The IBSAT 2019 question paper with solutions is now available for free download. IBSAT 2019 was conducted by ICFAI Foundation for Higher Education on December 21-22, 2019, and the paper carried 140 questions across 4 sections in 2 hours.

IBSAT 2019 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

IBSAT 2019 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word given below.
DOLOROUS

  • (A) Happy
  • (B) Lachrymose
  • (C) Furious
  • (D) Angry

Question 2:

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word given below.
PUISSANT

  • (A) Powerful
  • (B) Skillful
  • (C) Colorful
  • (D) Beautiful

Question 3:

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word given below.
RECTITUDE

  • (A) Immorality
  • (B) Fulmination
  • (C) Dissipation
  • (D) Integrity

Question 4:

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word given below.
TEDIUM

  • (A) Variation
  • (B) Excitement
  • (C) Diversion
  • (D) Monotony

Question 5:

Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word given below.
MAWKISH

  • (A) Tendentious
  • (B) Mellifluous
  • (C) Maudlin
  • (D) Meridional

Question 6:

Choose the option that is most opposite in meaning (antonym) to the word given below.
JOCUND

  • (A) Brash
  • (B) Jocular
  • (C) Square
  • (D) Melancholic

Question 7:

Choose the option that is most opposite in meaning (antonym) to the word given below.
INSCRUTABLE

  • (A) Comprehensible
  • (B) Confusing
  • (C) Contradictory
  • (D) Contemptible

Question 8:

Choose the option that is most opposite in meaning (antonym) to the word given below.
EXCORIATE

  • (A) Prevaricate
  • (B) Berate
  • (C) Regurgitate
  • (D) Acclaim

Question 9:

Choose the option which is the closest antonym of the given word.

GLUM

  • (A) Desire
  • (B) Cheerful
  • (C) Sour
  • (D) Gloomy

Question 10:

Choose the option which is the closest antonym of the given word.

SCRAWNY

  • (A) Lean
  • (B) Skinny
  • (C) Emaciated
  • (D) Obese

Question 11:

The first two words are related in a particular way. Choose the word that completes the second pair using the same relationship.

Weed : Garden :: Edit : ?

  • (A) Publisher
  • (B) Editor
  • (C) News
  • (D) Puzzle

Question 12:

Complete the analogy by choosing the option that best fits.
Incubator : Infant :: Greenhouse : ?

  • (A) Parasites
  • (B) Worms
  • (C) Puppies
  • (D) Saplings

Question 13:

Complete the analogy by choosing the option that best fits.
Pitch : Cricket :: Ring : ?

  • (A) Wrestling
  • (B) Boxing
  • (C) Badminton
  • (D) Tennis

Question 14:

Complete the analogy by choosing the option that best fits.
Darkness : Ignorance :: Light : ?

  • (A) Intelligence
  • (B) Knowledge
  • (C) Cleverness
  • (D) Familiarity

Question 15:

Complete the analogy by choosing the option that best fits.
Nucleus : Cell :: Yolk : ?

  • (A) Grain
  • (B) Cob
  • (C) Fruit
  • (D) Egg

Question 16:

Fill in the blanks with the pair of words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
In human as in animal societies the elder _____ transmit by example to the younger the _____ experience accumulated by the group.

  • (A) Progeny ... lurid
  • (B) Generations ... collective
  • (C) Denizens ... repeated
  • (D) Luminary ... personal

Question 17:

He was an _____ musician, had been awarded by the Saneet Natak academy during the second world war and _____ with the title of Rai Bahadur.

  • (A) Outstanding..... popularized
  • (B) Underestimated ..... declared
  • (C) Accomplished ..... honoured
  • (D) Impressive ..... assigned

Question 18:

China and India _____ similarities in demography and natural resources and that is where those similarities _____.

  • (A) Exchange ..... close
  • (B) Surrender ..... expand
  • (C) Support ..... pass
  • (D) Share ..... end

Question 19:

The role of the Press cannot be _____ even in dictatorship, because even a dictator needs the press for _____ his ideology and policies.

  • (A) Eulogised ..... supressing
  • (B) Minimized ..... reflecting
  • (C) Exploited ..... writing
  • (D) Misused ..... broadcasting

Question 20:

Modern methods of _____ earthquakes recognize that quakes, far from being geologic anamalies, are part of the periodic accumulation and discharge of _____ energy.

  • (A) Identifying ..... iconic
  • (B) Locating ..... cosmic
  • (C) Predicting ..... seismic
  • (D) Watching ..... heavenly

Question 21:

Read the sentence below and find out which part contains an error. If there is no error, the answer is "No error".

The mutual co-operation (a) of employees is (b) essential to the success (c) of business. (d)

  • (A) The mutual co-operation
  • (B) of employees is
  • (C) essential to the success
  • (D) of business.

Question 22:

Read the sentence below and find out which part contains an error. If there is no error, the answer is "No error".

Not less than (a) fifty (b) passengers were (c) killed in the bus accident. (d)

  • (A) Not less than
  • (B) fifty
  • (C) passengers were
  • (D) killed in the bus accident.

Question 23:

Read the sentence below and find out which part contains an error. If there is no error, the answer is "No error".

The Chairmen of all large (a) private sector banks met with (b) senior World bank officials to give its (c) suggestions about implementing the new policy. (d)

  • (A) The Chairmen of all large
  • (B) private sector banks met with
  • (C) senior World bank officials to give its
  • (D) suggestions about implementing the new policy.

Question 24:

Read the sentence below and find out which part contains an error. If there is no error, the answer is "No error".

The sun hadn't hardly (a) set when the mosquitoes began to sting (b) so annoyingly that we had (c) to run off from the playground. (d)

  • (A) The sun hadn't hardly
  • (B) set when the mosquitoes began to sting
  • (C) so annoyingly that we had
  • (D) to run off from the playground.

Question 25:

A wise and experienced manager will assign a job to whom ever is best qualified.

