 34,400 crore, an amount that has gone up in 20 percent from last year.

  • (A) The total allocation for education
  • (B) in this year's budget is Rs. 34,400 crore,
  • (C) an amount that has gone up
  • (D) in 20 percent from last year.

Question 24:

Each sentence below is divided into four parts. Find the part that has a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark the No error option.

Of the two cars that my friend has, the new Ford is without any question, the cheapest to run.

  • (A) Of the two cars
  • (B) that my friend has,
  • (C) the new Ford is without any question,
  • (D) the cheapest to run.

Question 25:

Each sentence below is divided into four parts. Find the part that has a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark the No error option.

Although China is at present far ahead of India in terms of economic progress, it's education system is seriously flawed.

  • (A) Although China is at present
  • (B) far ahead of India
  • (C) in terms of economic progress,
  • (D) it's education system is seriously flawed.

Question 26:

In many corporations, employees are replace by automated equipments so that to save money.

  • (A) Are replace by automated equipments so that to
  • (B) Are being replaced by automated equipment in order to
  • (C) Were replaced by automated equipment so as to
  • (D) Are replacing by automated equipment such that

Question 27:

Tropical forests play a key role as the world's carbon and wildlife reservoirs.

  • (A) Play a key role as the world's
  • (B) Had played a key role in the world's
  • (C) Have been played a key role at the world's
  • (D) Has played a key role for the world's

Question 28:

Research shows that besides from obesity, Office Ergonomics are a leading factor that contributes to backache.

  • (A) Besides from obesity, Office Ergonomics are a leading factor
  • (B) Apart from obesity, Office Ergonomics is a leading factor
  • (C) Along with obesity, Office Ergonomics were leading factors
  • (D) Beside obesity, Office Ergonomics should be leading factor's

Question 29:

Even as a series of bad news from the US has hit the global financial scene hard, the Indian IT companies have gone into stock taking mode.

  • (A) Have gone into
  • (B) Has gone for
  • (C) Have been going to
  • (D) Might have been going on

Question 30:

A new study has found that almonds could help improving our digestion health by increasing levels of beneficial gut bacteria.

  • (A) Could help improving our digestion
  • (B) Can help improved our digestion
  • (C) Could be helping to improve our digestive
  • (D) Could help improve our digestive

Question 31:

P: Developed countries, including European economies and to a lesser extent
Q: Nevertheless, managed to maintain robust rates of economic growth
R: Developing countries have been affected as well, but they have
S: Japan, have been hit by the crisis in the US

Choose the option that gives the best sequence to make the passage coherent and meaningful.

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) SRQP
  • (C) RSQP
  • (D) PSRQ

Question 32:

P: Telescope arrays in the Northern and Southern hemispheres
Q: In Leh for an international collaboration that is
R: India plans to offer an astronomical site at Hanle
S: Exploring the possibility of setting up two large gamma-ray

Choose the option that gives the best sequence to make the passage coherent and meaningful.

  • (A) PSQR
  • (B) SPRQ
  • (C) RQSP
  • (D) QPRS

Question 33:

P: Farmers of South India, particularly, Kerala
Q: Coconut is the major crop cultivated by small and marginal
R: Coconut is the cost and unavailability of laborers
S: For every farmer, the practical difficulty in carrying out plant protection in

Choose the option that gives the best sequence to make the passage coherent and meaningful.

  • (A) SQRP
  • (B) PRQS
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) QPSR

Question 34:

Directions: In the following questions, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

P: The environmental problems the world is facing

Q: As it is called, will not reverse global warming

R: Going dark has its uses, Earth Hour

S: But it is a good way to raise awareness about

  • (A) PSQR
  • (B) RQSP
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) QPRS

Question 35:

Directions: In the following questions, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

P: We should definitely move them

Q: To cooler climes and safer environments

R: If some species cannot survive in their current habitat

S: Due to global warming or human proximity

  • (A) SPRQ
  • (B) QRPS
  • (C) SQRP
  • (D) RSPQ

Question 36:

Directions: Choose a suitable one word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question.

An action that is bad or unacceptable, but not very serious.

  • (A) Felony
  • (B) Etiquette
  • (C) Misdemeanor
  • (D) Repression

Question 37:

Directions: Choose a suitable one word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question.

An animal or plant that lives in or on another animal or plant.

  • (A) Sycophant
  • (B) Bigot
  • (C) Proselyte
  • (D) Parasite

Question 38:

Directions: Choose a suitable one word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question.

To make someone angry by hurting the pride.

  • (A) Pique
  • (B) Quell
  • (C) Nurture
  • (D) Mitigate

Question 39:

Directions: Choose a suitable one word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question.

Harsh or insensitive in manner.

  • (A) Stupendous
  • (B) Abrasive
  • (C) Venomous
  • (D) Fecund

Question 40:

Directions: Choose a suitable one word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question.

Having the habit of putting forward one's own view noisily without any regard for the feelings of others.

  • (A) Lissome
  • (B) Gullible
  • (C) Desolate
  • (D) Bumptious

Question 41:

Directions: Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

She was sure to steal a march upon her rivals.

  • (A) Oppose
  • (B) Confront
  • (C) Outshine
  • (D) Avoid

Question 42:

Directions: Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

The carrot and stick policy pays dividends in every organization.

  • (A) Rigorous training
  • (B) Continuous vigilance
  • (C) Democratic approach
  • (D) Reward and punishment

Question 43:

My friend has a bee in his bonnet.

  • (A) Obsessed with something
  • (B) Remains unaffected
  • (C) Thinks a lot
  • (D) Always busy

Question 44:

If we give them this concession, it will be the thin end of the wedge.

  • (A) The least we could do for them
  • (B) The beginning of further concessions
  • (C) Inadequate to fulfill their needs
  • (D) A compromise on principle

Question 45:

Archana cut me dead in the street.

  • (A) Deceived me
  • (B) Abused me
  • (C) Pushed me
  • (D) Ignored me completely

Question 46:

In the modern industrial age, the demand for 46 technical personnel is much more than in the feudal age because the demand for goods is much more owing to increase in population and other factors. Hence, the traditional feudal method of teaching a craft, in which only a handful of persons were taught, would no longer 47 for modern society.

