AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 (Available) : Download Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 18, 2025

AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted on June 6 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET Geo Engineering and Geo Informatics Question Paper

AP PGECET​​ Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF
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AP PGECET Question Paper 2025


Question 1:

Where is Earth’s core located relative to the surface?

  • (A) 2,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (B) 3,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (C) At the crust–mantle boundary
  • (D) 1,900 kilometers below the surface
Correct Answer: (A) 2,900 kilometers below the surface
View Solution

The Earth's core begins approximately 2,900 kilometers beneath the surface, marking the boundary between the mantle and the outer core. This depth is known as the Gutenberg Discontinuity, where seismic waves change behavior due to the transition from solid mantle to liquid outer core. Quick Tip: Remember: The boundary between Earth's mantle and core lies around 2,900 km deep, while the crust–mantle boundary (Moho) is much shallower, averaging 30–50 km.


Question 2:

What is the term for the process that led to the formation of Earth's core?

  • (A) Plate tectonics
  • (B) Planetary differentiation
  • (C) Seafloor spreading
  • (D) Mantle convection
Correct Answer: (B) Planetary differentiation
View Solution

Planetary differentiation is the process through which the Earth separated into different layers (core, mantle, crust) based on density. Heavier elements like iron sank to the center, forming the core, while lighter materials rose to form the mantle and crust. This process occurred early in Earth’s history due to intense heat and gravity. Quick Tip: Differentiation = Division by density. Think of Earth's interior forming in layers, like oil separating from water.


Question 3:

What are polymorphs in mineralogy?

  • (A) Rocks formed under identical pressure and temperature conditions
  • (B) Two or more minerals with the same chemical formula but different crystal structures
  • (C) Crystals that form only in metamorphic environments
  • (D) Minerals with different chemical formulas but similar crystal structures
Correct Answer: (B) Two or more minerals with the same chemical formula but different crystal structures
View Solution

Polymorphs are minerals that share the same chemical composition but crystallize in different structural forms. A well-known example is diamond and graphite, which are both forms of carbon but have distinct crystal structures and physical properties. Quick Tip: "Poly" = many, "morph" = forms. Polymorphs = same substance, different forms (structures).


Question 4:

What characterizes a porphyritic texture in igneous rocks?

  • (A) Layers of alternating light and dark minerals
  • (B) A texture in which some crystals are distinctly larger than the rest
  • (C) Crystals that form only from volcanic eruptions
  • (D) Uniformly sized crystals throughout the rock
Correct Answer: (B) A texture in which some crystals are distinctly larger than the rest
View Solution

Porphyritic texture in igneous rocks indicates a two-stage cooling process where large crystals (phenocrysts) form slowly below the surface followed by rapid cooling that creates a fine-grained matrix. This results in a mix of crystal sizes. Quick Tip: Porphyritic = "mixed crystals" — big crystals in a finer background due to different cooling rates.


Question 5:

Which of the following correctly describes the composition of Earth’s core?

  • (A) Silicate rocks with low-density elements
  • (B) Solid iron-nickel outer core and liquid silicate inner core
  • (C) Liquid iron-nickel outer core and solid iron-nickel inner core
  • (D) Primarily aluminum silicate with traces of magnesium
Correct Answer: (C) Liquid iron-nickel outer core and solid iron-nickel inner core
View Solution

Earth’s core is differentiated into two parts: a liquid outer core composed of molten iron and nickel, and a solid inner core made primarily of solid iron and nickel. This structure has been inferred from seismic wave behavior and is key to understanding Earth's magnetic field. Quick Tip: The outer core is liquid and the inner core is solid—both made mostly of iron and nickel.


Question 6:

What is the process called when a parent rock transforms due to heat and pressure without melting?

  • (A) Diagenesis
  • (B) Metamorphism
  • (C) Crystallization
  • (D) Erosion
Correct Answer: (B) Metamorphism
View Solution

Metamorphism is the process where rocks are altered by heat and pressure, typically deep within Earth’s crust, without the rock melting. It results in physical and mineralogical changes in the rock's structure, producing metamorphic rocks. Quick Tip: Metamorphism = heat + pressure (no melting) → new rock texture and minerals.


Question 7:

Which of the following best explains the term "continental shield"?