  • (A) A wise and experienced
  • (B) manager will assign
  • (C) a job to whom ever is
  • (D) best qualified

Question 26:

When you leave out a player who is the best in the country by a mile, the people need to know the real reasons and this is where the attitude of the BCCI is depressing.

  • (A) Who is the best in the country by a mile
  • (B) Who is the best in the country
  • (C) Who is the best in the country for a mile
  • (D) Who is the best in the country with a mile

Question 27:

The reason why she is absent today is because her husband is ill.

  • (A) Absent today is because her husband is ill.
  • (B) Absent today because her husband is ill.
  • (C) Absent today is that her husband is ill.
  • (D) Absent today is because her husband illness.

Question 28:

It was she, not me, who put forth the attractive propositions.

  • (A) She, not me,
  • (B) Her, not me,
  • (C) Her, not I,
  • (D) She, not I,

Question 29:

It is with a heavy heart that I pen these few lines to condole for you on the death of your beloved mother.

  • (A) Condole for you on
  • (B) Condole with you in
  • (C) Condole upon you on
  • (D) Condole with you on

Question 30:

Neither the manager nor the Cashier were able to report on the Company's progress.

  • (A) Neither the manager nor the Cashier were able to
  • (B) Neither the manager or the Cashier were able to
  • (C) Neither the manager nor the Cashier could able to
  • (D) Neither the manager nor the Cashier was able to

Question 31:

Arrange the following parts into a coherent sentence/passage:
P. Children need to be loved, and in a sense they cannot have too much of it.
Q. She herself doesn't want to grow up and attempts to make time stand still.
R. Fortunately she cannot succeed.
S. But it is not because of love that a mother prevents her child from growing up.

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) SPQR
  • (C) PQRS
  • (D) PSQR

Question 32:

Arrange the following parts into a coherent sentence/passage:
P. It would perhaps be possible for you to be of some use to this brave little boy.
Q. She said to herself silently at first, that
R. Without neglecting anything of what was due to her important mission.
S. And this idea pleased her.

  • (A) PSQR
  • (B) RSQP
  • (C) QRPS
  • (D) QSPR

Question 33:

Directions: In the following question, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

P. The real challenge today is unlearning, which is much harder.

Q. The new world of business behaves differently from the world in which we grew up.

R. Learning is important for both people and organizations however.

S. Each of us has a mental model that we've used over the years to make sense, but.

  • (A) SPQR
  • (B) RSPQ
  • (C) RSQP
  • (D) RPSQ

Question 34:

Directions: In the following question, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

P. Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.

Q. The rising gale fanned the smoldering fire.

R. Everyone now knew there was fire on board.

S. Flames broke out here and there.

  • (A) SRQP
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) RSPQ
  • (D) QSRP

Question 35:

Directions: In the following question, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

P. He dares not say "I think", "I am" but quotes some saint or sage.

Q. These roses under my window make no reference to former roses or to better ones.

R. He is ashamed before the blade of grass or the blowing rose.

S. Man is timid, apologetic and no longer upright.

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) SPQR
  • (C) QSPR
  • (D) SPRQ

Question 36:

Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase.

A person filled with excessive zeal, especially for an extreme religious or political cause.

  • (A) Lunatic
  • (B) Critic
  • (C) Fanatic
  • (D) Cynic

Question 37:

Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase.

The study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and the analysis of physical remains.

  • (A) Anthropology
  • (B) Genealogy
  • (C) Ornithology
  • (D) Archaeology

Question 38:

Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase.

Person who suffers from delusions of greatness.

  • (A) Megalomaniac
  • (B) Kleptomaniac
  • (C) Romantic
  • (D) Hypochondriac

Question 39:

Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase.

Term used to refer to the health care of old people.

  • (A) Bariatric
  • (B) Veteran
  • (C) Geriatric
  • (D) Novice

Question 40:

Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase.

That which can be drunk.

  • (A) Edible
  • (B) Eatable
  • (C) Potable
  • (D) Palatable

Question 41:

"I thought you said this was a difficult problem. It isn't. In fact, it's as easy as pie."

  • (A) Evident
  • (B) Unmistakable
  • (C) Not worthy
  • (D) Very simple

Question 42:

"You're a real couch potato, Jay. You need to get more exercise!"

  • (A) Plump chap
  • (B) Lazy person
  • (C) Ignorant soul
  • (D) Sick individual

Question 43:

"I don't think you can depend on Srikanth to do that job by himself. He's too green."

  • (A) Childish
  • (B) Envious
  • (C) Indecisive
  • (D) Inexperienced

Question 44:

It's late and you've accomplished a lot. Why don't you call it a day?

  • (A) Sleep
  • (B) Take rest
  • (C) Stop work
  • (D) Be happy

Question 45:

My new car cost an arm and a leg.

  • (A) Negligible
  • (B) Exorbitant
  • (C) Reasonable
  • (D) Cheap

Comprehension:

It is ___(46) to read a book about our planet by an author who does not allow facts to be ___(47) by politics: well aware of the political disputes about the effects of human activities on climate and biodiversity, this author does not permit them to ___(48) his comprehensive description of what

Read More we know about our biosphere. He emphasizes the enormous gaps in our knowledge, the ___(49) of our observations, and the ___(50) of our theories, calling attention to the many aspects of planetary evolution that must be better understood before we can accurately diagnose the condition of our planet.

Question 46:

Choose the best word for blank (46) in the passage above.

  • (A) Refreshing
  • (B) Stimulating
  • (C) Boring
  • (D) Dreary

Question 47:

Choose the best word for blank (47) in the passage above.

  • (A) Invalidated
  • (B) Overshadowed
  • (C) Illuminated
  • (D) Interfered

Question 48:

Choose the best word for blank (48) in the passage above.

  • (A) Analyse
  • (B) Garble
  • (C) Obscure
  • (D) Enhance

Question 49:

Choose the best word for blank (49) in the passage above.

