TS PGECET 2024 Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Let

If \( C \) and \( D \) are two \( 3 \times 3 \) matrices such that:
- \( A + C \) is symmetric,
- \( A - C \) is skew-symmetric, and
- \( B = D^\top \),

then find \( (C - D)^\top \).

If \( \overline{X}_1 \) and \( \overline{X}_2 \) are any two eigenvectors corresponding to eigenvalues \( \lambda_1 \) and \( \lambda_2 \) respectively, then

• (1) \( \exists \) a constant \( K \) such that \( \overline{X}_1 = K \overline{X}_2 \), whenever \( \lambda_1 \ne \lambda_2 \)
• (2) \( \nexists \) constant \( K \) such that \( \overline{X}_1 = K \overline{X}_2 \), whenever \( \lambda_1 \ne \lambda_2 \)
• (3) \( \nexists \) constant \( K \) such that \( \overline{X}_1 = K \overline{X}_2 \), whenever \( \lambda_1 = \lambda_2 \)
• (4) \( \overline{X}_1 = \overline{X}_2 \) whenever \( \lambda_1 = \lambda_2 \)

The equations \[ a_1x + b_1y + c_1z = d_1,\quad a_2x + b_2y + c_2z = d_2,\quad a_3x + b_3y + c_3z = d_3 \]
represent three planes. Given that \( d_1d_2d_3 \ne 0 \) and \[ \frac{a_i}{a_j} \ne \frac{b_i}{b_j} \ne \frac{c_i}{c_j} \quad for i, j = 1, 2, 3,\ i \ne j, \]
Let \[ A = \begin{bmatrix} a_1 & b_1 & c_1
a_2 & b_2 & c_2
a_3 & b_3 & c_3 \end{bmatrix}, \quad B = \begin{bmatrix} d_1
d_2
d_3 \end{bmatrix}. \]
If \( rank(A) = rank([A:B]) = 2 \), then the planes are such that

• (1) line of intersection of any two is parallel to the third plane
• (2) line of intersection of any two planes cuts the third plane
• (3) line of intersection of any two planes lies on the third plane
• (4) the three planes are adjacent faces of a box

If \( |Z| > 2 \) and the coefficients of \( Z^{12} \) and \( \frac{1}{Z^{12}} \) in the Laurent series expansion of \[ \frac{1}{(1 - Z)(2 - Z)} \]
are \( A \) and \( B \) respectively, then compute \( 2024 - A \).

• (1) \( B + 23 \)
• (2) \( B - 23 \)
• (3) \( B - 1 \)
• (4) \( B + 1 \)

Given \[ \oint_C \frac{f(z)}{z - a} \, dz = 0, \]
where \( C: |z| = K \). Consider the following conclusions:


[I.] \( K < |a| \) and \( f(z) \) is analytic inside and on \( C \).
[II.] \( f(z) = (z - a)^n g(z) \) for \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), and \( g(z) \) is analytic inside and on \( C \).


Which of the following is true?

• (1) I alone is true
• (2) II alone is true
• (3) Both I and II are true
• (4) Neither I nor II is true

Three students A, B and C write an entrance exam. The chance that at least one of them passes the exam is \( \frac{3}{4} \).
If the probability that A and C pass the exam are respectively \( \frac{1}{2} \) and \( \frac{1}{4} \), then the probability that B does **not** pass that exam is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
• (4) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

If the mean of a random variable which follows exponential distribution is \( \frac{1}{3} \), then the probability that the random variable \( X \) takes the values more than \( r \) is greater than \( \frac{1}{e^5} \), then

• (1) \( r > \frac{5}{3} \)
• (2) \( r < \frac{5}{3} \)
• (3) \( r > \frac{1}{6} \)
• (4) \( r < \frac{1}{6} \)

Let \( \vec{F} \) be an irrotational vector function. If \( C \) is the closed curve which is the boundary of an open surface \( S \), then: \[ \oint_C \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{R} = ? \]