  • (A) Submarine ridges with high heat flow
  • (B) Oceanic crust covered by continental sediments
  • (C) Large regions of exposed Precambrian crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks
  • (D) Young mountain ranges formed by recent tectonic activity
Correct Answer: (C) Large regions of exposed Precambrian crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks
View Solution

Continental shields are ancient, stable parts of the continental lithosphere composed mainly of Precambrian igneous and metamorphic rocks. These areas have remained tectonically inactive for billions of years and form the geological cores of continents. Quick Tip: Continental shields = oldest rocks on Earth, stable and mostly Precambrian in age.


Question 8:

Which of the following is a framework silicate mineral?

  • (A) Olivine
  • (B) Biotite
  • (C) Quartz
  • (D) Pyroxene
Correct Answer: (C) Quartz
View Solution

Quartz is a framework silicate, meaning its silicate tetrahedra are bonded in a three-dimensional framework. This structure provides high stability and hardness. Framework silicates include quartz and feldspars and are among the most common minerals in Earth's crust. Quick Tip: Framework silicates = 3D tetrahedra. Quartz is the most common and well-known example.


Question 9:

The cleavage in mica minerals is described as:

\medskip

  • (A) Basal
  • (B) Prismatic
  • (C) Cubic
  • (D) Irregular
Correct Answer: (A) Basal
View Solution

Mica minerals exhibit perfect basal cleavage, meaning they can easily split into thin sheets along flat planes parallel to the base of the crystal. This is due to weak bonding between the layers. Quick Tip: Micas peel into sheets—this is basal cleavage.


Question 10:

The primary instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles in surveying is:

\medskip

  • (A) Theodolite
  • (B) Total station
  • (C) Plane table
  • (D) Dumpy level
Correct Answer: (A) Theodolite
View Solution

The theodolite is a precision instrument used in surveying to measure horizontal and vertical angles. It plays a crucial role in triangulation and other geodetic activities. Quick Tip: Theodolite = Angle measurement (horizontal & vertical).


Question 11:

High oblique photographs differ from low oblique photographs in that they:

\medskip

  • (A) Are taken from a higher altitude
  • (B) Include the horizon in the image
  • (C) Are taken with a vertical camera axis
  • (D) Show less ground area
Correct Answer: (B) Include the horizon in the image
View Solution

High oblique aerial photographs are taken at an angle such that the horizon appears in the frame, whereas low oblique photographs do not show the horizon and cover less area of the landscape. Quick Tip: Horizon visible? → High oblique photograph.


Question 12:

Which type of map projection assumes a globe resting on a flat surface, producing a circular map with a central point of tangency?

\medskip

  • (A) Conic Projection
  • (B) Mercator Projection
  • (C) Azimuthal Projection
  • (D) Cylindrical Projection
Correct Answer: (C) Azimuthal Projection
View Solution

Azimuthal projections map the globe onto a flat surface, touching it at a single point (usually the poles). These are ideal for mapping polar regions and for applications where direction is important. Quick Tip: Flat circular map → Azimuthal projection.


Question 13:

Which map projection is widely used for nautical navigation due to its ability to represent lines of constant true direction?

\medskip

  • (A) Azimuthal Projection
  • (B) Robinson Projection
  • (C) Polyconic Projection
  • (D) Mercator Projection
Correct Answer: (D) Mercator Projection
View Solution

The Mercator projection preserves angles and directions in a straight line, making it ideal for navigation. It represents lines of constant true bearing (rhumb lines) as straight segments. Quick Tip: Mercator projection = best for navigation due to true direction lines.


Question 14:

The point on the ground vertically beneath the camera at the time of exposure is called the:

\medskip

  • (A) Perceptive point
  • (B) Nadir Point
  • (C) Principal point
  • (D) Isoline
Correct Answer: (B) Nadir Point
View Solution

The nadir point is the location directly beneath the camera lens on the ground during exposure. It's critical in vertical aerial photography for geometric corrections. Quick Tip: Nadir = ground point directly below the camera.


Question 15:

Which of the following characteristics most clearly distinguishes an oblique photograph from a vertical photograph in aerial photography?

\medskip

  • (A) Uniform scale throughout the photograph
  • (B) Ability to see the horizon in the photograph
  • (C) Taken with the camera axis vertical to the ground
  • (D) Presence of overlapping areas between photos
Correct Answer: (B) Ability to see the horizon in the photograph
View Solution

Oblique photographs are taken at an angle and often show the horizon, unlike vertical photos. This is the key distinguishing characteristic. Quick Tip: Oblique photos = camera tilted, horizon visible.


