TS PGECET 2024 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 10, 2025

TS PGECET 2024 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2024 Electronics and Communication Engineering on June 11 in Shift 1 from 10 AM to 12 PM. TS PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

TS PGECET 2024 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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10-18_02-TS PGECET 2024 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

If \( \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} & \frac{1+i}{\sqrt{3}}
\frac{1-i}{\sqrt{3}} & \frac{K}{\sqrt{3}} \end{bmatrix} \) is a unitary matrix, then the sum of all possible values of K is

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) --1
  • (d) 2 

Question 2:

The system of equations \( \begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1 & 1
1 & -2 & 1
1 & 1 & -2 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x
y
z \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} a
b
c \end{bmatrix} \) has

  • (a) infinite number of solutions when \(a+b+c \neq 0\)
  • (b) no solution when \(a+b+c = 0\)
  • (c) unique solution for any values of \(a,b,c\)
  • (d) unique solution for no value of \(a,b,c\)

Question 3:

\( \int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{\sqrt{y}} e^{y/x} dx dy = \) \hfill % (Assuming 1 mark if not specified otherwise)

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (b) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (c) \( 1 \)
  • (d) \( -1 \)

Question 4:

Let \( \vec{F} \) be a vector point function defined inside and on the surface (S) of the sphere \( x^2+y^2+z^2=1 \). Then \( \oint_S (Curl \vec{F}) \cdot \hat{n} ds = \)

  • (a) \( \iint_E \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{R} \), where E is the region of the sphere
  • (b) 0
  • (c) \( \frac{4}{3}\pi \)
  • (d) \( \oint_S \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{R} \)

Question 5:

Which of the following pair of functions are linearly dependent

  • (a) \( e^x \sin 2x, e^x \cos 2x \)
  • (b) \( \sin x(4\sin^2 x - 3), \sin 3x \)
  • (c) \( \cos x, x \cos x \)
  • (d) \( e^{3x}, (x+1)e^{2x} \)

Question 6:

The complete solution of \( (mz-ny)\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} + (nx-lz)\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = ly-mx \) is

  • (a) \( xyz = f(lx+my+nz) \)
  • (b) \( lx+my+nz = f(x+yz) \)
  • (c) \( x^2+y^2+z^2 = f(lx+my+nz) \)
  • (d) \( (lx)^2+(my)^2+(nz)^2 = f(lmnxyz) \)

Question 7:

The residue of \( f(z) = \frac{z^2}{(z-1)^3(z-2)(z-3)} \) at the pole \(z=1\) is

  • (a) \( \frac{23}{8} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{101}{16} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{27}{16} \)
  • (d) \( -8 \)

Question 8:

Two numbers are drawn simultaneously from the set of integers from 1 to 12. If it is known that the sum of drawn two numbers is odd, then the probability that only one of the two numbers is a prime number, is

  • (a) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{36}{53} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{11}{18} \)

Question 9:

In a communication network, 98% of messages are transmitted correctly with no error. If the random variable X denotes the number of messages transmitted with error, then the probability that at most two messages are transmitted with error out of 1000 messages sent, is

  • (a) \( \frac{2}{e^{980}} \)
  • (b) (Option unreadable/missing in image)
  • (c) \( \frac{221}{e^{20}} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{2}{e^{106}} \)

Question 10:

To solve the equation \( x \log x = 1 \), using Newton-Raphson method, the iterative formula and the first approximate \( x_1 \), when \( x_0 = 1 \) is
(Assuming \(\log\) is natural logarithm \(\ln\))

  • (a) \( x_{n+1} = \frac{x_{n}-1}{1+\log x_n} ; x_1 = 0 \)
  • (b) \( x_{n+1} = \frac{x_n + 2x_n \log x_n + 1}{1+\log x_n} ; x_1 = 2 \)
  • (c) \( x_{n+1} = \frac{x_n - 2x_n \log x_n + 1}{1+\log x_n} ; x_1 = 2 \)
  • (d) \( x_{n+1} = \frac{x_n+1}{1+\log x_n} ; x_1 = 2 \)

Question 11:

The function \( \frac{dq}{dv} \) is called incremental then it is

  • (a) Resistance
  • (b) Capacitance
  • (c) Inductance
  • (d) Frequency

Question 12:

A coil of resistance \(12 \Omega\) and inductance 18 H is suddenly connected to a dc supply of 30 V. Calculate time constant

  • (a) 6.7 sec
  • (b) 4.5 sec
  • (c) 1.5 sec
  • (d) 0.11 sec

Question 13:

Find the value of required resistor across AB of the following circuit to transfer maximum power?
Circuit diagram with terminal A, a 200 Ohm resistor, then a node. From this node, a 500 Ohm resistor to ground, and also a 300 Ohm resistor in series with a 10V source to ground. Terminal B is not explicitly shown, assumed to be ground for load connection from A.