• (1) \( \iint_E \left( \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial x^2} - \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial y^2} \right) dx\,dy \), \( \phi \) is a scalar function and \( E \) is the region of \( C \)
• (2) \( \iiint_S div \vec{F} \, dv \)
• (3) \( \int_C (grad \phi) \cdot d\vec{R} = 0 \), for some scalar function \( \phi \)
• (4) divergence of \( \vec{F} \)

If \( x + y + z = 45 \) and the maximum value of \( x^4 y^6 z^5 \) exists at \( x = \alpha,\, y = \beta,\, z = \gamma \), then the value of \[ \frac{\alpha + \beta}{\gamma} = ? \]

• (1) 2
• (2) 1
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

If it is known that \[ \int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{ix}}{x} dx = \frac{\pi i}{2}, \]
then compute: \[ \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin 5x}{x} dx = ? \]

• (1) \( \frac{\pi}{10} \)
• (2) \( \frac{5\pi}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} + 5 \)

In which of the following stages of a river are meanders formed commonly?

• (1) youthful age
• (2) mature age
• (3) old age
• (4) both mature and youthful age

An elongated sandy deposit that extends out into open water in the direction of a longshore current is called:

• (1) fore reef
• (2) tombolo
• (3) spit
• (4) rip-rap

Size of the landform on the surface of the Earth is:

• (1) smallest part
• (2) small to medium part
• (3) medium part
• (4) medium to largest part

The point bars which form in the concave side of meanders of large rivers consist of:

• (1) pure clayey deposits
• (2) pure sandy deposits
• (3) coarse sized deposits
• (4) mixed size of sediments

Which of the following is not a basic aspect of applied geomorphology?

• (1) mapping of landforms
• (2) interpretation of aerial photographs and images
• (3) assessing the causes of sustainable changes
• (4) monitoring the environmental changes

Approximate mass of the Earth is:

• (1) \( 5.97 \times 10^{24} \) kg
• (2) \( 5.97 \times 10^{24} \) tonnes
• (3) \( 5.97 \times 10^{24} \) N
• (4) \( 5.97 \times 10^{24} \) kN

The average thickness of the Ozone layer in India is:

• (1) 100 Dobson
• (2) 200 Dobson
• (3) 300 Dobson
• (4) 400 Dobson

When viewed from above the Northern Hemisphere, the Earth orbits the Sun at an average distance of:

• (1) 149.60 million km in a counterclockwise direction
• (2) 149.60 million km in a clockwise direction
• (3) 149.60 billion km in a counterclockwise direction
• (4) 149.60 billion km in a clockwise direction

For an observer at a northern latitude, when the North Pole is tilted towards the Sun, the day lasts:

• (1) longer and the Sun appears lower in the sky
• (2) shorter and the Sun appears higher in the sky
• (3) longer and the Sun appears higher in the sky
• (4) shorter and the Sun appears lower in the sky

The average depth of the Indian Ocean basin is:

• (1) 1.7 km
• (2) 2.7 km
• (3) 3.7 km
• (4) 4.7 km

Indian Ocean basin surface water salinity varies between:

• (1) 32 and 37 parts per thousand
• (2) 22 and 27 parts per thousand
• (3) 12 and 17 parts per thousand
• (4) 2 and 7 parts per thousand

A mountain with pointed summits which rises from the sea floor but does not reach the surface of the ocean is called:

• (1) submarine canyons
• (2) seamount
• (3) atoll
• (4) guyots

Which of the following is the cleavage of Galena mineral?

• (1) octahedral
• (2) cubic
• (3) irregular fracture surface
• (4) regular fracture surface

The luster and crystal system of a Topaz mineral respectively are:

• (1) metallic and triclinic
• (2) greasy and tetragonal
• (3) dull and monocline
• (4) vitreous and orthorhombic

The diaphaneity of Gypsum mineral is:

• (1) opaque
• (2) transparent to translucent
• (3) Opaque to translucent
• (4) translucent

If \( Q \) = depth of runoff in inches, \( P \) = depth of rainfall in inches, \( I_a \) = initial abstraction in inches, and \( S \) = maximum potential retention in inches, then which of the following is the correct equation for the curve number runoff?