Question 16:

In remote sensing, super wide angle cameras are cameras whose angular field of view is:

\medskip

  • (A) Less than 60\(^\circ\)
  • (B) Between 60\(^\circ\) and 90\(^\circ\)
  • (C) Greater than 90\(^\circ\)
  • (D) Exactly 180\(^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (C) Greater than 90\(^\circ\)
View Solution

Super wide-angle cameras in remote sensing have a field of view greater than 90°, enabling them to cover larger surface areas in a single capture. Quick Tip: Super wide-angle cameras = FOV > 90° in remote sensing.


Question 17:

What does the term 'radiance' refer to in radiometry?

\medskip

  • (A) Energy per unit wavelength
  • (B) Energy per unit area
  • (C) Energy per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (D) Total energy emitted by a source
Correct Answer: (C) Energy per unit area per unit solid angle
View Solution

Radiance is a radiometric quantity that describes the amount of energy passing through or emitted from a surface area in a given direction, per unit area per unit solid angle. Quick Tip: Radiance = Energy per unit area per unit solid angle.


Question 18:

Which of the following is not a radiometric quantity?

\medskip

  • (A) Radiant flux
  • (B) Irradiance
  • (C) Reflectance
  • (D) Radiance
Correct Answer: (C) Reflectance
View Solution

Reflectance is a dimensionless ratio of the reflected radiation from a surface to the incident radiation, unlike other radiometric quantities which are absolute measures of energy. Quick Tip: Reflectance is a ratio, not a radiometric quantity.


Question 19:

Which orbit is best suited for continuous weather monitoring over a specific region?

\medskip

  • (A) Molniya orbit
  • (B) Polar orbit
  • (C) Geostationary orbit
  • (D) Sun-synchronous orbit
Correct Answer: (C) Geostationary orbit
View Solution

Geostationary orbits allow satellites to remain fixed over one point on Earth's equator, providing continuous observation of the same region — ideal for weather monitoring. Quick Tip: Geostationary = best for fixed region monitoring like weather.


Question 20:

Geostationary satellites orbit at approximately:

\medskip

  • (A) 35,786 km
  • (B) 786 km
  • (C) 1000 km
  • (D) 500 km
Correct Answer: (A) 35,786 km
View Solution

Geostationary satellites orbit at a height of about 35,786 km above Earth's equator, matching Earth's rotation period and allowing them to appear stationary relative to Earth. Quick Tip: Geostationary orbit altitude = approx. 35,786 km.


Question 21:

Across-track stereoscopic imaging is typically obtained by:

\medskip

  • (A) Combining radar and optical data
  • (B) Not combining radar and optical data
  • (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
  • (D) Capturing nadir images over different regions
Correct Answer: (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
View Solution

Across-track stereoscopic imaging relies on the use of side-looking sensors that capture imagery from different satellite passes, enabling depth perception through different perspectives. Quick Tip: Across-track stereo = side-looking sensors from different passes.


Question 22:

Which of the following satellite systems is capable of along-track stereo imaging using fore and aft sensors?

\medskip

  • (A) Cartosat-1
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) SPOT
  • (D) Landsat
Correct Answer: (A) Cartosat-1
View Solution

Cartosat-1 is equipped with fore and aft cameras to capture imagery in the same pass, allowing along-track stereo imaging which is useful for generating digital elevation models. Quick Tip: Cartosat-1 = along-track stereo with fore and aft sensors.


Question 23:

Across-track stereoscopic imaging is typically obtained by:

\medskip

  • (A) Combining radar and optical data
  • (B) Not combining radar and optical data
  • (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
  • (D) Capturing nadir images over different regions
Correct Answer: (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
View Solution

Across-track stereoscopic imaging relies on the use of side-looking sensors that capture imagery from different satellite passes, enabling depth perception through different perspectives. Quick Tip: Across-track stereo = side-looking sensors from different passes.


Question 24:

Which of the following satellite systems is capable of along-track stereo imaging using fore and aft sensors?

\medskip

  • (A) Cartosat-1
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) SPOT
  • (D) Landsat
Correct Answer: (A) Cartosat-1
View Solution

Cartosat-1 is equipped with fore and aft cameras to capture imagery in the same pass, allowing along-track stereo imaging which is useful for generating digital elevation models. Quick Tip: Cartosat-1 = along-track stereo with fore and aft sensors.


