AIAPGET Siddha 2024 6 July Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

The All India AYUSH Post Graduate Entrance Test (AIAPGET) is a national-level entrance exam conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) for admission to postgraduate courses in AYUSH systems, including MD (Siddha). It is the only entrance exam for students who wish to pursue postgraduate studies in Siddha medicine across India.The AIAPGET Siddha 2024 will consist of 120 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 2 hours (120 minutes), with a total of 480 marks; 4 marks are awarded for each correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for each incorrect response.

AIAPGET 2024 6 July Siddha Question Paper PDF Download

AIAPGET Siddha 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which vayu is responsible for sneezing?

  • (1) Nagan
  • (2) Uthanan
  • (3) Thananjeyan
  • (4) Kirukaran
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

In Siddha medicine, the ten types of vaayus (vital airs) are each responsible for specific physiological activities. Kirukaran vayu is responsible for reflex actions such as sneezing, blinking, coughing, and yawning. It functions in the upper parts of the body, particularly the head and face, and helps eliminate irritants through sneezing and similar actions.
Quick Tip: Kirukaran vayu governs involuntary reflexes like sneezing and blinking. It is one of the five upa-vaayus that support the main five vaayus in the Siddha system.


Question 2:

Which Aatharam represents the root of 1008 Nadi Narambugal?

  • (A) Suvathistanum
  • (B) Anagatham
  • (C) Akkinai
  • (D) Manipuragam
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

In Siddha philosophy, the Manipuragam Aatharam is regarded as the root of the 1008 Nadi Narambugal (energy channels). This Aatharam is associated with the navel region and serves as the foundational center for the network of nadis, which are vital for the flow of energy (prana) throughout the body. Quick Tip: Manipuragam is one of the key energy centers in Siddha medicine, playing a crucial role in maintaining the balance and vitality of the body's energy channels.


Question 3:

Which panchabootham is responsible for articulation of mouth?

  • (A) Water
  • (B) Space
  • (C) Fire
  • (D) Earth
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

In Siddha medicine, the Space (Aakasam) element among the Panchaboothams is responsible for articulation and speech functions. This element governs the void and space-related functions in the body, including the oral cavity's ability to produce clear sounds and articulate words properly. Quick Tip: The five elements (Panchabootham) in Siddha are: Earth (Prithvi), Water (Jala), Fire (Agni), Air (Vayu), and Space (Aakasam). Each governs specific physiological functions, with Space being particularly associated with communication and sound production.


Question 4:

Which sakthi is responsible for the binding of energy?

  • (A) Vigadana sakthi
  • (B) Sangadana sakthi
  • (C) Avarna sakthi
  • (D) Vitchepa sakthi
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

In Siddha philosophy, Sangadana sakthi is the divine energy responsible for binding and consolidating various forms of energy within the body. This binding force is essential for maintaining structural integrity and functional cohesion of the physiological systems. Quick Tip: The five primary saktis in Siddha system are: 1. Sangadana (Binding) 2. Vigadana (Dissolving) 3. Vitchepa (Projection) 4. Avarna (Concealing) 5. Nivrutti (Withdrawing) Each governs specific cosmic and biological energy transformations.


Question 5:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Salt taste causes diarrhoea.
Reason (R): Salts are given in diarrhoea.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

While both statements are independently true, they are not directly connected as cause and effect. Salt can act as a laxative when consumed in excess, leading to diarrhoea, which validates the assertion. Simultaneously, in clinical practice, salts are given in the form of Oral Rehydration Solutions (ORS) to manage fluid loss during diarrhoea, making the reason true as well. However, the administration of salts in diarrhoea is a treatment measure, not the cause of diarrhoea, hence (R) does not explain (A).
Quick Tip: In assertion-reason type questions, always differentiate between correlation and causation. A statement may be true but not serve as an explanation for another.


Question 6:

Rearrange the following five states.

  • (A) Dreaming state
  • (B) Sleeping state
  • (C) Conscious state
  • (D) Comatose state
  • (E) Demise or death state
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (E), (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
  • (3) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
  • (4) (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

The correct logical order of the states based on consciousness levels and physiological activity is:
1. Conscious state (C) – the normal awake condition.
2. Dreaming state (A) – typically during REM sleep, where mental activity continues.
3. Sleeping state (B) – a deeper unconsciousness than dreaming.
4. Comatose state (D) – significantly reduced consciousness, pathological.
5. Death state (E) – complete and irreversible cessation of all vital functions.

This sequence progresses from the most conscious state to the complete absence of consciousness and life.
Quick Tip: Understanding the gradation of consciousness helps in clinical assessment and treatment of neurological and psychological conditions.


Question 7:

Which are the characters of earthy objects?

  • (A) Voluminous
  • (B) Stability
  • (C) Dryness
  • (D) Moisture
  • (E) Sharpness
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (B) and (C) Only
  • (2) (D) and (E) Only
  • (3) (B) and (D) Only
  • (4) (A) and (B) Only
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

In Siddha philosophy, the Earth element (Prithvi) is associated with qualities like volume/mass and stability. These traits are evident in all physical and tangible substances. Earthy objects typically possess solidity, occupy space, and contribute to structural integrity and endurance in the body or environment. Hence, both Voluminous (A) and Stability (B) are characteristics attributed to earthy objects.
Quick Tip: Earth is the foundational element representing structure, weight, and firmness. It's important in understanding body constitution and elemental diagnosis in Siddha.


Question 8:

Match List I with List II:
List I & List II

  • (A) Pirasagam & (I) Lives in joints
  • (B) Alosagam & (II) Skin colour
  • (C) Santhigam & (III) Lives in eyes
  • (D) Pothagam & (IV) Causes taste
    \end{tabular}
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



In the Siddha system, the five types of Pitham (Udal Thathus) play different physiological roles:
- Pirasagam is related to skin colour, hence matches with (II).
- Alosagam is responsible for vision and lives in the eyes, matching with (III).
- Santhigam is responsible for lubrication and function of joints, so it lives in joints, matching with (I).
- Pothagam plays a role in digestion and causes taste, thus matching with (IV).
Quick Tip: Memorizing the five types of Pitham and their specific functions helps in better diagnosis and treatment planning in Siddha medicine.


Question 9:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



The correct matching of Siddhars and their associated locations is as follows:
- Sattamuni is associated with Srirangam – (A)-(III)
- Vaanmigar is linked to Ettukkudi – (B)-(IV)
- Sundaranandhar is connected to Madurai – (C)-(I)
- Agathiyar, the father of Siddha medicine, is historically associated with Thiruvananthapuram – (D)-(II)

These connections are often based on historical samadhi locations or legends linking these Siddhars to their places of teaching or final resting.
Quick Tip: Learning the regional associations of Siddhars helps in understanding the geographical roots and spread of Siddha medicine across Southern India.


Question 10:

Which taste cleanses the mother's milk?

  • (1) Sweet
  • (2) Sour
  • (3) Bitter
  • (4) Salt
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



In Siddha medicine, tastes (Rasas) have specific physiological effects on the body and its secretions. The bitter taste (Tikta rasa) is recognized for its cleansing, detoxifying, and purifying properties. It is especially effective in purifying body fluids, including breast milk, by eliminating toxins and balancing excessive doshas. Therefore, bitter substances are traditionally recommended in certain postpartum therapies to cleanse and improve the quality of mother’s milk.
Quick Tip: Bitter-tasting herbs are commonly used in Siddha postnatal care to cleanse breast milk and improve overall bodily detoxification.


Question 11:

Which is the precursor for prostaglandins in humans?