Now, technical institutes or engineering colleges, where a large number of students are taught technical skills, have become 48. Obviously, all these students could not be sons of the teacher. This 49 the very basis of the caste system in which one had no option in choosing one's vocation and had to follow one's father's profession. The caste system, in which one's vocation is chosen by one's birth, is thus totally 50 in the modern age.

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 46 in the above passage.

  • (A) Untrained
  • (B) Skilled
  • (C) Homogenous
  • (D) Supplementary

Question 47:

In the modern industrial age, the demand for 46 technical personnel is much more than in the feudal age because the demand for goods is much more owing to increase in population and other factors. Hence, the traditional feudal method of teaching a craft, in which only a handful of persons were taught, would no longer 47 for modern society.

Now, technical institutes or engineering colleges, where a large number of students are taught technical skills, have become 48. Obviously, all these students could not be sons of the teacher. This 49 the very basis of the caste system in which one had no option in choosing one's vocation and had to follow one's father's profession. The caste system, in which one's vocation is chosen by one's birth, is thus totally 50 in the modern age.

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 47 in the above passage.

  • (A) Help
  • (B) Utilize
  • (C) Suffice
  • (D) Apply

Question 48:

In the modern industrial age, the demand for 46 technical personnel is much more than in the feudal age because the demand for goods is much more owing to increase in population and other factors. Hence, the traditional feudal method of teaching a craft, in which only a handful of persons were taught, would no longer 47 for modern society.

Now, technical institutes or engineering colleges, where a large number of students are taught technical skills, have become 48. Obviously, all these students could not be sons of the teacher. This 49 the very basis of the caste system in which one had no option in choosing one's vocation and had to follow one's father's profession. The caste system, in which one's vocation is chosen by one's birth, is thus totally 50 in the modern age.

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 48 in the above passage.

  • (A) Dispensable
  • (B) Perfunctory
  • (C) Inessential
  • (D) Necessary

Question 49:

In the modern industrial age, the demand for 46 technical personnel is much more than in the feudal age because the demand for goods is much more owing to increase in population and other factors. Hence, the traditional feudal method of teaching a craft, in which only a handful of persons were taught, would no longer 47 for modern society.

Now, technical institutes or engineering colleges, where a large number of students are taught technical skills, have become 48. Obviously, all these students could not be sons of the teacher. This 49 the very basis of the caste system in which one had no option in choosing one's vocation and had to follow one's father's profession. The caste system, in which one's vocation is chosen by one's birth, is thus totally 50 in the modern age.

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 49 in the above passage.

  • (A) Destroyed
  • (B) Cleared
  • (C) Smothered
  • (D) Diluted

Question 50:

In the modern industrial age, the demand for 46 technical personnel is much more than in the feudal age because the demand for goods is much more owing to increase in population and other factors. Hence, the traditional feudal method of teaching a craft, in which only a handful of persons were taught, would no longer 47 for modern society.

Now, technical institutes or engineering colleges, where a large number of students are taught technical skills, have become 48. Obviously, all these students could not be sons of the teacher. This 49 the very basis of the caste system in which one had no option in choosing one's vocation and had to follow one's father's profession. The caste system, in which one's vocation is chosen by one's birth, is thus totally 50 in the modern age.

From the following select the appropriate word to replace number 50 in the above passage.

  • (A) Conserved
  • (B) Eroded
  • (C) Honored
  • (D) Outmoded

Comprehension:

Harold Pinter, the British playwright, whose gifts for finding the ominous in the everyday and the noise within silence made him the most influential and imitated dramatist of his generation. In more than 30 plays written between 1957 and 2000 and including masterworks like The Birthday Party, The Caretaker, The Homecoming and Betrayal, Pinter captured the anxiety and ambiguity of life in the second half of the 20th century with terse, hypnotic dialogue filled with gaping pauses and the prospect of imminent violence. Pinter became one of the few modern playwrights whose names instantly evoke a sensibility. The adjective 'Pinteresque' has become part of the cultural vocabulary as a byword for strong and unspecified menace.

An actor, essayist, screenwriter, poet, director and dramatist, Pinter was also publicly outspoken in his views on repression and censorship, at home and abroad. He used his Nobel acceptance speech to denounce American foreign policy, saying that the United States had not only lied to justify waging war against Iraq, but that it had also 'supported and in many cases engendered every right-wing military dictatorship' in the last 50 years. His political views were implicit in much of his work. Though his plays deal with the slipperiness of memory and human character, they are also almost always about the struggle for power.

In Pinter's work 'words are weapons that the characters use to discomfort or destroy each other' said Peter Hall, who has staged more of Pinter's plays than any other director.

Read More But while Pinter's linguistic agility turned simple, sometimes obscene, words into dark, glittering and often mordantly funny poetry, it is what comes between the words that he is most famous for. And the stage direction 'pause' would haunt him throughout his career.

Intended as an instructive note to actors, the Pinter pause was a space for emphasis and breathing room. But it could also be as threatening as a raised fist. Pinter said that writing the word 'pause' into his first play was 'a fatal error'. It is certainly the aspect of his writing that has been most parodied. But no other playwright has consistently used pauses with such rhythmic assurance and to such fine-tuned manipulative effect. Early in his career, Pinter said his work was about 'the weasel under the cocktail cabinet'. Though he later regretted the image, it holds up as a metaphor for the undertow of danger that pervades his work.

Pinter was born in Hackney on October 10, 1930. With the outbreak of World War II, Harold was evacuated from London to a provincial town in Cornwall. His feelings of loneliness and isolation from that time were to surface later in his plays. Few writers have been so consistent over so many years in the tone and execution of their work. Just before rehearsals began for the West End production of The Birthday Party half a century ago, Pinter sent a letter to his director, Peter Wood. In it he said, 'The play is a comedy because the whole state of affairs is absurd and inglorious. It is, however, as you know, a very serious piece of work.'


Question 51:

What is the most significant aspect noticed in his plays?

  • (A) Absurdity
  • (B) Manipulative effect
  • (C) Fatal errors
  • (D) Struggle for power

Question 52:

Select the synonym of the word 'mordantly' as used in the passage.