• (1) \( Q = \frac{(P - I_a)^2}{(P - I_a + S)} \)
• (2) \( Q = \frac{(P + I_a)^2}{(P - I_a - S)} \)
• (3) \( Q = \frac{(P - I_a)^2}{(P + I_a + S)} \)
• (4) \( Q = \frac{(P - I_a)^2}{(P - I_a - S)} \)

For any time step, when the effective precipitation \( (P_E) \) exceeds infiltration \( (I) \), the total rainfall excess \( (TRE) \) can be computed as:

• (1) \( TRE = (P_E - I) \)
• (2) \( TRE = (P_E + I) \)
• (3) \( TRE = (P_E - I)^2 \)
• (4) \( TRE = (P_E + I)^2 \)

The boundary between the unsaturated and saturated water zones in the underground is called:

• (1) vadose zone
• (2) ground water table
• (3) phreatic line
• (4) capillary zone

Which of the following doesn’t come under scope of environment?

• (1) nature and natural resources
• (2) biological diversity
• (3) pollution
• (4) stabilization of soil

The component of environment which deals with soil and rock is known as:

• (1) Lithosphere
• (2) Biosphere
• (3) Atmosphere
• (4) Hydrosphere

Which of the following exactly belongs to the abiotic component of the environment?

• (1) animals and water
• (2) plants and soil
• (3) water and soil
• (4) microorganisms and water

Out of the available fresh water on Earth, the approximate percentage of groundwater is about:

• (1) 3.0
• (2) 30
• (3) 7.0
• (4) 70

Which of the following soils have high permeability?

• (1) clay
• (2) silt
• (3) loose sand
• (4) dense sand

A soil has a void ratio of 0.50. Then its porosity is:

• (1) 3
• (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
• (3) 2
• (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

The size of coarse sand ranges between:

• (1) 20 mm and 80 mm
• (2) 4.75 mm and 20 mm
• (3) 2.0 mm and 4.75 mm
• (4) 0.425 mm to 2.0 mm

The structure formed after the formation of host rock is called:

• (1) geologic structure
• (2) tectonic structure
• (3) primary structure
• (4) secondary structure

In an angular unconformity, the younger strata are oriented as:

• (1) dipping 45°
• (2) dipping 60°
• (3) inclined
• (4) horizontal

When denser sand sinks into less dense wet mud, the bulges formed at the bottom of a sandstone bed are called:

• (1) slump structures
• (2) mud cracks
• (3) load structures
• (4) convolute lamination

The line of maximum curvature on a folded surface is known as:

• (1) hinge line
• (2) plunge line
• (3) angle line
• (4) fold line

Thrusts are characterized by:

• (1) transporting younger rocks on top of older ones over a long distance
• (2) transporting older rocks on top of younger ones over a short distance
• (3) transporting younger rocks on top of older ones over a short distance
• (4) transporting older rocks on top of younger ones over a long distance

In which type of rock generally, the rock cleavage can be noticed?

• (1) fine grained rock
• (2) coarse grained rock
• (3) both fine and coarse-grained rocks
• (4) acidic rocks

The lineations which are formed due to shearing of rocks during asymmetric deformation of a rock mass are known as:

• (1) intersection lineations
• (2) crenulation lineations
• (3) mineral lineations
• (4) stretching lineations

Which portion of the spherical projection does a mineralogist use for crystallographic analysis?

• (1) bottom half
• (2) top half
• (3) both top and bottom individually
• (4) whole spherical projection at a time

Tectonites which allow the rock to split into plate-like sheets are called:

• (1) L-tectonites
• (2) S-tectonics
• (3) LS-tectonites
• (4) SL-tectonites

Which of the following is not a correct statement?

• (1) shear zones provide information about deformation
• (2) shear zones help us to determine amount of strain
• (3) shear zones help us to determine the cleavage
• (4) shear zones help us to determine amount of displacement

In which of the following shear zones, the physical break cannot be noticed?