  • (a) \(500\Omega\)
  • (b) \(800\Omega\)
  • (c) \(442.8\Omega\)
  • (d) \(262.5\Omega\)

Question 14:

For a series RLC circuit which of the following statement is not correct?

  • (a) \( \omega L > \frac{1}{\omega C} \), \( \phi \) is positive. In this case the voltage leads the current by an angle \( \phi \)
  • (b) \( \omega L < \frac{1}{\omega C} \), \( \phi \) is negative. In this case the current lags the voltage by an angle \( \phi \)
  • (c) \( \omega L = \frac{1}{\omega C} \), \( \phi = 0^\circ \). In this case the voltage and current are in phase
  • (d) The impedance is purely resistive and minimum when \( \phi = 0 \), Z=R

Question 15:

Obtain the inverse Laplace transform of \( F(s) = \frac{1}{s^2(s+2)} \)

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{2}(2t+e^{-2t}) \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{4}(2t-1) \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{2}(e^{-2t}-1) \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{4}(2t+e^{-2t}-1) \)

Question 16:

The values of B and D of ABCD parameters of two port network respectively are
% Image: T-network: Series 1 Ohm, Shunt 4 Ohm, Series 1 Ohm.

  • (a) 9/4, 5/4
  • (b) 35/2, 5/2
  • (c) 11/4, 5/2
  • (d) 15/4, 35/2

Question 17:

A transfer function is given by \( H(s) = \frac{2(s+2)(s+4)}{(s+3)(s+5)(s+7)} \). Then the transfer function becomes zero when

  • (a) \( s=0 \)
  • (b) \( s=-2 \)
  • (c) \( s=-3 \)
  • (d) \( s=-5 \)

Question 18:

When two, two-port networks are connected in series, then

  • (a) Z parameters are added
  • (b) Y parameters are added
  • (c) H parameters are added
  • (d) ABCD parameters are multiplied

Question 19:

Driving point impedance of the function \( F(s) = \frac{(s+k_1)(s+k_2)(s+k_3)}{(s+1)(s+2)(s+3)} \) is
(The question is underspecified. Assuming F(s) *is* the driving point impedance \(Z_{dp}(s)\) and it asks for a specific evaluation or property that matches one of the constant options. Option (d) is 4.)

  • (a) 48
  • (b) 24
  • (c) 10
  • (d) 4

Question 20:

If three equal resistances of \(12\Omega\) are connected in Delta, then each resistance of the equivalent Star is

  • (a) \(4\Omega\)
  • (b) \(6\Omega\)
  • (c) \(12\Omega\)
  • (d) \(36\Omega\)

Question 21:

Which of the following system is non-causal sytem?
(Typo: "sytem" should be "system")

  • (a) \( y(n) = x(n) - x(n-1) \)
  • (b) \( y(n) = \frac{\delta y}{\delta x} \sum_{k=-\infty}^{n} x(k) \)
  • (c) \( y(n) = ax(n) \)
  • (d) \( y(n) = x(-n) \)

Question 22:

The exponential Fourier series coefficient \( C_{-n} \) in terms of trigonometric Fourier coefficients is

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{2}(a_n + jb_n) \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{2}(a_n - jb_n) \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{2}(a_0 + jb_n) \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{2}(a_0 + a_n) \)

Question 23:

The amplitude and phase spectrum of exponential Fourier Series about vertical axis respectively, is

  • (a) Symmetrical, symmetrical
  • (b) Symmetrical, antisymmetrical
  • (c) Antisymmetrical, antisymmetrical
  • (d) Antisymmetrical, symmetrical

Question 24:

Which of the following statement is not correct?

  • (a) Laplace transform is a complex Fourier transform
  • (b) Fourier transform of a function can be obtained from its Laplace transform by replacing s by j\(\omega\)
  • (c) Fourier transform is the Laplace transform evaluated along the imaginary axis of the s-plane
  • (d) Convolution integrals cannot be evaluated using Fourier transform

Question 25:

The Fourier transform of the following signal is \[ x(t) = \begin{cases} 1+\cos \pi t & |t|<1
0 & |t|>1 \end{cases} \]

  • (a) \( 2sinc(\omega) + sinc(\omega-\pi) - sinc(\pi+\omega) \)
  • (b) \( 2\sin(\omega) + \sin(\pi-\omega) - \sin(\pi+\omega) \)
  • (c) \( sinc(\pi-\omega) - sinc(\pi+\omega) \)
  • (d) \( \cos(\omega) + \cos(\pi-\omega) \) (Assuming \(sinc(x) = \sin(x)/x\))

Question 26:

Consider a causal LTI system with impulse response \( h(t) = e^{-bt}u(t) \). Find the output of the system for an input \( x(t) = 3e^{-at}u(t) \).

