TS LAWCET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download TS LAWCET 5 Year LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The TS LAWCET 2025 exam for the 5 Year LLB program was held on June 6th 2025 from 04:00 P.M. to 05:30 P.M. It was conducted in CBT Mode at various exam centres across India.

The TS LAWCET 2025 Question paper for 5 Year LLB with the answer key and solution PDF is available here. It consists of 120 objective-type questions, divided into four sections: General Knowledge and Mental Ability, Current Affairs, Legal Aptitude, and Logical Reasoning.

TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key 5 Year LLB Shift 2

TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solutions
TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

Question 1:

Gas Giants in our solar system are ________________

  • (A) Venus, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
  • (B) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
  • (C) Mars, Jupiter, Uranus and Neptune
  • (D) Saturn, Jupiter, Mars and Uranus

Question 2:

What is Xylitol?

  • (A) Vaccine for cancer
  • (B) Asteroid
  • (C) Artificial sweetener
  • (D) Missile

Question 3:

Which National Highway connects India and Bangladesh via Siliguri?

  • (A) National highway 44
  • (B) National highway 10
  • (C) National highway 27
  • (D) National highway 16

Question 4:

Who among the following started the newspaper "Amrit Bazar Patrika" in 1868?

  • (A) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  • (B) Dayanand Saraswati
  • (C) Shishir Kumar Ghosh
  • (D) Lala Jagat Narayan

Question 5:

Five rings of the symbol of Olympic Games represent ________________

  • (A) Five founders who played active role for introduction of Olympic games
  • (B) Five important parts of the sports
  • (C) Five continents of the world
  • (D) Five events paved way for introduction of Olympic games

Question 6:

The Institute of Wood Science and Technology is located in ________________

  • (A) Bengaluru
  • (B) Chennai
  • (C) Jabalpur
  • (D) Dehradun

Question 7:

Uttar Pradesh is surrounded by how many neighbouring states?

  • (A) 10 States and 1 Union Territory
  • (B) 8 States and 1 Union Territory
  • (C) 9 States and 1 Union Territory
  • (D) 9 States and 2 Union Territory

Question 8:

Salar Jung-III who made a remarkable collection presently housed in a museum in Hyderabad, was the Prime Minister of ________________

  • (A) Nizam Naseeruddaullah
  • (B) Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan
  • (C) Nizam Mir Mahboob Ali Khan
  • (D) Nizam Afzaluddaullah

Question 9:

Which city among the following is closest to the Equator?

  • (A) Hyderabad
  • (B) Panaji
  • (C) Bhubaneswar
  • (D) Mumbai

Question 10:

When and where Naxalbari peasant rebellion started in India?

  • (A) 1967, West Bengal
  • (B) 1947, Telangana
  • (C) 1956, Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) 1939, Orissa

Question 11:

Which year was declared as "International Women's Year" by U.N.?

  • (A) 1985
  • (B) 1975
  • (C) 1965
  • (D) 1995

Question 12:

Mizoram foundation day is celebrated on ________________

  • (A) January 20th
  • (B) August 20th
  • (C) February 20th
  • (D) December 20th

Question 13:

How many times has Argentina won the FIFA Men's World Cup?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 2

Question 14:

Who painted the famous work "La Gioconda" also known as "Mona Lisa" painting?

  • (A) Vincent van Gogh
  • (B) Leonardo da Vinci
  • (C) Pablo Picasso
  • (D) Claude Monet

Question 15:

Which is the World's tallest statue?

  • (A) Spring Temple Buddha in China
  • (B) Laykyun Sekkya in Myanmar
  • (C) Statue of Unity in India
  • (D) Vishwas Swaroopam in India

Question 16:

Who is the richest author in the World?

  • (A) J.K. Rowling
  • (B) Suzanne Collins
  • (C) Veronica Roth
  • (D) George R.R. Martin

Question 17:

Who has been elected for the second time as the President of South Africa?

  • (A) Nelson Mandela
  • (B) Cyril Ramaphosa
  • (C) Jacob Zuma
  • (D) Kgalema Motlanthe

Question 18:

The smallest cricket stadium in the World is:

  • (A) Wanderers - South Africa
  • (B) Eden Park - New Zealand
  • (C) Lord's - England
  • (D) Eden Gardens - India

Question 19:

The UNESCO World heritage site "Basilica of Bom Jesus" is located in which State in India?