  • (A) Complacently
  • (B) Noticeably
  • (C) Hauntingly
  • (D) Harshly

Question 53:

Pinter was the most imitated dramatist of his times because

  • (A) His writings at once evoke a rare sensibility which is an endearing trait
  • (B) He found the ominous in the everyday and the noise within silence
  • (C) He was one of the few modern writers whose name became part of modern cultural vocabulary
  • (D) He was publicly outspoken in his views on repression and censorship, not only at home but also abroad

Question 54:

What was the most burlesqued aspect of Pinter's writing?

  • (A) Characters that are ready to hit but afraid to strike
  • (B) The 'pause' which is used as an instructive note to actors
  • (C) The consistent usage of 'pause' with rhythmic assurance
  • (D) His focused performance and economy of gesture

Question 55:

What was the tone of his plays?

  • (A) Skeptical
  • (B) Pessimistic
  • (C) Candid
  • (D) Critical

Question 56:

Which of the following words, used in the passage, is a one word substitute for the phrase, 'a figure of speech in which an expression is used to refer to something that it does not literally denote in order to suggest a similarity'?

  • (A) Weasel
  • (B) Metaphor
  • (C) Image
  • (D) Pause

Question 57:

What did he capture in his most celebrated works?

  • (A) The anxiety and ambiguity of life in the latter half of the 20th century
  • (B) The slipperiness of memory and human character
  • (C) The struggle for power
  • (D) The repression and censorship adopted by the US in the matter of Iraq

Question 58:

How did Pinter describe The Birthday Party?

  • (A) It is a very serious piece of work
  • (B) It is supposed to be a comedy of errors
  • (C) It is absurd and inglorious in its content
  • (D) It is technically flawed in construction

Comprehension:

It was a milestone ride to empowerment. A young girl, probably a decade ago, driving a scooter, a little unsteadily, with mom on the pillion. It was the gift of mobility; more significantly, it was a trip to liberation. Now, the girl swings her Scorpio round a dangerous kerb even as mom and a brood of aunt, grandma and nieces squeal in pride. The girl now has a handy tool: her cell phone. Mobility and communication!

Sure, gender cleansing is now a frightening reality. Girls are killed before or at birth, plunging the all-India sex ratio to 927 girls for 1,000 boys. If she survives, the girl cannot assume she'll get a fair share of the family's education budget. Chances are she will drop out; to look after her siblings, to cook at home, to work in the fields, to be married off for money. She might be 'gifted' to a temple. 'Dowry death', a term we gave the English lexicon, is not in danger of fading out. 'The only women likely to keep their daughters are the truly independent-minded, not just the financially independent,' said author Gita Aravamudan. We know of her resilience, ability to raise a family, find happiness somewhere and keep her sanity somehow. All of which is excellent fodder for exploitation.

Out of this tangled mess has emerged the New Woman; a woman 'pushing against the limits society imposed on her'. With an identity no longer defined by domesticity or relationships, she now comes across as a person with a strong sense of self and self worth. A woman taking a tough stand for her rights is no shrew but a woman of

Read More substance while a female globetrotter is no adventuress but a woman of spirit. In short, women are going where men fear to tread.

But there are nay-sayers too. "I'm wondering if it is even theoretically possible to define the 'New Woman' in terms of a single set of characteristics. Indian women are so different from each other in terms of their class, caste, regional, linguistic and religious identities that what is 'old' for one is 'new' for the other, and not even on the map for yet another. That said, I think the one thing that has changed is that women are no longer hesitant or apologetic about claiming a share of space and visibility within the family, at work, in public spaces, in the public discourse." said Kalyani Menon Sen of JAGORI. Small concessions to big achievements, she tastes freedom. Her aspirations are taken seriously; count the hailstorm of women-centric TV shows, commercials and food items aimed her way. "It comes with monetary independence," said Usha Srinivasan, HR Consultant.

How is it easier now? Sustained campaigns run by women groups since the national movement. Laws passed to make justice equitable, for corrective surgery of mindsets. Travel, definitely. Her willingness to take up non-traditional workplaces; job opportunities, with IT hiring in bulk. Women began to write and read what other women wrote. And cyberspace, she now blogs and networks, using it for the freedom denied so far to voice her angst, express outrage and disapproval, fulfill the need for acceptance and approval. To speak out.


Question 59:

Choose the meaning of 'resilience' as used in the passage.

  • (A) Susceptible to criticism or persuasion or temptation
  • (B) Good-natured tolerance of delay or incompetence
  • (C) Able to withstand or recover quickly from difficult conditions
  • (D) The distinct personality of an individual regarded as a persisting entity

Question 60:

The 'New Woman' emerged by

  • (A) Relieving herself from all sorts of restrictions laid down by Indian men
  • (B) Breaking all the shackles set forth by the society authoritatively as obligatory
  • (C) Creating her own 'space' within the confines of the four walls of her home
  • (D) Pushing herself against the norms and traditions prevailing in the Indian society

Question 61:

What according to the author is a sign of women empowerment?

  • (A) Refusing to play stereotyped roles
  • (B) Raising the voice against paradoxes
  • (C) Earning more money than men
  • (D) Seeking total liberation

Question 62:

Presently, what is the 'New Woman' engaged in?

  • (A) She is claiming monetary independence so that she can enjoy greater autonomy
  • (B) She realized the significance of freedom and equality and so is fighting for equal rights
  • (C) She is contesting for her share of space which is of utmost importance to a woman
  • (D) She is courageously treading uncharted paths which are dreaded even by her male counterparts

Question 63:

In the present days, what is the most terrifying actuality regarding a girl child?

  • (A) Increasing school dropout rate
  • (B) Gifting the girl child to temples
  • (C) Low allocation of education budget
  • (D) Gender cleansing

Question 64:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

  • (A) A woman of substance is the one who meekly surrenders to male domination
  • (B) Blogs and network sites are now used as effective tools to express a woman's anger for denying her the freedom
  • (C) Women writers articulate their experiences in a voice which is yet to be heard
  • (D) The IT and travel sectors are the two upcoming fields that restricted growth opportunities for women

Question 65:

The author highlights the fact that

  • (A) Sons are at a premium in India
  • (B) Girl child education is given utmost importance in urban areas
  • (C) Discrimination extends to all areas including the food that is given to a girl
  • (D) It is worrisome to note that the all-India sex ratio is declining rapidly

Question 66:

What is the central theme of the present passage?