  • (1) Eicosanoids
  • (2) Cyclooxygenase
  • (3) Linoleic acid
  • (4) Arachidonic acid
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that serves as the direct precursor for prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes—collectively called eicosanoids. Upon cellular stimulation, arachidonic acid is released from membrane phospholipids and is converted into prostaglandins through the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme pathway. These prostaglandins play crucial roles in inflammation, pain, fever, and other physiological functions.
Quick Tip: Arachidonic acid is stored in the cell membrane and is the key starting material for the biosynthesis of inflammatory mediators like prostaglandins.


Question 12:

Which is the confirmatory test for HIV–AIDS?

  • (1) ELISA
  • (2) Western Blot
  • (3) CD4 Cell count
  • (4) RT-PCR
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The Western Blot test is considered a confirmatory diagnostic tool for HIV infection. While the ELISA test is typically used for initial screening due to its high sensitivity, it may yield false positives. Western Blot is used after a positive ELISA result to confirm the presence of specific HIV antibodies, offering higher specificity. It detects antibodies to individual HIV proteins, providing more conclusive evidence of infection.
Quick Tip: Always follow a two-step testing strategy for HIV: screen with ELISA and confirm with Western Blot to ensure both sensitivity and specificity.


Question 13:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: IgA are secretory antibodies
Statement II: IgM are natural antibodies
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

IgA antibodies are primarily found in mucosal secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk, playing a key role in mucosal immunity, hence called secretory antibodies.
IgM antibodies, on the other hand, are the first antibodies produced during an immune response and are also known as natural antibodies because they are present in the body without previous infection or vaccination, helping in early defense.
Quick Tip: Remember: IgA guards mucosal surfaces, while IgM is the first line of antibody defense and exists naturally in the blood.


Question 14:

Identify the correct statement regarding HbA1C:

  • (A) Elevated in sickle cell anemia
  • (B) Useful index for long term control of blood glucose
  • (C) Fasting sample is required
  • (D) It is affected by recent food intake
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (B) only
  • (3) (C) only
  • (4) (D) only
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



HbA1C (Glycated Hemoglobin) reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2–3 months, making it a reliable indicator for long-term glycemic control in diabetic patients. It does not require a fasting sample, nor is it significantly affected by recent meals. Additionally, HbA1C levels can be misleading in conditions like sickle cell anemia due to altered red blood cell lifespan, where levels may be falsely low or high, not necessarily elevated.
Quick Tip: HbA1C is a cornerstone in diabetes management, offering a broad picture of glucose control beyond daily fluctuations.


Question 15:

Which cervical vertebra is identified by odontoid process?

  • (1) Atlas
  • (2) Axis
  • (3) 6th cervical vertebra
  • (4) 7th cervical vertebra
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The odontoid process, also known as the dens, is a peg-like projection found on the Axis (C2 vertebra). It forms a pivot joint with the Atlas (C1), allowing the head to rotate.
Quick Tip: Remember: Axis (C2) = Dens or odontoid process = Rotation of the head.


Question 16:

Which one of the following opening is not present in the diaphragm?

  • (1) Aortic opening
  • (2) Oesophageal opening
  • (3) Vena caval opening
  • (4) Obturator foramen
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



The obturator foramen is an opening in the pelvic bone, not the diaphragm. The diaphragm has three major openings: aortic, oesophageal, and vena caval, for vital structures to pass between the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: "I 8 10 Eggs At 12" — IVC at T8, Esophagus at T10, Aorta at T12.


Question 17:

Which one of the following artery is the smallest and thinnest branch of the external carotid artery?

  • (1) Superior thyroid artery
  • (2) Lingual artery
  • (3) Facial artery
  • (4) Ascending pharyngeal artery
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

The ascending pharyngeal artery is the smallest and thinnest branch of the external carotid artery. It ascends between the pharynx and prevertebral muscles to supply parts of the pharynx and meninges.
Quick Tip: Though small, the ascending pharyngeal artery has critical roles in deep neck structures and meningeal supply.


Question 18:

Which vein is the continuation of the basilic vein?

  • (1) Radial vein
  • (2) Cephalic vein
  • (3) Median vein
  • (4) Axillary vein
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



The basilic vein continues as the axillary vein once it crosses the lower border of the teres major muscle. It is a major superficial vein of the upper limb.
Quick Tip: Cephalic and basilic are superficial veins; basilic transitions into the axillary vein deep in the arm.


Question 19:

Which one of the following is the smallest salivary gland?

  • (1) Prostate gland
  • (2) Parotid gland
  • (3) Submandibular gland
  • (4) Sublingual gland
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Among the major salivary glands, the sublingual gland is the smallest. It lies beneath the tongue and produces mainly mucous secretions. The parotid is the largest, followed by submandibular.
Quick Tip: The three major salivary glands in order of size: Parotid > Submandibular > Sublingual.


Question 20:

Assertion (A): The right kidney is lower than the left kidney.
Reason (R): The right hypochondrium is occupied by the liver.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

The right kidney lies slightly lower than the left kidney due to the presence of the liver in the right upper quadrant (right hypochondrium). This pushes the right kidney downward compared to the left.
Quick Tip: Anatomical positioning of organs can influence each other’s locations, especially in tightly packed regions like the abdomen.


Question 21:

The following muscles are in the Anterior compartment of thigh:

  • (A) Sartorius
  • (B) Vastus medialis
  • (C) Gracilis
  • (D) Vastus lateralis
  • (E) Pectineus
  • (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (2) (B), (D), and (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (C), (D) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

The anterior compartment of the thigh includes muscles responsible for hip flexion and knee extension. These include sartorius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis (all quadriceps components). Gracilis is medial, and pectineus is sometimes considered transitional.
Quick Tip: The quadriceps femoris group (including vastus medialis and lateralis) dominates the anterior compartment.


Question 22:

Statement I: The liver secretes the bile.

Statement II: The bile is stored into the gall bladder.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The liver is the organ that produces bile, which is essential for fat digestion. The gall bladder serves as the storage site for this bile until it is released into the duodenum.
Quick Tip: Bile is made by the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and used in the small intestine during digestion.


Question 23:

The following are the endocrine glands:

  • (A) Thyroid gland
  • (B) Adrenal gland
  • (C) Parotid gland
  • (D) Sublingual gland
  • (1) (B), (D) only
  • (2) (C), (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B) only
  • (4) (B), (C) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Thyroid and adrenal glands are endocrine glands. Parotid and sublingual glands are exocrine glands, producing saliva through ducts.
Quick Tip: Endocrine = hormone-producing, ductless; Exocrine = duct-based, like salivary glands.


Question 24:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

- Hip bone surrounds the obturator foramen – (A)-(II)
- Femur is the longest bone of the body – (B)-(IV)
- Patella forms from the quadriceps tendon – (C)-(I)
- Calcaneum is the largest tarsal bone – (D)-(III)
Quick Tip: Understanding bone locations and features is critical in orthopedics and radiology.


Question 25:

Which Dasanadi is involved in the motor activity of the spinal cord?

  • (1) Siguvai
  • (2) Sulumunai
  • (3) Sangini
  • (4) Purudan
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The Sulumunai is a Dasanadi (nerve channel) associated with motor activity in the spinal cord, influencing movement and function. This is significant in the Siddha system's understanding of the nervous system.
Quick Tip: The Siddha system identifies different Dasanadis that control various motor and sensory functions in the body.


Question 26:

Which one of the following food substances have the characteristics of Rajo Gunam?