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Pondichery
  • (C) Daman
  • (D) Mahe

Question 20:

Which guided missile frigate of Indian Navy is nicknamed as "The Raging Rhino"?

  • (A) INS Brahmaputra
  • (B) INS Vela
  • (C) INS Visakhapatnam
  • (D) INS Khukri

Question 21:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east. C is on the immediate right of D. B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. G is between E and F. D is sitting third from the south end. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends?

  • (A) CB
  • (B) AE
  • (C) AB
  • (D) DE

Question 22:

What is the least number which when divided by 12, 18, 36, 45 leaves remainder 8, 14, 32, 41 respectively?

  • (A) 88
  • (B) 176
  • (C) 98
  • (D) 42

Question 23:

Surabhi is facing east. She turns 100° in the clockwise direction and then 145° in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is she facing now?

  • (A) West
  • (B) North-East
  • (C) North
  • (D) South-East

Question 24:

A number series is given with one of the terms missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark (?) in the given series.
97, 90, 76, 55, ?

  • (A) 28
  • (B) 27
  • (C) 26
  • (D) 25

Question 25:

If A=26, SUN=27, then INDUS=?

  • (A) 29
  • (B) 67
  • (C) 68
  • (D) 50

Question 26:

Select the related pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
Numismatist: Coins

  • (A) Philatelist: Stamp
  • (B) Jeweller: Jewels
  • (C) Cartographer: map
  • (D) Geneticist: Chromosomes

Question 27:

A dice is rolled three times and the sum of three numbers appearing on the uppermost dice is 15. The chance that the first roll was four is

  • (A) 2/5
  • (B) 1/5
  • (C) 1/6
  • (D) 2/4

Question 28:

If in English alphabet 'e' and every alternate letter from 'e' is written in capitals, then how will sixth month from March be coded as

  • (A) SEPTembER
  • (B) SEpTEmbEr
  • (C) SepTEmbEr
  • (D) SEPTEnubER

Question 29:

If in certain code, 'Clever' is written as 'XOVEVI', then 'Smart' will be written as.........

  • (A) HZNGI
  • (B) HNZIG
  • (C) GHNGI
  • (D) GIHZN

Question 30:

In a bag there are some gold coins. In another bag there are 1/3rd extra gold coins as compared to first bag. If the difference in the number of gold coins in first and second bag is 5, then how many coins are there in the first bag?

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 15

Question 31:

Who hosted the 6th SHAASTRA Rapid FIDE Rated Chess Tournament in 2024?

  • (A) IIT Kanpur
  • (B) IIT Bombay
  • (C) IIT Madras
  • (D) IIT Hyderabad

Question 32:

What is Wigner Crystal?

  • (A) Newly discovered exoplanet
  • (B) Solid phase of electrons
  • (C) Solid phase of neutrons
  • (D) Black hole

Question 33:

Which portal was launched by India for the documentation and standardization of traditional medicine terminologies?

  • (A) AYUSHMAN
  • (B) NAMASTE
  • (C) TRADMED
  • (D) HERITAGE

Question 34:

Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries, are located in which Indian State?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Assam
  • (C) Odisha
  • (D) Bihar

Question 35:

Which two countries' scientists joined India's 43rd Antarctic Expedition in 2024?

  • (A) Nepal and Bhutan
  • (B) Sri Lanka and Maldives
  • (C) Mauritius and Bangladesh
  • (D) Singapore and Malaysia

Question 36:

Donald Trump re-elected as ___________ President of the United States.

  • (A) 46th
  • (B) 47th
  • (C) 45th
  • (D) 44th

Question 37:

What is the theme of the 15th Edition of Asia's biggest aero show, Aero India, 2025?

  • (A) "The Runway to a Billion Opportunities"
  • (B) "Flying Towards a Sustainable Future"
  • (C) "Defining the Future of Aerospace"
  • (D) "Innovate, Integrate, Dominate"

Question 38:

India's first underwater metro service commenced operations in which city in 2024?

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Chennai
  • (C) Kolkata
  • (D) Kochi

Question 39:

"Onitis bordati", recently in news, belongs to which species?

