TS PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 10, 2025

TS PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering on June 11 in Shift 1 from 10 AM to 12 PM. TS PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

TS PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

TS PGECET 2024 ME Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
10-18_06-TS PGECET 2024 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

Let \(A\) be a \(3 \times 3\) matrix. If \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_3\) are the eigenvalues of \(A\), then the eigenvalues of the matrix \((I + aA)^{-1}(I + bA)\), where \(a, b\) are scalars such that \(a \lambda_i \neq -1\) and \(b \lambda_i \neq -1\) for \(i = 1, 2, 3\), are:

  • (1) \(\frac{b \lambda_1}{1 + a \lambda_1}, \frac{b \lambda_2}{1 + a \lambda_2}, \frac{b \lambda_3}{1 + a \lambda_3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1 + b \lambda_1}{1 + a \lambda_1}, \frac{1 + b \lambda_2}{a \lambda_2}, \frac{1 + b \lambda_3}{a \lambda_3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1 + a \lambda_1}{1 + b \lambda_1}, \frac{1 + a \lambda_2}{1 + b \lambda_2}, \frac{1 + a \lambda_3}{1 + b \lambda_3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1 + b \lambda_1}{1 + a \lambda_1}, \frac{1 + b \lambda_2}{1 + a \lambda_2}, \frac{1 + b \lambda_3}{1 + a \lambda_3}\)

Question 2:

If \(a = 2024\), \(b = 2023\), and \(c = 2022\), then the determinant \[ \begin{vmatrix} \log_a a & \log_a b & \log_a c
\log_b a & \log_b b & \log_b c
\log_c a & \log_c b & \log_c c \end{vmatrix} \]
is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2024
  • (4) 2022

Question 3:

If Rolle’s theorem is applied for \( f(x) = x^3 - x \) in \( [-1,1] \), then the values of ‘c’ of this theorem are:

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 4:

The value of \(\int_0^\infty e^{-x^2} \, dx\) is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\pi}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\pi}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)

Question 5:

The necessary condition for the equation \( M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0 \) to be exact is

  • (1) \( \frac{\partial N}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial M}{\partial x} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\partial N}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial M}{\partial x} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\partial M}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial N}{\partial x} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\partial M}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial N}{\partial x} \)

Question 6:

Using Laplace transformation, the value of \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin 2t}{t} dt \) is

  • (1) \(0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{s^2+4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{\pi} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)

Question 7:

The value of the integral \( \int_C \frac{e^{2z}}{(z-1)(z-2)}dz \) where C is the circle \( |z|=3 \) is

  • (1) \( \pi i(e^2-e^4) \)
  • (2) \( 2\pi i(e^4-e^2) \)
  • (3) \( \pi i(e^4-e^2) \)
  • (4) \( 2\pi i(e^2-e^4) \)

Question 8:

Consider \( \frac{dy}{dx} = x^2 - y, y(0)=1 \) using Euler's method with step size of 0.1. Then the value of \( y(0.1) \) is

  • (1) \(0.6\)
  • (2) \(0.7\)
  • (3) \(0.8\)
  • (4) \(0.9\)

Question 9:

Given the probability density function \( f(X=x)= \begin{cases} 0, & x<2
\frac{3+2x}{18}, & 2\leq x\leq4
0, & x>4 \end{cases} \) then the probability that X lies between 2 and 3 is

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{9} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{8} \)

Question 10:

If the chance that a bus arrives safely at a bus stand is \( \frac{9}{10} \), then the probability that out of 5 buses at least 4 will arrive safely is

  • (1) \( \frac{12 \times 9^4}{10^5} \)
  • (2) \( 14 \times \left(\frac{9}{10}\right)^4 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{14 \times 9^4}{10^5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{13 \times 9^4}{10^5} \)

Question 11:

A mass 'M' is attached at the end of a string whose length is 'L' and whirled at a constant speed in vertical circle. Generally, the tension in the string is minimum when the mass is

  • (1) at the top of the circle
  • (2) half way down from the top
  • (3) at the bottom of the circle
  • (4) quarter way down from the top

Question 12:

For a triple threaded screw, the lead is 30 mm and the mean diameter of the screw is 80 mm, then the pitch of the screw is

  • (1) 30 mm
  • (2) 20 mm
  • (3) 10 mm
  • (4) 60 mm

Question 13:

If the coefficient of friction between tyres and the road is 0.6, what is the angle of banking for a highway curve of 500 m radius designed to accommodate cars travelling at 180 km/h?