  • (a) \( y(t) = e^{-2t}u(t) + e^{-4t}u(t) \)
  • (b) \( y(t) = e^{-bt}u(t) + e^{-2at}u(t) \)
  • (c) \( y(t) = e^{-at}u(t) - e^{-2at}u(t) \)
  • (d) \( y(t) = e^{-at}u(t)-e^{-bt}u(t) \)

Question 27:

The condition for orthogonality of two functions \( x_1(t) \) and \( x_2(t) \) in terms of correlation is

  • (a) \( R_{12} = 0 \)
  • (b) \( R_{12} = 1 \)
  • (c) \( R_{12} = \infty \)
  • (d) \( R_{11} = 0 \) and \( R_{22} = 0 \)

Question 28:

Which of the following is not correct with respect to Z-transforms?

  • (a) Z-transform converts the difference equation of discrete time system into linear algebraic equation
  • (b) Frequency domain response is achieved and plotted
  • (c) Convolution in time domain is converted into multiplication in z-domain
  • (d) Z-transform exist for most of the signals for which discrete time Fourier transform does not exist

Question 29:

Match the following with respect to region of convergence

column-I                                                         column-II
A  infinite duration causal sequence          I   entire z-plane except at z=0
B  finite duration causal sequence             II   entire z-plane except at z=\(\infty\)
C  infinite duration anticausal sequence   III  \(|z| > \alpha\), exterior of a circle of radius \(\alpha\)
D  finite duration anticausal sequence      IV  \(|z| < \beta\), interior of a circle of radius \(\beta\)

 

  • (a) A -- II, B -- I, C -- III, D -- IV
  • (b) A -- IV, B -- III, C -- I, D -- II
  • (c) A -- III, B -- I, C -- IV, D -- II
  • (d) A -- I, B -- IV, C -- II, D -- III

Question 30:

Unilateral Z transform of x(n) is equivalent to bilateral Z-transform of

  • (a) \( \delta(-n) \)
  • (b) \( x(n) u(-n) \)
  • (c) \( x(n) u(n) \)
  • (d) \( x(-n) u(-n) \)

Question 31:

For a system to be physically realizable, the degree of numerator polynomial M and the degree of denominator polynomial N should be

  • (a) \( M \ge N \)
  • (b) \( M \le N \)
  • (c) \( M = N \)
  • (d) No constraint on M and N

Question 32:

The continuous time system structure which uses minimum number of integrators is

  • (a) Direct form-I
  • (b) Direct form-II
  • (c) Cascade form
  • (d) Parallel form

Question 33:

The frequency response of LTI system is given by the Fourier Transform of the _____________ of the system.

  • (a) Transfer function
  • (b) Impulse response
  • (c) Input
  • (d) Output

Question 34:

The LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system when

  • (a) Zero input produces zero output
  • (b) Zero input produces non-zero output
  • (c) Zero input produces an output equal to unity
  • (d) Zero input produces an infinite output

Question 35:

Phase variation with respect to frequency is given by \( \phi(\omega) = 2\omega^2 + \cos\omega \). Then, group delay of the system is

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) \( \omega + \sin\omega \)
  • (d) \( -4\omega - \sin\omega \)

Question 36:

The electrical conductivity of pure semiconductor can be increased by

  • (a) Increasing the mean life time of charge carriers
  • (b) Increasing forbidden energy gap
  • (c) Adding some impurities into it
  • (d) Sharing conduction band

Question 37:

The electric current produced when the charge carrier concentration moves from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration is called

  • (a) Drift current
  • (b) Diffusion current
  • (c) Reverse saturation current
  • (d) Breakdown current

Question 38:

Which of the following is not correct, when the collector base junction is reverse biased?

  • (a) It decreases the depletion region across the collector base junction
  • (b) Early effect occurs
  • (c) Forms depletion region across the collector junction
  • (d) Large current flow in collector

Question 39:

Choose the wrong one with respect to nMOSFET compared to pMOSFET

  • (a) ON resistance is high
  • (b) Size is small
  • (c) Junction capacitance is small
  • (d) Fast in operation

Question 40:

An 'n' channel JFET has \(I_{DSS}=8mA\), \(V_P=-5V\). Determine the minimum value of \(V_{DS}\) for \(V_{GS}=-2V\) in the pinch off region.

  • (a) --7 V
  • (b) 3 V
  • (c) 5 V
  • (d) 7 V

Question 41:

The rise time of a BJT is 3.5 micro seconds. Find its transition frequency.