  • (A) Leanness
  • (B) Neatness
  • (C) Tidiness
  • (D) Sparseness

Question 50:

Choose the best word for blank (50) in the passage above.

  • (A) Showiness
  • (B) Resistance
  • (C) Certainty
  • (D) Superficiality

Comprehension:

The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle or mere idle curiosity even though curious persons are seldom idle. Parents do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it makes life difficult to be faced everyday with a string of unanswerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are invited to join our university. With in the university, they go on asking their questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes of a scholar, that is what a university is for. Some of the questions which the scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely worth asking, let alone answering. They ask questions too minute and specialized for you and me to understand without years of explanation. If the world inquires one of them why he wants to know the answer to a particular question he may say especially if he is a scientist, that the answer will in some obscure way make possible a new machine or weapon or gadget.

Read More He talks that way because he knows that the world understands and respects utility.

But to you who are now part of the university, he will say that he wants to know the answer simply because he does not know it, the way the mountain climber wants to climb a mountain, simply because it is there. Similarly a historian asked by an outsider why he studies history may come out with the argument that he has learnt to respect to report on such occasions, something about knowledge of the past making it possible to understand the present and mould the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies the past, the answer is much simpler, something happened and he would like to know what. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering questions for sake of the consequences as thousands are working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer. But this is not the primary for scholars. For the consequences are usually subordinate to the satisfaction of curiosity.


Question 51:

Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline means

  • (A) Children retaining their curiosity in spite of being discouraged by their parents
  • (B) Children pursuing their mental curiosity
  • (C) Children's curiosity subdued due to parents intervention
  • (D) Children being disciplined by their parents

Question 52:

Pick out the word which is a close synonym of 'Extinguish' as used in the passage.

  • (A) Embrace
  • (B) Nurture
  • (C) Remove
  • (D) Sow

Question 53:

According to their passage, the children make life difficult for their parents by

  • (A) Their ceaseless curiosity
  • (B) Unceasing bombardment of questions
  • (C) Asking irrelevant questions
  • (D) Raising doubts

Question 54:

The common people consider unimportant some of the questions that the scholars ask, as

  • (A) They are too lazy and idle
  • (B) They are too modest
  • (C) It's beyond their comprehension
  • (D) It is considered a waste of time

Question 55:

A historian studies the past

  • (A) To comprehend the present and to reconstruct the future
  • (B) To explain the present and plan the future
  • (C) To understand the present and make fortune
  • (D) To understand the present and mould the future

Question 56:

Pick out the statement, which is true.

  • (A) Scientists know that the world understands and respects utility
  • (B) The world encourages curiosity
  • (C) Parents always encourage curiosity of their children
  • (D) In the university questions are rarely asked to find out answers

Question 57:

It may be inferred from the passage that curiosity

  • (A) Results in Boredom
  • (B) Breeds inefficiency
  • (C) Results in action
  • (D) Is liked by the society

Question 58:

According to the passage, parents do their best to discourage curiosity in their children, because they

  • (A) have no time
  • (B) are unable to answer all the questions
  • (C) feel that their children ask stupid questions continuously
  • (D) have no patience to answer them

Comprehension:

The theory of plate tectonics describes the motions of the lithosphere, the comparatively rigid outer layer of the Earth that includes all the crust and part of the underlying mantle. The lithosphere is divided into a few dozen plates of various sizes and shapes; in general the plates are in motion with respect to one another. A mid-ocean ridge is a boundary between plates where new lithospheric material is injected from below. As the plates diverge from a mid-ocean ridge they slide on a more yielding layer at the base of the lithosphere.

Since the size of the Earth is essentially constant, new lithosphere can be created at the mid-ocean ridges only if an equal amount of lithospheric material is consumed elsewhere. The site of this destruction is another kind of plate boundary: a subduction zone. There one plate dives under the edge of another and is reincorporated into the mantle. Both kinds of plate boundary are associated with fault systems, earthquakes and volcanism, but the kinds of geologic activity observed

Read More at the two boundaries are quite different.

The idea of sea-floor spreading actually preceded the theory of plate tectonics. In its original version, in the early 1960s, it described the creation and destruction of the ocean floor, but it did not specify rigid lithospheric plates. The hypothesis was substantiated soon afterward by the discovery that periodic reversals of the Earth's magnetic field are recorded in the oceanic crust. As magma rises under the mid-ocean ridge ferromagnetic minerals in the magma become magnetized in the direction of the geomagnetic field. When the magma cooks and solidifies, the direction and the polarity of the field are preserved in the magnetized volcanic rock. Reversals of the field give rise to a series of magnetic stripes running parallel to the axis of the rift. The oceanic crust thus serves as a magnetic tape recording of the history of the geomagnetic field that can be dated independently. The width of the stripes indicates the rate of the sea-floor spreading.


Question 59:

What is the core theme of the passage?

  • (A) Magnetic field reversal
  • (B) The formation of magma
  • (C) The location of mid-ocean ridges
  • (D) Plate tectonic theory

Question 60:

Which of the following can be created at mid-ocean ridges?

  • (A) Subduction zone
  • (B) Lithosphere
  • (C) Fault systems
  • (D) Geomagnetic field

Question 61:

Which of the following is true about tectonic plates?

  • (A) They move in relationship to one another
  • (B) They have unchanging borders
  • (C) They are located far beneath the lithosphere
  • (D) They have the same shape

Question 62:

According to the passage, which of the following statements about the lithosphere is least likely to be true?

  • (A) It is a relatively inflexible layer of the Earth
  • (B) It includes the crust and some of the mantle of the Earth
  • (C) It is made up entirely of volcanic ash
  • (D) It is divided into plates of various shapes and sizes

Question 63:

What does the author imply about the periodic reversal of the Earth's magnetic field?