• (1) brittle shear zone
• (2) ductile shear zone
• (3) semi brittle shear zone
• (4) ductile-brittle shear zone

The basement rocks are often:

• (1) highly sedimentary and non-crystalline in nature
• (2) highly sedimentary but crystalline in nature
• (3) highly metamorphic and non-crystalline in nature
• (4) highly metamorphic and crystalline in nature

The ratio of silicon to oxygen in pyroxenes is:

• (1) 1:1
• (2) 1:2
• (3) 3:1
• (4) 1:3

Olivine mineral chemical formula is:

• (1) \( (Mg, Fe)_2SiO_4 \)
• (2) \( (Mg, Fe)_3SiO_4 \)
• (3) \( (Mg, Fe)_4SiO_4 \)
• (4) \( (Mg, Fe)_5SiO_4 \)

The absolute refractive index for a mineral is defined as the refraction relative to that in air. Then its value for different minerals ranges between:

• (1) 1 and 1.2
• (2) 1.3 and 2
• (3) 2 and 3
• (4) 3 and 4.5

In a Brazilian test, the rock specimen diameter shall preferably be:

• (1) not less than NX core size (54 mm), or at least 10 times the average grain size
• (2) not less than NX core size (75 mm), or at least 10 times the average grain size
• (3) not less than NX core size (54 mm), or at least 20 times the average grain size
• (4) not less than NX core size (75 mm), or at least 20 times the average grain size

The absorption value of stones is estimated corresponding to the saturation period of:

• (1) 24 hours or until full saturation
• (2) 48 hours or until full saturation
• (3) 72 hours or until full saturation
• (4) 36 hours or until full saturation

For a stone to be used in road work, the coefficient of hardness as worked out from the hardness test should be:

• (1) more than 17
• (2) 15 to 17
• (3) 9 to 15
• (4) less than 9

Which of the following orientation of beds is most suitable for dam construction?

• (1) beds which are faulted
• (2) beds which are folded
• (3) beds with gently inclined in upstream direction
• (4) beds with steep upstream dip

Which of the following minerals possesses more electrical resistivity?

• (1) quartz
• (2) granite
• (3) mica
• (4) basalt

For a fair rock, the Rock Quality Designation (RQD) in percentage varies from:

• (1) 0 to 25
• (2) 25 to 50
• (3) 50 to 75
• (4) 75 to 90

Which of the following materials is an example for aquitard?

• (1) sand and poorly fractured metamorphic rock
• (2) clay and highly fractured metamorphic rocks
• (3) till and highly fractured metamorphic rocks
• (4) poorly fractured metamorphic rock and clay

An earthquake with a hypocenter depth exceeding 300 km is known as:

• (1) Shallow-focus earthquake
• (2) Intermediate-focus earthquake
• (3) Deep-focus earthquake
• (4) Surface-focus earthquake

Which of the following is the ISO standard for water quality?

• (1) ISO 24512: 2007
• (2) ISO 9001: 2015
• (3) ISO 27001: 2013
• (4) ISO 14001: 2015

Which of the following is not an assumption of Theis equation?

• (1) constant discharge of water
• (2) homogeneous and isotropic soil
• (3) partially penetrating well
• (4) water released immediately from aquifer storage

The Earth’s equatorial and polar radius respectively are:

• (1) 6357 km and 6378 km
• (2) 6378 km and 6357 km
• (3) 3189 km and 3178.5 km
• (4) 3178.5 km and 3189 km

The angle of inclination of the axis of rotation of Earth is:

• (1) 22.0 degrees
• (2) 22.5 degrees
• (3) 23.0 degrees
• (4) 23.5 degrees

How many degrees of longitude does each time zone cover?

• (1) 15
• (2) 30
• (3) 60
• (4) 180

Gravitational potential is defined as:

• (1) work done by the gravitational force per unit area
• (2) work done by the gravitational force per unit volume
• (3) work done by the gravitational force per unit mass
• (4) work done by the gravitational force per unit time

The unit of acceleration due to gravity in Newtons (N) and kilograms (kg) is:

• (1) \( N kg^{-1} \)
• (2) \( kg N^{-1} \)
• (3) Nkg
• (4) \( N^{-1} kg^{-1} \)

The point on the orbital of the Earth which is nearest to the Sun is called:

• (1) perihelion point
• (2) aphelion point
• (3) shortest distance point
• (4) highest distance point

The geomagnetic field present on the Earth protects our planet from:

• (1) thermal power radiation hazards
• (2) nuclear radiation hazards
• (3) seismic radiation hazards
• (4) cosmic radiation hazards

Which of the following minerals is a weak magnetic mineral?