  • (A) What is 'new' for one woman maybe 'old' for another and some other woman might be facing severe male domination
  • (B) There is tremendous diversity among the different groups of Indian women
  • (C) Women are prone to violence in all walks of life and they are subjected to suppression right from their birth
  • (D) Celebrating the New Age woman who scripts her own success stories

Comprehension:

I am the family face; flesh perishes. I live on, projecting trait and trace through time to times anon, and leaping from place to place over oblivion.

So wrote Thomas Hardy in his poem, Heredity, describing direct descent of life from one generation to the next. Indeed, the poem reflects the DNA in our genome. Dr. Drew Endy of MIT quoted this when he described how people at the J. Craig Venter Institute (JCVI) bypass nature's constraint of direct descent. Scientists there have used chemistry and biochemistry to produce the first synthetic genome in the laboratory. They chemically synthesized many fragments of the DNA, encoding the 582,970-units-long genome of a bacterium called Mycoplasma genitalium. Next, they assembled these fragments in perfect order to generate the genome of the bacterium.

The DNA sequence of the synthetic one was confirmed to be identical to the natural one. While the DNA pieces were synthesized chemically, the stitching together was done using the biochemical machinery of a host cell. About 100 pieces of the genome, each 5000-7000 units long in DNA sequence, were first joined to produce 25 sub-assemblies, each about 24000 base pairs long. These were then introduced into the bacterium E. coli to produce sufficient DNA for the next steps. Next, they repeated the procedure to generate large fragments comprising 1/4th of the whole genome of M. genitalium.

Now, they used the clever trick of exploiting the process called homologous recombination. This is a basic essential process in every cell, which physically rearranges the two strands of DNA. The JCVI researchers inserted the synthesized

Read More DNA fragments into yeast and utilized its homologous recombination ability to generate the whole 580,000 long genome of M. genitalium in one step.

This is clearly a landmark work that leads into the brave new world of synthesizing life itself in the laboratory. It was hardly 200 years ago when Friedrich Wohler synthesized urea, an organic molecule, in the chemical laboratory, thus throwing out the notion of 'vital forces' involved in the components of living organisms. What is the next step, making life itself in the lab, bypassing nature? With single cell organisms like M. genitalium, it might not be far away. It is now possible in the lab to do so, by inserting the genome into a 'host' cell and asking the latter to make the bacterium of your choice. If only we find a way to insert the bacterial genome into this proto-cell, and somehow trigger it to make the bacterium itself! We would have chemically created life in the lab. This is not a pipedream; JCVI scientists are already on the job, and my bet is they will do it within a few years.

This surely raises ethical questions, a matter that JCVI is keenly aware of and is already engaged in with ethicists. Even their present work on M. genitalium was done with prior approval of ethical experts. But then, today it is M. genitalium, tomorrow it could be a more advanced, multi-cellular organism, and that could flummox even the ethicist. Assisted reproduction, which is the other side of the coin and truly a recently initiated technology, has become ethically and morally acceptable. Cloning of Dolly, the sheep, has not raised any outrage, but cloning a human certainly does.


Question 67:

What is the author's gut feeling?

  • (A) Scientists will invent a mechanism that might trigger a genome and convert it into the bacterium
  • (B) Scientists will succeed in creating a synthetic genome which has the characteristics of a natural one
  • (C) Scientists will improve upon the synthetic gene and find an alternative which is akin to the proto-cell of the bacterium
  • (D) Scientists will find a way to insert the bacterial genome into the proto-cell and somehow trigger it to make the bacterium itself

Question 68:

Which of the following words aptly substitutes 'flummox' as used in the passage?

  • (A) Control
  • (B) Petrify
  • (C) Bewilder
  • (D) Challenge

Question 69:

Why does the author refer to Thomas Hardy's poem?

  • (A) To estimate the role played by direct properties attributable to one's parentage
  • (B) To underline the significance of the biological process whereby genetic factors are transmitted from one generation to the next
  • (C) To emphasize the importance of the total of inherited attributes that rarely come by natural descent
  • (D) To highlight the purpose of genetic endowment which can traced through the family face

Question 70:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is not true?

  • (A) Thomas Hardy's poem, Heredity, reflects the DNA in a human being's genome
  • (B) Creating life in a lab will surely raise pertinent questions pertaining to ethics
  • (C) Scientists, in future, will be able to create life under artificial conditions
  • (D) Cloning of Dolly, the sheep, has invited the wrath of people because the sheep soon died a miserable death

Question 71:

What did the scientists at JCVI do?

  • (A) They circumvented nature's constraint of direct descent
  • (B) They bypassed nature's laws and produced a natural gene
  • (C) They invented an imperishable gene which is synthetic in nature
  • (D) They ignored the theory of inheritance and created an intrinsic gene

Question 72:

A recently initiated technology, which is ethically acceptable, is

  • (A) Assembling the complex biological molecule
  • (B) Gene sequencing
  • (C) Assisted reproduction
  • (D) Stitching together of an artificial cell

Question 73:

What was the outcome of their research?

  • (A) They analyzed the DNA sequence of the synthetic gene in the laboratory for the first time
  • (B) They contrasted the properties of a synthetic gene with that of a natural one
  • (C) They created a gene sequence in artificial conditions which could undergo mutation
  • (D) They produced the first synthetic genome in the laboratory which is analogous to the natural one

Question 74:

According to the author's opinion, what would be the result of cloning a human being?

  • (A) It will invite people's indignation
  • (B) It would be a wonderful prospect for humanity
  • (C) It might change the face of the earth
  • (D) It will be looked down as a sin

Question 75:

The DNA pieces of the synthetic genome were stitched together by using

  • (A) The method of biochemical synthesis
  • (B) The biochemical machinery of a host cell
  • (C) The biochemical genome of a host cell
  • (D) The DNA sequence of a host cell

Comprehension:

Power and possession have been central pursuits of modern civilization for a long time. They blocked out or distorted other features of the westernized renaissance (revival), which promised so much for humanity. What people have been and are still being taught to prize is money, success, control over the lives of others; acquisition of more and more objects.