  • (1) 45°
  • (2) 56.30°
  • (3) 47.56°
  • (4) 26.56°

Question 14:

The loss of potential energy of an elevator coming down from the top of the building to a stop at the ground floor is

  • (1) lost to the driving motors
  • (2) converted into heat
  • (3) lost in friction of moving surfaces
  • (4) used up in lifting up counter weight

Question 15:

The loss of potential energy of an elevator coming down from the top of the building to a stop at the ground floor is:

  • (1) lost to the driving motors
  • (2) converted into heat
  • (3) lost in friction of moving surfaces
  • (4) used up in lifting up counter weight

Question 16:

What is the coefficient of restitution of a perfectly elastic impact?

  • (1) 1.0
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) infinity
  • (4) 0

Question 17:

Which of the following relations are correct for the Young's modulus in terms of modulus of rigidity (G), Bulk modulus (K) and Poisson's ratio (\(\mu\))?

  • (1) \( 2G (1 + \mu), \, 3K (1 - 2\mu) \, and \, \frac{9 KG}{(2K + G)} \)
  • (2) \( 2G (1 - \mu), \, 3K (1 + 2\mu) \, and \, \frac{9 KG}{(2K - G)} \)
  • (3) \( 2G (1 + \mu), \, 3K (1 + \mu) \, and \, \frac{9 KG}{(3K + G)} \)
  • (4) \( 2G (1 + \mu), \, 3K (1 - \mu) \, and \, \frac{9 KG}{(3K - G)} \)

Question 18:

Two principal stresses at a point in the bar are 200 N/mm² (tensile) and 80 N/mm² (Compressive). What is the value of the maximum shear stress in the bar?

  • (1) 60 N/mm²
  • (2) 80 N/mm²
  • (3) 140 N/mm²
  • (4) 200 N/mm²

Question 19:

A shaft subjected to pure torsion develops the maximum shear stress of 80 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled, then the maximum shear stress developed in the shaft corresponding to the same torque is

  • (1) 10 MPa
  • (2) 20 MPa
  • (3) 40 MPa
  • (4) 80 MPa

Question 20:

A thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure resulted in hoop stress and longitudinal stress. If the radius and thickness of the shell are increased by 10%, then the increase in percentage of hoop stress and longitudinal stress respectively are

  • (1) \( 10 %, 5 % \)
  • (2) \( 0 %, 0 % \)
  • (3) \( 10 %, 10 % \)
  • (4) \( 5 %, 5 % \)

Question 21:

A simply supported beam of length 'L' having the flexural rigidity of 'EI', subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 'w'. Then the maximum bending moment and maximum deflection are

  • (1) \( \frac{wL^2}{2} \, and \, \frac{5wL^4}{384 \, EI} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{wL^2}{8} \, and \, \frac{wL^4}{192 \, EI} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{wL^2}{8} \, and \, \frac{5wL^4}{384 \, EI} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{wL^2}{2} \, and \, \frac{wL^4}{192 \, EI} \)

Question 22:

Based on flexural point, a beam can be considered as strongest due to:

  • (1) Maximum bending stress
  • (2) Maximum area of cross section
  • (3) Maximum section modulus
  • (4) Maximum moment of inertia

Question 23:

The ratio of equivalent lengths for the slender column subjected to the critical load when one end is fixed and the other is free, and both ends are fixed is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 24:

The extension due to self-weight of a bar of uniform cross section being hanged vertically downward is ___ times the extension produced by the same weight applied at the lower end of the vertical bar.

  • (1) 0.5
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 0.333
  • (4) 0.667

Question 25:

The relation between number of links \( (l) \) and number of joints \( (j) \) in a kinematic chain is generally

  • (1) \( l = \frac{(j+2)}{2} \)]
  • (2) \( l = \frac{2(j+2)}{3} \)
  • (3) \( l = \frac{3(j+3)}{4} \)
  • (4) \( l = j+4 \)

Question 26:

In a slider crank mechanism for \( \frac{l}{4} \) ratio of 4, the percentage of stroke converted by the piston corresponding to 90° movement of the crank from top dead center is

  • (1) 0%
  • (2) Less than 50%
  • (3) Greater than 50%
  • (4) 100%

Question 27:

The total reaction on the ground when wheels of the vehicle are subjected to the gyroscopic couple and the centrifugal force while negotiating the curve is

  • (1) Increased on inner wheels and decreased on outer wheels
  • (2) Decreased on inner wheels and increased on outer wheels
  • (3) Decreased on all the wheels
  • (4) Increased on all the wheels

Question 28:

The point on the cam at which the pressure is maximum is known as:

  • (1) Pitch point
  • (2) Trace point
  • (3) Roller centre
  • (4) Cam centre

Question 29:

For the specified flywheel design, the variation of the engine speed is from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During the cycle process, the change in kinetic energy is found to be 400 N-m, then the moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m² is:

  • (1) 0.40
  • (2) 0.30
  • (3) 0.20
  • (4) 0.10

Question 30:

In the case of balancing problems pertaining to locomotives, the resultant unbalanced force is minimum when:

  • (1) Half of the reciprocating masses are balanced by rotating masses
  • (2) Half of the reciprocating masses are balanced by equivalent rotating mass
  • (3) More than half of the reciprocating masses are balanced by rotating masses
  • (4) Reciprocating masses are balanced half by equivalent opposite reciprocating masses and the balance by rotating masses

Question 31:

During the design of a gear, if the higher-pressure angle is chosen, then the gear has:

  • (1) Weaker teeth
  • (2) Bigger size teeth
  • (3) Wider base and stronger teeth
  • (4) Narrow base and weaker teeth

Question 32:

In the analysis of torsional vibrations of the shaft, the node of the shaft is characterized by the:

  • (1) Maximum angular displacement
  • (2) Maximum angular velocity
  • (3) Zero angular displacement
  • (4) Maximum angular acceleration

Question 33:

A free damped vibrating system consists of a mass of 200 kg and a spring of stiffness 40 N/mm. If the damping factor is 0.22, the time in which the system would settle down 10\(^1/50\)th of its initial deflection will be:

  • (1) 1.5s
  • (2) 2.45s
  • (3) 0.25s
  • (4) 0.455s

Question 34:

If the damping factor of the vibrating system is considered as unity, then the type of system is said to be

  • (1) over damped
  • (2) critically damped
  • (3) under damped
  • (4) un-damped

Question 35:

The endurance limit for the carburized machine components is high because

  • (1) introduces compressive layer on the surface
  • (2) produces the better surface finish
  • (3) suppresses the stress concentration produced in the component
  • (4) raises the yield strength of the material

Question 36:

What is the failure theory to be considered for the loading of aluminum components under steady load conditions?

  • (1) Maximum principal stress theory
  • (2) Maximum principal strain theory
  • (3) Maximum shear stress theory
  • (4) Maximum strain energy theory

Question 37:

A welded joint has '\( l \)' mm length and '\( t \)' mm thickness fillet carries a steady load of 'F' N along the weld. Then the maximum shear stress induced in the weld in terms of N/mm\( ^2 \) will be

  • (1) \( \frac{F}{0.707 tl} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{F}{tl} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{0.707 F}{tl} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{F}{1.414 tl} \)

Question 38:

In hydrodynamic journal bearing, if the clearance ratio is halved then the Sommer field number 'S' and the coefficient of friction '\( \mu \)' will change as

  • (1) ‘S’ becomes doubled and ‘\( \mu \)’ is halved
  • (2) ‘S’ becomes four times and ‘\( \mu \)’ is halved
  • (3) ‘S’ becomes four times and ‘\( \mu \)’ is doubled
  • (4) ‘S’ becomes doubled and ‘\( \mu \)’ is doubled

Question 39:

A bicycle and rider have a combined mass of 100 kg traveling at 12 km/hr on a level road. A brake is applied to the rear wheel which has 800 mm in diameter. The pressure on the brake is 80 N and the coefficient of friction is 0.05. The distance covered by the bicycle before it comes to rest will be approximately equal to

  • (1) \( 136 m \)
  • (2) \( 125 m \)
  • (3) \( 250 m \)
  • (4) \( 68 m \)

Question 40:

The deflection of a spring with 20 active turns for the specified load is 10 mm. If the same spring is cut into two halves and connected parallel and applied the same load, then the deflection would be

  • (1) \( 10 mm \)
  • (2) \( 20 mm \)
  • (3) \( 5 mm \)
  • (4) \( 2.5 mm \)

Question 41:

While designing the gears, the Lewis equation is generally used for finding out the following stress?