  • (1) Radish/Mullangi
  • (2) Cuscus/Kasakasa
  • (3) Onion/Vengayam
  • (4) Coconut/Thenkai
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Rajo Gunam is associated with qualities such as activity and stimulation. Cuscus (Kasakasa) and similar foods are known for their stimulating and energizing properties, which correspond to Rajo Gunam in Siddha philosophy.
Quick Tip: Rajo Gunam relates to stimulation and action, often associated with foods that invigorate the body and mind.


Question 27:

How much is the time delay in transmission of pulse in Radial Artery?

  • (1) 0.02 second
  • (2) 0.08 second
  • (3) 0.07 second
  • (4) 0.04 second
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The pulse transmission delay in the radial artery is typically around 0.08 seconds, representing the time it takes for the pressure wave to travel through the arterial system. This delay can be affected by factors such as vascular health and arterial stiffness.
Quick Tip: Pulse transmission delay is a crucial indicator in vascular health and is often measured to assess arterial function.


Question 28:

In which condition excessive secretion of hydrochloric acid is found in the stomach?

  • (1) Sjögren's syndrome
  • (2) Hyper salivation
  • (3) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
  • (4) Cushing's syndrome
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by the development of tumors (gastrinomas) that result in excessive secretion of gastrin, leading to excessive hydrochloric acid production in the stomach. This causes peptic ulcers and gastrointestinal issues.
Quick Tip: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome involves tumors that overproduce gastrin, leading to hypersecretion of gastric acid.


Question 29:

What are the characteristics of "Frolich Syndrome"?

  • (1) Viropause
  • (2) Crypto orchidism
  • (3) Obesity and hypergonadism
  • (4) Obesity and hypogonadism
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Frolich syndrome is characterized by obesity and hypogonadism, a condition in which individuals experience excessive weight gain along with reduced function of the gonads (testes or ovaries), leading to decreased levels of sex hormones.
Quick Tip: Frolich syndrome often presents with obesity and secondary sexual characteristics due to the lack of gonadal function.


Question 30:

Assertion (A): Pitha Sethuma naadi is not a thontha naadi.
Reason (R): Vikkal, Iruthrogam, Karappan are the symptoms of deranged pitha sethuma naadi.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Pitha Sethuma naadi is not a thontha naadi, and its imbalance can lead to symptoms like Vikkal, Iruthrogam, and Karappan. These symptoms occur due to the disturbances in the Pitha dosha, but it doesn't directly relate to the Thontha naadi (the sensory channel).
Quick Tip: Understanding the difference between sensory and motor channels (Naadi) is crucial for diagnosing imbalances in Siddha medicine.


Question 31:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



- Somatostatin yy inhibits growth hormone secretion, making (A)-(III) correct.
- Peptide inhibits gastric motility (B)-(IV).
- GLP 2 inhibits gastric secretion and motility (C)-(I).
- Cholecystokinin suppresses appetite and is involved in digestive motility, matching (D)-(II).
Quick Tip: Hormones like somatostatin and peptide play significant roles in regulating digestion and growth processes.


Question 32:

What are the constituents of space element in Pancha bhootha Koorgal [Purakkaruvigal]?
(A) Fear
(B) Sleep
(C) Shyness
(D) Lying down
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (A) and (C) only
  • (4) (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



In the context of the Siddha system, the space element (Akasha) involves subtle energies and qualities like fear and sleep. These reflect the characteristics of the void or space that influence the body and mind.
Quick Tip: The space element in Siddha medicine involves psychological states that are intangible and subtle, affecting overall balance.


Question 33:

What are the symptoms caused by suppression of sleep, which is one of the 14 urges?
(A) Biramai
(B) Thalaikanappu
(C) Sevidu
(D) Kannothal
(E) Annam seriyamai
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C) only
  • (2) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (3) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (B), (C) only
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



The suppression of sleep affects several bodily functions, leading to symptoms like Thalaikanappu, Sevidu, and Annam seriyamai, all indicative of imbalance. These symptoms are manifestations of disturbed bodily rhythms due to lack of rest.
Quick Tip: Sleep is crucial for maintaining physical and mental health. Suppression can lead to a range of imbalances in Siddha medicine.


Question 34:

Assertion (A): "CRUSH SYNDROME" is a symptom of traumatic shock leading to renal failure.
Reason (R): Myoglobin and toxic substances released from the affected muscle damage renal tubules resulting in renal failure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Crush syndrome involves the release of myoglobin and other toxic substances from crushed muscles, which can lead to renal failure due to damage to the renal tubules. This explanation directly links the trauma to kidney damage, confirming both the assertion and reason.
Quick Tip: Crush syndrome is a serious medical condition and requires immediate intervention to prevent renal failure.


Question 35:

Which one of the following causes the pleomorphism and involution forms?

  • (1) Defective protein synthesis
  • (2) Defective DNA synthesis
  • (3) Improper cell division
  • (4) Defective cell wall synthesis
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Pleomorphism and involution forms in cellular structures often result from defective cell wall synthesis, leading to abnormal cell shapes and functions. This affects cell division and proliferation processes, impacting growth and adaptation.
Quick Tip: Cell wall defects can lead to structural changes that manifest as pleomorphism in cells.


Question 36:

Which one of the following diseases is caused by Bacillus cereus?

  • (1) Skin lesions
  • (2) Respiratory diseases
  • (3) Food poisoning
  • (4) Gastrointestinal disorders
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Bacillus cereus is a bacterium responsible for food poisoning, often associated with improperly stored rice or other food items, causing symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea.
Quick Tip: Proper food handling and storage are essential to prevent foodborne illnesses like those caused by Bacillus cereus.


Question 37:

Which one of the following cells is a single type, capable of continuous and serial proliferation?

  • (1) Diploid cell strains
  • (2) Human amnion cell culture
  • (3) Primary cell cultures
  • (4) Continuous cell lines
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Continuous cell lines are immortalized cells that can divide continuously and are commonly used in research and biotechnology for prolonged culture. These cells are capable of serial proliferation.
Quick Tip: Continuous cell lines are invaluable for laboratory work, especially in producing vaccines or studying cell behavior over time.


Question 38:

Based on the morphological form, which one of these is classified as "Yeast-like fungus"?

  • (1) Histoplasma capsulatum
  • (2) Dermatophytes
  • (3) Paracoccidioidomycoses
  • (4) Candida albicans
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Candida albicans is a yeast-like fungus that exhibits a characteristic morphology in both its yeast and filamentous forms. It is a common pathogen causing infections, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
Quick Tip: Candida is a common yeast that can cause opportunistic infections, particularly in people with weakened immune systems.


Question 39:

Which one of the following is not a method of Moist Heat sterilization?

  • (1) Boiling
  • (2) Autoclave
  • (3) Hot Air Oven
  • (4) Pasteurization
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Hot air oven is not a method of moist heat sterilization. It uses dry heat to sterilize, unlike the autoclave, boiling, and pasteurization methods, which utilize moist heat.
Quick Tip: Moist heat methods like autoclaving are more efficient in sterilization compared to dry heat methods.


Question 40:

Choose the plant prohibited to export from India:

  • (1) Cycas beddomei
  • (2) Terminalia arjuna
  • (3) Sterculia urens
  • (4) Terminalia paniculata
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Cycas beddomei is one of the plants prohibited from export due to its potential ecological and conservation risks. This plant is considered endangered and is not allowed to be exported from India.
Quick Tip: Conservation efforts often include restricting the trade of endangered species to protect biodiversity.