Question 25:

Which among the following is not related to GIS software’s?

\medskip

  • (A) STAAD Pro
  • (B) QGIS
  • (C) ARCVIEW
  • (D) CAD
Correct Answer: (A) STAAD Pro
View Solution

STAAD Pro is a structural analysis and design software, not used for GIS (Geographic Information Systems). QGIS, ARCVIEW, and CAD are all tools with GIS capabilities or applications. Quick Tip: STAAD Pro is for structural design, not geographic data.


Question 26:

Which of the following best describes topology in GIS?

\medskip

  • (A) Raster resolution accuracy
  • (B) Geometric measurement of features
  • (C) Spatial relationships between vector features
  • (D) Storage of attribute information
Correct Answer: (C) Spatial relationships between vector features
View Solution

In GIS, topology refers to how spatial features (such as points, lines, and polygons) are related to each other in space, particularly their connectivity and adjacency. Quick Tip: Topology = spatial relationships like adjacency and connectivity.


Question 27:

Which GIS file format is most commonly used for storing vector data, including points, lines, and polygons?

\medskip

  • (A) .img
  • (B) .txt
  • (C) .pps
  • (D) .shp
Correct Answer: (D) .shp
View Solution

The .shp (shapefile) format is the standard file type used in GIS for storing vector data like points, lines, and polygons along with attribute data. Quick Tip: Use .shp files for storing vector GIS data.


Question 28:

Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?

\medskip

  • (A) Geographic, spherical systems
  • (B) Geographic, projected systems
  • (C) Linear, geometric systems
  • (D) Spherical, projected systems
Correct Answer: (B) Geographic, projected systems
View Solution

GIS coordinate systems are typically categorized into geographic (based on latitude and longitude) and projected systems (which map the curved surface of the Earth onto a flat plane). Quick Tip: Geographic = lat-long; Projected = flat maps.


Question 29:

In GIS, what is the purpose of indexing spatial data in a database?

\medskip

  • (A) To speed up data visualization
  • (B) To improve spatial query performance
  • (C) To store backup copies of data
  • (D) To manage spatial relationships
Correct Answer: (B) To improve spatial query performance
View Solution

Indexing improves the performance of spatial queries by allowing the database to quickly locate and retrieve spatial data without scanning every record. Quick Tip: Indexing helps improve spatial query speed and efficiency.


Question 30:

What is the key advantage of Object-Oriented Database Models in GIS?

\medskip

  • (A) They only work with vector data
  • (B) They are easier to use than relational databases
  • (C) They store data in a flat, three Dimensional table
  • (D) They allow for more complex data relationships and inheritance
Correct Answer: (D) They allow for more complex data relationships and inheritance
View Solution

Object-Oriented Database Models are well-suited for GIS as they support data inheritance and complex relationships, which is essential for spatial and attribute data representation. Quick Tip: Object-Oriented DBs = complex relationships + inheritance support.


Question 31:

What is the primary advantage of using a hierarchical database structure in GIS?

\medskip

  • (A) Improved spatial data analysis
  • (B) Faster query response times
  • (C) Handling of data
  • (D) Clear parent-child relationships between data sets
Correct Answer: (D) Clear parent-child relationships between data sets
View Solution

Hierarchical databases structure data in a tree-like model, making it easy to represent parent-child relationships, which is useful for organizing spatial datasets. Quick Tip: Hierarchical DB = clear parent-child data structure.


Question 32:

Which of the following would be considered a non-spatial data analysis technique?

\medskip

  • (A) Raster data interpolation
  • (B) Database queries using SQL
  • (C) Buffer zone creation
  • (D) Network analysis
Correct Answer: (B) Database queries using SQL
View Solution

SQL-based queries are used for querying attribute data and do not require spatial context. They are therefore categorized as non-spatial analysis techniques. Quick Tip: SQL queries = non-spatial analysis (attribute-based).


Question 33:

In GIS, what is the primary purpose of using symbology?

\medskip

  • (A) To perform spatial queries
  • (B) To represent spatial features visually with symbols
  • (C) To convert raster to vector
  • (D) To store spatial data efficiently
Correct Answer: (B) To represent spatial features visually with symbols
View Solution

Symbology in GIS is primarily used to visually represent spatial features on a map using symbols, colors, and patterns. This enhances readability and aids in understanding spatial distributions and patterns. Quick Tip: Symbology = visual representation of spatial data using symbols.