  • (1) Shear stress
  • (2) Bending stress
  • (3) Axial stress
  • (4) Fatigue stress

Question 42:

A rectangular block with density of 720 kg/m\(^3\) floats in fluid having the relative density of 0.8. What percentage of block will remain exposed?

  • (1) 12%
  • (2) 11%
  • (3) 10%
  • (4) 9%

Question 43:

A fountain has to be designed to raise water to a height of 20 m from the ground level. What would be the speed of water and pressure to be applied by taking g = 10 m/s\(^2\)?

  • (1) 20 m/s and 200 kPa
  • (2) 10 m/s and 100 kPa
  • (3) 20 m/s and 100 kPa
  • (4) 10 m/s and 200 kPa

Question 44:

For a rotational flow, the ratio of normal velocity vector to the angular velocity vector is

  • (1) 1.0
  • (2) 2.0
  • (3) 0.667
  • (4) 0.5

Question 45:

The velocity distribution in the boundary layer for the turbulent flow over the plate generally follows the law

  • (1) parabolic
  • (2) hyperbolic
  • (3) linear
  • (4) logarithmic

Question 46:

A fully developed laminar viscous flow through a circular tube has the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity as

  • (1) \( 3.0 \)
  • (2) \( 2.5 \)
  • (3) \( 2.0 \)
  • (4) \( 1.5 \)

Question 47:

Water is flowing through the non-uniform horizontal pipe. The speed and pressure respectively at the extreme narrow cross section of the pipe would be

  • (1) maximum and maximum
  • (2) maximum and minimum
  • (3) minimum and minimum
  • (4) minimum and maximum

Question 48:

Liquid is flowing through two pipes having the same dimensions and same material. If the ratio of velocities are 2:3, with all other factors remaining same, the ratio of loss of head due to friction is

  • (1) \( 4:9 \)
  • (2) \( 9:4 \)
  • (3) \( 2:3 \)
  • (4) \( 8:27 \)

Question 49:

If 'k' is the thermal conductivity, '\( \rho \)' is the mass density and 'c' is the specific heat then the thermal diffusivity of substance is

  • (1) \( \frac{kc}{\rho} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{k\rho}{c} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{k}{\rho c} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\rho c}{k} \)

Question 50:

A hollow pipe of 10 mm outer diameter is to be insulated by thick cylindrical insulation having thermal conductivity of 1 W/m K. The surface heat transfer coefficient on the insulation surface is 5 W/m\( ^2 \) K. What is the minimum effective thickness of insulation for causing the reduction in heat leakage from the insulated pipe?

  • (1) \( 195 mm \)
  • (2) \( 200 mm \)
  • (3) \( 205 mm \)
  • (4) \( 210 mm \)

Question 51:

For the fins arrangement, when the other conditions are remaining same, to get better effectiveness the fins should be

  • (1) Thick and closely spaced
  • (2) Thick and widely spaced
  • (3) Thin and closely spaced
  • (4) Thin and widely spaced

Question 52:

In the lumped mass system of transient analysis, for calculation of Biot number, the characteristic length should be considered as the ratio of

  • (1) Surface area and perimeter
  • (2) Volume and surface area
  • (3) Volume and perimeter
  • (4) Perimeter and surface area

Question 53:

For flow over a flat plate, the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is 0.5 mm. If the dynamic viscosity is \( 25 \times 10^{-16} \, Pa-s \), specific heat is 2000 J/kg·K, and the thermal conductivity is 0.05 W/m·K, then what would be the thermal boundary layer thickness?

  • (1) 0.7 mm
  • (2) 0.5 mm
  • (3) 0.3 mm
  • (4) 0.1 mm

Question 54:

A heat exchanger has been designed with heat transfer surface area of ‘A’ and overall heat transfer coefficient ‘U’, handling two different fluids of heat capacities \( C_{min} \) and \( C_{max} \). The parameter NTU used in the analysis of heat exchanger is specified as:

  • (1) \( \frac{A U}{C_{max}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{C_{max}}{A U} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{A U}{C_{min}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{C_{min}}{A U} \)

Question 55:

Radiation heat transfer in the system is characterized by

  • (1) Due to bulk fluid motion, there is a transport of energy
  • (2) Thermal energy transfer as vibrational energy in lattice structure of the material
  • (3) There is circulation of fluid by buoyancy effects
  • (4) Movement of discrete packets of energy as electromagnetic waves