Modern social, political and economic systems, whether capitalist, fascist or communist, reject in their working the basic principle that the free and creative unfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth of any society. Such unfoldment requires understanding and imagination, integrity, compassion and cooperation

Read More among people and harmony between the human species and the rest of nature.

Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made modern man an aggressor against everything that is non human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek and unorganized. He has become a pathological type who hates and distrusts the world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride.

The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive and conscientious men and women who not only perceive the dimensions of the crisis of our age but who also realize that only through conscious and cooperative human effort will this crisis be met and probably even overcome.


Question 76:

Which of the following statements is not true in context of the given passage?

  • (A) There is a need for a new renaissance
  • (B) The poor and needy are oppressed by modern man
  • (C) Modern man is not an individualist
  • (D) Western renaissance has held a great deal of promise for mankind

Question 77:

The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by

  • (A) Devoted individual efforts
  • (B) Different political systems
  • (C) Spiritual individuals
  • (D) Purposeful and collective efforts

Question 78:

The author appears to be advocating which of the following approaches to be adopted by the society?

  • (A) Capitalist
  • (B) Communist
  • (C) Humanistic
  • (D) Socialist

Question 79:

The modern value systems encourage the importance of which of the following?

  • (A) Craving for power and possession
  • (B) Basic respect for all individuals
  • (C) Spiritual development of an individual
  • (D) Spirit of inquiry and knowledge

Question 80:

According to the passage, why has modern man turned out to be an enemy of everything that is non human?

  • (A) He hates and distrusts other human beings
  • (B) He has been dominated by the drives of acquisitiveness and power
  • (C) He consciously practices the spirit of cooperation
  • (D) He is preoccupied with his own self

Question 81:

P, Q and E start a joint venture, wherein they make an annual profit. P invested one-third of the capital for one-fourth of the time, Q invested one-fourth of the capital for one-half of the time and R invested the remainder of the capital for the entire year. P is a working partner and gets a salary of Rs. 10,000 per month. The profit after paying P's salary is directly proportional to the sum each one has put and also to the square of the number of months for which each has put their sum in the venture. If in a year P earns Rs. 60,000 more than Q, then how much does P earn?

  • (A) Rs. 1,00,000
  • (B) Rs. 1,20,000
  • (C) Rs. 1,35,000
  • (D) Rs. 1,50,000

Question 82:

Given \( A = x + y^2 + z^3 \). If x increases by 6300%, y increases by 700% and z increases by 300%, then what is the percentage increase in the value of A?

  • (A) 1200%
  • (B) 1800%
  • (C) 2600%
  • (D) 6300%

Question 83:

What is the area of the square, if four vertices lie on the circumference of a circle where the area of the circle is four times its diameter in magnitude?

  • (A) \( \frac{8}{\pi^2} \) sq. units
  • (B) \( \frac{16}{\pi^2} \) sq. units
  • (C) \( \frac{32}{\pi^2} \) sq. units
  • (D) \( \frac{128}{\pi^2} \) sq. units

Question 84:

The charge for sending a telegram is constant for the first 10 or less words and an amount proportional to the number of words exceeding 10. If the charge for sending a 15 word telegram is Rs. 3.00 and that for a 20 word telegram is Rs. 4.25, how much would it cost to send a 35 word telegram?

  • (A) Rs. 8.00
  • (B) Rs. 9.50
  • (C) Rs. 10.50
  • (D) Rs. 11.25

Question 85:

If \( f(a,b) = a^2+b^2 \) and \( g(a,b) = \frac{2}{b^2}\left[a^2+b^2\right] \), then what is the value of \( f(6, 3) - g(8, 4) \)?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 35
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 45

Question 86:

There are eight persons, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W, standing in a row and four distinct articles A, B, C and D are to be given to four people. No four neighbouring persons receive an article. How many ways can this distribution be done?

  • (A) 1680 ways
  • (B) 1560 ways
  • (C) 1440 ways
  • (D) 1380 ways

Question 87:

In the figure below, PT and ST are two secants. If O is the centre of the circle and \( PQ = 2QT = 8 \) cm, \( OS = 5 \) cm, then what is the measure of the line OT? (Figure not drawn to scale) \includegraphics{images/q87.png}

  • (A) \( \sqrt{54} \) cm
  • (B) \( \sqrt{60} \) cm
  • (C) 8 cm
  • (D) \( \sqrt{73} \) cm

Question 88:

Gopi constructed a right-angled triangle. By modifying the dimensions of first triangle, he drew another triangle. The modifications are, the largest side is increased by 5 cm, the smallest side is doubled and the third side is increased by 50%. If the triangle formed with these new dimensions has equal angles, then what is the perimeter of the new triangle?

  • (A) 45 cm
  • (B) 60 cm
  • (C) 90 cm
  • (D) 120 cm

Question 89:

What is the ratio of the sum of the squares of the sides of a triangle to the sum of the squares of its median?

  • (A) 1 : 2
  • (B) 2 : 1
  • (C) 2 : 3
  • (D) 4 : 3

Question 90:

The boat will sink when the weight on it increases beyond 350 kg. There is a hole in it through which the water leaks in at the rate of 0.4 kg/s. The weight of the boat is 1200 kg, and the weight of the boatman is 48 kg. The boatman throws out water at the rate of 0.04 kg/s. There are four passengers whose weights are 42.5 kg, 53.5 kg, 43.5 kg and 54.5 kg. How long will the boat float?

  • (A) 60 hours
  • (B) 80 hours
  • (C) 96 hours
  • (D) 100 hours

Question 91:

In an organization, there are four departments A, B, C and D with some accountants, managers, stenographers and office boys working together. Department A has 10 accountants, 8 managers, 7 stenographers and 3 office boys. The total monthly salary of all these employees is Rs. 2,37,500. Department B has 5 stenographers, 12 accountants, 6 managers and 7 office boys. The total monthly salary of all these employees is Rs. 2,31,500. Department C has 4 managers, 4 stenographers, 5 office boys and 7 accountants. The total monthly salary of all these employees is Rs. 1,51,000. If all the respective employees are paid equally in all the departments, then find the total monthly salary of 18 accountants, 11 managers, 10 stenographs and 10 office boys of department D?