Question 41:

The percentage of Sennosides present in Indian Senna:

  • (1) 2.5%
  • (2) 3.5%
  • (3) 4.5%
  • (4) 5.5%
Correct Answer: (1), (2), (3)
View Solution



Indian Senna typically contains Sennosides ranging from 2.5% to 4.5%, which are the active compounds responsible for its laxative effects. The content may vary based on cultivation conditions and preparation methods.
Quick Tip: Senna is widely used as a natural laxative due to its high sennoside content.


Question 42:

What chemical kills the eggs of herbarium beetle?

  • (1) Mercury
  • (2) Arsenic
  • (3) Carbondisulphide
  • (4) Carbon tetrachloride
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Carbondisulphide is a chemical known to effectively kill the eggs of herbarium beetles, which often damage preserved plant specimens. This chemical is used for fumigation purposes in botanical collections.
Quick Tip: Fumigation with chemicals is an important step in preserving herbarium specimens and preventing damage from pests.


Question 43:

Insert Stem: Choose the correct statements about Hemidesmus indicus

  • (A) Indian Sarasaparilla is Hemidesmus indicus
  • (B) Hemidesmus indicus roots are used in urinary disorders
  • (C) It is a substitute of Decalepis hamiltonii
  • (D) Belongs to Apocynaceae family
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (B) and (C) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Hemidesmus indicus, commonly known as Indian Sarasaparilla, is used for its medicinal properties, especially in treating urinary disorders. It also serves as a substitute for Decalepis hamiltonii in traditional medicine.
Quick Tip: Hemidesmus indicus is a well-known herb in Ayurveda and Siddha for its detoxifying and diuretic effects.


Question 44:

Match List I with List II:


\begin{tabular{ll
List I & List II

  • (A) Persian Lilac & (I) Limonia acidissima
  • (B) Wood Apple & (II) Adenanthera pavonina
  • (C) Geocarpic fruit & (III) Melia azedarach
  • (D) Red seeds & (IV) Arachis hypogaea
    \end{tabular}
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



- Persian Lilac corresponds to Limonia acidissima (A)-(I)
- Wood Apple corresponds to Adenanthera pavonina (B)-(II)
- Geocarpic fruit corresponds to Melia azedarach (C)-(III)
- Red seeds correspond to Arachis hypogaea (D)-(IV)
Quick Tip: The matching of plant species with their scientific names is important in botany and herbal medicine.


Question 45:

Herb having astringent action:

  • (1) Prickly chaff/Nayuruvi
  • (2) Indian acalypha/Kuppaimeni
  • (3) Datura/Oomathai
  • (4) Indian Mulberry/Nuna
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Prickly chaff (Nayuruvi) has astringent properties, often used in traditional medicine to treat various conditions like diarrhea and wound healing. This herb is well-known for its ability to tighten tissues.
Quick Tip: Astringent herbs like Nayuruvi are commonly used in Ayurvedic and Siddha medicine for their ability to control discharge and bleeding.


Question 46:

The drug used in preparation of silai thailam:

  • (1) Manosilai
  • (2) Sathilingam
  • (3) Miruthar singi
  • (4) Kaantham
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Sathilingam is the primary drug used in the preparation of Silai Thailam, a traditional oil used in Siddha medicine for various therapeutic purposes.
Quick Tip: Silai Thailam is an important part of Siddha therapeutics for its muscle-relaxing and pain-relieving properties.


Question 47:

The main raw drug used in the preparation of Impooral Vadagam:

  • (1) Kadugu
  • (2) Thippili
  • (3) Milagu
  • (4) Chukku
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Milagu (Black Pepper) is the main raw drug used in the preparation of Impoorals Vadagam, a traditional medicinal preparation used in various ailments.
Quick Tip: Milagu is well known in Siddha medicine for its anti-inflammatory and digestive properties.


Question 48:

The bio product used for kayasiddhi:

  • (1) Cow's urine
  • (2) Human urine
  • (3) Elephants urine
  • (4) Donkey's urine
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Human urine is used in kayasiddhi, a form of Ayurvedic detoxification therapy. It is believed to have various medicinal properties when used in proper proportions.
Quick Tip: In traditional systems like Siddha, urine therapy is utilized for its detoxifying and healing potential.


Question 49:

The number of days for grinding in the preparation of Sivanarammirtham:

  • (1) 11 days
  • (2) 8 days
  • (3) 7 days
  • (4) 5 days
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



In the preparation of Sivanarammirtham, the grinding process takes 7 days to ensure proper consistency and potency of the medicine. This time frame is crucial for the correct preparation of this traditional formulation.
Quick Tip: The grinding process in traditional medicine is often extended to allow the active ingredients to blend properly.


Question 50:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The chronic diseases treated by mercury is cured by Serankottai.
Reason (R) : Serankottai is used in the medicine preparation only after purification.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The assertion states that mercury is used for treating chronic diseases, and Serankottai is mentioned as being helpful in this treatment. While it is true that Serankottai is used in traditional medicine, the reason stating it is used only after purification is not an accurate explanation for why mercury treats chronic diseases. Therefore, both statements are correct, but the reason provided does not explain the assertion accurately.
Quick Tip: When verifying an assertion and its reason, make sure the reason genuinely explains the assertion, not just confirming its truth.


Question 51:

The components of Thiri Ilavangam are
(A) Kirambu
(B) Agil
(C) Sirunagapoo
(D) Shenbagapoo
(E) Shathipathiri
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (E) only
  • (2) (C), (D), (A) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (D) only
  • (4) (A), (E), (D) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Thiri Ilavangam is a traditional medicinal formulation that comprises a mixture of specific herbs. The correct components include Kirambu, Agil, and Shenbagapoo, which have therapeutic uses in various conditions. The other components are not part of this formulation.
Quick Tip: Always verify traditional medicine formulas by checking each herb's role and verifying the ingredients in established pharmacological sources.


Question 52:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Padu, Istigai are the synonyms of Navacharam (Ammonium Chloride).
Reason (R) : Navacharam in excess dose causes diarrhoea.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Both statements are correct. Padu and Istigai are indeed the synonyms for Navacharam, which is commonly used in traditional medicine. Also, taking Navacharam in excessive amounts can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhoea, confirming both the assertion and the reason.
Quick Tip: When studying traditional herbal formulations, always ensure that the pharmacological effects and synonyms of medicinal herbs are well understood and verified.


Question 53:

Along with Nochi leaves, the other ingredients of Nochi Kudineer are
(A) Poondhu
(B) Milagu
(C) Kammaru Vettrilai
(D) Thippili
(E) Chukku

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (C), (D), (E) only
  • (2) (C), (D), (A) only
  • (3) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) only
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Nochi Kudineer is a traditional herbal preparation known for its detoxifying and therapeutic properties. In addition to Nochi leaves, Poondhu, Milagu, Kammaru Vettrilai, Thippili, and Chukku are used for their specific therapeutic effects, making all listed ingredients part of the formulation.
Quick Tip: Ensure to cross-check traditional remedies and their ingredients for their therapeutic synergy when preparing formulations.


Question 54:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The different forms of Thinai (a grain) have specific roles in traditional medicine. Thinai arisi helps to reduce vayu and strengthens the body, Thinai kanji eliminates Kapham, Thinai saatham strengthens the body, and Thinai maa helps eliminate dropsy. This matches with the correct combinations in option (2).
Quick Tip: Herbal formulations often have multiple types based on preparation methods, and these formulations are used for different therapeutic outcomes. Always match the preparation method with its intended effect.


Question 55:

How many number of "Varati" (cow dung) are used for "Kowthari Pudam"?