Question 56:

The slope of curve on p-V diagram for different processes

  • (1) decreases in negative direction with the increase of polytropic index
  • (2) increases in negative direction with the increase of polytropic index
  • (3) decreases in negative direction with the decrease of polytropic index
  • (4) does not change with the increase of polytropic index

Question 57:

The COP of heat pump in comparison with COP of refrigeration cycle for the specified temperature limits is given by

  • (1) \( COP_{HP} + COP_{R} = 1 \)
  • (2) \( COP_{HP} - COP_{R} = 1 \)
  • (3) \( COP_{HP} \times COP_{R} = 1 \)
  • (4) \( COP_{HP} / COP_{R} = 1 \)

Question 58:

In a polytropic process, heat rejected is given by

  • (1) \( \frac{\gamma-n}{\gamma-1} \times \) Work done on the system
  • (2) \( \frac{\gamma}{\gamma-1} \times \) Work done on the system
  • (3) \( \frac{\gamma-n}{\gamma} \times \) Work done on the system
  • (4) \( \frac{\gamma-n}{n} \times \) Work done on the system

Question 59:

“Heat cannot flow by itself from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature” and can be done by the supply of external work is

  • (1) Kelvin Planck statement of second law of thermodynamics
  • (2) First law of thermodynamics
  • (3) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
  • (4) Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics

Question 60:

2 kg of a substance receives 500 kJ heat and undergoes a temperature change from 100 \(^\circ\)C to 200 \(^\circ\)C. The average specific heat of the substance during the process (in kJ/kg K) will be

  • (1) \( 5 \)
  • (2) \( 10 \)
  • (3) \( 25 \)
  • (4) \( 2.5 \)

Question 61:

The equation for the state of real gas in terms of reduced form is

  • (1) \( (P_r + \frac{3}{V_r^2})(3V_r - 1) = 8T_r \)
  • (2) \( (P_r + \frac{3}{V_r})(3V_r - 1) = 8T_r \)
  • (3) \( (P_r - \frac{3}{V_r^2})(3V_r + 1) = 8T_r \)
  • (4) \( (P_r - \frac{3}{V_r})(3V_r - 1) = 8T_r \)

Question 62:

A reversible engine is being operated with the temperature limits of 800 K and 300 K. If it takes heat 560 kJ, then the available energy and unavailable energy are

  • (1) \( 350 kJ and 210 kJ \)
  • (2) \( 300 kJ and 260 kJ \)
  • (3) \( 210 kJ and 350 kJ \)
  • (4) \( 260 kJ and 300 kJ \)

Question 63:

According to the Joules law of a perfect gas, the internal energy is a function of

  • (1) pressure only
  • (2) absolute temperature only
  • (3) specific volume only
  • (4) absolute entropy only

Question 64:

The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor has the clearance ratio 'k' and the pressure ratio p2/p1 is calculated by using the following equation

  • (1) \( 1 + k + k (p_2/p_1)^{1/n} \)
  • (2) \( 1 - k + k (p_2/p_1)^{1/n} \)
  • (3) \( 1 + k - k (p_2/p_1)^{1/n} \)
  • (4) \( 1 + k - k (p_2/p_1)^n \)

Question 65:

Generally, the rotary compressors are used for delivering the following conditions:

  • (1) small quantities of air at high pressures
  • (2) large quantities of air at low pressures
  • (3) small quantities of air at low pressures
  • (4) large quantities of air at high pressures

Question 66:

The air standard efficiency of the Diesel cycle reaches that of the Otto cycle when the following condition is satisfied:

  • (1) increased cut-off ratio
  • (2) decreased cut-off ratio
  • (3) constant cut-off ratio
  • (4) zero cut-off ratio

Question 67:

For the same compression ratio and heat rejection, the thermal efficiency is:

  • (1) \(Otto > Dual > Diesel\)
  • (2) \(Diesel > Dual > Otto\)
  • (3) \(Dual > Diesel > Otto\)
  • (4) \(Dual > Otto > Diesel\)

Question 68:

During the compression process of a vapor compression refrigeration system:

  • (1) Specific enthalpy before and after the compression is the same
  • (2) Internal energy before and after the compression is the same
  • (3) Temperature before compression and after the compression is the same
  • (4) Specific entropy before and after the compression is the same