  • (a) 1 kHz
  • (b) 10 kHz
  • (c) 35 kHz
  • (d) 100 kHz

Question 42:

The disadvantage of the integrated circuit technology as compared with discrete components interconnected is

  • (a) Low cost
  • (b) Small size
  • (c) Improved performance
  • (d) Low reliability

Question 43:

The SiO\(_2\) is grown by exposing the epitaxial layer to an oxygen atmosphere while being heated to about 1000\(^\circ\)C, because Silicon dioxide has the fundamental property of

  • (a) Preventing the diffusion of impurities
  • (b) Electrical isolation between different circuit components
  • (c) Prevent the depletion region of the reverse biased isolation to substrate junction
  • (d) Sidewall capacitance reduction

Question 44:

LEDs are based on the principle of

  • (a) Forward bias
  • (b) Eletro- luminescence
  • (c) Photon sensitivity
  • (d) Electron-hole recombination

Question 45:

In a photodiode, light produces

  • (a) Reverse current
  • (b) Forward current
  • (c) Electro - luminescence
  • (d) Dark current

Question 46:

A shunt regulator is a type of

  • (a) voltage regulator with the control element is in series with the load
  • (b) current regulator with the control element is in series with the load
  • (c) voltage regulator with the control element between the output and ground
  • (d) current regulator with the control element between the output and ground

Question 47:

The maximum dc output power in a Half wave rectifier occurs when the load resistance is ____________ the diode forward resistance.

  • (a) Same as
  • (b) Double
  • (c) Half
  • (d) Quadruple

Question 48:

Half wave and Full wave rectifiers produce nearly identical ____________ for equal values of transformer secondary voltage.

  • (a) Ripple factor
  • (b) PIV
  • (c) Frequency
  • (d) DC load voltage

Question 49:

The midband gain of an amplifier is 100 and the lower cutoff frequency is 1 KHz. Find the gain of the amplifier at a frequency of 20 Hz.

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 20
  • (c) 50
  • (d) 100

Question 50:

Which of the following is not correct with respect to Darlington amplifier?

  • (a) High input impedance
  • (b) Two cascaded emitter followers
  • (c) Overall voltage gain is less than unity
  • (d) Overall leakage current is less

Question 51:

When the negative feedback is applied to an amplifier of gain 100, the overall gain falls to 50. If the same feedback factor is maintained, the value of the amplifier gain required for the overall gain of 75 is

  • (a) 50
  • (b) 75
  • (c) 125
  • (d) 300

Question 52:

Match the following

i   Voltage shunt    a   current sampling, voltage mixing
ii  Voltage series   b   current sampling, current mixing
iii Current shunt   c   voltage sampling, current mixing
iv Current series  d   voltage sampling, voltage mixing

 

  • (a) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
  • (b) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
  • (c) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
  • (d) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

Question 53:

Find the operating frequency of a transistor Hartley oscillator for \(L_1 = 20\muH\), \(L_2 = 40\muH\) and mutual inductance between coils is \(2\muH\) and \(C = 1\muF\).

  • (a) \( \frac{62.5}{\pi} kHz \)
  • (b) \( \frac{50.5}{\pi} kHz \)
  • (c) \( 12.5\pi kHz \)
  • (d) \( 50\pi kHz \)

Question 54:

Wein bridge oscillator is a

  • (a) fixed frequency oscillator
  • (b) variable frequency oscillator
  • (c) low gain oscillator
  • (d) uses both positive and negative feedback

Question 55:

A 'Class A' Common Emitter amplifier with \(V_{CC} = 20 V\) draws a current I = 5A and feed a load of \(40\Omega\) through a step-up transformer N2/N1=3.16. Find the efficiency of the amplifier when it is properly matched for maximum power supply.

  • (a) 25 %
  • (b) 50 %
  • (c) 78.5 %
  • (d) 90 %

Question 56:

To eliminate cross over distortion in Class B power amplifier, the circuit should have

  • (a) Two complementary transistors to conduct in alternate half cycles
  • (b) Two complementary transistors to conduct in full cycles
  • (c) Two same transistors to conduct in two full cycles
  • (d) Two same transistors to conduct in alternate half cycles

Question 57:

Identify the following circuit
% Image: An active filter circuit using an op-amp. Input Vs through R, then to a node. From this node, R to non-inverting input of op-amp. Also from this node, C to ground. Non-inverting input also has C to ground. Op-amp is in voltage follower configuration (output connected to inverting input). Feedback resistors R1 and R1 are shown in a voltage divider from output to ground, with the tap to the inverting input if it were a non-inverting amplifier, but here it seems output is directly tied to inverting input, and R1, R1 are just setting gain of a non-inverting stage if they were properly connected. The core filter structure is two RC sections feeding the non-inverting input of an op-amp configured as a voltage follower (buffer) or a non-inverting amplifier with gain. This is a Sallen-Key topology.

  • (a) First order Low pass filter
  • (b) Second order Low pass filter
  • (c) First order High pass filter
  • (d) Second order High pass filter

Question 58:

The cut off frequency of the following fourth order filter is
A fourth-order filter made by cascading two identical second-order Sallen-Key low-pass filter stages. Each stage has: Input to 1K Ohm resistor, then to a node. From this node, 0.16 uF capacitor to ground. Also from this node, another 1K Ohm resistor to the non-inverting input of an op-amp. The non-inverting input also has a 0.16 uF capacitor to ground. The op-amp has feedback resistors R1 = 10K Ohm and R2 = 12.35K Ohm, configured as a non-inverting amplifier. Output of first stage feeds the input of the identical second stage.