Question 34:

Which of the following types of visualizations would be most appropriate for displaying elevation data?

\medskip

  • (A) Heat map
  • (B) Bar chart
  • (C) 3D surface model
  • (D) Line graph
Correct Answer: (C) 3D surface model
View Solution

3D surface models are ideal for representing elevation data as they depict variations in terrain in a three-dimensional manner, allowing for more accurate interpretation of landforms. Quick Tip: Elevation data is best visualized using 3D surface models.


Question 35:

......... map projection is best suited for regional or hemispheric maps, but unsuitable for entire world map.

\medskip

  • (A) Cylindrical
  • (B) Equivalent
  • (C) Conical
  • (D) Azimuthal
Correct Answer: (C) Conical
View Solution

Conical projections are well-suited for mapping mid-latitude regions with an east-west orientation. They offer low distortion over a limited area but are not ideal for world maps due to distortion at the poles and equator. Quick Tip: Conical projection = best for regional or hemispheric mapping.


Question 36:

Which attribute is not associated with digital maps?

\medskip

  • (A) Colour
  • (B) Symbology
  • (C) South arrow
  • (D) Legends
Correct Answer: (C) South arrow
View Solution

Digital maps typically use a north arrow for orientation. South arrows are not standard attributes in cartography or digital mapping practices. Quick Tip: Digital maps use a north arrow — not a south arrow.


Question 37:

Across track scanning systems are also called as _________ scanner systems.

  • (A) Push broom
  • (B) Lateral broom
  • (C) Pull broom
  • (D) Whisk broom
Correct Answer: (D) Whisk broom
View Solution

Across track scanners are also known as whisk broom scanners. They use a rotating mirror to scan the ground perpendicular to the flight path, producing a series of scan lines. Quick Tip: Across track = Whisk broom scanner system.


Question 38:

RISAT stands for _________.

  • (A) Radio Satellite
  • (B) Radio Navigation and Ranging Satellite
  • (C) Radar Imaging Satellite
  • (D) Reference system
Correct Answer: (C) Radar Imaging Satellite
View Solution

RISAT stands for Radar Imaging Satellite. It is an Indian remote sensing satellite that uses radar technology for all-weather, day-and-night Earth observation. Quick Tip: RISAT = Radar Imaging Satellite.


Question 39:

Joint earth-observing mission between ISRO and NASA using advanced radar imaging system is known as ________.

  • (A) NASA-ISRO Systematic Radar Mission (NISAR)
  • (B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (C) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (D) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radio (NISAR)
Correct Answer: (B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
View Solution

NISAR is a collaborative mission between NASA and ISRO, designed to use Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) to monitor Earth's ecosystems, ice mass, and natural hazards with high precision. Quick Tip: NISAR = NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar.


Question 40:

Instrument used for monitoring water levels in rivers/reservoirs from space is known as ________.

  • (A) Stadiometer or Satellite Stadiometer
  • (B) Altimeter or Satellite Altimeter
  • (C) Space Theodolite
  • (D) LISS
Correct Answer: (B) Altimeter or Satellite Altimeter
View Solution

Satellite altimeters are used to measure the height of water surfaces. They send radar pulses to Earth's surface and measure the return time to calculate elevation, useful for tracking river and reservoir water levels. Quick Tip: Altimeter = monitors water levels from space.


Question 41:

________ resolution defines the smallest difference of radiant energy detected by a sensor.

  • (1) Spectral resolution
  • (2) Radiometric resolution
  • (3) Temporal resolution
  • (4) Spatial resolution
Correct Answer: (2) Radiometric resolution
View Solution

Radiometric resolution refers to the sensitivity of a sensor to detect slight differences in energy. It determines how finely a system can represent or distinguish differences in intensity of the radiation. Quick Tip: Radiometric resolution = sensitivity to energy differences.


Question 42:

Diffused reflection of solar radiation from earth’s surface is known as __________.

  • (1) Radiance
  • (2) Irradiance
  • (3) Albedo
  • (4) Reflectance
Correct Answer: (3) Albedo
View Solution

Albedo is the fraction of solar radiation reflected by a surface. It measures the diffuse reflectivity of the Earth's surface, with higher albedo indicating more reflection. Quick Tip: Albedo = proportion of light reflected by a surface.