  • (1) Ten varati
  • (2) One varati
  • (3) Three varati
  • (4) Fifty varati
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



In the traditional preparation of Kowthari Pudam, three varati (cow dung cakes) are used. These are known for their role in purification and creating a specific thermal environment for the therapeutic process.
Quick Tip: When learning about traditional practices, pay attention to the specific quantities and measures used for therapeutic purposes, as they are key to the efficacy of the treatment.


Question 56:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : "Ganthi Melugu" is one of the Araippu Melugu.
Reason (R) : Ganthi Melugu is used for Siruneraaga noigal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



While the assertion is true that Ganthi Melugu is part of Araippu Melugu, the reason provided does not exactly explain its use for Siruneraaga noigal (lesser known diseases). Therefore, while both statements are true, the reason is not directly explaining the assertion.
Quick Tip: When reading statements about traditional remedies, make sure the reason clearly justifies the assertion, and not just coincidentally aligns with it.


Question 57:

Match the following:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV), (E)-(V)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(V), (E)-(I)
  • (3) (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (D)-(IV), (A)-(V), (E)-(I)
  • (4) (E)-(V), (D)-(IV), (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (A)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

This question involves matching traditional decoctions and Kudineers to their correct formulations. The correct matches are as follows: Ooral Kudineer with Santhanooral Kudineer, Boiled decoction with Nilavembu Kudineer, and so on. The correct set is option (1).
Quick Tip: When dealing with traditional remedies, always ensure to match formulations to their corresponding preparations and dosage forms. These associations are crucial for accurate application.


Question 58:

How many number of raw drugs are added in the Nilavembu Kudineer?

  • (1) 10 raw drugs
  • (2) 7 raw drugs
  • (3) 11 raw drugs
  • (4) 9 raw drugs
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Nilavembu Kudineer is a traditional herbal preparation used to treat various ailments, and it consists of 9 raw ingredients. The effectiveness of this formulation lies in the specific combination of these ingredients.
Quick Tip: Always count the raw ingredients precisely when learning about traditional formulations, as the correct combination is vital for the desired medicinal effect.


Question 59:

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV), (E)-(V)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(V), (E)-(I)
  • (3) (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (D)-(IV), (A)-(V), (E)-(I)
  • (4) (E)-(V), (D)-(IV), (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (A)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



In traditional herbal remedies, Ooral Kudineer corresponds with Santhanooral Kudineer, Boiled decoction matches with Nilavembu Kudineer, and other specific decoctions align as indicated. Therefore, the correct matching is option (1).
Quick Tip: For herbal remedies, it's important to remember that the preparation method and ratio of ingredients significantly influence the effectiveness of the remedy.


Question 60:

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV), (E)-(V)
  • (2) (D)-(IV), (E)-(V), (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (A)-(I)
  • (3) (C)-(III), (B)-(II), (D)-(IV), (A)-(V), (E)-(I)
  • (4) (B)-(II), (A)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III), (E)-(V)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct matching corresponds to the amount of decoction used for each purpose. Internal decoction uses 1/8, Gargling decoction uses 1/16, Enema uses 1/18, Washing uses 1/8, and medicated oil decoction uses 1/4. Therefore, the correct matching is option (1).
Quick Tip: The correct dosage of decoction for each type of application (internal, gargling, etc.) ensures effective medicinal benefit without overuse or side effects.


Question 61:

Find out the correct pairing:


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (D) only
  • (2) (C), (A), (D) only
  • (3) (B), (D), (C) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) only
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The correct pairing involves Panjakaviyam with Cow milk, Cow curd, Cow butter, Cow urine, and Cowdung, and Panjamoolam with Chukku and other herbs. Therefore, the correct answer is option (1).
Quick Tip: When dealing with herbal medicine preparations, it's vital to ensure the herbs and ingredients are paired correctly for maximum therapeutic efficacy.


Question 62:

Which Gulhai is prepared using excreta of donkey?

  • (1) Pancha bhootha Gulhai
  • (2) Pancha Chunna Gulhai
  • (3) Urukku Gulhai
  • (4) Vajra Moosai
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Urukku Gulhai is the one prepared using the excreta of donkeys, a traditional practice in herbal and medicinal formulations.
Quick Tip: In certain traditional practices, animal excreta may be used in controlled quantities to harness specific therapeutic properties in formulations.


Question 63:

While consuming this medicine, it is beneficial to take bath with Ashwagandhi Thylam:

  • (1) Parangi Pattai Rasayanam
  • (2) Gandaga Parpam
  • (3) Karisalai Ilagam
  • (4) Asta Bairava mathirai
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Karisalai Ilagam is the medicine for which it is beneficial to take a bath with Ashwagandhi Thylam to enhance its effects.
Quick Tip: Bathing with medicinal oils or powders like Ashwagandhi Thylam can enhance the effectiveness of the remedy by promoting absorption and soothing the body.


Question 64:

Which of the following are adulterated using Lantana indica seeds (UNNI)?

  • (1) Flax seeds
  • (2) Pepper
  • (3) Mustard
  • (4) Sabja Seeds
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Pepper is commonly adulterated with Lantana indica seeds (UNNI), a practice that can go undetected unless proper identification is performed.
Quick Tip: It's essential to ensure the authenticity of spices and seeds through quality checks to prevent adulteration and maintain health standards.


Question 65:

Which bootham divides the fertilized Zygote into Thathu and Dosham?

  • (1) Fire
  • (2) Air
  • (3) Earth
  • (4) Water
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Air is considered to be the bootham that divides the fertilized Zygote into Thathu and Dosham, reflecting the ancient understanding of elemental forces in biological processes.
Quick Tip: Understanding the role of elemental forces (boothams) in traditional medicine can give insights into how ancient cultures interpreted human physiology.


Question 66:

Which is indicated by the passage of milky white urine?

  • (1) Tuberculosis
  • (2) Fever
  • (3) Poisoning
  • (4) Dryness of the body
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



The passage of milky white urine is often a sign of tuberculosis, particularly related to the lymphatic system and kidneys.
Quick Tip: The appearance of milky urine should be treated with caution and investigated as a potential sign of an underlying medical condition like tuberculosis.


Question 67:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Manikadainool is used for specific symptoms, with the different lengths indicating corresponding symptoms such as Gunmam, Haematemesis, Aversion to food, and Smoky vision. Therefore, the correct pairing is option (1).
Quick Tip: Manikadainool is a traditional herb used to treat a variety of ailments, with different dosages correlating to distinct symptoms.


Question 68:

Choose the correct answer:
(A) Vatha pitha Thontham is the cause for piles
(B) Vatha Kutram is the root cause for pain
(C) Pitham is the root cause for hiccup
(D) Kabam is the root cause for Gunmam
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (D) only
  • (2) (B) and (C) only
  • (3) (A) and (B) only
  • (4) (D) and (C) only
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



In traditional medicine, Vatha pitha Thontham causes piles, while Vatha Kutram is linked to pain, as per classical texts. Therefore, option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: Understanding the root causes of ailments in traditional medicine is essential to selecting the right treatment based on the imbalance of doshas.


Question 69:

In which type of fever, there will be herpes-like blisters in nostrils?

  • (1) Venjuram
  • (2) Ulla suram
  • (3) Meni suram
  • (4) Senkarai suram
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Herpes-like blisters in the nostrils are characteristic of Venjuram fever, which is typically accompanied by other symptoms like fever and inflammation.
Quick Tip: Herpes outbreaks in the nostrils are often linked to viral infections, such as during fever, and should be treated accordingly.


Question 70:

Which disease is called as mozhukkan?

  • (1) Kadukammai
  • (2) Milagammai
  • (3) Kollammai
  • (4) Upputhari ammai
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Milagammai is traditionally referred to as "mozhukkan" in Siddha medicine, indicating a specific type of ailment. Quick Tip: Understanding traditional disease names helps in correlating Siddha terminology with modern medical conditions.