  • (a) 1 kHz
  • (b) 4 kHz
  • (c) 16 kHz
  • (d) 16 MHz

Question 59:

If the input to an OP-AMP comparator is a sine wave, then the output is a

  • (a) Sine wave
  • (b) Triangular wave
  • (c) Square wave
  • (d) Trapezoidal wave

Question 60:

Threshold voltage at the comparator of 555 timer is approximately

  • (a) 1/3 Vcc
  • (b) 2/3 Vcc
  • (c) 1/4 Vcc
  • (d) Vcc

Question 61:

Convert a decimal number 3509.14453125 into a hexadecimal number

  • (a) DB5.25
  • (b) 437.1121
  • (c) 10110.11011
  • (d) AB6.456B

Question 62:

Simplify \( AB + A\bar{C} + \overline{A}BC(AB+C) \)

  • (a) \( \bar{A} + \bar{B} + AC \)
  • (b) \( AB + \overline{A}BC \)
  • (c) \( ABC \)
  • (d) 1

Question 63:

Any Boolean function of n+1 variables can be implemented with _____________ multiplexer

  • (a) \( 2^n \) to 1
  • (b) \( 2^{2n} \) to 1
  • (c) \( 2^{n-1} \) to 1
  • (d) \( 2^{n+1} \) to 1

Question 64:

An n-to-m line decoder is used to generate
(Note: "n-to-m line decoder" where \(m = 2^n\))

  • (a) \( 2^{n-1} \) min terms
  • (b) \( 2^n \) min terms
  • (c) \( 2^{n+1} \) min terms
  • (d) \( 2^{n-1} \) max terms

Question 65:

Quantization error in ADC is due to

  • (a) Poor resolution
  • (b) Non-linearity of the input
  • (c) A missing bit in the output
  • (d) A change in the input voltage during the conversion time

Question 66:

The values of the segments 'abcdefg' of seven segment display for the BCD input of '0101'?
(Assuming standard segment labeling: a-top, b-top-right, c-bottom-right, d-bottom, e-bottom-left, f-top-left, g-middle. And BCD '0101' is decimal 5.)

  • (a) 1111111
  • (b) 0000000
  • (c) 1011011
  • (d) 0110011

Question 67:

The 8-to-3 encoder is also called

  • (a) Octal to binary encoder
  • (b) Excess-3 encoder
  • (c) Quadruple encoder
  • (d) Mixed encoder

Question 68:

In priority encoder, if two or more inputs are equal to______________ will take highest priority

  • (a) 0 at the same time
  • (b) 1 at the same time
  • (c) 0, 1,0,1 .....
  • (d) 1,1,0,1,1,0,0,...

Question 69:

The characteristic equation of SR flip-flop is

  • (a) \( Q(t+1) = SQ(t) + R \)
  • (b) \( Q(t+1) = S + RQ(t) \)
  • (c) \( Q(t+1) = \overline{S}Q(t) + \overline{R} Q(t) \)
  • (d) \( Q(t+1) = S + \overline{R} Q(t) \)

Question 70:

The n stage Johnson counter will produce a modulus of

  • (a) n
  • (b) 2n
  • (c) \(2^n\)
  • (d) \(2^{n-1}\)

Question 71:

For n inputs, k product terms and m outputs, the internal logic of the PLA consists of

  • (a) n+1 buffer gates, k-1 AND gates, m+1 OR gates and m XOR gates
  • (b) n-1 inverter gates, 2k AND gates, 2m OR gates and m XOR gates
  • (c) n-1 buffer-inverter gates, 2k AND gates, 2m OR gates and m XOR gates
    % Typo in image: sytem->system
  • (d) n buffer-inverter gates, k AND gates, m OR gates and m XOR gates

Question 72:

The decoder used in 32 x 8 ROM is

  • (a) 8\(\times\)32 decoder
  • (b) 5\(\times\)32 decoder
  • (c) 8\(\times\)8 decoder
  • (d) 5\(\times\)8 decoder

Question 73:

LEA CX,[BX][SI] instruction of 8086 microprocessor indicates {where (BX) and (SI) represent the content of BX and SI respectively}

  • (a) Load CX with the value equal to (BX)+(SI)
  • (b) Load CX with the value equal to (BX)-(SI)
  • (c) Less the content of CX by the (SI)
  • (d) Less the content of CX by the (BX)

Question 74:

The interrupt vector for each interrupt type in 8086 microprocessor requires_______________ memory locations

  • (a) One
  • (b) Two
  • (c) Three
  • (d) Four

Question 75:

The IC 8255 is a

  • (a) Address Decoder
  • (b) Programmable Peripheral Interface
  • (c) Direct Memory Access controller
  • (d) EPROM

Question 76:

The \(a_{ij}\) is the ____________ of the branch directed from node \(x_i\) to \(x_j\) in signal flow graph.