• (1) magnetite
• (2) allanite
• (3) hematite
• (4) axinite

The most commonly available minerals in the oceanic crust are:

• (1) clinopyroxene, orthopyroxene, olivine
• (2) quartz, feldspar, mica
• (3) clinopyroxene, quartz, feldspar, mica
• (4) orthopyroxene, feldspar, mica

The Earth's circumference is nearly:

• (1) 30075 km
• (2) 40075 km
• (3) 50075 km
• (4) 60075 km

Which of the following physical properties of the Earth's mantle controls the transmission of geomagnetic signals from the core to the surface?

• (1) electrical conductivity
• (2) electrical voltage
• (3) electric rotational energy
• (4) electric current

The Gutenberg discontinuity is located at:

• (1) boundary between the Earth's crust and mantle
• (2) within the mantle zone
• (3) boundary between the Earth's mantle and core
• (4) within the core zone

The Earth's magnetic field approximately ranges between:

• (1) 250 and 650 microteslas
• (2) 25 and 65 microteslas
• (3) 2.5 and 6.5 microteslas
• (4) 0.25 and 0.65 microteslas

Which of the following natural calamities cannot be predicted in advance very accurately?

• (1) Famine
• (2) Flood
• (3) Cyclone
• (4) Earthquake

Which of the following is used to quantify the energy that is released during an earthquake?

• (1) Seismograph
• (2) Seismogram
• (3) Richter scale
• (4) Damper

Which of the following magnitude of an earthquake results in serious damage?

• (1) 5.5 to 6
• (2) 7.0 to 7.9
• (3) 6.1 to 6.9
• (4) 5.1 to 5.4

The earthquake magnitude is the measure of:

• (1) Seismic wave amplitude
• (2) Seismic wave velocity
• (3) Seismic wave length
• (4) Seismic wave period

If \(I_0\) is the intensity of an earthquake, which of the following expressions is the correct one as per the Gutenberg and Richter for local magnitude of an earthquake?

• (1) \(M_L = (2/3) I_0 + 1\)
• (2) \(M_L = (3/2) I_0 + 1\)
• (3) \(M_L = (2/3) I_0\)
• (4) \(M_L = (3/2) I_0\)

Choose the correct option from the following in relation to occurrence of liquefaction of soil:

• (1) High ground water table, static load and loose fine sand
• (2) High ground water table, static load and dense coarse sand
• (3) High ground water table, dynamic load and loose fine sand
• (4) High ground water table, dynamic load and dense coarse sand

For which of the following seismic waves the velocity is directly proportional to the shear strength of the material through which they pass?

• (1) R-waves
• (2) L-waves
• (3) P-wave
• (4) S-waves

Which of the following is the correct relation between photographic scale (\(S\)) and focal length (\(f\)) of the camera lens?

• (1) \(S \propto f\)
• (2) \(S \propto (1/f)\)
• (3) \(S \propto f^2\)
• (4) \(S \propto (1/f^2)\)

For the medium scale aerial photographs, the scale ranges between:

• (1) 1 : 10000 and 1 : 15000
• (2) 1 : 30000 and 1 : 50000
• (3) 1 : 15000 and 1 : 30000
• (4) 1 : 50000 and 1 : 10000

Which of the following is the correct one as per the scale of aerial photograph and scale of map is concerned?

• (1) Scale of aerial photograph is uniform throughout
• (2) Scale of aerial photograph is non-uniform throughout
• (3) Scale of map cannot be defined
• (4) Scale of map is nonuniform throughout

Which of the following objects reflect more energy?

• (1) Smooth and moist object surfaces
• (2) Rough and moist surfaces
• (3) Smooth and dry object surfaces
• (4) Rough and dry surfaces

Colour signature on standard false colour composite of the earth surface feature such as turbid waterbody is:

• (1) Light blue
• (2) Dark blue
• (3) Light green
• (4) Thick black

Low earth orbit crosses the equator at:

• (1) 45\(^\circ\)
• (2) 60\(^\circ\)
• (3) 90\(^\circ\)
• (4) 105\(^\circ\)

Which of the following airborne platforms measure the wind velocity?