Question 69:

Consider the following statement and choose the correct one

I. Dew point is reached by cooling the air at constant moisture content

II. Wet bulb temperature changes by addition of moisture at constant enthalpy

III. For saturated air, dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures are same

IV. Dehumidification of air is achieved by heating

  • (1) Only I and II
  • (2) Only I and III
  • (3) Only II and IV
  • (4) Only II and IV

Question 70:

Choose the correct statement with respect to the impulse steam turbine operated based on Rankine cycle

  • (1) Complete conversion of pressure into velocity initially in the nozzles
  • (2) Conversion of pressure into kinetic energy in fixed blades and expansion in moving blades
  • (3) Requirement of draft tube is necessary
  • (4) Degree of reaction is high

Question 71:

The incorporation of intercooling system between low-pressure and high-pressure compressors of Brayton cycle

  • (1) Increases the thermal efficiency and decreases the net work output
  • (2) Increases both thermal efficiency and net work output
  • (3) Decreases both thermal efficiency and net work output
  • (4) Decreases the thermal efficiency and increases the net work output

Question 72:

The ratio of speed of a Pelton wheel and the speed of the jet for maximum head efficiency is

  • (1) \( 1.0 \)
  • (2) \( 0.25 \)
  • (3) \( 0.333 \)
  • (4) \( 0.5 \)

Question 73:

If the blade efficiency is 80% and the stage efficiency is 60%, what is nozzle efficiency of a DeLaval turbine?

  • (1) \( 70% \)
  • (2) \( 75% \)
  • (3) \( 80% \)
  • (4) \( 85% \)

Question 74:

The alloy of copper which can be used against fatigue, wear and corrosion is

  • (1) Phosphorous bronze
  • (2) Beryllium bronze
  • (3) Aluminum bronze
  • (4) Cartridge bronze

Question 75:

During the crystallization process, the energy which retards is called as

  • (1) free surface energy
  • (2) kinetic energy
  • (3) vibration energy
  • (4) activation energy

Question 76:

What is the element to be added to the molten cast iron in order to obtain the nodular cast iron?

  • (1) Cr
  • (2) Mn
  • (3) Mg
  • (4) Cu

Question 77:

The complete transformation of austenite takes place during cooling from liquid state at:

  • (1) Just below 723 °C
  • (2) Just below 910 °C
  • (3) Just above 723 °C
  • (4) Just above 910 °C

Question 78:

The important parameter which is considered for the measure of ductility is:

  • (1) Ultimate tensile strength
  • (2) Yield strength
  • (3) Percentage of elongation
  • (4) Modulus of toughness

Question 79:

Quenching is not necessary when the hardening process is done by the following way:

  • (1) Case carburizing
  • (2) Flame hardening
  • (3) Induction hardening
  • (4) Normalizing

Question 80:

In a situation where water passes through a bearing, the preferred material for bearing is:

  • (1) Lignum vitae
  • (2) Cast iron
  • (3) Babbit
  • (4) Teflon

Question 81:

A spherical drop of liquid metal 'r' mm radius takes 12 seconds to solidify. What would be the time taken to solidify if the diameter of the drop is doubled?

  • (1) 24 seconds
  • (2) 36 seconds
  • (3) 48 seconds
  • (4) 96 seconds

Question 82:

Which of the following material requires the largest solid shrinkage allowance, while making a pattern for casting?

  • (1) Aluminum
  • (2) Brass
  • (3) Cast iron
  • (4) Plain carbon steel

Question 83:

For the design of gating system, the ratio 1:2:4 represents

  • (1) sprue base area : runner area : ingate area
  • (2) pouring basin area : ingate area : runner area
  • (3) sprue base area : ingate area : casting area
  • (4) runner area : ingate area : casting area

Question 84:

Which of the following pair is a wrong pair with respect to metal casting process

  • (1) Hot tears – poor mould collapsibility
  • (2) sand inclusions – hard ramming of sand
  • (3) Porosity – gas entrapment
  • (4) shrinkage cavity – inadequate risering

Question 85:

The property of sand by virtue of which sand grains stick together is generally called

  • (1) Permeability
  • (2) Cohesiveness
  • (3) Adhesiveness
  • (4) Collapsibility

Question 86:

Calculate the minimum number of hot rolling passes required to reduce an ingot of 200 mm thickness to 100 mm thickness in two high reversible rolling mill with roll diameter of 500 mm. The coefficient of friction between rolls and the hot material for all the passes is assumed as 0.2

  • (1) \( 8 \)
  • (2) \( 9 \)
  • (3) \( 10 \)
  • (4) \( 11 \)

Question 87:

Which type of metal forming process is used to make utensils and cup shaped products?