  • (a) Resistance
  • (b) Impedance
  • (c) Admittance
  • (d) Transmittance

Question 77:

Impulse response for \(t \ge 0\) of a second order control system when damping ratio = 1 is

  • (a) \( \omega_n \sin(\omega_n t) \)
  • (b) \( \omega_n^2 t e^{-\omega_n t} \)
  • (c) \( \omega_n^2 \sin(\omega_d t) \)
  • (d) \( \omega_n e^{\omega_n t} \sin(\omega_d t) \)

Question 78:

From the following Routh array table, which tells us that there are

\(S^5\)   2     1 
\(S^4\)   3     2    1
\(S^3\)  -4/3 -2/3 
\(S^2\)   1/2   1  
\(S^1\)   2  
\(S^0\)   1 

 

  • (a) One root in the left half s-plane
  • (b) Two roots in the left half s-plane
  • (c) Two roots in the right half s-plane
  • (d) One root in the left half S-plane and one root in the right half S-plane

Question 79:

Position, velocity and acceleration errors of type 2 control system respectively, are

  • (a) \( 0, 0, \frac{1}{K_a} \)
  • (b) \( 0, \frac{1}{K_v}, \infty \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{1+K_p}, \infty, \infty \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{K_p}, \frac{1}{K_v}, \frac{1}{K_a} \)

Question 80:

The equation for resonant peak of second order system whose transfer function \( \frac{\omega_n^2}{s^2+2\zeta\omega_n s + \omega_n^2} \) is given by
(The question asks for the equation *for* the resonant peak \(M_r\), not the resonant frequency \(\omega_r\).)

  • (a) \( \frac{\omega_n}{2\zeta} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{2\zeta\sqrt{1-2\zeta^2}} \) (This looks like \(M_r = 1/(2\zeta\sqrt{1-\zeta^2})\) perhaps, or related to resonant frequency. Option b in image: \( \frac{1}{2\zeta\sqrt{(1-2\zeta^2)}} \) )
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{2\omega_n\sqrt{(1-2\omega_n^2)}} \)

Question 81:

Generally, the bandwidth of a control system indicates ______________ characteristic of the system.

  • (a) Linearity
  • (b) Causality
  • (c) Gain
  • (d) Noise-filtering

Question 82:

Addition of a pole at the origin to a transfer function rotates the polar plot at zero and infinite frequencies by a further angle of

  • (a) \( 90^\circ \)
  • (b) \( -90^\circ \)
  • (c) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (d) \( -45^\circ \)

Question 83:

The main advantage of Bode plot is to

  • (a) Show complex conjugate zeros
  • (b) Show complex conjugate poles
  • (c) Calculate the constant gain
  • (d) Convert multiplicative factors into additive factors

Question 84:

If the contour of the open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) corresponding to the Nyquist contour in the s-plane encircle to the point ____________, the closed loop system is stable

  • (a) \((-1+j0)\) in the counter clockwise direction as many times as the number of right half s-plane poles of G(s)H(s)
  • (b) \((-1+j0)\) in the counter clockwise direction as many times as the number of right half s-plane poles of G(s)H(s)
  • (c) \((1+j0)\) in the clockwise direction as many times as the number of left half s-plane poles of G(s)H(s)
  • (d) \((-1+j0)\) in the clockwise direction as many times as the number of left half s-plane poles of G(s)H(s)

Question 85:

Consider an open-loop unstable system with the transfer function \( G(s)H(s) = \frac{s+2}{(s+1)(s-1)} \) when the feedback path is closed, then the system is

  • (a) unstable
  • (b) stable
  • (c) If two poles are added in left half s-plane then the system is stable
  • (d) cannot be determined

Question 86:

The gain cross over frequency is the frequency at which the \(|G(s)H(s)|\) is
(Note: s should be \(j\omega\) for frequency response magnitude) \(|G(j\omega)H(j\omega)|\)

  • (a) 0
  • (b) --1
  • (c) 1
  • (d) \(\infty\)

Question 87:

Which of the following is not correct with respect to Phase Lead Compensator?

  • (a) Bandwidth increases
  • (b) High frequency gain decreases
  • (c) Dynamic response becomes faster
  • (d) Susceptible to high frequency noise

Question 88:

The state model is ______________, the transfer function of the system is____________.

  • (a) Nonunique, unique
  • (b) Nonunique, nonunique
  • (c) Unique, nonunique
  • (d) Unique, unique

Question 89:

The limit cycles describe the ______________ of non-linear systems

  • (a) Linearity
  • (b) Stability
  • (c) Causality
  • (d) Oscillations

Question 90:

The characteristic equation of a control system is given by \( s(s+1)(s^2+2s+1)+k(s+2)=0 \). The angles of asymptotes of the root loci are

  • (a) \( 60^\circ, 180^\circ, 300^\circ \)
  • (b) \( 30^\circ, 60^\circ, 90^\circ \)
  • (c) \( 0^\circ, 18^\circ, 45^\circ \)
  • (d) \( 10^\circ, 10^\circ, 30^\circ \)

Question 91:

The probability density function is given by \( f(x) = \begin{cases} C(x-1), & for 1 < x < 4
0, & otherwise \end{cases} \). Find \(P(2 < X < 3)\).