  • (A) Dung Beetle
  • (B) Frog
  • (C) Fish
  • (D) Spider

Question 40:

________ city has been designated as World Book Capital for the Year, 2026 by UNESCO.

  • (A) Rio de Janeiro
  • (B) Strasbourg
  • (C) Rabat
  • (D) Delhi

Question 41:

Which veteran BJP and former minister in Atal Bihari Vajpayee Government recently passed away in 2025?

  • (A) Sushma Swaraj
  • (B) Debendra Pradhan
  • (C) Ananth Kumar
  • (D) Ram Naik

Question 42:

The 'Blue Flag' certification is awarded to beaches based on what criteria?

  • (A) Marine biodiversity
  • (B) Water quality and environmental management
  • (C) Tourism infrastructure
  • (D) Historical significance

Question 43:

Virat Kohli, scored 10,000 runs, in how many ODIs?

  • (A) 205
  • (B) 263
  • (C) 259
  • (D) 241

Question 44:

The 'One Sun, One World, One Grid' initiative is related to which field?

  • (A) Global internet connectivity
  • (B) International solar energy cooperation
  • (C) World future energy
  • (D) Global trade agreements

Question 45:

Who is the present CEO of Indian Banks' Association?

  • (A) Gopal Bhagat
  • (B) Sunil Mehta
  • (C) Madhav Nair
  • (D) Atul Kumar Goel

Question 46:

The 'Kigali Amendment', ratified by India, is associated with which environmental issue?

  • (A) Deforestation
  • (B) Ozone layer protection
  • (C) Plastic pollution
  • (D) Ocean acidification

Question 47:

The Vedanta Udaipur World Music Festival, 2025 was celebrated from ____ to _____

  • (A) January 7th to 10th
  • (B) March 7th to 9th
  • (C) February 7th to 9th
  • (D) April 7th to 10th

Question 48:

The 'Global Gateway' initiative, launched in 2024, is an infrastructure plan by which entity?

  • (A) United States
  • (B) European Union
  • (C) China
  • (D) G7

Question 49:

Which country will host the G20 Summit, 2025?

  • (A) South Africa
  • (B) Brazil
  • (C) Indonesia
  • (D) Japan

Question 50:

Who is the 9th Secretary-General of the United Nations?

  • (A) Antonio Guterres
  • (B) Ban Ki-moon
  • (C) Kofi Annan
  • (D) Justin Trudeau

Question 51:

Which country was the first to launch its central Bank Digital Currency?

  • (A) USA
  • (B) China
  • (C) Bahamas
  • (D) Russia

Question 52:

Which country hosted Special Olympics World Winter Games, 2025?

  • (A) Italy
  • (B) Austria
  • (C) France
  • (D) Switzerland

Question 53:

International Day of Action for Rivers is observed every year on?

  • (A) 8th March
  • (B) 1st March
  • (C) 14th March
  • (D) 3rd March

Question 54:

Who has been appointed as Managing Director of Bajaj Auto in 2025?

  • (A) Niraj Bajaj
  • (B) Rajiv Bajaj
  • (C) Sanjay Bajaj
  • (D) Madhur Bajaj

Question 55:

Which country recently announced plans to achieve net-zero emissions by 2045?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) Sweden
  • (C) Canada
  • (D) Australia

Question 56:

What is the name of the new stealth fighter jet developed by South Korea?

  • (A) KF-21 Boramae
  • (B) F-35 Lightning
  • (C) Sukhoi Su-57
  • (D) J-20 Mighty Dragon

Question 57:

Which state police recently launched 'Shishtachar' squad for enhancing women's safety across all districts in public places?

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Delhi
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Bihar

Question 58:

Who received the Hindi Sahitya Bharati Award 2024?

  • (A) Rameshchandra Shah
  • (B) Seeni Viswanathan
  • (C) Krishna Prakash
  • (D) Sandeep Joshi

Question 59:

Name the electric trainer aircraft being developed in India?

  • (A) E-Hansa
  • (B) E-Surya
  • (C) E-Vikrant
  • (D) E-Akash

Question 60:

Which state became the first State to reserve 75% of private jobs for locals?

  • (A) Haryana
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 61:

Who is the Corporate Affairs Minister of India?

  • (A) Shri Amit Shah
  • (B) Nirmala Sitharaman
  • (C) Piyush Goyal
  • (D) Arjun Ram Meghwal

Question 62:

Which case is known as "Snail in the Bottle" case?

