TS PGECET 2024 Instrumentation Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 10, 2025

TS PGECET 2024 Instrumentation Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2024 Instrumentation Engineering on June 12 in Shift 1 from 10 AM to 12 PM. TS PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

TS PGECET 2024 Instrumentation Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

TS PGECET 2024 EI Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
10-18_08-TS PGECET 2024 Instrumentation Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

The characteristic polynomial of a \(3 \times 3\) matrix \( A \) is \[ |A - \lambda I| = \lambda^3 - 9\lambda^2 + 23\lambda - 15. \]
Let \( X = trace(A) \) and \( Y = \det(A) \), then:

  • (1) \( X = Y = 3 \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{X}{Y} = \dfrac{9}{15} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{X}{Y} = \dfrac{15}{9} \)
  • (4) \( X = 15, Y = 8 \)

Question 2:


\(x, y, z\) are in A.P. with common difference \(d\). If the rank of the matrix \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} 4 & 5 & x
5 & 6 & y
6 & k & z \end{bmatrix} \]
is 2, then:

  • (1) \(k \ne 7\) and \(d = \dfrac{z}{4}\)
  • (2) \(k \ne 7\) and \(d = \dfrac{y}{4}\)
  • (3) \(k \ne 7\) and \(d \ne \dfrac{x}{4}\)
  • (4) \(x = 7\) or \(d = \dfrac{x}{4}\)

Question 3:



The maximum value of the directional derivative of \( \varphi = x^2 yz \) at the point \( (1, 4, 1) \) is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{10} \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( 9 \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{10}{3} \)

Question 4:


Let \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 + \dfrac{2x}{\pi}, & -\pi \le x \le 0
1 - \dfrac{2x}{\pi}, & 0 < x \le \pi \end{cases} \]
The constant term of the Fourier series of \(f(x)\) is:

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{2}{\pi}\)
  • (3) \(-\dfrac{2}{\pi}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 5:



The particular integral of \[ (D^2 - 6D + 13)\, y = 8e^{3x} \sin 2x \]
is:

  • (1) \(2xe^{3x} \cos 2x\)
  • (2) \(-2xe^{3x} \cos 2x\)
  • (3) \(2e^{3x} \cos 2x\)
  • (4) \(-2e^{3x} \cos 2x\)

Question 6:



The partial differential equation obtained by eliminating the constants \(a\) and \(b\) from \[ z = (x - a)^2 + (y - b)^2 \]
is:

  • (1) \(4z = \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x} \right)^2 + \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial y} \right)^2\)
  • (2) \(4z = \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x} + \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial y}\)
  • (3) \(4z = \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x} \right)^2 + \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial y} \right)^2 + 1\)
  • (4) \(4z = \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x} \right)^2 - \left( \dfrac{\partial z}{\partial y} \right)^2\)

Question 7:



Which of the following functions is not analytic?

  • (1) \(e^z\)
  • (2) \(e^{\bar{z}}\)
  • (3) \(z + 2\bar{z}\)
  • (4) \(z^2\)

Question 8:



If \( \dfrac{dy}{dx} = xy + y^2 \), \( y(0) = 1 \), and \( h = 0.1 \), then the value of \( y(0.1) \) using Euler’s method is:

  • (1) 0.1
  • (2) 0.11
  • (3) 1.01
  • (4) 1.1

Question 9:



The probability of getting a total of 5 at least once in three tosses of a pair of fair dice is:

  • (1) \(1 - \left(\dfrac{8}{9}\right)^3\)
  • (2) \(1 - \left(\dfrac{3}{7}\right)^3\)
  • (3) \(\left(\dfrac{8}{9}\right)^3\)
  • (4) \(\left(\dfrac{3}{7}\right)^3\)

Question 10:



The rank correlation coefficient between the marks in two subjects of a class is 0.8. The sum of the squares of the differences between the ranks is 33. Then the number of students is:

  • (1) 46
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 10

Question 11:



The energy stored in a capacitor \( C \) when a voltage \( V \) exists across it is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{1}{2}CV^2 \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{2}VC^2 \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{1}{2}CV \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{1}{2}(CV)^2 \)