  • (1) Extrusion
  • (2) Forging
  • (3) Deep drawing
  • (4) Rolling

Question 88:

The cutting tool manufactured by powder metallurgy is

  • (1) High speed steel
  • (2) High carbon steel
  • (3) Low carbon steel
  • (4) Sintered carbides

Question 89:

The high alloy steel components are preheated before welding for reducing

  • (1) heat affected zone
  • (2) time of welding
  • (3) energy consumption
  • (4) welding stress

Question 90:

The joint configuration best suited for adhesive bonding is

  • (1) lap
  • (2) fillet
  • (3) spot
  • (4) butt

Question 91:

During brazing joint process, the commonly used flux material is:

  • (1) Borax
  • (2) Resin
  • (3) Lead sulphide
  • (4) Zinc chloride

Question 92:

The predominant wear occurring in cemented carbide cutting tools is:

  • (1) Crater wear
  • (2) Spalling
  • (3) Flank wear
  • (4) Surface roughness

Question 93:

The hardest cutting tool material after the diamond is:

  • (1) Cubic Boron Nitride
  • (2) Tungsten Carbide
  • (3) Titanium Carbide
  • (4) Ceramics

Question 94:

The correct sequence of elements of 18-4-1 HSS tool is:

  • (1) W, Cr, V
  • (2) Mo, Cr, V
  • (3) Cr, Ni, C
  • (4) Cu, Zn, Sn

Question 95:

It is required to cut screw threads of 2 mm pitch on a lathe. The lead screw has a pitch of 6 mm. If the spindle speed is 60 rpm, then speed of the lead screw is:

  • (1) 200 rpm
  • (2) 20 rpm
  • (3) 120 rpm
  • (4) 180 rpm

Question 96:

When a CNC system is capable of automatically adjusting the speed and feed parameters according to actual cutting conditions, the system is said to have:

  • (1) Programmable logic control
  • (2) Automatic speed control
  • (3) Direct Numerical Control
  • (4) Adaptive control

Question 97:

Optimum rake angle for the single point cutting tool is generally considered as a function of:

  • (1) Feed and depth of cut
  • (2) Properties of the work material
  • (3) Cutting speed
  • (4) Cutting tool material

Question 98:

The surface plate is usually made of grey cast iron because it provides:

  • (1) Hard plate
  • (2) Wear-resistant plate
  • (3) Easy to manufacture
  • (4) Lubricates due to graphite flakes

Question 99:

A shaft has diameter \(20^{+0.05}_{-0.15}\) mm and a hole diameter \(20^{+0.20}_{-0.10}\) mm. When these are assembled, then what is the nature of fit yield?

1.clearance fit
2.interference fit
3.transition fit
4.best fit


Question 100:

The thread characteristics can be measured precisely by the following instrument:

  • (1) Screw pitch gauge
  • (2) Tool room microscope
  • (3) Thread gauge
  • (4) Slip gauge

Question 101:

Accurate centering of work mounted in an independent chuck can be determined by using:

  • (1) Centre gauge
  • (2) Dial indicator
  • (3) Height gauge
  • (4) Surface gauge

Question 102:

Which type of coordinate measuring machine is most suited for large heavy work pieces?

1. Cantilever type
2. Bridge type
3. Floated bridge type
4. Horizontal boring mill type


Question 103:

A computer program written in a high level language is called as

1. Source program
2. Object program
3. Basic program
4. Application program


Question 104:

A collection of wires that connect several devices in the computer integrated manufacturing system is

1. Link
2. Directional wires
3. Cable
4. Bus


Question 105:

If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, then it is considered as

1. Mobile robot
2. Intelligent robot
3. Expert robot
4. Fifth gen robot


Question 106:

Which of the following statement is not a decision taken during the aggregate production planning stage?

  • (1) Scheduling of machines
  • (2) Regular time production capacity
  • (3) Amount of labour to be committed
  • (4) Inventory to be carried forward

Question 107:

Which of the following forecasting methods take a fraction of forecast error into account for the next period of forecast?