  • (A) It analyses the association of plate boundaries
  • (B) It indicates the amount of magma present in earth's crust
  • (C) It clarifies formation of new lithosphere
  • (D) It supports the hypothesis of sea-floor spreading

Question 64:

The author states that the width of the stripes preserved in magnetized volcanic rock give information about the

  • (A) Date of a volcanic eruption
  • (B) Speed of sea-floor spreading
  • (C) Width of oceanic crust
  • (D) Future behavior of the geomagnetic field

Question 65:

Since the size of the Earth is essentially constant, new lithosphere can be created at the mid-ocean ridges only when

  • (A) Magma rises from earth's crust
  • (B) Polarity of magnetic field is maintained
  • (C) Tectonic plates are incorporated into the mantle
  • (D) An equal amount of lithospheric material is consumed elsewhere

Question 66:

Which of the following serve(s) as a magnetic tape recording of the history of the geomagnetic field?

  • (A) Tectonic plates
  • (B) Oceanic crust
  • (C) Ferromagnetic minerals
  • (D) Geomagnetic field

Comprehension:

Archaeology is a source of history, not just a humble auxiliary discipline. Archaeological data are historical documents in their own right, not mere illustrations to written texts. Just as much as any other historian an archaeologist studies and tries to reconstitute the process that has created the human world in which we live and us ourselves in so far as we are each creatures of our age and social environment. Archaeological data are all changes in the material world resulting from human action or more succinctly the fossilized results of human behavior. The sum total of these constitutes what may be called the archaeological record. This record exhibits certain peculiarities and deficiencies the consequences of which produce a rather superficial contrast between archaeological history and the more familiar kind based upon written records.

Not all human behavior fossilizes. The words I utter and you hear as vibrations in the air are certainly human changes in the material world and may be of great historical significance. Yet they leave no sort of trace in the archaeological records unless they are captured by a dictaphone or written down by a clerk. The movement of troops on the battlefield may "change the course of history", but this is equally ephemeral from the archaeologist's standpoint. What is perhaps worse is most organic materials are perishable. Everything made of wood, hide wool, Linen, grass hair and similar materials will decay and vanish in dust in a few years or centuries save under very exceptional conditions. In a relatively brief period the archaeological record is reduced to mere scraps of stone, Bone, glass, metal, and earthenware. Still modern archaeology, by applying appropriate techniques and comparative methods, aided by a few lucky finds from peat bogs, Deserts and frozen soils is able to fill up a good deal of the gap.

The purpose of archaeology is to learn more about past societies and the development of the human race. Over 99% of the development of humanity has occurred within prehistoric cultures,

Read More which did not make use of writing, thereby not leaving written records of themselves that can be studied today. Without such written sources, the only way to learn about prehistoric societies is to use archaeology. Many important developments in human history occurred during prehistory, such as the evolution of humanity during the Paleolithic period, when the hominins developed from the australopithecines in Africa and eventually into modern Homo sapiens. Archaeology also sheds light on many of humanity's technological advances, for instance the ability to use fire, the development of stone tools, the discovery of metallurgy, the beginnings of religion and the creation of agriculture. Without archaeology, we would know little or nothing about the use of material culture by humanity that pre-dates writing.

However, it is not only prehistoric, pre-literate cultures that can be studied using archaeology but historic, literate cultures as well, through the sub-discipline of historical archaeology. For many literate cultures, such as Ancient Greece and Mesopotamia, their surviving records are often incomplete and biased to some extent. In many societies, literacy was restricted to the elite classes, such as the clergy or the bureaucracy of court or temple. The literacy even of aristocrats has sometimes been restricted to deeds and contracts. The interests and world-view of elites are often quite different from the lives and interests of the populace. Writings that were produced by people more representative of the general population were unlikely to find their way into libraries and be preserved there for posterity. Thus, written records tend to reflect the biases, assumptions, cultural values and possibly deceptions of a limited range of individuals, usually a small fraction of the larger population. Hence, written records cannot be trusted as a sole source. The material record may be closer to a fair representation of society, though it is subject to its own biases, such as sampling bias and differential preservation.


Question 67:

Identify from the following, statement that denotes the main purpose of the passage.

  • (A) To point out the importance of recent advances in archaeology
  • (B) To describe the excavations of an archeologist
  • (C) To explain how archaeology is a source of history
  • (D) To encourage more people to become archaeologists

Question 68:

The only way to learn about prehistoric societies is through the study of

  • (A) Psychology
  • (B) Anthropology
  • (C) History
  • (D) Archaeology

Question 69:

'Yet they leave no sort of trace in the archaeological records unless they are captured by a dictaphone or written down by a clerk'. The word 'they' in this sentence refers to

  • (A) Scraps
  • (B) Words
  • (C) Troops
  • (D) Humans

Question 70:

Which of the following is not an example of an organic material?

  • (A) Stone
  • (B) Wool
  • (C) Grass
  • (D) Hair

Question 71:

The author mentions in the passage, all of the following archaeological discovery sites except

  • (A) Urban areas
  • (B) Peat bogs
  • (C) Stone caves
  • (D) Frozen earth

Question 72:

During the paleolithic period, the beginning of the process of evolution of humanity occurred in which of the following places?

  • (A) Australia
  • (B) South America
  • (C) Asia
  • (D) Africa

Question 73:

According to the passage, the archaeological record consists of

  • (A) Spoken words of great historical significance
  • (B) The fossilized results of human activity
  • (C) Organic materials
  • (D) Ephemeral ideas

Question 74:

According to the writer, prehistoric studies have shed light on many of humanity's technological advances. Identify the one which is not mentioned in these technological advances.

  • (A) The creation of agriculture
  • (B) The beginnings of religion
  • (C) The discovery of metallurgy
  • (D) The ability to use script

Question 75:

The surviving records of which civilization are often found to be incomplete and biased?