Question 12:



The mechanical force per unit charge at a given point is called:

  • (1) Electric field intensity
  • (2) Potential energy
  • (3) Permeability
  • (4) Permittivity

Question 13:



Force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by:

  • (1) \( BIl \sin \theta \) Newtons
  • (2) \( BIl \cos \theta \) Newtons
  • (3) \( BIl \sin(\theta + 45^\circ) \) Newtons
  • (4) \( BIl \cos(\theta + 45^\circ) \) Newtons

Question 14:



"Whenever magnetic flux linked with a closed coil changes, an induced emf is setup in the coil and lasts as long as the change in magnetic flux continues." This is:

  • (1) Lenz’s Law
  • (2) Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction
  • (3) Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction
  • (4) Biot-Savart law

Question 15:



Internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1K
  • (3) 2K
  • (4) \(\infty\)

Question 16:



The total inductance of two inductances \(L_1\) and \(L_2\) with series opposing connection and mutual inductance \(M\) is:

  • (1) \(L_1 - L_2\)
  • (2) \(L_1 + L_2\)
  • (3) \(L_1 + L_2 + 2M\)
  • (4) \(L_1 + L_2 - 2M\)

Question 17:



Which of the following laws states that “Algebraic sum of the currents at a node is zero”?

  • (1) Kirchhoff’s current law
  • (2) Kirchhoff’s voltage law
  • (3) Thevenin’s theorem
  • (4) Norton’s theorem

Question 18:



Voltage across a short circuit is:

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) Infinite
  • (3) Changing between zero and infinite
  • (4) Unity

Question 19:



If there is a common branch with a voltage source alone between two meshes, then the combination is called:

  • (1) Super node
  • (2) Super mesh
  • (3) Single mesh
  • (4) Single node

Question 20:



“A linear bilateral network containing several sources... the algebraic sum of the currents or voltages of each individual source considered separately with all others made inoperative” is according to:

  • (1) Maximum power transfer theorem
  • (2) Superposition theorem
  • (3) Millman’s theorem
  • (4) Reciprocity theorem

Question 21:



“Any two-terminal active circuit containing voltage sources and resistances, when viewed from its output terminals, is equivalent to a constant current source and an internal resistance.” This represents:

  • (1) Maximum power transfer theorem
  • (2) Superposition theorem
  • (3) Norton’s theorem
  • (4) Thevenin’s theorem

Question 22:



“Any linear circuit containing several voltage sources and resistances can be reduced to an equivalent single voltage source and resistance” is according to:

  • (1) Maximum power transfer theorem
  • (2) Superposition theorem
  • (3) Norton’s theorem
  • (4) Thevenin’s theorem

Question 23:



The value of the alternating current which is equal to the DC current that gives the same heating effect over a fixed period of time is called:

  • (1) Average current
  • (2) Peak current
  • (3) RMS current
  • (4) Peak-to-peak current

Question 24:



In a parallel RC circuit, the supply current always \underline{\hspace{2cm the applied voltage.

  • (1) Lags
  • (2) Leads
  • (3) Remains in phase
  • (4) Cannot be defined

Question 25:



Fractional pitch winding is used in DC machines to:

  • (1) Increase eddy current
  • (2) Decrease the generated voltage
  • (3) Increase distorting harmonics
  • (4) Reduce sparking and save copper

Question 26:



The transformation ratio in a transformer is (1-primary, 2-secondary, N-turns, E-voltage):

  • (1) \(\dfrac{N_1}{N_2}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{N_2}{N_1}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{N_1}{E_2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{E_1}{N_2}\)

Question 27:



Pirani gauge operation is based on the following principle:

  • (1) Change in volume with pressure
  • (2) Change in viscosity with pressure
  • (3) Change in thermal conductivity of gas with pressure
  • (4) Ionization of gas at low pressure

Question 28:



Which of the following is a derived unit in the SI system?