• (1) Rawinsonde
• (2) Radiosonde
• (3) Balloons based airborne platform
• (4) Balloons based earth system

The sensors which are used to measure the temperature and study of atmosphere are called as:

• (1) Scanning sensors
• (2) Non imaging sensors
• (3) Non scanning sensors
• (4) Framing sensors

Which of the following refers to the arrangement and frequency of tonal variation in particular areas of an image?

• (1) Texture
• (2) Shape
• (3) Pattern
• (4) Size

Which of the following element is described as ‘short’ in image interpretation analysis?

• (1) Size
• (2) Shape
• (3) Pattern
• (4) Height

Which of the following is correct as per the Stefan-Boltzmann law? (where, \(M\) = total radiant emitted from the surface of a material, \(\sigma\) = Stefan-Boltzmann constant and \(T\) = absolute temperature)

• (1) \(M = \sigma T^4\)
• (2) \(M = \sigma T^3\)
• (3) \(M = \sigma T^2\)
• (4) \(M = \sigma T\)

The ratio of the total stream length cumulated for all orders in the basin to the total area of the basin is called as:

• (1) basin ratio
• (2) drainage pattern
• (3) drainage density
• (4) texture ratio

In GIS, the stored information—either spatial data or associated tabular data—can be retrieved with the help of a language called:

• (1) C language
• (2) Python
• (3) SQL
• (4) FORTRAN

Which of the following data format for ArcView GIS defines the geometry and attribute of geographically referenced objects by three specific files—main file, index file, and a database table?

• (1) ArcInfo EOO
• (2) Shapefiles
• (3) ArcInfo Coverage
• (4) Computer Graphics Metafile

Which of the following proprietary raster formats does ESRI use in its software products such as ArcInfo and ArcView GIS?

• (1) GRID
• (2) PNG
• (3) GIF
• (4) GeoTIFF

The vector model is extremely useful for describing:

• (1) continuously varying features
• (2) soil features
• (3) precipitation and temperature features
• (4) discrete features

In a GPS system, if one of the receivers is in relative motion with respect to the other receiver, having been mounted either on a vehicle, ship, or aircraft, it is called:

• (1) kinematic GPS
• (2) MDGPS
• (3) DGPS
• (4) Absolute GPS

A straight line between the last waypoint and the GOTO waypoint is known as:

• (1) desired track (DTK)
• (2) tracklog
• (3) bearing (BRG)
• (4) active log

The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are:

• (1) perpendicular to each other
• (2) parallel to each other
• (3) 45° oblique each other
• (4) 30° oblique each other

Those areas of the frequency spectrum which are not severely influenced by atmospheric absorption and thus are extremely useful to remote sensors are called:

• (1) remote sensing windows
• (2) atmospheric windows
• (3) ionosphere windows
• (4) remote sensing windows and atmospheric windows

The principle of working from whole to part is used in surveying because:

• (1) plotting becomes easy
• (2) survey work can be completed quickly
• (3) accumulation of errors can be prevented
• (4) even in odd climate also surveying can be carried out

The smallest length that can be drawn on a map is:

• (1) 0.2 mm
• (2) 0.5 mm
• (3) 10 mm
• (4) 15 mm

If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as 0.5 m from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance between the tacheometer and the staff station is (assume K = 100, C = 0):

• (1) 5 m
• (2) 25 m
• (3) 75 m
• (4) 50 m

It is convenient to record the field notes for a closed traverse in the field book:

• (1) from left to right
• (2) from right to left
• (3) from top to down
• (4) from down to top

The height of the instrument is equal to:

• (1) back sight + fore sight
• (2) RL of benchmark + fore sight
• (3) RL of benchmark + intermediate sight
• (4) RL of benchmark + back sight

Surveys which are carried out to provide a national grid of control for preparation of accurate maps of large areas are known as:

• (1) plane surveys
• (2) geodetic surveys
• (3) geographical surveys
• (4) topographical surveys

The temporary adjustments of surveyor compass involve:

• (1) centering only
• (2) levelling only
• (3) centering and levelling
• (4) centering, levelling and focusing the prism

If the altitude bubble is provided both on the index frame as well as on the telescope of a theodolite, then the instrument is levelled with reference to the:

• (1) altitude bubble on the telescope
• (2) altitude bubble on the index frame, if it is to be used as a level
• (3) altitude bubble on the telescope, if it is to be used as a level
• (4) laser principle

With regard to the theodolite, which one of the following statements is correct?