  • (A) Indus valley civilization
  • (B) Egyptian civilization
  • (C) Mesopotamian civilization
  • (D) Incas civilization

Comprehension:

Insects' lives are very diminutive and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to rear and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their probability of survival. To look "uneatable" by resembling or imitating plants is a deceit widely practised by insects. Mammals hardly ever use this kind of camouflage, but many fish and invertebrates do.

The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly discernible from a brown or green twig. This caterpillar is quite familiar and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called "measuring worm" or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, than stretching out and grasping the branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind feet forward. When danger threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches

Read More its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.

Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection; they look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size from the few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long. When at rest their front legs are stretched out heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are adorned with spines or ridges imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live. Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the foliage that they resemble.


Question 76:

What is the main theme of the passage?

  • (A) Life cycle of insects
  • (B) The feeding habits of insects
  • (C) Camouflage techniques in insects
  • (D) Mode of survival in mammals

Question 77:

The word "camouflage" means to

  • (A) Conceal
  • (B) Reveal
  • (C) Divulge
  • (D) Drop

Question 78:

How does the stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?

  • (A) By looping itself around a stick
  • (B) By holding its body stiff and motionless
  • (C) By changing the color of its skin
  • (D) By laying its body flat against a branch

Question 79:

Which of the following is not true of insect camouflage techniques?

  • (A) Insects look like inedible twigs in any position
  • (B) Insects stretch out at rest their front legs
  • (C) Insects are adorned with spines or ridges imitating the thorny bushes
  • (D) Insects change color to make them invisible

Question 80:

Which of the following are favorite objects for butterflies to imitate?

  • (A) Twigs
  • (B) Flowers
  • (C) Thorny bushes
  • (D) Leaves

Question 81:

A, B and C are three associates in a firm. A invests Rs. 6,000, B invests Rs. 9,000 and C invests Rs. 12,000. A and B are the working partners and get 10% and 20% of the profit respectively as their salary, and the remaining profit is distributed in the ratio of their capitals. If the profit made at the end of the year is Rs. 27,000, then what is the share of A?

  • (A) Rs. 2,300
  • (B) Rs. 3,900
  • (C) Rs. 6,900
  • (D) Rs. 8,400

Question 82:

If \((b+c), (c+a), (a+b)\) are in harmonic progression, then \(a^2, b^2, c^2\) are in

  • (A) AP
  • (B) GP
  • (C) HP
  • (D) Both AP and HP

Question 83:

In the figure below, the unknown side of the triangle is the diameter of the circle. What is the area of the unshaded region? (Figure not drawn to scale)

  • (A) \(125.50\pi\) sq.cm
  • (B) \(134\pi\) sq.cm
  • (C) \(156.25\pi\) sq.cm
  • (D) \(162.50\pi\) sq.cm

Question 84:

Given three circles with centres O1, O2 and O3. OE and OF are the tangents drawn from an external point O to the three circles as shown in the figure below. OE = 24 cm, O3E = 2 O2C = 4 O1A = 7 cm. Find O2G : O1H. (Figure not drawn to scale)

  • (A) 2 : 3
  • (B) 1 : 4
  • (C) 1 : 3
  • (D) 1 : 2

Question 85:

A, B and C are three associates in a firm. A invests Rs. 6,000, B invests Rs. 9,000 and C invests Rs. 12,000. A and B are the working partners and get 10% and 20% of the profit respectively as their salary, and the remaining profit is distributed in the ratio of their capitals. If the profit made at the end of the year is Rs. 27,000, then what is the share of C?

  • (A) Rs. 2,300
  • (B) Rs. 3,900
  • (C) Rs. 6,900
  • (D) Rs. 8,400

Question 86:

Two solid pyramids are melted together. These pyramids had the number of edges equal to the length of each of their edges, equal to 8 units. They are moulded to form a hexagonal pyramid with the length of each side of its base being 8 units. What is the slant height of the new pyramid?

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{3}\sqrt{\frac{35}{3}}\) units
  • (B) \(8\sqrt{\frac{35}{3}}\) units
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{\frac{35}{3}}\) units
  • (D) \(3\sqrt{35}\) units

Question 87:

The figure below is a regular hexagon with side '2a' cm. If AG = FG and ED || GH, then what is the area of the shaded region?

  • (A) \((3\sqrt3)a^2\) cm2
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{3\sqrt3}{2}\right)a^2\) cm2
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\right)a^2\) cm2
  • (D) \((6\sqrt3)a^2\) cm2

Question 88:

In a class of 40 students who study mathematics, physics and chemistry, the number of students studying mathematics is 2 more than 40% of those studying chemistry, while 20 of the students study physics. Three less than one fifth of the total students in the class study all three subjects. The number of students studying only physics is 2 less than the number of students studying mathematics. The number of students studying only mathematics and only chemistry is 3 and 15 respectively. The number of students studying mathematics as well as physics is the same as the number of students studying mathematics as well as chemistry. How many students are studying both mathematics and chemistry but not all the three subjects?

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 2

Question 89:

A solid metallic cuboid with sides in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6 is melted to form smaller cubes with sides 2 cm. If the sum of the length of the edges of the cuboid is 208 cm, then what is the ratio of the surface area of the original cuboid to the total surface area of the smaller cubes?

  • (A) 1 : 6
  • (B) 4 : 11
  • (C) 1 : 8
  • (D) 2 : 9

Question 90:

What is the maximum volume of the cylinder, if the sum of its radius and the height is 8 cm?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{256\pi}{9}\) cc
  • (B) \(\dfrac{512\pi}{9}\) cc
  • (C) \(\dfrac{256\pi}{27}\) cc
  • (D) \(\dfrac{512\pi}{27}\) cc

Question 91:

A number is divided into two parts such that half of the first part added to the one fourth the second part is equal to two-fifth of the number. What is the ratio of the two parts?