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{2}{9} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{2}{2} \) (This is 1, likely typo)

Question 92:

Thermal noise is independent of

  • (a) Bandwidth
  • (b) Centre frequency
  • (c) Temperature
  • (d) Boltzmann's constant

Question 93:

The positive RF peaks of an AM voltage rise to maximum value of 12V and drop to a minimum value of 4V. Assuming single tone modulation, the modulation index is

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 2
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{3} \)

Question 94:

The plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude yields a

  • (a) Horizontal line
  • (b) Circle
  • (c) Hyperbola
  • (d) Parabola

Question 95:

A DSB-SC signal can be demodulated using

  • (a) Low pass filter
  • (b) Synchronous detector
  • (c) Phase discriminator
  • (d) Envelop detector

Question 96:

The image channel rejection in superheterodyne receiver comes from

  • (a) IF stage only
  • (b) RF stage only
  • (c) Detector only
  • (d) RF and Detector stages

Question 97:

The figure of merit ratio of FM to PM for single tone modulating signal is

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 3
  • (c) 4
  • (d) \(\infty\)

Question 98:

A narrowband FM does not have the following feature

  • (a) It has two sidebands
  • (b) Both sidebands are equal in amplitude
  • (c) It does not show amplitude variations
  • (d) Both sidebands have same phase difference with respect to carrier

Question 99:

The maximum permissible distance between two samples of a 2 kHz signal is

  • (a) 250 \(\mu\) sec
  • (b) 500 \(\mu\) sec
  • (c) 250 m sec
  • (d) 500 m sec

Question 100:

The main advantage of TDM over FDM is

  • (a) It needs less power
  • (b) It is simple circuitry
  • (c) It needs less bandwidth
  • (d) It gives better S/N ratio

Question 101:

Companding is used in PCM to

  • (a) Reduce bandwidth
  • (b) Reduce power
  • (c) Get almost uniform S/N ratio
  • (d) Increase S/N ratio

Question 102:

In delta modulation (DM) system, the granular noise occurs when the modulating signal

  • (a) Increases rapidly
  • (b) Decreases rapidly
  • (c) Remains constant
  • (d) Has high frequency components

Question 103:

The number of bits per sample in a PCM system with sinusoidal input is increased from n to n+1. The improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio will be

  • (a) n dB
  • (b) 2n dB
  • (c) 3 dB
  • (d) 6 dB

Question 104:

Which of the following modulation scheme gives the maximum probability of error?

  • (a) ASK
  • (b) FSK
  • (c) PSK
  • (d) QPSK

Question 105:

The input to a matched filter is given by \( S(t) = 10 \sin(2\pi \times 10^6 t), 0 < t < 1 \) second. The peak amplitude of the filter output is
(Note: The duration \(0 < t < 1\) second is very long for a 1 MHz signal. This implies many cycles. Energy of the signal will be large.)

  • (a) 5 mV
  • (b) 10 mV
  • (c) 5 V
  • (d) 10 V

Question 106:

Which of the following is incorrect?
(Assuming H refers to Entropy in Information Theory)

  • (a) \( H(y/x) = H(x,y) - H(x) \)
  • (b) \( H(x,y) = H(x/y) - H(y) \)
    % Should be H(x/y) + H(y)
  • (c) \( I(x,y) = H(x) - H(y/x) \)
    % Should be H(x) - H(x/y) or H(y) - H(y/x)
  • (d) \( I(x,y) = H(y) - H(y/x) \)

Question 107:

As the bandwidth approaches infinity, the channel capacity becomes
(Referring to Shannon-Hartley theorem: \(C = B \log_2(1 + S/N)\))

  • (a) 0
  • (b) \( 1.44 \frac{S}{\eta} \)
    % \(\eta\) is likely \(N_0\) (noise power spectral density)
  • (c) \( 0.5 \frac{S}{\eta} \)
  • (d) \(\infty\)

Question 108:

Which one of the following is true?

  • (a) The efficiency of Huffman code is linearly proportional to average length of code
  • (b) Huffman code is also known as maximum redundancy code
  • (c) A code with Hamming distance 4 is capable of double error correction
  • (d) When a code is irreducible, it is also separable

Question 109:

Flat-top sampling leads to

  • (a) Aperture effect
  • (b) Aliasing
  • (c) Granular noise
  • (d) Overload

Question 110:

According to Parseval's theorem the energy spectral density curve is equal to the area under
(The question is phrased a bit oddly. "energy spectral density curve is equal to the area under..." Parseval's theorem relates energy in time domain to energy in frequency domain. The area under the Energy Spectral Density (ESD) curve *is* the total energy.)