Question 71:

Arrange the following:

(A) Sutha Suram

(B) Kanthatha suram

(C) Nangam murai suram

(D) Kayum suram

(E) Moondram murai suram

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
  • (2) (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)
  • (3) (D), (A), (B), (E), (C)
  • (4) (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The correct sequence of fevers in Siddha medicine is Kanthatha suram, Sutha Suram, Kayum suram, Moondram murai suram, and Nangam murai suram. Quick Tip: Sequencing fevers in Siddha reflects their progression and severity in diagnosis.


Question 72:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Asuva vatham causes contraction of penis.
Statement II: Thanthira Vethvatham affects the scrotum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Both statements are correct as per Siddha texts: Asuva vatham affects the penis, and Thanthira Vethvatham impacts the scrotum. Quick Tip: Vatham-related disorders in Siddha often target specific genital organs.


Question 73:

Among the following seasons, which season falls under Aathana kaalam?

  • (1) Kaarkaalam, Munganikaalam
  • (2) Pinpanikaalam, Muthuvenilkalam
  • (3) Munganikaalam, Pinpanikaalam
  • (4) Ilavenilkaalam, Koothirkaalam
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Aathana kaalam includes Pinpanikaalam (early winter) and Muthuvenilkalam (late spring). Quick Tip: Siddha seasons (kaalams) are critical for timing treatments and lifestyle practices.


Question 74:

In which months should one do exercise and take oil bath with vathathallams after getting up from sleep?

  • (1) Aavani, Puratasi
  • (2) Maasi, Panguni
  • (3) Chithirai, Vaikasi
  • (4) Maarkazhi, Thai
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Maarkazhi (Dec-Jan) and Thai (Jan-Feb) are ideal for oil baths and exercise to balance Vatha dosha. Quick Tip: Winter months in Tamil calendar align with Vatha-pacifying routines.


Question 75:

Arrange the following medicines prescribed for normal delivery in Pararasa sekaram according to gestational period:

A. Muthakkasu, Vilampinchu, Neitherkizhangu

B. Kacholam, Amanakkuver, Neitherkizhangu

C. Saaranakizhangu, Iluppaipoo, Neitherkizhangu

D. Muthakkasu, Inji, Neitherkizhangu

E. Seenthirthandu, Nilappanakizhangu, Neitherkizhangu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C, D, E
  • (2) B, A, D, E, C
  • (3) D, E, C, B, A
  • (4) C, D, A, E, B
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

The correct sequence is D (early pregnancy), E (mid-pregnancy), C (late pregnancy), B (pre-labor), and A (delivery). Quick Tip: Herbal combinations in Siddha are stage-specific for safe childbirth.


Question 76:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

West aligns with Pushkum arai, North with Thanathania kalanjium, Northwest with Pasuthozhuvam, and Southeast with Samayal pannunnidam. Quick Tip: Direction-based herb associations are unique to Siddha’s geographical pharmacology.


Question 77:

Which of the following is related to Shapiro rule?

  • (1) Adipocere
  • (2) Rigor mortis
  • (3) Decomposition
  • (4) Mummification
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Shapiro’s rule estimates time of death based on rigor mortis progression in tropical climates. Quick Tip: Forensic rules like Shapiro’s are vital for accurate postmortem intervals.


Question 78:

Pseudocyesis is found in:

  • (1) Young married women
  • (2) Aged unmarried girls
  • (3) Menopausal ladies
  • (4) Adolescent girls
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Pseudocyesis (false pregnancy) is most common in young married women due to psychological factors. Quick Tip: Cultural and emotional stressors often trigger pseudocyesis.


Question 79:

'Vaccine' is categorized under which schedule of Drugs and Cosmetic Act Rules 1945?

  • (1) Schedule E
  • (2) Schedule F
  • (3) Schedule H
  • (4) Schedule L
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Vaccines are regulated under Schedule F of the Drugs and Cosmetic Act, ensuring safety standards. Quick Tip: Schedule F specifies storage, labeling, and potency requirements for vaccines.


Question 80:

List out the following post-mortem changes in ascending order according to the onset:

A. Rigor mortis

B. Adipocere

C. Cooling of the body

D. Putrefaction

E. Post-mortem hypostasis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) E, D, C, B, A
  • (2) A, B, C, D, E
  • (3) B, C, E, A, D
  • (4) C, E, A, D, B
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

The correct sequence is: Cooling (C), Hypostasis (E), Rigor mortis (A), Putrefaction (D), and Adipocere (B), reflecting their typical progression after death. Quick Tip: Understanding post-mortem changes helps forensic experts estimate time of death accurately.


Question 81:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Lateral incisor erupts at 7–9 years (II), second molar at 12–14 years (III), second premolar at 10–12 years (I), and canine at 11–12 years (IV). Quick Tip: Dental eruption timelines are key for age estimation in pediatric dentistry.


Question 82:

Following are the primary effects of oxalic acid in humans:

A. Work as a nutrient supplement enhancing calcium absorption

B. Locally corrosive to skin and mucosa

C. Induces cardiovascular shock and leads to death

D. Causes hypocalcemia by extracting tissue calcium

E. Leads to renal system failure and uremia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B, C and E only
  • (3) A, D and E only
  • (4) B, C, D and E only
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Oxalic acid is corrosive (B), causes hypocalcemia (D), cardiovascular shock (C), and renal failure (E). It does not enhance calcium absorption (A is false). Quick Tip: Oxalic acid toxicity primarily disrupts calcium metabolism and organ function.


Question 83:

In which of the following stars, when fever occurs, leads to mortality?

  • (1) Hastham
  • (2) Ayjiyam
  • (3) Poosam
  • (4) Pooram
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Ayjiyam (Ashlesha in Vedic astrology) is traditionally associated with severe febrile illnesses and mortality in Siddha medicine. Quick Tip: Siddha correlates celestial events with disease prognosis and treatment timing.


Question 84:

Which disease is cured by Aththikkal (Toddy) with peyan pazham coral neer?

  • (1) Gunmam
  • (2) Kulir suram
  • (3) Anthaga sanni
  • (4) Vellai noi
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Kulir suram (cold fever) is treated with this formulation due to its warming properties in Siddha. Quick Tip: Fermented preparations like toddy are used judiciously for their therapeutic effects.


Question 85:

Which disease is treated by sembu parpam with punugu?

  • (1) Chronic Gunnam
  • (2) Chronic Soolai
  • (3) Chronic Sobai
  • (4) Chronic Cough
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Sembu parpam (a calcined preparation) with punugu (civet oil) is specific for chronic cough in Siddha. Quick Tip: Calcined metals in Siddha are processed to eliminate toxicity while enhancing efficacy.


Question 86:

Which of the following soolai is incurable?

  • (1) Ukkara Soolai
  • (2) Thoora Soolai
  • (3) Pakka Soolai
  • (4) Sura Soolai
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Ukkara Soolai is considered incurable due to its severe pathology involving deep tissues. Quick Tip: Siddha classifies diseases based on curability, guiding palliative care approaches.


Question 87:

Which disease causes crow’s eyes-like eyes and monkey’s ears-like ears?

  • (1) Veri Noi
  • (2) Soolai Noi
  • (3) Sobai Noi
  • (4) Ulaimanthai
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Sobai Noi manifests with these distinct facial deformities due to chronic inflammation. Quick Tip: Unique symptom descriptors in Siddha aid in differential diagnosis.