  • (A) Rs. 2,85,500
  • (B) Rs. 3,25,500
  • (C) Rs. 3,60,500
  • (D) Rs. 3,85,500

Question 92:

If \( \log_{a^4} 65536 = 2 \), what is the value of 'a'?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 93:

A six-digit code is to be formed using 6 distinct numbers. The number in the first place is the square of a prime number in the third place. The numbers in the \(4^{\text{th}}\), \(6^{\text{th}}\), \(2^{\text{nd}}\) and \(1^{\text{st}}\) place are consecutive numbers. If all odd digits except 1 are present in the code, what is the sum of all the digits?

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 34
  • (D) 38

Question 94:

The functions \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are related as \(f(g(x)) = xg(f(f(x)))\), where \(f(x) = \dfrac{x}{x-1}\). What could be the functional form \(g(x)\)?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{x}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{x}{x+1}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{x+1}{x}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{x}{x-1}\)

Question 95:

What is the unit's digit of the expression \(77^{920} + 64^{165} + 53^{246}\)?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 96:

A blind man lives in an apartment containing 2 rooms. Each day before going to work he enters any one room randomly, picks up a bag and leaves home. One of the rooms contains 3 blue, 4 green and 5 red bags and the other contains 2 blue, 1 green and 3 red bags. What is the probability that he takes a green bag to his workplace?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)

Question 97:

There are three cans and a bucket. The cans each have a capacity of 5 litres, but are partially filled with water. The bucket also has some water in it. The sum of the water in the bucket and the water in the first can is half of the total bucket capacity. When the first and third cans are emptied into the bucket, it contains 6 litres of water. Instead, when the second and the third cans are emptied into the bucket, it contains 7 litres of water. When the water in all the cans is poured into the bucket, it is filled to its capacity. The first and second cans contain a total of 7 litres. How many litres did the bucket already contain?

  • (A) 1 litre
  • (B) 2 litres
  • (C) 3 litres
  • (D) 4 litres

Question 98:

If the selling price of an article is five times the discount offered and if the percentage of discount is equal to the percentage profit, what is the ratio of the discount offered to the cost price?

  • (A) \(11:30\)
  • (B) \(4:15\)
  • (C) \(7:30\)
  • (D) \(1:6\)

Question 99:

The dimensions of a triangle are 15 cm, 8 cm and 17 cm. What is the area of a circle having radius \( (r + 4) \) cm if 'r' is the inradius of the given triangle?

  • (A) \( 36\pi \) cm\(^2\)
  • (B) \( 49\pi \) cm\(^2\)
  • (C) \( 54\pi \) cm\(^2\)
  • (D) \( 64\pi \) cm\(^2\)

Question 100:

What is the geometric mean of the sequence \( 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, \ldots 3^{n} \)?

  • (A) \( 3^{\frac{n(n+1)}{2}} \)
  • (B) \( 3^{\frac{n}{2}} \)
  • (C) \( 3^{n} \)
  • (D) \( 3^{2n} \)

Question 101:

What could be the area of a hexagon inscribed in a circle of radius 12 cm?

  • (A) \( 72\sqrt{3} \) cm\(^2\)
  • (B) \( 84\sqrt{3} \) cm\(^2\)
  • (C) \( 96\sqrt{3} \) cm\(^2\)
  • (D) \( 108\sqrt{3} \) cm\(^2\)

Question 102:

20 guests have to sit half on each side of a long table. Three particular guests desire to sit on a particular side, five others on the other side. In how many ways can the seating arrangement be made?

  • (A) \( 10! \times \dfrac{10!}{7!} \times \dfrac{10!}{5!} \)
  • (B) \( 12! \times \dfrac{10!}{7!} \times \dfrac{10!}{5!} \)
  • (C) \( 20! \times 13! \times 15! \)
  • (D) \( 20! \times \dfrac{7!}{3!} \)

Question 103:

What is the value of \( \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \sqrt{42 + \ldots \infty}}}}} \)?

  • (A) \( -7 \)
  • (B) \( -6 \)
  • (C) \( 6 \)
  • (D) \( 7 \)

Question 104:

Rohit purchased a car and a plot at the same time. At the end of the first two years the value of the plot increased by 30% and the value of the car decreased by 10%. At the end of the next two years, the value of the car decreased by 20% and the value of the plot increased by 25%. At the end of the next two years, the value of the plot increased by 20% and the value of the car decreased by 25%. Had he sold both the car and the plot at the end of the sixth year, he would have got 56% more from the plot than from the car. How much less did he pay for the plot than the car when he purchased them?

  • (A) \( 42\% \)
  • (B) \( 46\% \)
  • (C) \( 52\% \)
  • (D) \( 54\% \)

Question 105:

An electronic company conducts a survey of 1500 houses for their products. The survey suggested that 862 houses own TV, 783 houses has AC and 736 houses has washing machine. There were 95 houses having only TV, 136 houses having only AC and 88 houses having only washing machine. There were 398 houses having all the three equipments. How many houses have only TV and washing machine but not AC?

  • (A) 65
  • (B) 119
  • (C) 184
  • (D) 213

Question 106:

A series is formed in such a manner that the first term is the first natural number, the second is the square of the first term, the third term is the third natural number and fourth is the square of the third term and so on. What is the sum of the first 50 terms of the series?

  • (A) 19825
  • (B) 19450
  • (C) 20825
  • (D) 21450

Question 107:

Anu collected a certain number of coins of denominations Rs. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5. She has a certain number of Rs. 2 coins, 4 times as many Rs. 1 coins as Rs. 5 coins and 15 more Rs. 2 coins than Rs. 1 coins. If the total value is Rs. 490, how many Rs. 2 coins are there?

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 60

Question 108:

What is the probability that a two-digit positive integer N has the property that the difference of N and the number obtained by reversing the order of its digits is a perfect cube?