  • (A) Ashby v. White
  • (B) Donoghue v. Stevenson
  • (C) Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir
  • (D) Rylands v. Fletcher

Question 63:

In a factory, a child shall not work more than __________ hours in India.

  • (A) 5 hours
  • (B) 5.5 hours
  • (C) 4.5 hours
  • (D) 4 hours

Question 64:

Which Constitutional amendments introduced Local Self Government?

  • (A) 42nd and 44th
  • (B) 73rd and 74th
  • (C) 12th and 13th
  • (D) 50th and 51st

Question 65:

The Doctrine of "Prospective Overruling" was propounded in which case?

  • (A) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • (B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  • (C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  • (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Question 66:

In the context of e-commerce, __________ means an online interface in the form of any software including a website or a part thereof and applications including mobile applications.

  • (A) Platform
  • (B) Seller
  • (C) Marketplace
  • (D) Repository

Question 67:

When was "Jana Gana Mana" was adopted as the national anthem?

  • (A) 14th August 1947
  • (B) 26th January 1950
  • (C) 24th January 1950
  • (D) 15th August 1947

Question 68:

For a tort, damages are __________ in nature.

  • (A) liquidated
  • (B) unliquidated
  • (C) nominal
  • (D) exemplary

Question 69:

The concept of Rule of Law is derived from which country's Constitution?

  • (A) USA
  • (B) France
  • (C) UK
  • (D) Germany

Question 70:

When two parties resolve a dispute without the intervention of a third party, the method is called as __________.

  • (A) Mediation
  • (B) Arbitration
  • (C) Negotiation
  • (D) Conciliation

Question 71:

For how long can President's Rule initially be imposed in a State?

  • (A) 6 months
  • (B) 1 year
  • (C) 3 months
  • (D) 3 years

Question 72:

Which is the Highest Criminal Court in a District?

  • (A) High Court
  • (B) Sessions Court
    (C) 1st Class Judicial Magistrate Court
    (D) Chief Judicial Magistrate Court

Question 73:

Which statement is not correct regarding anticipatory bail?

  • (A) It protects the accused from undue harassment
  • (B) It safeguards accused personal liberty
  • (C) It is granted in women related offences
  • (D) It is granted before arrest

Question 74:

Who is the 48th Chief Justice of India (CJI)?

  • (A) Sanjiv Khanna
  • (B) D. Y. Chandrachud
  • (C) Ranjan Gogoi
  • (D) N. V. Ramana

Question 75:

The Election Commission was established on ___________?

  • (A) 15th August 1950
  • (B) 25th January 1950
  • (C) 28th January 1950
  • (D) 26th January 1950

Question 76:

Who is the longest serving Attorney General of India?

  • (A) C. K. Daphtary
  • (B) Soli Sorabjee
  • (C) M. C. Setalvad
  • (D) Fali S. Nariman

Question 77:

How many Judges are there in Supreme Court of India including Chief Justice?

  • (A) 34
  • (B) 33
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 36

Question 78:

The "Concurrent List" in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

  • (A) USA
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) Australia
  • (D) Ireland

Question 79:

Who was the chief architect of Government of India Act, 1935?

  • (A) Rajendra Prasad
  • (B) Samuel Hoare
  • (C) S. N. Mukherjee
  • (D) G. V. Mavlankar

Question 80:

An agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime amounts to __________.

  • (A) preparation
  • (B) attempt
  • (C) conspiracy
  • (D) assault

Question 81:

An unmarried male person cannot adopt ___________.

  • (A) a girl child
  • (B) a boy child
  • (C) Girl and boy both
  • (D) Neither girl nor boy child

Question 82:

Ranbir penal code was earlier applicable to ___________.

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (C) Pakistan
  • (D) Nepal

Question 83:

In which case, the Supreme Court of India declared "Right to Privacy" as a Fundamental Right?

  • (A) R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu
  • (B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
  • (C) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh

Question 84:

As per Article 105(3), the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament shall be ____________.

  • (A) As defined by the President from time to time
  • (B) As laid down by the Supreme Court in its judgments
  • (C) As defined by Parliament by law from time to time
    (D) Subject to the rules made by the Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 85:

Which of the following is considered as fair dealing in respect of a copyrighted work?

  • (A) Commercial use of the work
  • (B) Private study or research basing on the work
  • (C) Reproduction of the work for profit-making
  • (D) Public performance of the work for entertainment

Question 86:

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can Parliament legislate on matters enumerated in the State List in National interest?