  • (1) Candela
  • (2) Kelvin
  • (3) Mol
  • (4) Coulomb

Question 29:



Among bonded metal strain gauges, the foil type is more popular than wire type because:

  • (1) Error due to transverse strain is much less in foil type
  • (2) Gauge factor is much high in foil type
  • (3) Foil type is more insensitive to temperature variations
  • (4) Error due to transverse strain is much high in foil type

Question 30:



The output of LVDT with input mechanical motion of 10 Hz and excitation frequency of 400 Hz will contain frequencies:

  • (1) 10 Hz and 400 Hz
  • (2) 400 Hz only
  • (3) 10 Hz only
  • (4) 390 Hz and 410 Hz

Question 31:



Poisson’s ratio of a metal is 0.35. Neglecting the piezo resistive effect, the gauge factor of the strain gauge made up of this metal is:

  • (1) 0.65
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 1.35
  • (4) 1.70

Question 32:



The least suitable transducer for static pressure measurement is:

  • (1) Semiconductor strain gauge
  • (2) Variable capacitor transducer
  • (3) Metal wire strain gauge
  • (4) Piezoelectric transducer

Question 33:



The primary standard instrument used for calibrating vacuum is:

  • (1) McLeod gauge
  • (2) Dead weight tester
  • (3) Thermocouple gauge
  • (4) Knudsen gauge

Question 34:


Match the device with its working principle:

List-1                                             List-2

a. Bourdon gauge                         I. Thermal conductivity
b. Pirani gauge                              II. Thermal coefficient of expansion
c. Semiconductor strain gauge   III. Piezo resistive effect
d. Bi-metallic strip                        IV. Piezo electric effect
                                                        V. Deformation of element

  • (1) a–V, b–I, c–II, d–III
  • (2) a–V, b–II, c–III, d–I
  • (3) a–V, b–I, c–III, d–II
  • (4) a–V, b–III, c–I, d–II

Question 35:



Which of the following meters has the lowest pressure drop for a given range of flow?

  • (1) Orifice meter
  • (2) Venturi meter
  • (3) Flow nozzle
  • (4) Rotameter

Question 36:



The thermocouple pair that gives the maximum sensitivity of around 273 K is:

  • (1) Platinum-Constantan
  • (2) Nichrome-Constantan
  • (3) Nickil-Constantan
  • (4) Copper-Nickel

Question 37:



A shaft encoder attached to a DC motor has a sensitivity of 500 pulses per revolution. A frequency meter connected to the encoder output indicates 5500 Hz. The speed of the motor in rpm is:

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 220
  • (3) 550
  • (4) 660

Question 38:



If the amplitude is proportional to the core movement, then the output of a Differential Transformer (LVDT) is a:

  • (1) Sine-wave
  • (2) Square-wave
  • (3) Ramp-wave
  • (4) DC Voltage

Question 39:



A forward-biased silicon diode has a voltage drop of 0.64 V at negligible current. When the current is 1 A and it dissipates 1 W, the ON resistance of the diode is:

  • (1) 0.36 \( \Omega \)
  • (2) 0.64 \( \Omega \)
  • (3) 0.74 \( \Omega \)
  • (4) 1 \( \Omega \)

Question 40:



For the given circuit, the diode \( D \) is ideal. The power dissipated by the \( 300\ \Omega \) resistor is:


  • (1) 0.25 W
  • (2) 0.50 W
  • (3) 0.75 W
  • (4) 1 W

Question 41:



In the circuit shown, the ideality factor \( \eta \) of the diode is unity and the voltage drop across it is 0.7 V. The dynamic resistance of the diode at room temperature is approximately:


  • (1) \(15\ \Omega\)
  • (2) \(25\ \Omega\)
  • (3) \(50\ \Omega\)
  • (4) \(700\ \Omega\)

Question 42:



The common collector transistor configuration has the following property:

  • (1) High input and low output resistances
  • (2) High input and high output resistances
  • (3) Low input and low output resistances
  • (4) Low input and high output resistances

Question 43:



If both the junctions of a transistor are forward biased, then it will be in:

  • (1) Saturation mode
  • (2) Active mode
  • (3) Cutoff mode
  • (4) Inverse active mode

Question 44:



For a single-stage BJT common base amplifier:

  • (1) Current gain and voltage gain can be unity
  • (2) Current gain can be > 1, voltage gain < 1
  • (3) Current gain < 1, voltage gain > 1
  • (4) Both current and voltage gains < 1

Question 45:



In which of the following applications is the operational amplifier used in **nonlinear mode**?