Question 43:

The energy quantum for radiation is proportional to its __________.

  • (1) Frequency
  • (2) Reciprocal of energy
  • (3) Square of frequency
  • (4) Square root of frequency
Correct Answer: (1) Frequency
View Solution

According to Planck’s equation \( E = h \cdot f \), the energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency, where \( h \) is Planck’s constant and \( f \) is the frequency. Quick Tip: Energy \( \propto \) frequency (Planck’s relation).


Question 44:

Output from a thermal sensor is a measurement of ________ temperature of an object.

  • (1) Kinetic
  • (2) Radiant
  • (3) Blackbody
  • (4) Infrared
Correct Answer: (2) Radiant
View Solution

Thermal sensors measure the radiant temperature, which is related to the infrared energy emitted by an object due to its temperature. Quick Tip: Thermal sensors measure radiant (infrared-emitted) temperature.


Question 45:

Who is known as father of Indian Space Program?

  • (1) Prof. P. R. Pisharoty
  • (2) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  • (3) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  • (4) Prof. U. R. Rao
Correct Answer: (2) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
View Solution

Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is regarded as the father of the Indian Space Program due to his pivotal role in establishing ISRO and initiating India’s space journey. Quick Tip: Vikram Sarabhai = Father of Indian Space Program.


Question 46:

National Remote Sensing Day is celebrated on ________ every year.

  • (1) August 12
  • (2) June 5
  • (3) November 14
  • (4) August 15
Correct Answer: (1) August 12
View Solution

National Remote Sensing Day is observed on August 12 each year in honor of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai’s birth anniversary and his contributions to remote sensing in India. Quick Tip: Remote Sensing Day = August 12.


Question 47:

Which colour of EM spectrum is used for bathymetry studies?

  • (1) Red
  • (2) UV
  • (3) SWIR
  • (4) Green
Correct Answer: (4) Green
View Solution

Green light penetrates water deeper than other visible wavelengths, making it ideal for bathymetric studies (measuring water depth). Quick Tip: Green light = used in water depth studies (bathymetry).


Question 48:

Rayleigh scattering occurs when particle size is _____ than wavelength of incoming radiation.

  • (1) very small
  • (2) equal
  • (3) not equal
  • (4) very big
Correct Answer: (1) very small
View Solution

Rayleigh scattering occurs when the particles are much smaller than the wavelength of the incident radiation, causing scattering of shorter wavelengths (like blue). Quick Tip: Rayleigh scattering: particle size ≪ wavelength.


Question 49:

The reflectance ________ with presence of moisture, surface roughness or organic content in soils.

  • (1) increases
  • (2) decreases
  • (3) remains same
  • (4) zero
Correct Answer: (2) decreases
View Solution

Moisture, surface roughness, and organic content in soils increase absorption and scattering of radiation, thus reducing the reflectance. Quick Tip: Moisture or organics in soil → reflectance decreases.


Question 50:

In digital image processing, the ________ process adjusts translational and rotational alignment between two images.

  • (1) Registration
  • (2) Filtering
  • (3) Enhancement
  • (4) Processing
Correct Answer: (1) Registration
View Solution

Registration aligns two images by adjusting shifts and rotations so that corresponding features overlap accurately. Quick Tip: Image registration = alignment of images.


Question 51:

________ helps to transform a correlated dataset into uncorrelated dataset.

  • (1) Rationing
  • (2) Principal Component Analysis
  • (3) Fusion
  • (4) Classification
Correct Answer: (2) Principal Component Analysis
View Solution

Principal Component Analysis (PCA) reduces dimensionality by converting correlated variables into a set of linearly uncorrelated components. Quick Tip: PCA = uncorrelated principal components from correlated data.


Question 52:

Rectification accuracy is expressed in terms of ________ error.

  • (1) Commission
  • (2) Root Mean Square
  • (3) Kappa
  • (4) Omission
Correct Answer: (2) Root Mean Square
View Solution

Root Mean Square (RMS) error measures the average deviation between known ground control points and their locations in the rectified image, indicating accuracy. Quick Tip: RMS error = standard measure of rectification accuracy.


Question 53:

Spectral region of electromagnetic radiation which passes through atmosphere without much attenuation is known as _________.