  • (A) Article 249
  • (B) Article 250
  • (C) Article 252
  • (D) Article 253

Question 87:

Which Latin maxim signifies that a person cannot be punished twice for the same offense?

  • (A) Nemo judex in causa sua
  • (B) Nemo bis punitur pro eodem delicto
  • (C) Actus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
  • (D) Ignorantia juris non excusat

Question 88:

Who is the present ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) Droupadi Murmu
  • (B) Jagdeep Dhankhar
  • (C) Narendra Modi
  • (D) Om Birla

Question 89:

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the No-Confidence Motion in India?

  • (A) It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  • (B) It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
  • (C) It can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
  • (D) It is a motion expressing want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.

Question 90:

Under which provision in the BNSS, Zero FIR may be filed?

  • (A) Section 173
  • (B) Section 356
  • (C) Section 107
  • (D) Section 398

Question 91:

The concept of "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" was first introduced in which case?

  • (A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • (B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
  • (C) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
  • (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Question 92:

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) 3rd Schedule
  • (B) 4th Schedule
  • (C) 7th Schedule
  • (D) 8th Schedule

Question 93:

Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act was enacted in the year ___________.

  • (A) 1956
  • (B) 1955
  • (C) 1947
  • (D) 1950

Question 94:

Ombudsman is primarily a system under which law?

  • (A) Contract law
  • (B) Criminal law
  • (C) Administrative law
  • (D) Property law

Question 95:

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, newly introduced specific provision relating to ___________.

  • (A) Mob Lynching
  • (B) Attempt to Commit Suicide
  • (C) Adultery
  • (D) Sedition

Question 96:

Which of the following is a consequence of judicial overreach?

  • (A) Enhanced separation of powers
  • (B) Strengthened democratic decision-making
  • (C) Erosion of legislative authority
  • (D) Increased executive accountability

Question 97:

Who was the 10th Chief Election Commissioner of India?

  • (A) Tirunellai Narayana Iyer Seshan
  • (B) Sukumar Sen
  • (C) Kalyan V. Sundaram
  • (D) Brij Bihari Tandon

Question 98:

Latin maxim "Ignorantia facti excusat ignorantia juris non excusat" means ________.

  • (A) Ignorance of fact is excused but ignorance of law is not excused
  • (B) Ignorance of law is excused but ignorance of fact is not excused
  • (C) Ignorance of fact and ignorance of law is not excused
  • (D) Ignorance of fact and ignorance of law is excused

Question 99:

The concept of "Separation of Powers" was propounded by:

  • (A) Montesquieu
  • (B) John Locke
  • (C) Rousseau
  • (D) Jeremy Bentham

Question 100:

Who is the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority?

  • (A) The Chief Justice of India
  • (B) The President of India
  • (C) The Union Law Minister
  • (D) The Attorney General of India

Question 101:

In the context of Hindu law, what is the primary purpose of the Doctrine of Factum Valet?

  • (A) To validate all actions regardless of their legality
  • (B) To uphold the validity of actions that have been completed, despite procedural irregularities
  • (C) To invalidate actions that contravene statutory provisions
  • (D) To promote strict adherence to legal formalities

Question 102:

The process of redrawing electoral boundaries based on population changes is known as:

  • (A) Reorganisation
  • (B) Reservation
  • (C) Delimitation
  • (D) Realignment

Question 103:

Which Article provides for the protection of minority rights?

  • (A) Article 15
  • (B) Article 29
  • (C) Article 17
  • (D) Article 32

Question 104:

Which commission was appointed to investigate Anti-Sikh riots in 1984?

  • (A) Kapur Commission
  • (B) Ranganath Mishra Commission
  • (C) Nanavati commission
  • (D) Liberhan Commission

Question 105:

Who is the present Chairman of Central Administrative Tribunal?

  • (A) Justice L. Narsimha Reddy
  • (B) Justice Vinod Kumar Bali
  • (C) Justice Ranjit Vasantrao More
  • (D) Justice Permod Kohli

Question 106:

Which Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

  • (A) 98th Amendment
  • (B) 100th Amendment
  • (C) 101st Amendment
  • (D) 102nd Amendment

Question 107:

The 'Dayabhaga' school of Hindu law is primarily followed in:

  • (A) North India
  • (B) South India
  • (C) East India
  • (D) West India

Question 108:

A statement given by a person, that can be used against him in the court of law is called as

  • (A) Information
  • (B) Confession
  • (C) Complaint
  • (D) Writ

Question 109:

Who is authorized to decide on disqualification cases under the Anti-Defection Law?