  • (1) Integrators
  • (2) Active filters
  • (3) Schmitt triggers
  • (4) Instrumentation amplifiers

Question 46:



The input resistance of the op-amp circuit shown is:



  • (1) \(100\ k\Omega\)
  • (2) \(1\ k\Omega\)
  • (3) \(99\ k\Omega\)
  • (4) \(101\ k\Omega\)

Question 47:



The output voltage \(V_o\) of the circuit is:



  • (1) \(-20\ V\)
  • (2) \(20\ V\)
  • (3) \(-30\ V\)
  • (4) \(30\ V\)

Question 48:



The operational amplifier uses differential input stage with a constant current source mainly to obtain:

  • (1) Very low common mode gain
  • (2) Very high differential gain
  • (3) Very low input noise
  • (4) Very high input resistance

Question 49:



In a sample and hold circuit with two buffers, one at input and the other at output, the primary requirement for both buffers is:

  • (1) Input buffer: high slew rate; output buffer: low bias current
  • (2) Input buffer: low bias current; output buffer: high slew rate
  • (3) Both should have low bias currents
  • (4) Both should have high slew rate

Question 50:



The potential difference between the input terminals of an op-amp can be treated as nearly zero if:

  • (1) The two supply voltages are balanced
  • (2) The output voltage is not saturated
  • (3) The op-amp used in a circuit has negative feedback
  • (4) There is a DC bias path from terminals to ground

Question 51:



An ideal op-amp has the characteristic of an ideal:

  • (1) Voltage controlled voltage source
  • (2) Voltage controlled current source
  • (3) Current controlled voltage source
  • (4) Current controlled current source

Question 52:



For the active filter shown, the DC gain and the 3 dB cutoff frequency are nearly:
\[ C_1 = 1.0\ nF,\ R_1 = 15.9\ k\Omega,\ R_2 = 159\ k\Omega \]


  • (1) 40 dB, 3.14 kHz
  • (2) 40 dB, 1 kHz
  • (3) 20 dB, 6.28 kHz
  • (4) 20 dB, 1 kHz

Question 53:



A Class B push-pull complementary symmetry amplifier uses:

  • (1) Two NPN transistors
  • (2) One PNP and one NPN transistor
  • (3) Two PNP transistors
  • (4) Pre-amplifier of NPN, then two-transistor amplifier

Question 54:



Match amplifier class with its conduction cycle:

Class list              Cycle list

A   Class A      P   one half cycle
B   Class B     Q   less than half cycle
C   Class AB   R   full cycle
D   Class C     S  more than half cycle but less than full cycle

 

  • (1) A–R, B–P, C–Q, D–S
  • (2) A–R, B–P, C–S, D–Q
  • (3) A–S, B–R, C–P, D–Q
  • (4) A–R, B–S, C–Q, D–P
Correct Answer: (2) A–R, B–P, C–S, D–Q

Question 55:



The OPAMP shown in the figure is:



  • (1) Low pass filter with gain = 1
  • (2) Low pass filter with gain = 2
  • (3) High pass filter with gain = 1
  • (4) High pass filter with gain = 2

Question 56:



For the RC circuit shown, the condition for obtaining \( \left|\frac{V_0}{V_{in}}\right| = \frac{1}{3} \) at frequency \( \omega \) rad/sec is:



  • (1) \( 3\omega CR - 1 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 2\omega CR - 1 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( 3\omega CR - 2 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( \omega CR - 1 = 0 \)

Question 57:



The Boolean expression \( \overline{A + B + \overline{C}} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \overline{A} + \overline{B} + C \)
  • (2) \( \overline{A} + \overline{B} + \overline{C} \)
  • (3) \( \overline{\overline{A} \cdot \overline{B} \cdot C} \)
  • (4) \( \overline{A} \cdot B + \overline{C} \)

Question 58:



The minimal sum of products form of \( f = \overline{A}BCD + \overline{A}BCD + BCD + \overline{A}BC \) is:

  • (1) \( \overline{A}C + BD \)
  • (2) \( \overline{A}C + CD \)
  • (3) \( AC + \overline{B}D \)
  • (4) \( \overline{A}B + \overline{C}D \)

Question 59:



The expression \( a = \overline{AB} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \overline{A} + \overline{B} \)
  • (2) \( AB + A \)
  • (3) \( A + B \)
  • (4) \( AB \)

Question 60:



The combinational circuit shown uses a 4x1 multiplexer. The output \( Q \) of the circuit is:



  • (1) \( A \cdot \overline{B} \cdot C \)
  • (2) \( A + B + C \)
  • (3) \( A \oplus B \oplus C \)
  • (4) \( \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B} \cdot \overline{C} \)

Question 61:



The output \( Q_{n+1} \) of a JK flip-flop for the input \( J = 1, K = 1 \) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \( Q_n \)
  • (4) \( \overline{Q_n} \)

Question 62:



The minimum number of flip-flops required to design a mod-10 counter is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 10

Question 63:



The binary representation of the decimal number 1.375 is:

  • (1) 1.111
  • (2) 1.010
  • (3) 1.011
  • (4) 1.001

Question 64:



The result of \( 45_{10} - 45_{16} \), expressed in 6-bit 2's complement, is:

  • (1) 011000
  • (2) 100111
  • (3) 101000
  • (4) 101001

Question 65:



Which of the following logic families has the highest fan-out?

  • (1) TTL
  • (2) ECL
  • (3) NMOS
  • (4) CMOS

Question 66:



Which of the following has the refreshing circuitry?

  • (1) Static RAM
  • (2) Dynamic RAM
  • (3) PROM
  • (4) EPROM

Question 67:



A 4-bit synchronous counter with series carry uses flip-flops and two AND gates with propagation delays of 30 ns and 10 ns respectively. The max time between successive clock pulses is:

  • (1) 10 ns
  • (2) 30 ns
  • (3) 40 ns
  • (4) 50 ns

Question 68:



In the JK flip-flop shown, initial Q = 0. Find output sequence at Q after each clock if \( J = K = 1 \):



  • (1) 0000…
  • (2) 1010…
  • (3) 1111…
  • (4) 1000…

Question 69:



In the given circuit, the race around condition:



  • (1) Does not occur
  • (2) Occurs when clock is zero
  • (3) Occurs when clock is one, A = B = 1
  • (4) Occurs when clock is one and A = B = 0

Question 70:



Introducing Schottky diode between base and collector of TTL output transistor:

  • (1) Increases speed by inhibiting saturation
  • (2) Decreases speed by inhibiting saturation
  • (3) Increases fan-out by enabling saturation
  • (4) Increases speed by enabling saturation

Question 71:



A computer has a memory space of \( 2^{16} \) and word length of 24 bits. Each memory chip has 10 address lines and 8 data lines. Number of chips required is:

  • (1) 192
  • (2) 256
  • (3) 512
  • (4) 1024

Question 72:



An 8-bit microcontroller with memory map from 8000H to 9FFFH stores how many bytes?

  • (1) 8193
  • (2) 8191
  • (3) 8192
  • (4) 8000

Question 73:



Which of the following statement is correct?

  • (1) Static RAMs are faster than dynamic RAMs
  • (2) RAMs cannot be used to realise read/write memory
  • (3) RAMs are not random access devices
  • (4) RAMs are generally non-volatile

Question 74:



An advantage of dual slope A/D converter is:

  • (1) is faster
  • (2) eliminates error due to drift
  • (3) can reduce errors due to power supply
  • (4) does not require a stable voltage source

Question 75:



The stack pointer in a microprocessor is a register containing:

  • (1) the address of the next operand
  • (2) the current size of the stack
  • (3) the address of the top of the stack
  • (4) the address for storing result of automatic operations temporarily

Question 76:



A \( m \)-bit microprocessor has a \( m \)-bit:

  • (1) flag register
  • (2) instruction register
  • (3) data register
  • (4) program counter

Question 77:



For the signal \( x(t) = [1 + 0.5 \cos(40\pi t)] \cos(200\pi t) \), find the fundamental frequency in Hz.