Question 88:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In valha upagadham, there will be impotence and ear blockage.
Statement II: In this disease, sea tides-like buzzing sound will occur in ears.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Valha upagadham causes impotence and ear blockage (I), but the buzzing sound (II) is not documented in classical texts. Quick Tip: Accurate referencing of traditional texts ensures correct interpretation of symptoms.


Question 89:

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): "Pakka marithara inumal" starts before and after Newmoon day.
Reason (R): When it occurs in postpartum women, it kills.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) explains (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
  • (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

The timing assertion (A) is correct, but the lethality in postpartum women (R) is not substantiated. Quick Tip: Lunar phases influence certain diseases in Siddha, but claims require evidence.


Question 90:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Vembukudineer treats Vali mukkutra suram (A-III), Nathai Ney for appetite loss in TB (B-I), Maramanjal kudineer for Kazhichal (C-IV), and Ilavanga llagam for diabetes (D-II). Quick Tip: Siddha formulations are disease-specific; accurate matching ensures therapeutic efficacy.


Question 91:

Rearrange the diseases according to their chronic conditions:

A. Ratha Peenisam

B. Mulai Peenisam

C. Seezh Peenisam

D. Neer Peenisam

E. Siray Peenisam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) D, A, C, B, E
  • (2) D, A, C, E, B
  • (3) D, A, B, E, C
  • (4) A, D, B, E, C
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The chronicity order is: Neer Peenisam (D), Ratha Peenisam (A), Seezh Peenisam (C), Siray Peenisam (E), and Mulai Peenisam (B). Quick Tip: Chronicity grading in Siddha guides long-term management strategies.


Question 92:

Select the correct statements about Sobal Noi:

A. The medicine for Anasarca is Keezha nellijuice and bedhi uppu

B. In Anasarca, testes swell up very big as a bag

C. Apply saltpetre and rat’s excreta for swelling

D. Alli Kizhangu podi may be given for anasarca

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C Only
  • (2) B and D Only
  • (3) A and B Only
  • (4) C and D Only
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Anasarca causes bag-like testicular swelling (B), and Alli Kizhangu podi is a documented remedy (D). Statements A and C are incorrect. Quick Tip: Siddha uses distinct clinical signs and plant-based therapies for edema management.


Question 93:

Which disease is indicated for Neichitti Kizhangu sirappu karpam?

  • (1) Napunjakam
  • (2) Maladu
  • (3) Neerizhivu
  • (4) Venkuttam
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Venkuttam (a type of arthritis) is treated with Neichitti Kizhangu sirappu karpam for its anti-inflammatory properties. Quick Tip: Karpam therapies in Siddha rejuvenate joints and connective tissues.


Question 94:

Which leaf juice is used for bleeding due to trauma in varma points?

  • (1) Chardana pulladi leaf
  • (2) Thumbai leaf
  • (3) Kalmoongil leaf
  • (4) Aanai Nerurgil leaf
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Chardana pulladi leaf juice is a hemostatic agent in Varma therapy for traumatic bleeding. Quick Tip: Varma points require precise herbal interventions to stop bleeding and restore energy flow.


Question 95:

Which porridge is served for trauma in "Adappa Varman"?

  • (1) Then + Vlivaver
  • (2) Kirambu + Kurunthotti
  • (3) Venkayam + Vlivaver
  • (4) Vendayam + Amirthavalli
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Vendayam (fenugreek) with Amirthavalli (Giloy) porridge promotes healing in Adappa Varman injuries. Quick Tip: Diet therapy in Siddha accelerates recovery from musculoskeletal trauma.


Question 96:

The following statements about Varman and its locations are correct:

A. Kamadi varman is located in the middle part of the nose.

B. Boomi kalam is located in the palm.

C. Amai varman is located in the middle part of the thigh.

D. Cirattai varman is located in the knee.

E. Kuthirai varman is located in the shoulder.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C Only
  • (2) A, C and D Only
  • (3) B, C and E Only
  • (4) A, D and E Only
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Kamadi varman (nose), Amai varman (thigh), and Cirattai varman (knee) are correctly located. Quick Tip: Varman points are vital energy centers; mislocation can lead to ineffective treatment.


Question 97:

Are the following statements about muppu correct?

(A) Breathing exercise is called Vayu Dharanai

(B) Stimulating Kundalini is called Anki Dharanai

(C) Drinking Somaneer is called Amuri Dharanai

(D) Yoga muppu has pungent and salt tastes

(E) Valdhya muppu is also called ‘vedhai’

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (3) (B), (D) and (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Vayu Dharanai (A), Anki Dharanai (B), and Yoga muppu’s tastes (D) are correct. Statements C and E are inaccurate. Quick Tip: Muppu practices integrate breath control, energy activation, and taste-based therapies.


Question 98:

Match List I with List II:


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Unmashham links to Ariazhiwu (A-III), Matha Azhiwu to udal thathukkal destruction (B-I), Chenukku to increased thathukkal (C-IV), and Brahmal to Pathiyam (D-II). Quick Tip: Siddha pathology classifies diseases based on tissue-level imbalances (thathukkal).


Question 99:

Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Touching veemanoli and vail oil points revives unconscious patients.
Reason (R): These are adankal (vital) points.
Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) explains (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
  • (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Stimulating adankal points (R) can restore consciousness (A), as per Varma therapy principles. Quick Tip: Varma points are emergency revival sites in Siddha first aid.


Question 100:

Which one of the following asanam stimulates the thyroid gland?

  • (1) Batchimothasanam
  • (2) Salabasanam
  • (3) Sarvangasanam
  • (4) Trikonasanam
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Sarvangasanam (Shoulder Stand) stimulates the thyroid gland by increasing blood flow to the neck region, regulating hormone production. Quick Tip: Yoga asanas like Sarvangasanam are therapeutic for endocrine disorders but should be practiced under guidance.


Question 101:

"Sun Bath" is best for:

  • (1) Inducing perspiration
  • (2) Vatha associated sanni nokal
  • (3) Parkitum sanninoi
  • (4) Kapha noi
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Sun baths are prescribed in Siddha for Vatha-imbalance disorders (sanni nokal) due to their warming and grounding effects. Quick Tip: Controlled sun exposure balances Vatha dosha but should avoid peak UV hours.


Question 102:

Which one of the following is prepared with rice powder?

  • (1) Kalimbu
  • (2) Pasai
  • (3) Podi
  • (4) Kali
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Kali is a traditional Siddha medicinal preparation made by boiling rice powder with herbs to form a porridge-like consistency. Quick Tip: Rice-based preparations like Kali are easily digestible and used as vehicles for herbal therapeutics.


Question 103:

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The condition where pus discharges from the lower lid is called 'Kuwazhai yippuruth'.
Reason (R): Eyes are compared to 'Kuwazhai flower', hence the name.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

The naming convention (R) directly explains the clinical term (A) as per Siddha ophthalmology texts. Quick Tip: Siddha often uses poetic analogies (like flowers) to describe anatomical features and pathologies.


Question 104:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: "Madangal" is used for surgery in "Naga Padalam".
Statement II: "Viltsam" is used to cauterize in Naga Padalam.

Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) Both Statement I and II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but II is true
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Neither Madangal nor Viltsam are documented instruments in classical Naga Padalam surgical texts. Quick Tip: Authentic Siddha surgical instruments are named explicitly in texts like "Agastiyar Paripuranam."


Question 105:

Which is the prescribed treatment for 'THOI THADAPPU'?