  • (a) Magnitude of the signal
  • (b) Square of the magnitude of the signal
  • (c) Square root of magnitude of the signal
  • (d) Four times of the magnitude of the signal

Question 111:

A loop is rotating about the y-axis in a magnetic field \( B = B_0 \sin \omega t \ \hat{a}_z Wb/m^2 \). The voltage induced in the loop is due to
(Note: \(\hat{a}_z\) means the B field is in the z-direction. The loop rotates about y-axis.)

  • (a) Current density
  • (b) Flux density
  • (c) Electric field intensity
  • (d) Combination of motional and transformer emf

Question 112:

The Maxwell's equation \( \oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l} \) is equal to

  • (a) 0
  • (b) \( -j\omega \int \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{l} \)
  • (c) \( -j\omega \int \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{s} \)
  • (d) \( j\omega \int \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{v} \)

Question 113:

Which of the following function does not satisfy the wave equation?

  • (a) \( 100 e^{j\omega(t-3z)} \)
  • (b) \( \cos^2(y+5t) \)
  • (c) \( \sin \omega(10z+5t) \)
  • (d) \( \sin x \cos t \)

Question 114:

Which one of the following is not true of a lossless line?

  • (a) \( Z_{in} = -jZ_0 \) for a shorted line with \( l = \frac{\lambda}{8} \)
  • (b) \( Z_{in} = j\infty \) for a shorted line with \( l = \frac{\lambda}{4} \)
  • (c) \( Z_{in} = Z_0 \) for a matched line
  • (d) At a half-wavelength from load \( Z_{in} = Z_L \) and repeats for every half wavelength there after

Question 115:

If in a rectangular waveguide for which \(a=2b\), the cutoff frequency for TE\(_{01}\) mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency for TM\(_{11}\) is

  • (a) \(3\sqrt{5}\) GHz
  • (b) \(6\sqrt{5}\) GHz
  • (c) \(3\sqrt{12}\) GHz
  • (d) \(6\sqrt{12}\) GHz

Question 116:

If a small single-turn loop antenna has a radiation resistance of 0.04 \(\Omega\), how many turns are needed to produce a radiation resistance of 1 \(\Omega\)?

  • (a) 5
  • (b) 10
  • (c) 25
  • (d) 50

Question 117:

The array factor of an N element linear uniform array is \newline (\(\Psi = \beta d \cos\theta + \alpha\), \(\beta = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda}\), d = spacing between elements and \(\alpha\) = inter element phase shift)

  • (a) \( \frac{\cos(n\Psi/2)}{\sin(\Psi/2)} \)
    % n here seems to be a typo for N
  • (b) \( \frac{\sin(N\Psi/2)}{\sin(\Psi/2)} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{\sin(N\Psi)}{\cos(\Psi)} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{\sin(\Psi/N)}{\sin(\Psi)} \)

Question 118:

In lossless medium for which \( \eta = 60\pi \), \( \mu_r = 1 \) and \( H = -0.1\cos(\omega t - z) \hat{a}_x + 0.5\sin(\omega t - z) \hat{a}_y A/m \), calculate \(\omega\).

  • (a) \( 1.0 \times 10^6 \) rad/s
  • (b) \( 1.0 \times 10^8 \) rad/s
  • (c) \( 1.5 \times 10^6 \) rad/s
  • (d) \( 1.5 \times 10^8 \) rad/s

Question 119:

A wave travelling in conducting medium, if its amplitude decreases by a factor of ______________ it is called penetration depth of the medium.

  • (a) 25 %
  • (b) 37 %
  • (c) 50 %
  • (d) 75 %

Question 120:

Which factor determines the range resolution of a radar?

  • (a) Size of the antenna
  • (b) Power radiated from the antenna
  • (c) Aperture of the antenna
  • (d) Bandwidth of the transmitted pulse


TS PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    Which of the following materials exhibits superparamagnetism at the nanoscale?

      • Gold nanoparticles
      • Silicon nanowires
      • Iron oxide nanoparticles
      • Carbon nanotubes

    • 2.
      Which one of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?

        • Methane (CH$_4$)
        • Carbon dioxide (CO$_2$)
        • Nitrous oxide (N$_2$O)
        • Oxygen (O$_2$)

      • 3.
        The top-down approach in nanofabrication refers to:

          • Building structures atom-by-atom
          • Assembling molecules using biological processes
          • Carving or shaping materials into nanoscale structures
          • Using chemical vapor deposition for coating

        • 4.
          The surface area-to-volume ratio of nanoparticles:

            • Remains constant regardless of size
            • Decreases with decreasing particle size
            • Increases with decreasing particle size
            • Has no impact on chemical reactivity

          • 5.
            The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is used to:

              • Estimate the financial profitability of a project
              • Predict environmental consequences of proposed initiatives
              • Replace the need for environmental regulations
              • Design new energy-efficient equipment

            • 6.
              The ISO 14001 standard deals with:

                • Quality Management Systems
                • Financial Management Systems
                • Environmental Management System
                • Occupational Health and Safety

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General1000
              sc500

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