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 200

Question 78:



Which of the following is not true for a continuous-time causal and stable LTI system?

  • (1) All poles lie on the left half of s-plane
  • (2) Zeros can lie anywhere in s-plane
  • (3) All poles lie within \( |s|=1 \)
  • (4) Roots of characteristic eqn lie left of jω-axis

Question 79:



Given \( h(t) = \delta(t-1) + \delta(t-3) \), find step response at \( t = 2 \).

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 80:



Which one of the following discrete-time systems is time-invariant?

  • (1) \( y(n) = nx(n) \)
  • (2) \( y(n) = x(3n) \)
  • (3) \( y(n) = x(-n)\pi \)
  • (4) \( y(n) = x(n-3) \)

Question 81:



Which of the following sequence \( f(n) \) has z-transform \( X(z) = e^{1/z} \)?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{n!} u(n) \)
  • (2) \( -\frac{1}{n!} u(-n) \)
  • (3) \( (-1)^n \frac{1}{n!} u(n) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{u(-n-1)}{(n+1)!} \)

Question 82:



If a real function \( f(t) \) has a Fourier Transform \( F(\omega) \), then the Fourier transform of \( f(t) - f(-t) \) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) real
  • (3) real and odd
  • (4) imaginary

Question 83:



Find the inverse Fourier transform of \( F(f) = \frac{3\pi f}{1 + j\pi f} \)

  • (1) \( 3\delta(t) - 6e^{-2t} u(t) \)
  • (2) \( 3e^{-t} u(t) \)
  • (3) \( 2\delta(t) + 3e^{-t} u(t) \)
  • (4) \( 6e^{-3t} u(t) \)

Question 84:



A signal \( x(t) = 5 \cos(150\pi t - 60^\circ) \) is sampled at 200 Hz. The fundamental period of the sampled sequence \( x(n) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{200} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{200} \)
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8

Question 85:



A bandlimited signal with highest frequency content of 1000 Hz is undergoing uniform sampling. The minimum sampling frequency required to recover the original signal is:

  • (1) 500 Hz
  • (2) 100 Hz
  • (3) 1500 Hz
  • (4) 2000 Hz

Question 86:


Match the modulation (List-1) with the type of demodulator (List-2):

List-1            List-2

A   AM    P. Envelope detector
B  FM     Q. Slope detector
               R. Peak detector

 

  • (1) A - P, B - Q
  • (2) A - Q, B - R
  • (3) A - Q, B - P
  • (4) A - P, B - R

Question 87:


A phase locked loop can be employed for demodulation of

  • (1) pulse amplitude modulation signal
  • (2) pulse code modulation signal
  • (3) frequency modulation signal
  • (4) signal side band amplitude modulation signals

Question 88:


In an FM Broadcast, the maximum frequency deviation allowed is 75 kHz and the maximum modulation frequency is 15 kHz. The bandwidth is closest to

  • (1) 180 kHz
  • (2) 60 kHz
  • (3) 105 kHz
  • (4) 120 kHz

Question 89:


The type of A/D converter normally used in a 3 ½ digit multimeter is

  • (1) voltage to frequency converter type
  • (2) flash type
  • (3) successive approximation type
  • (4) dual slope integrating type

Question 90:


The instrument that does not have any restoring torque is

  • (1) Moving iron instrument
  • (2) Flux meter
  • (3) Ballistic galvanometer
  • (4) D’arsonval Galvanometer

Question 91:


An ammeter with input resistance of 50 \(\Omega\) gives full scale deflection for 50 \(\mu\)A current.
The input resistance of a 0–1 mA ammeter obtained by connecting a shunt across the 0–50 \(\mu\)A meter will be:

  • (1) 50 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 25 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 5 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 2.5 \(\Omega\)

Question 92:


Match the parameter (List-1) with the type of bridge (List-2) used for measurement:

List-1                         List-2
A   Low value of R   P. Schering bridge
B  High value of Q   Q. Maxwell bridge
C  Inductance L        R. Kelvin double bridge
D  Capacitance C     S. Hay’s bridge

  • (1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
  • (2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
  • (3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
  • (4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

Question 93:


Wien bridge is best suited for the measurement of

  • (1) frequency
  • (2) capacitance
  • (3) inductance
  • (4) resistance

Question 94:


If the open loop transfer function of the negative feedback control system is \[ G(s)H(s) = \frac{k}{(s+1)^3}, \]
then the gain \(k\) for a closed loop pole at \[ \left( \frac{1}{2} + j\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right) \]
is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 95:


A transfer function has two zeros at infinity. Then the relation between the numerator degree (N) and the denominator degree (M) of the transfer function is:

  • (1) N = M + 2
  • (2) N = M - 2
  • (3) N = M + 1
  • (4) N = M - 1

Question 96:


The transfer function of the system is the Laplace transform of its

  • (1) square wave response
  • (2) step response
  • (3) ramp response
  • (4) impulse response

Question 97:


The transfer function between \( y_2 \) and \( y_1 \) in the figure shown is:

  • (1) \( a + b \)
  • (2) \( (a + b)c \)
  • (3) \( \frac{a + b}{1 - c} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{a + b}{1 + c} \)

Question 98:


A temperature control system is usually very sluggish. To improve its dynamics:

  • (1) a PI controller can be used
  • (2) an I controller can be used
  • (3) PID controller with large I and negligible D can be used
  • (4) PD controller can be used

Question 99:


A first order system with a proportional controller exhibits an offset to step input. The offset can be reduced by:

  • (1) increasing the gain
  • (2) adding integral mode
  • (3) adding derivative mode
  • (4) decreasing the gain

Question 100:


An integral controller is used to:

  • (1) improve transient response
  • (2) reduce the offset
  • (3) eliminate the offset
  • (4) reduce the settling time

Question 101:


The system \( G(s) = \frac{0.8}{s^2 + s - 2} \) is subjected to a step input. The system output \( y(t) \) as \( t \rightarrow \infty \) is:

  • (1) 0.8
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) -0.4
  • (4) unbounded

Question 102:


If the transfer function of a system is \( G(s) = \frac{A}{s^2 + \omega^2} \), then the steady state gain of the system to a unit step input is:

  • (1) \( \frac{A}{\omega^2} \)
  • (2) zero
  • (3) infinity
  • (4) Not possible to be determined

Question 103:


Consider a unity feedback control system whose forward path transfer function is \( G(s) = \frac{K}{s^2} \). The steady state error for a step input is:

  • (1) 1.0
  • (2) infinity
  • (3) 0.0
  • (4) does not exist

Question 104:


The breakaway point of the root locus on the real axis for a closed loop system with a loop gain \( G(s) = \frac{K(s+10)}{(s+2)(s+5)} \) is:

  • (1) between -2 and origin
  • (2) between -2 and -5
  • (3) between -10 and \( -\infty \)
  • (4) at \( -\infty \)

Question 105:


The phase margin of the system for which the loop gain \( GH(j\omega) = \frac{A_1}{(j\omega + 1)^3} \) is:

  • (1) \( -\pi \)
  • (2) \( \pi \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)

Question 106:


An optical fiber is characterized by

  • (1) Total internal reflection
  • (2) A core material of reflective index lower than that of cladding
  • (3) Scattering loss
  • (4) Diffraction

Question 107:


A step index optical fiber whose refractive indices of the core and cladding are 1.44 and 1.40 respectively, is surrounded by air. Its numerical aperture is

  • (1) 0.12
  • (2) 0.75
  • (3) 0.06
  • (4) 0.34

Question 108:


An optical fiber has a refractive index of 1.641 for the core and 1.422 for the cladding.
The critical angle above which a ray will be totally internally reflected is

  • (1) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 41^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 37^\circ \)

Question 109:


The coherence length of the He-Ne laser beam is 120 cm. Its coherence time in seconds is:

  • (1) \( 4 \times 10^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (3) \( 4 \times 10^{-5} \)
  • (4) \( 4 \times 10^{-9} \)