  • (A) 1 : 2
  • (B) 2 : 5
  • (C) 3 : 2
  • (D) 4 : 3

Question 92:

A property was to be divided among P, Q, R, S and T in the ratio of 1 : 1.5 : 2 : 2.5 : 3. If instead, it was divided in the duplicate ratio, then who among the four would be benefitted most?

  • (A) Q
  • (B) T
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 93:

M and N start a business with respective capitals of Rs. 35,000 and Rs. 22,000. M withdrew an amount of Rs. 1000 every month from the business while N put in an additional amount of Rs. 1,000 every month into the business. If they close the business after 13 months after making a profit of Rs. 85,500, then what is the share of N?

  • (A) Rs. 22,500
  • (B) Rs. 33,000
  • (C) Rs. 43,500
  • (D) Rs. 46,000

Question 94:

The monthly salary of Amar is two and a half times the monthly salary of Bakshi. The ratio of the monthly salaries of Bakshi and Chitra is the duplicate ratio of monthly salaries of Amar and Bakshi. The monthly salary of Chitra is thrice the monthly salary of Daksha. The ratio of monthly salaries of Daksha and Eeshwar is the triplicate of the ratio of monthly salaries of Chitra and Daksha. What is the monthly salary of Amar, if Eeshwar's monthly salary is Rs. 1,560?

  • (A) Rs. 19,74,375
  • (B) Rs. 12,75,375
  • (C) Rs. 9,37,675
  • (D) Rs. 7,89,750

Question 95:

The mean proportional of the two positive numbers obtained by subtracting 77 from a positive number and adding 11 to the same number is 33. What is the number?

  • (A) 154
  • (B) 143
  • (C) 121
  • (D) 88

Question 96:

A, B and C are three partners in a business. C is the only working partner. C's investment is one-fifth of B's investment and A's investment is twice that of C. If C gets a salary of Rs. 10,500 a month and A gets a profit share of Rs. 1.44 lakh at the end of the year, then what is the total profit?

  • (A) Rs. 3,96,000
  • (B) Rs. 4,16,000
  • (C) Rs. 5,76,000
  • (D) Rs. 7,20,000

Question 97:

What is the difference between the sum of the cubes and that of the sum of the square of first twenty natural numbers?

  • (A) 21290
  • (B) 28630
  • (C) 36340
  • (D) 41230

Question 98:

If 'y' is a number such that \( y = x^{x/2} \), where x is a positive integer, what is the difference between the largest possible four-digit value of y and the smallest possible three-digit value of y?

  • (A) 1220
  • (B) 2450
  • (C) 3240
  • (D) 3880

Question 99:

'abcd' is a four-digit number. It has only two factors excluding 1 and itself. In addition, the first two digits form a perfect square and the next two digits form a number which is one more than a perfect square. Which of the following could be the number?

  • (A) 1626
  • (B) 1665
  • (C) 2565
  • (D) 2582

Question 100:

Harsha received price money in a jackpot. He expressed the price money in the following way. Consider a number 'N' that can be expressed in the form of prime factors 3, 5, 7 and 11. The total number of factors of N is 32. The difference between the largest and the smallest such number possible, given that each of these prime factors occur at least once, is the price money that Harsha won. What is the price money that Harsha won in the jackpot?

  • (A) Rs. 45,640
  • (B) Rs. 91,280
  • (C) Rs. 1,29,360
  • (D) Rs. 1,82,560

Question 101:

What is the remainder obtained when the smallest prime number, when raised to the ninety second multiple of sixteen, is divided by two hundred and fifty seven?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5

Question 102:

On a cardboard there are 32 squares. 1 coin is kept on the first box, 2 coins on the second box and so on. Collect all the coins and add some more coins to them. These coins are equally distributed on all the squares of the cardboard. What is the minimum number of coins that are added?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 103:

The figure shows a regular hexagon ABCDEF with each side equal to \(2a\) cm. Point G lies on side CD and point H lies on side EF. If \(AG = FG\) and \(ED \parallel GH\), then what is the ratio of the area of the shaded region to the area of the hexagon?

  • (A) 1 : 2
  • (B) 1 : 3
  • (C) 1 : 4
  • (D) 2 : 3

Question 104:

What is the value of \(\log\log\sqrt{\sqrt[5]{\sqrt[10]{\sqrt[10]{10}}}}\) ?

  • (A) -3
  • (B) -2
  • (C) -1
  • (D) 1

Question 105:

A trader marks up a Music system \(x\%\) over the cost price and gives a discount of \((x/4)\%\) to get a profit of \((x/2)\%\). What is his profit percentage?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 50%

Question 106:

The sales of an article increases by 20% every week. The difference between the sales of the second week and the fourth week is Rs. 660. What were sales of the article in the third week?

  • (A) Rs. 1,360
  • (B) Rs. 1,480
  • (C) Rs. 1,500
  • (D) Rs. 1,800

Question 107:

A survey on population growth was conducted in town A. It revealed that the population of the town was 5.477 lakh. In one year, there is an increase in men (aged above 18 years) population by 8%, increase in population of women (aged above 18 years) by 12.5% and increase in the population of children (boy or a girl aged less or equal to 18 years) by 12%. If the population of town A, after one year was found to be 6.0466 lakh and number of children was found to be 91,840, then what was the population of men in the town before survey?

  • (A) 246500
  • (B) 256400
  • (C) 268400
  • (D) 272600

Question 108:

M and N start a business with respective capitals of Rs. 35,000 and Rs. 22,000. M withdrew an amount of Rs. 1000 every month from the business while N put in an additional amount of Rs. 1,000 every month into the business. If they close the business after 13 months after making a profit of Rs. 85,500, then what is the share of M?

  • (A) Rs. 22,000
  • (B) Rs. 33,000
  • (C) Rs. 42,000
  • (D) Rs. 46,000

Question 109:

In an examination, 42% of the students passed in at least two subjects out of the three subjects P, Q and R. 36% of the students passed in subjects Q and R. 10% of the students passed in all the three subjects. 38% of the students passed subject P. How many students passed in only subject P?