  • (A) The President of India
  • (B) The Election Commission
  • (C) The Speaker or Chairman of the respective House
  • (D) The Supreme Court

Question 110:

Which of the following is the main objective of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

  • (A) Promote corruption
  • (B) Promote transparency
  • (C) Reduce crime
  • (D) Encourage litigation

Question 111:

Courts ensure that there is no clog on the equity of redemption, in order to ______.

  • (A) Enforce absolute transfer of property by mortgagee
  • (B) Prevent undue restrictions on mortgagor's right to redeem
  • (C) Restrict the mortgagor to retain excess profits by redemption
  • (D) Abolish personal liability of the mortgagor by redemption

Question 112:

In which type of mortgage does the mortgagee obtain possession and rents in lieu of payment?

  • (A) Simple mortgage
  • (B) English mortgage
  • (C) Usufructuary mortgage
  • (D) Conditional sale mortgage

Question 113:

Which of the following is an antonym of ostensible?

  • (A) presumed
  • (B) supposed
  • (C) genuine
  • (D) apparent

Question 114:

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • (A) Equitable mortgage is created by deposit of title deeds
  • (B) Transfer of Property Act enumerates six types of mortgages
  • (C) In English mortgage property is transferred to mortgagee
  • (D) Anamolous mortgage is used to refer to all types of mortgages

Question 115:

What is the meaning of legal maxim qui prior est tempore potior est jure?

  • (A) he who is earlier in time is stronger in law
  • (B) he who is later in time is stronger in law
  • (C) he who is truthful is stronger in law
  • (D) he who is untruthful is weaker in law

Question 116:

The combination of mens rea and actus reus is essential, except in __________.

  • (A) Intentional homicide
  • (B) White-collar crime
  • (C) Strict liability offences
  • (D) Criminal conspiracy

Question 117:

Restorative justice primarily focuses on __________.

  • (A) Maximum deterrence
  • (B) Retribution
  • (C) Rehabilitation
  • (D) Harsh sentencing

Question 118:

The maxim nullum crimen sine lege protects against:

  • (A) Deterrent punishment
  • (B) Arbitrary sentencing against criminals
  • (C) Retrospective criminal liability
  • (D) Double jeopardy

Question 119:

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • (A) Critical criminology examines the social construction of deviance
  • (B) Classical school viewed punishment as a deterrent mechanism
  • (C) Victimology focuses on providing restitution to the offender
  • (D) Positivist school marks a shift towards rehabilitation of offender

Question 120:

What is the meaning of incarceration?

  • (A) imprisonment
  • (B) freedom
  • (C) revolution
  • (D) restoration

TS LAWCET 2025 Exam Pattern - 5 Year LLB

Component Details
Mode of Exam Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Duration 90 Minutes
Total Questions 120 MCQs
Total Marks 120 Marks
Marking Scheme +1 for each correct answer, 0 for each incorrect answer
Section-wise Distribution
  • General Knowledge and Mental Ability – 30
  • Current Affairs – 30
  • Legal Aptitude – 30
  • Logical Reasoning – 30
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Language of Paper English

TS LAWCET 2025 Topicwise Weightage (5 Year LLB)

Component Important Topics & Weightage
General Knowledge and Mental Ability (30 marks)
  • Indian History – 5
  • Geography – 5
  • Economics – 5
  • Politics – 5
  • Science and Technology – 5
  • Reasoning Ability (Verbal & Non-Verbal) – 5
Current Affairs (30 marks)
  • National and International Events – 10
  • Sports and Awards – 5
  • Government Schemes – 5
  • Summits and Conferences – 5
  • Economic and Social Issues – 5
  • Science & Technology – 5
Legal Aptitude (30 marks)
  • Basic Concepts of Law – 10
  • Legal Principles – 10
  • Legal Reasoning – 10
Logical Reasoning (30 marks)
  • Verbal Reasoning – 10
  • Non-Verbal Reasoning – 10
  • Analytical Reasoning – 10

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General800
sc500

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