  • (A) 4/45
  • (B) 5/15
  • (C) 6/45
  • (D) 7/45

Question 109:

Given quadratic equation is \( x^{2} - |x| - 30 = 0 \). Then which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  • (A) \( x - 6 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( x + 6 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( x + 5 = 0 \)
  • (D) Both (c) and (d)

Question 110:

In a shooting competition, all the shooters should hit the letter space in which letter 'A' is written as shown on the target board. The target board is a large equilateral triangle with each side 12 cm, and inside it the letter A is marked out as a smaller equilateral triangular space with each side 3 cm. What is the probability that the shooter will hit that space?

  • (A) 1/16
  • (B) 1/12
  • (C) 1/8
  • (D) 1/4

Question 111:

In the figure below, what is the area of the smaller circle? \includegraphics{images/q111.png}

Statement 1: The two larger circles have same radii of 8 cm each and O'O'' is 12 cm.
Statement 2: The centres O, O' and O'' of the three circles are collinear.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 112:

What is the unit's digit of the number \( (8pqr)^{64} \), where p, q and r are the hundredth, tenth and units digits of the number?

Statement 1: The product of p and q is 12.
Statement 2: The product of q and r is 24 and r is greater than 4.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 113:

Which has the greater length, AB or CD?

Statement 1: CD is the diameter of the circle.
Statement 2: AB is the length of the side of a square inscribed in a circle whose radius is half of CD.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 114:

Ritu, Deep, Lakshya, Krish, Suja, Adi and Anu are seven friends and belong to the same family. Ritu has a son and a daughter. Krish and Deep are males. Suja and Lakshya are females. What is the relationship between Suja and Adi?

Statement 1: Ritu has a grandson and a granddaughter and Anu is Krish's niece.
Statement 2: Suja is Lakshya's sister-in-law and Deep has two children, Adi and Anu.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 115:

Are triangle ABC and triangle PQR congruent?

Statement 1: The triangles are right angled triangles.
Statement 2: The base and heights of the two triangles are equal.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 116:

A survey on games played by 400 college students found that 15% play Hockey, 25% play Football, 30% play Cricket, 15% play Basketball and 15% play Tennis. What is the ratio of the minimum number of students from college A who play Basketball to the number of students from college A who play Football?

Statement 1: Students from college A comprise 20% of the total students surveyed.
Statement 2: 15% of the total students who play Basketball and Football are from college A.

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 117:

If 'a' and 'b' are integers, is \( \left( \dfrac{a}{6} + \dfrac{b}{5} \right) \) an integer?

Statement 1: 'a' is divisible by 5 and 'b' is divisible by 6
Statement 2: 'a' is a multiple of 6 which is one-tenth the value of 'b'

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 118:

A, B, C, D, E and F are six whole numbers. Is "ABCDEF" divisible by 132?

Statement 1: The last four digits of the given number have a factor of 4 and \( A + C + E = 12(B + D + F) \)
Statement 2: The sum of all the digits of the given number is divisible by 24

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 119:

What was A's score in the fourth aptitude test?

Statement 1: A's score in the fourth test was 12 points higher than the average score in the first three tests written
Statement 2: A's score on the fourth test raised the average test score from 80 to 85

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 120:

What is the value of xyz?

Statement 1: \( x^{a} = y^{b} = z^{c} \) and \( ab + bc + ca = 0 \) where a, b and c are non-zero integers
Statement 2: \( a^{x} = b, \, b^{y} = c, \, c^{z} = a \) where a, b and c are non-zero integers

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 121:

In \( \triangle ABC \), \( AB = 2 \) cm and \( BC = 4 \) cm. What is the length of AC?

Statement 1: The three sides of the triangle are in geometric progression
Statement 2: \( \angle ABC = 30^{\circ} \)

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 122:

Is \(xy\) negative?

Statement 1: \((x+y)^2 < (x-y)^2\)
Statement 2: \((x-y)\) is positive

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 123:

a, b and c are three positive integers. What is the value of \(a^2+b^2+c^2\)?

Statement 1: \(a^2+b^2=17\) and c is the arithmetic mean of a and b
Statement 2: The geometric mean of a and b is 2

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 124:

What is today's date?

Statement 1: Three days before it was Friday
Statement 2: One week before it was the first Tuesday in April 2007

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 125:

A right circular cone (PQR) is cut into two parts, cone (C) and frustum (F), by a plane parallel to the base. What is the ratio of the volume of C to the volume of F?

Statement 1: PQR has twice the radius of C
Statement 2: PQR has been cut off at the middle of its height

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Comprehension:

The bar graph below shows the highest score of different teams when they play for different cups. These are the four cups played by 4 teams in a year. Each team plays only one game against each team in each level. The team that won

Read More least number of matches is knocked out. The scores given in the graph are highest scores scored in any of the matches playing for that respective cup in a stipulated 50 overs cricket match. \includegraphics{images/q126_graph.png}

Question 126:

If the given highest scores is taken, what is the least % share of Australia in the total scores of each Cup?

  • (A) 21%
  • (B) 23.9%
  • (C) 24.7%
  • (D) 26.8%

Question 127:

In which Cup the % of increase in highest score of Sri Lanka is high when compared to the highest score in previous Cup?

  • (A) Cup A
  • (B) Cup B
  • (C) Cup C
  • (D) Cup D

Question 128:

After the completion of tournament for cup A each team is given a rank based on their highest scores. If the highest score of India is same as the highest score of South Africa playing for cup C, what is the rank of team India playing for cup A?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 129:

If the highest scores of all teams in each cup is taken, what is the ratio of total runs scored by Sri Lanka and India in all the cups?

  • (A) 218 : 243
  • (B) 238 : 249
  • (C) 218 : 249
  • (D) 1215 : 1159

Question 130:

If the runs scored by Australia and South Africa for cup B are of a final match, what is the required run rate of Australia to win the match playing all the stipulated overs?

  • (A) 6.1
  • (B) 6.15
  • (C) 6.22
  • (D) 6.34

Comprehension:

The pie diagram below shows the percentage of expenditures of Paul and Balu per month. \includegraphics{images/q131_graph.png}


Question 131:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what would be the difference of their expenditures on all except Investments?