  • (A) 32%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 28%
  • (D) 24%

Question 110:

Aman purchased 8 mangoes, 6 oranges and 4 apples for a certain amount. With 35% less amount, Pavan could purchase 4 mangoes, 3 oranges and 3 apples. What percentage of the total amount did Aman spend on apples?

  • (A) 45%
  • (B) 50%
  • (C) 60%
  • (D) 80%

Question 111:

The average score of a batsman was 40 runs per match after 10 matches. What was his average score for the last four matches?
Statement 1: Average for first 6 matches is 36
Statement 2: Average for all even numbered matches is 45 and for odd numbered matches is 38

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 112:

The circumference of an inlet pipe and an outlet pipe is 15 cm and 10 cm respectively. How long will it take the tank to be filled, when it is empty and both pipes are opened?
Statement 1: Outlet pipe can empty the tank in 25 minutes
Statement 2: Inlet pipe can fill the empty tank in 56 minutes

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 113:

The diameter of the wheel of a motorcycle is 70 cm. What would be its speed in kmph?
Statement 1: The ratio of revolutions to diameter is 2:3
Statement 2: It makes 40 revolutions for every 10 seconds

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 114:

The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years is Rs. 20. What is the sum?
Statement 1: Rate of interest is 5%
Statement 2: Simple interest for one year is Rs. 400

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 115:

The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. What should be the measure of new width to maintain the same area?
Statement 1: Percent reduction in width is 37.5%
Statement 2: Area of rectangle is 450 sq.m

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 116:

The mass of a substance A is 4.8 kg. Another substance B of the same mass has 20 gm/cc more density than A. What is the density of substance A?
Statement 1: Volume of substance B is 12 cc less than substance A
Statement 2: The ratio of volumes of substances A and B is 32 : 27

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 117:

The mileage of a vehicle at a speed of 50 kmph is 60 kmpl. If the speed is above 50 kmph, for every rise of 5 kmph in the speed, mileage decreases by 2 kmpl. If a man travels 300 km at a uniform speed, how many litres of petrol will the vehicle consume?
Statement 1: He travels a distance of 300 km at a uniform speed of 75 kmph
Statement 2: The mileage of a vehicle at a speed of 75 kmph is 50 kmpl

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 118:

The number of terms in an arithmetic progression is 20. The sum of the four middle terms is (-22). What are the values of first term and common difference?
Statement 1: The sum of first four terms is 74
Statement 2: The difference between first term and common difference is 26

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 119:

The perimeter of a right angled triangle ABC, right angled at A, is \(3+\sqrt{3}\) cm. What is the area of the triangle?
Statement 1: \(AC \neq AB\)
Statement 2: \(\angle ABC = 30^{\circ}\)

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question

Question 120:

The present ages of Rahul and his father are in the ratio 6:13. The ratio between the present ages of his father and his sister is 13:5. If the difference between the present ages of his mother and his sister is 28 years, what is the difference between the present ages of his father and his mother?
Statement 1: The ratio of the present ages of Rahul and his mother is 1:2
Statement 2: The difference between the present ages of Rahul and his sister is 4 years

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 121:

The price of a shirt is Rs. 800, that of a trouser is Rs. 1000, that of shoes is Rs. 2000 and that of a belt is Rs. 500. What is the minimum amount with which one can get all the three articles (shirt, trouser and shoes)?
Statement 1: There is a discount of 30% on shirt and trousers
Statement 2: Belt is free with one shirt and a trouser. Shirt is free with one pair of shoes and one trouser

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 122:

The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 6:1. What is the present age of the son?
Statement 1: The ratio of the ages of father and son after 5 years is 7:2
Statement 2: The difference of their ages is 25 years

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 123:

The speed of a river is 5 kmph. How long will it take to reach a point that is 11 km upstream?
Statement 1: Relative speed is 8 kmph
Statement 2: Speed of the man in still water is 6 kmph

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 124:

A swimming pool is fitted with three pipes. The first two pipes operating simultaneously can fill the pool in half the time taken by the third pipe alone to fill the pool. What is the time taken by the three pipes individually to fill the pool?
Statement 1: The ratio between the time taken by the first and third pipes is 3:4
Statement 2: The second pipe takes 12 hours more than the first pipe working alone and 8 hours more than the third pipe working alone

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Question 125:

There are two concentric circles such that the area of the outer circle is four times the area of the inner circle. If A, B and C are three distinct points on the perimeter of the outer circle such that AB and AC are tangents to the inner circle, what is the area of the triangle ABC?
Statement 1: The area of the outer circle is 12 sq cm
Statement 2: The area of the region between the two circles is 9 sq cm

  • (A) If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (B) If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • (C) If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question
  • (D) If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question

Comprehension:

The below shown pie diagram shows the marks of Raju in his tenth class with 554 in all. The values mentioned are in degrees.
1st Language: 90 degrees, Hindi: 60 degrees, English: 63 degrees, Mathematics: 72 degrees, Science: 75 degrees, Social: 80 degrees


Question 126:

The subject in which he scored \(16\frac{2}{3}\%\) of marks is

  • (A) Science
  • (B) Social
  • (C) Mathematics
  • (D) Hindi

Question 127:

The subject in which he scored approximately 97 marks is

  • (A) Science
  • (B) Social
  • (C) Mathematics
  • (D) English

Question 128:

Of the total marks, in which subject is his scoring percentage the highest?

  • (A) Science
  • (B) Social
  • (C) 1st Language
  • (D) English

Question 129:

What is the difference between the marks obtained in 1st Language, Hindi and Mathematics, and Science, Social and English?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6

Question 130:

Of the total marks, in which subject is his percentage of scoring the lowest?