  • (1) Simple average method
  • (2) Weighted moving average method
  • (3) Moving average method
  • (4) Exponential smoothening method

Question 108:

The first activity of purchasing cycle of material requirement planning is

  • (1) Communicating requirement to the purchase
  • (2) Source Selection and development
  • (3) Recognizing the need for procurement
  • (4) Inspection of goods

Question 109:

The decision of assigning the various jobs to different machines and equipment is termed as

  • (1) routing
  • (2) scheduling
  • (3) loading
  • (4) dispatching

Question 110:

Lean manufacturing process is generally being implemented to make a

  • (1) way to improve the customer value
  • (2) efficiency improvement technique
  • (3) method to reduce the labour
  • (4) way to eliminate the jobs

Question 111:

The economic order quantity of a company based on inventory control theory is

  • (1) Average level of inventory
  • (2) Optimum lot size is to be maintained
  • (3) Capacity of warehouse
  • (4) Lot size corresponding to break even analysis

Question 112:

The product 'A' has the demand of 1000 with ordering cost Rs 100/- per order with a holding cost of Rs 40/- per year. Another product 'B' has the demand of 3600 with the ordering cost of Rs 100/- per year with a holding cost of Rs 100/- per year. What is the ratio of EOQs 'B' to 'A'?

1. 1.5
2. 1.2
3. 2.5
4. 3.5


Question 113:

In A-B-C inventory control technique, the maximum attention is given to the items which

  • (1) consume more time to get supply
  • (2) having more annual consumption value
  • (3) are perishable in nature
  • (4) are surplus

Question 114:

The charts which present graphically the process of work by showing the machine operation, man hour performance, quantities completed, etc., to facilitate day-to-day planning of the work are termed as

  • (1) man-machine charts
  • (2) break-even charts
  • (3) SIMO charts
  • (4) Gantt charts

Question 115:

The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless the preceding activity is complete, is known as

  • (1) free float
  • (2) dummy activity
  • (3) slack activity
  • (4) negative activity

Question 116:

The optimality of a transportation problem is determined by the application of:

  • (1) North West corner method
  • (2) MODI method
  • (3) Vogel’s approximation method
  • (4) Least cost method

Question 117:

In the case of solution of a two-variable linear programming problem by graphical method, if one constraint line comes parallel to the objective function line, the problem will have:

  • (1) Infeasible solution
  • (2) Unbounded solution
  • (3) Degenerate solution
  • (4) Infinite number of solutions

Question 118:

The cost of proving service in a queuing system increases with:

  • (1) Decreased mean time of the queue
  • (2) Increased arrival time
  • (3) Decreased arrival time
  • (4) Increased mean time of the queue

Question 119:

In critical path method, critical path moves along with the activities having total float of:

  • (1) Positive value
  • (2) Same value
  • (3) Zero value
  • (4) Negative value

Question 120:

Hungarian method is generally used to solve the following type of problem:

  • (1) Linear programming problem
  • (2) Assignment problem
  • (3) Transportation problem
  • (4) Simple queuing problem


TS PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is used to:

      • Estimate the financial profitability of a project
      • Predict environmental consequences of proposed initiatives
      • Replace the need for environmental regulations
      • Design new energy-efficient equipment

    • 2.
      Which of the following is an example of non-point source pollution?

        • Factory effluents
        • Oil spills
        • Agricultural runoff
        • Industrial waste disposal

      • 3.
        The surface area-to-volume ratio of nanoparticles:

          • Remains constant regardless of size
          • Decreases with decreasing particle size
          • Increases with decreasing particle size
          • Has no impact on chemical reactivity

        • 4.
          In which year was the Earth Summit (Rio Conference) held?

            • 1985
            • 1992
            • 2000
            • 2012

          • 5.
            The top-down approach in nanofabrication refers to:

              • Building structures atom-by-atom
              • Assembling molecules using biological processes
              • Carving or shaping materials into nanoscale structures
              • Using chemical vapor deposition for coating

            • 6.
              Bioremediation is a process used to:

                • Increase crop yield using synthetic fertilizers
                • Treat environmental pollutants using microorganisms
                • Control noise pollution in urban areas
                • Enhance fossil fuel combustion efficiency

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General1000
              sc500

              In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

              Comments


              No Comments To Show