  • (1) Kara Maruthuvam
  • (2) Aruvai Maruthuvam
  • (3) Kuruthivangal
  • (4) Deva Maruthuvam
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Aruvai Maruthuvam (herbal fumigation) is indicated for THOI THADAPPU (a type of ulcer) to promote healing. Quick Tip: Fumigation therapies in Siddha sterilize wounds and enhance tissue regeneration.


Question 106:

What "breath smell" is felt in Hyperemesis gravidarum?

  • (1) Ammonia smell
  • (2) Acetone smell
  • (3) Normal smell
  • (4) Acidic smell
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Ketosis from prolonged vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum produces an acetone-like breath odor. Quick Tip: Breath analysis can be a non-invasive diagnostic clue for metabolic disturbances in pregnancy.


Question 107:

What is the volume of amniotic fluid in the 10th week of gestation?

  • (1) 30 ml
  • (2) 60 ml
  • (3) 90 ml
  • (4) 100 ml
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Amniotic fluid volume at 10 weeks is approximately 30 ml, increasing progressively with gestational age. Quick Tip: Amniotic fluid volume is a key marker for fetal well-being in prenatal assessments.


Question 108:

The placenta is termed "retained" if not expelled within ........ minutes postpartum.

  • (1) 20-30 min
  • (2) 30 min
  • (3) 20 min
  • (4) 30-40 min
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Retained placenta is clinically defined as non-expulsion beyond 30-40 minutes after delivery, requiring intervention. Quick Tip: Timely management of retained placenta prevents hemorrhage and infection.


Question 109:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ears form in the 5th month (Agathiyar).
Statement II: Nails form in the 6th month (Yugi).

Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) Both Statements I and II are true
  • (2) Both Statements I and II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but II is true
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Both align with Siddha embryology: ear development in the 5th month and nail formation in the 6th month. Quick Tip: Siddha embryology correlates fetal development with lunar months, emphasizing organogenesis timelines.


Question 110:

Choose the correct order of cardinal movements of descent of fetus during normal labour.

(A) Extension

(B) Flexion

(C) Restitution

(D) Internal rotation

(E) External rotation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
  • (2) (B), (D), (A), (C), (E)
  • (3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
  • (4) (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

The cardinal movements occur in this sequence: Flexion (B), Internal rotation (D), Extension (A), Restitution (C), and External rotation (E). Quick Tip: Understanding fetal descent mechanics is crucial for managing normal and obstructed labor.


Question 111:

In which book is "Poora mathirai" mentioned?

  • (1) Agathiyar Ayul Marai
  • (2) Simittu Raththina Surukkam
  • (3) Ayothidasar Balavagadam
  • (4) Theran Vagadam
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

"Poora mathirai" (a Siddha formulation) is documented in Simittu Raththina Surukkam, a classical Siddha text. Quick Tip: Classical texts are primary references for authentic Siddha formulations and their indications.


Question 112:

Disease occurring period for "Singi Mantha Kanam":

  • (1) Upto 9 Yrs
  • (2) Upto 10–11 Yrs
  • (3) Upto 12 Yrs
  • (4) Upto 13 Yrs
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

"Singi Mantha Kanam" (a pediatric respiratory condition) typically affects children up to 13 years of age. Quick Tip: Age-specific diseases in Siddha guide targeted therapies for different growth stages.


Question 113:

Which one of the following diseases is incurable?

  • (1) Ama Kanam
  • (2) Ama Suram
  • (3) Nachchu Suram
  • (4) Vedi Karappan
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

"Nachchu Suram" (a type of chronic fever) is considered incurable in Siddha texts due to its complex pathology. Quick Tip: Siddha classifies diseases based on curability to prioritize palliative or aggressive treatments.


Question 114:

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): "Kaanā Rasayanam" treats all types of "Kanam".
Reason (R): Dosage is "Payaralawi" once daily for 9 days.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
  • (3) (A) is false but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the assertion.

The statement (A) says that "Kaanā Rasayanam" treats all types of "Kanam", which is not entirely true. "Kaanā Rasayanam" is specific in its treatment and may not address every type of "Kanam" (an ailment).

Step 2: Analyzing the reason.

The reason (R) provides the dosage of "Payaralawi" as once daily for 9 days. This is accurate and consistent with traditional practices for the treatment mentioned.

Step 3: Evaluating the relationship between assertion and reason.

While the reason (R) is correct regarding the dosage of "Payaralawi", it does not directly explain the assertion (A), since (A) is incorrect about the scope of treatment. Therefore, the correct option is that the assertion (A) is false, but the reason (R) is true. Quick Tip: In multiple-choice questions involving both assertion and reasoning, make sure to evaluate the validity of both statements independently before determining their relationship.


Question 115:

List the pediatric diseases in chronological order:

(A) Kiranthi

(B) Maantham

(C) Kanam

(D) Thodam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
  • (3) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

The sequence is Kiranthi (neonatal), Thodam (infancy), Maantham (toddler), and Kanam (childhood). Quick Tip: Age-wise disease classification aids in developmental stage-specific interventions.


Question 116:

The probability that a disease-free individual will have a negative test result is:

  • (1) Sensitivity
  • (2) Specificity
  • (3) Predictive value
  • (4) Likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Specificity measures the test's ability to correctly identify disease-free individuals (true negatives). Quick Tip: High specificity reduces false positives, crucial for screening tests.


Question 117:

The use of probability to draw conclusions about populations from sample data is:

  • (1) Sample statistics
  • (2) Descriptive statistics
  • (3) Population statistics
  • (4) Inferential statistics
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Inferential statistics generalize findings from samples to populations using probability laws. Quick Tip: Inferential methods include hypothesis testing and confidence intervals.


Question 118:

Arrange the data analysis steps in sequence:

(A) Identify variables

(B) Familiarize with data

(C) Identify study type

(D) Examine exposure-outcome association

(E) Create two-way tables

Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  • (2) (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)
  • (4) (D), (B), (E), (A), (C)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

First, determine the study type (C), then variables (A), explore data (B), analyze associations (D), and create tables (E). Quick Tip: Structured analysis minimizes bias and ensures reproducible research.


Question 119:

Match List I with List II:



Choose the correct answer:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Action research is qualitative (A-II), Cross-over is true experimental (B-I), Time series is quasi-experimental (C-III), and One-shot is pre-experimental (D-IV). Quick Tip: Research designs vary in rigor; choose based on study objectives and constraints.

 

AIAPGET Questions

  • 1.
    What are the characteristics of "Frolich Syndrome"?

      • Viropause
      • Crypto orchidism
      • Obesity and hypergonadism
      • Obesity and hypogonadism

    • 2.
      Based on the morphological form, which one of these is classified as "Yeast-like fungus"?

        • Histoplasma capsulatum
        • Dermatophytes
        • Paracoccidioidomycoses
        • Candida albicans

      • 3.

        Match List I with List II:

        Somatostatin yy Suppresses the appetite

        Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

          • (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
          • (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
          • (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
          • (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

        • 4.
          Which one of the following is not a method of Moist Heat sterilization?

            • Boiling
            • Autoclave
            • Hot Air Oven
            • Pasteurization

          • 5.
            Which vein is the continuation of the basilic vein?

              • Radial vein
              • Cephalic vein
              • Median vein
              • Axillary vein

            • 6.
              Given below are two statements:
              Statement I: Progressive chronic destruction of more than 90% of adrenal cortex on both sides causes Addison's disease.
              Statement II: Tuberculosis and metastatic cancers of the adrenal glands are implicated in the majority of cases of Addison’s disease.
              In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

                • Both Statement I and Statement II are true
                • Both Statement I and Statement II are false
                • Statement I is true but Statement II is false
                • Statement I is false but Statement II is true

              Fees Structure

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