• (1) the axis of the plate level should be parallel to the vertical axis
• (2) the axis of striding level must be parallel to the horizontal axis
• (3) the axis of the altitude level must be perpendicular to the line of collimation
• (4) the line of collimation must be perpendicular to the plate level axis

If \( n \) is the number of sides of a traverse, the theoretical sum of the interior included angles of a closed traverse is:

• (1) \( (2n - 4) \times 90^\circ \)
• (2) \( (2n + 4) \times 90^\circ \)
• (3) \( (2n \pm 4) \times 90^\circ \)
• (4) \( 360^\circ \)

Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using a:

• (1) compound curve
• (2) vertical curve
• (3) reverse curve
• (4) transition curve

The curve which deflects to the right of the direction of the progress of survey is called as:

• (1) Right hand curve
• (2) Left hand curve
• (3) Eastward curve
• (4) Westward curve

Transition curves are introduced at each end of a circular curve to obtain:

• (1) gradual decrease of curvature from zero at the tangent point to a specified quantity at the junction of the transition curve with the main curve
• (2) gradual increase of super elevation from zero at the tangent point to a specified amount at the junction of the transition curve with the main curve
• (3) gradual change of gradient from zero at the tangent point to a specified amount at the junction of the transition curve with the main curve
• (4) gradual change of gradient from 1 in 6 at the tangent point to a specified amount at the junction of the transition curve with the main curve

Perpendicular offset from the junction of a transition curve and circular curve to the tangent is equal to:

• (1) 1 times shift
• (2) 0.5 times shift
• (3) 2 times shift
• (4) 4 times shift

In an external focusing telescope, the focusing of the objective is achieved by:

• (1) movement of a negative concave lens
• (2) movement of objective
• (3) movement of cross-staff
• (4) double convex lens

Which of the following options is the correct one as per the principle of barometric levelling?

• (1) Atmospheric pressure varies inversely with height
• (2) Atmospheric pressure varies proportionately with height
• (3) Atmospheric pressure varies constantly with height
• (4) Atmospheric pressure is zero throughout

In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely eliminated is due to

• (1) Curvature
• (2) Refraction
• (3) Non-adjustment of line of collimation
• (4) Parallax

Mathematical check for the computation of R.L. by rise and fall method is given by

• (1) \(\Sigma\) FS - \(\Sigma\) BS = RL of last station point – RL of first station point = \(\Sigma\) Fall - \(\Sigma\) Rise
• (2) \(\Sigma\) BS - \(\Sigma\) FS = RL of first station point – RL of last station point = \(\Sigma\) Fall - \(\Sigma\) Rise
• (3) \(\Sigma\) BS - \(\Sigma\) FS = RL of last station point – RL of first station point = \(\Sigma\) Rise - \(\Sigma\) Fall
• (4) \(\Sigma\) BS - \(\Sigma\) FS = RL of first station point – RL of last station point = \(\Sigma\) Rise - \(\Sigma\) Fall

The wavelengths used in various electronic distance measurement systems cover fairly the spectrum of range

• (1) 40 m to 450 m
• (2) 40 m to 450 mm
• (3) 40 m to 450 \(\mu\)m
• (4) 40 m to 450 nm

After subjecting the EDM systems to the meteorological corrections, the possible accuracy range expected in short range and long range EDM systems respectively is

• (1) 0.15 mm to 1 mm and 0.5 mm to 1.5 mm
• (2) 1.5 mm to 10 mm and 5 mm to 15 mm
• (3) 15 mm to 100 mm and 50 mm to 150 mm
• (4) 150 mm to 1000 mm and 500 mm to 1500 mm