  • (A) Science
  • (B) Social
  • (C) 1st Language
  • (D) Hindi

Comprehension:

The pie-diagram below shows the % of expenditures of Paul and Balu per month.
Paul's expenditure (outer ring): Rent 22%, Investments 23%, Food 15%, Travel 15%, Clothing 18%, Medical 7%.
Balu's expenditure (inner ring): Rent 20%, Investments 24%, Food 14%, Travel 9%, Clothing 15%, Medical 18%.


Question 131:

If the salary of Balu is Rs. 15,000, what would be the expenditure on Investments and Food?

  • (A) Rs. 5450
  • (B) Rs. 4200
  • (C) Rs. 4560
  • (D) Rs. 5700

Question 132:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what is the ratio of their expenditures on Food and clothing?

  • (A) 1 : 1
  • (B) 1 : 2
  • (C) 3 : 1
  • (D) 16 : 11

Question 133:

If both Balu and Paul get equal income, what would be the difference of their expenditures on all except Investments?

  • (A) Rs. 1 of income
  • (B) Rs. 0.50 of income
  • (C) Rs. 0.01 of income
  • (D) Rs. 0.05 of income

Question 134:

If Paul's income was Rs. 13,500, what would be his average expenditure on Investments, Rent and Travelling?

  • (A) Rs. 2540
  • (B) Rs. 2125
  • (C) Rs. 2490
  • (D) Rs. 2700

Question 135:

What is the sum of angles subtended by expenditures of Paul on Travel, Rent and Medical?

  • (A) \(207.2^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(165.8^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(157.5^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(187.2^{\circ}\)

Comprehension:

The below shown line graph shows the monthly average sensex report from May to November. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
May: 10337.68, June: 10631.12, July: 10120.01, August: 9734.22, September: 9964.29, October: 10536.16, November: 9839.69


Question 136:

In which month did the average sensex reading show a greater decrease during the given period?

  • (A) June
  • (B) July
  • (C) August
  • (D) November

Question 137:

What is the ratio between the highest reading and the lowest reading of the sensex report during the given period (approximately)?

  • (A) 7 : 5
  • (B) 11 : 10
  • (C) 25 : 23
  • (D) 34 : 31

Question 138:

If the average sensex reading were expected to increase by 20% compared to its August value, what would that reading be in December?

  • (A) 9968.376
  • (B) 10249.564
  • (C) 10958.924
  • (D) 11681.064

Question 139:

What is the percentage decrease in the sensex reading from May to November?

  • (A) 3.7%
  • (B) 4.8%
  • (C) 5.9%
  • (D) 7.8%

Question 140:

For how many months has the reading stayed below the monthly average for this period?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

IBSAT 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

As per the official bulletin on ibsindia.org, IBSAT is a computer-based test with no sectional time limit, so you can move freely between sections.

  • Total questions: 140 MCQs across 4 sections
  • Duration: 2 hours, no sectional time cap
  • Total marks: 140
  • Marking scheme: +1 for a correct answer, no negative marking
  • Section split: Verbal Ability 50, Reading Comprehension 30, Quantitative Aptitude 30, Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation 30

High-Weightage Sections in IBSAT 2019 to Focus On First

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension together make up nearly half the paper, and this 2019 paper followed that same pattern.

  • Verbal Ability (50 questions): the biggest single section and the easiest in the 2019 paper, mixing vocabulary, analogies, error-spotting, and sentence-completion questions
  • Reading Comprehension (30 questions): 4 passages this year, ranging from a piece on scholarly curiosity to one on insect camouflage, rated easy in the 2019 analysis
  • Quantitative Aptitude (30 questions): arithmetic and geometry questions in fair proportion, rated easy to moderate
  • Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation (30 questions): a data sufficiency block plus pie-chart and line-graph sets, rated easy overall with a few tricky sufficiency questions
  • Students who score 40-42 out of 50 in Verbal Ability tend to land a 90-92 overall percentile, so this section is worth clearing first

IBSAT 2019 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: Learn4Exam

How to Use the IBSAT 2019 Question Paper for Practice

Treat this paper as a timed mock before you touch any fresh material.

  • Attempt all 140 questions in one sitting with a 2-hour timer, no pauses
  • Check your answers against the solutions PDF above, not just the answer key, so you catch mistakes in method, not only the final answer
  • Redo every Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension question you got wrong first, since that section carries the most marks
  • Log your Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation misses by topic so you know exactly what to revise next

IBSAT Good Attempts and Qualifying Score Benchmark

  • Aim for 105-115 attempts at 80-85% accuracy to land in the 90-95 percentile range
  • A raw score of 85 or more out of 140 usually falls in the 80-85 percentile band
  • A 70-80 percentile is considered a good score overall, but top IBS campuses look for 80 percentile and above

IBSAT 2019 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How difficult was the IBSAT 2019 question paper?

Ans. The overall difficulty was moderate. Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension were rated easy, while Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation were easy to moderate, with a few tougher data sufficiency questions.

Ques. How many questions should I attempt in IBSAT to score a high percentile?

Ans. Attempting 105-115 questions with 80-85% accuracy typically lands you in the 90-95 percentile range. A raw score of 85 or more out of 140 usually falls in the 80-85 percentile band.

Ques. Which section has the highest weightage in IBSAT?

Ans. Verbal Ability carries the most questions at 50, and together with Reading Comprehension it makes up nearly half the total marks. Scoring 40-42 out of 50 in Verbal Ability alone can push your overall percentile to 90-92.

Ques. Is there negative marking in IBSAT 2019?

Ans. No. IBSAT gives +1 mark for every correct answer and has no negative marking, so it is worth attempting every question in the 2-hour window.

Ques. Where can I download the IBSAT 2019 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on this Collegedunia page to get both the question paper PDF and the full solutions PDF. For official notifications and result details, check ibsindia.org.

Ques. Does IBSAT have a sectional time limit?

Ans. No. IBSAT gives you a single 2-hour window for all 140 questions across the 4 sections, so you can move between sections freely instead of being locked into one at a time.