Question 110:


Collimated light beams from a He-Ne laser and a sodium vapor lamp are focused using a lens.
The size of the spot at the focal point due to the laser is relatively smaller because

  • (1) Laser light is relatively more monochromatic
  • (2) The limiting divergence of the laser light is relatively smaller
  • (3) The output power of the laser is relatively larger
  • (4) The wavelength of the laser is relatively longer

Question 111:


The Geiger counter has high quantum efficiency in the wavelength range of

  • (1) 0.2 to 0.3
  • (2) 0.4 to 0.5
  • (3) 1.5 to 2.1
  • (4) 6 to 7

Question 112:


Match the instruments with the parameters they measure:

List-1 (Instrument)        List-2 (Parameter)
A Autocollimeter           Q. Angular error
B Hygrometer                S. Humidity
C Nephelometer            T. Density
D Mass spectrometer   R. Molecular weight

  • (1) A-Q, B-S, C-T, D-R
  • (2) A-S, B-T, C-R, D-Q
  • (3) A-T, B-R, C-Q, D-S
  • (4) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-T

Question 113:


A psychrometric chart is used to determine

  • (1) pH value
  • (2) sound velocity in glasses
  • (3) CO\textsubscript{2} concentration
  • (4) Relative humidity

Question 114:


IR spectroscopy

  • (1) has useful range of radiation from 2.5 to 15 microns
  • (2) uses Bolo meter as one of the detectors
  • (3) is unsuitable for analysis of organic gases
  • (4) is unsuitable for analysis of mixture of metals

Question 115:


Gas chromatography is used for

  • (1) measuring flow rate of a gas
  • (2) measuring temperature of a gas
  • (3) measuring pressure of a gas
  • (4) analysing the composition of a gas

Question 116:


Korotkoff sounds are used

  • (1) as a reference for sound level measurement
  • (2) for studying hard muscle functioning
  • (3) for BP measurement
  • (4) for study of heart valve functioning

Question 117:


In the standard 12-lead ECG recording system, the minimum number of electrodes required to be attached to the human subject for recording any one of the unipolar chest lead signals is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 118:


A standard three-lead frontal plane ECG is taken from a person with a normal heart. The peak amplitude of R wave is

  • (1) Greatest in lead I
  • (2) Greatest in lead II
  • (3) Greatest in lead III
  • (4) Equal in all the leads

Question 119:


The treadmill test is used to diagnose

  • (1) The balance in style during walk of the patient
  • (2) The auditory activity of the patient
  • (3) The visual activity of the patient
  • (4) The cardiac activity of the patient

Question 120:


In an electromagnetic blood flow meter, the induced voltage is directly proportional to the

  • (1) Blood flow rate
  • (2) Square root of the blood flow rate
  • (3) Square of the blood flow rate
  • (4) Logarithm of the blood flow rate


TS PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    The quantum confinement effect in nanoparticles is observed when:

      • The particle size is larger than 1 micron
      • The particle size is smaller than the electron’s de Broglie wavelength
      • The particle is in a vacuum
      • The temperature is near absolute zero

    • 2.
      A bag contains 3 red and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability that both are red?

        • $\frac{3}{10}$
        • $\frac{1}{5}$
        • $\frac{2}{5}$
        • $\frac{1}{10}$

      • 3.
        Which of the following materials exhibits superparamagnetism at the nanoscale?

          • Gold nanoparticles
          • Silicon nanowires
          • Iron oxide nanoparticles
          • Carbon nanotubes

        • 4.
          The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is used to:

            • Estimate the financial profitability of a project
            • Predict environmental consequences of proposed initiatives
            • Replace the need for environmental regulations
            • Design new energy-efficient equipment

          • 5.
            Which of the following techniques is primarily used for the synthesis of carbon nanotubes?

              • Atomic Layer Deposition (ALD)
              • Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD)
              • Electrospinning
              • Hydrothermal Synthesis

            • 6.
              The ISO 14001 standard deals with:

                • Quality Management Systems
                • Financial Management Systems
                • Environmental Management System
                • Occupational Health and Safety

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General1000
              sc500

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