  • (A) Rs. 1 of income
  • (B) Rs. 0.50 of income
  • (C) Rs. 0.01 of income
  • (D) Rs. 0.05 of income

Question 132:

If Paul's income was Rs. 13,500, what would be his average expenditure on Investments, Rent and Travelling?

  • (A) Rs. 2540
  • (B) Rs. 2125
  • (C) Rs. 2490
  • (D) Rs. 2700

Question 133:

If the salary of Balu is Rs. 15,000, what would be the expenditure on Investments and Food?

  • (A) Rs. 5450
  • (B) Rs. 4200
  • (C) Rs. 4560
  • (D) Rs. 5700

Question 134:

What is the sum of angles subtended by expenditures of Paul on Travel, Rent and Medical?

  • (A) \( 207.2^{\circ} \)
  • (B) \( 165.8^{\circ} \)
  • (C) \( 157.5^{\circ} \)
  • (D) \( 187.2^{\circ} \)

Question 135:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what is the ratio of their expenditures on Food and clothing?

  • (A) 1 : 1
  • (B) 1 : 2
  • (C) 3 : 1
  • (D) 16 : 11

Comprehension:

Study the following tables and answer the questions. Table 1 gives the percentage increase in the usage of 4 wheelers over the previous year for 2002 to 2006; Table 2 gives the usage in 2001 in lakhs.

Read More
City20022003200420052006
Bangalore1416181920
Chennai1416171818
Delhi2020222426
Hyderabad1213141618
Kolkata1010101010
Mumbai1016141618
CityIn lakhs
Bangalore2.0
Chennai1.7
Delhi2.2
Hyderabad1.6
Kolkata1.4
Mumbai2.4

Question 136:

In the year 2003, the number of 4 wheelers in Mumbai is x% of the number of 4 wheelers in Delhi. What is the value of x?

  • (A) 86
  • (B) 88
  • (C) 97
  • (D) 98

Question 137:

How many more 4 wheelers did the citizens of Hyderabad have during the year 2003 when compared to the previous year?

  • (A) 30,146
  • (B) 27,496
  • (C) 25,496
  • (D) 23,296

Question 138:

In Kolkata, the number of 4 wheelers in the year 2004 is exactly 70% of the number of 4 wheelers in the year 2007. How many 4 wheelers were there in the year 2007 in the city?

  • (A) 2,44,320
  • (B) 2,66,200
  • (C) 2,12,460
  • (D) 2,56,210

Question 139:

How many 4 wheelers does the city Chennai have in the year 2003?

  • (A) 2,24,808
  • (B) 2,23,316
  • (C) 2,10,248
  • (D) 1,80,456

Question 140:

What is the approximate ratio of 4 wheelers in Bangalore in the year 2005 to that in the year 2003?

  • (A) 7 : 5
  • (B) 9 : 5
  • (C) 8 : 5
  • (D) 6 : 5

IBSAT 2021 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

IBSAT is a computer-based test of single-correct MCQs that you clear in one 120-minute sitting, with no sectional time limits. The big advantage is that there is no negative marking, so you can attempt every question.

  • Total questions: 140 MCQs
  • Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours), no sectional timing
  • Total marks: 140 (1 mark per question)
  • Marking scheme: +1 for a correct answer, no negative marking for a wrong one
  • Sections: Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Quantitative Aptitude, and Data Adequacy & Data Interpretation

High-Weightage Sections in IBSAT 2021 to Focus On First

The English part of the paper carries the most weight, so your verbal preparation moves the score the most. Here is how the 140 questions split by section in this paper.

  • Verbal Ability: 50 questions, the largest section, covering synonyms, antonyms, analogies, idioms, one-word substitution, sentence completion and para jumbles
  • Reading Comprehension: 30 questions built on four passages, testing inference, tone and vocabulary in context
  • Quantitative Aptitude: 30 questions spanning arithmetic, algebra, number system, geometry, probability and permutations
  • Data Adequacy & Data Interpretation: 30 questions, split between data-sufficiency items and interpretation sets on a bar graph, a pie chart and data tables

IBSAT 2021 Question Paper Video Walkthrough

Source: Youth4work Prep

How to Use the IBSAT 2021 Question Paper for Practice

Treat this paper as a full timed mock before you use the solution PDF. That is the fastest way to fix your section order and pacing for the real 120-minute test.

  • Solve all 140 questions in one 2-hour block, exactly like the real exam
  • Since there is no negative marking, mark an answer for every question, even the ones you guess
  • Review with the solution PDF and note the Verbal traps, since that section decides most scores
  • Redo the Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation sets, as these are the most time-consuming

IBSAT 2021 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. Is there negative marking in the IBSAT 2021 question paper?

Ans. No. IBSAT has no negative marking, so every one of the 140 questions carries +1 and a wrong answer costs nothing. Attempt all questions, even the ones you are unsure about.

Ques. Which section has the highest weightage in IBSAT 2021?

Ans. Verbal Ability is the largest section with 50 questions, followed by Reading Comprehension, Quantitative Aptitude and Data Adequacy & Data Interpretation with 30 each. The English part as a whole (Verbal plus Reading Comprehension) is 80 of the 140 questions.

Ques. How many questions are there in IBSAT and what is the time limit?

Ans. IBSAT has 140 multiple-choice questions to be solved in 120 minutes, with no sectional time limits. That works out to a little under a minute per question, so pace matters most in the Data Interpretation sets.

Ques. Who conducts IBSAT and what is it used for?

Ans. IBSAT is conducted by the ICFAI Foundation for Higher Education (IFHE). The score is used for admission to the MBA and PGPM programmes at the IBS Business Schools. You can check the official details at ibsindia.org.

Ques. Where can I download the IBSAT 2021 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on Collegedunia to get the IBSAT 2021 question paper and its full solutions PDF for free. For official mock tests and updates, check the ICFAI site at ibsindia.org.

Ques. Is solving the IBSAT previous year question paper enough to prepare?

Ans. It is the best starting point. Solving this paper shows you the exact question style and the section split, so aim to work through several papers with a focus on Verbal Ability, since that section carries the most questions.