  • (1) Ozone hole
  • (2) Atmospheric window
  • (3) Ozone window
  • (4) Black hole
Correct Answer: (2) Atmospheric window
View Solution

An atmospheric window is a range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that can pass through the Earth's atmosphere with little absorption. These windows allow satellite sensors to observe Earth's surface without much signal loss. Quick Tip: Atmospheric window = low attenuation spectral region.


Question 54:

GIS ideally deals with _________.

  • (1) Numeric data
  • (2) Binary data
  • (3) Spatial data
  • (4) Complex data
Correct Answer: (3) Spatial data
View Solution

Geographic Information System (GIS) primarily handles spatial data, which includes geographic coordinates and associated attributes used for mapping and spatial analysis. Quick Tip: GIS = Spatial data management system.


Question 55:

SDI stands for

  • (1) Spatial Data Interface
  • (2) Spatial Data Infrastructure
  • (3) Spatial Data Intention
  • (4) Spatial Data International
Correct Answer: (2) Spatial Data Infrastructure
View Solution

Spatial Data Infrastructure (SDI) refers to a framework of technologies, policies, and institutional arrangements that facilitate the availability and access to spatial data. Quick Tip: SDI = Infrastructure to support spatial data sharing and access.


Question 56:

________ defines the property of connectivity in GIS.

  • (1) Proximity
  • (2) Neighbourhood
  • (3) Topology
  • (4) Boolean Identity
Correct Answer: (3) Topology
View Solution

Topology in GIS describes how spatial features such as points, lines, and polygons relate to each other in terms of connectivity, adjacency, and containment. It ensures spatial integrity. Quick Tip: Topology = rules of connectivity in spatial data.


Question 57:

Which of the following are true of AM/FM systems?

  • (1) The terms GIS and AM/FM are synonymous
  • (2) AM/FM are always vector based
  • (3) AM/FM is a specialized GIS
  • (4) AM/FM systems are always confined to the utility industry
Correct Answer: (3) AM/FM is a specialized GIS
View Solution

AM/FM (Automated Mapping/Facilities Management) is a specialized type of GIS used for managing utility networks like electricity, water, gas, etc., with specific capabilities tailored to those needs. Quick Tip: AM/FM = Specialized GIS mainly used in utilities.


Question 58:

India-WRIS is a portal for ________.

  • (1) Agricultural resources
  • (2) Water resources
  • (3) Forest resources
  • (4) Geological resources
Correct Answer: (2) Water resources
View Solution

India-WRIS (Water Resources Information System) is a portal developed to provide comprehensive data related to water resources in India. Quick Tip: India-WRIS = India's water resources portal.


Question 59:

________ is a type of vector data model.

  • (1) Spaghetti
  • (2) Spatial
  • (3) Raster
  • (4) Quadtree
Correct Answer: (1) Spaghetti
View Solution

The Spaghetti model stores features as independent objects. It is one of the simplest vector data models without enforcing topological relationships. Quick Tip: Spaghetti model = simple vector data structure.


Question 60:

The purpose of GIS data models is to ________.

  • (1) Generate random data structures
  • (2) Analyse and describe fictional features in GIS
  • (3) Represent real-world features in various forms like points, lines, arcs, and polygons
  • (4) Create abstract sculptures of real world
Correct Answer: (3) Represent real-world features in various forms like points, lines, arcs, and polygons
View Solution

GIS data models are used to represent real-world spatial features such as roads, rivers, or boundaries in a digital format using points, lines, and polygons. Quick Tip: GIS data models = digital representation of real-world features.


Question 61:

________ function is performed by data input/capture subsystem of GIS.

  • (1) Retrieval of data elements
  • (2) Storage of data elements
  • (3) Acquiring data
  • (4) Transformation of data
Correct Answer: (3) Acquiring data
View Solution

The data input or capture subsystem of GIS is responsible for acquiring spatial and attribute data, which is the primary step before processing or analyzing it. Quick Tip: Data input = acquiring raw GIS data.


Question 62:

A network is a series of interconnecting lines along which there is a flow of ________.

  • (1) Entities
  • (2) Points
  • (3) Nodes
  • (4) Data
Correct Answer: (4) Data
View Solution

In GIS, a network represents connections such as roads, pipes, or cables where data, traffic, or materials flow from one location to another. Quick Tip: Network in GIS = flow of data or resources.


Question 63:

Which interpolation technique is not used for continuous data?

  • (1) Kriging
  • (2) Trend surface fitting
  • (3) Digitization
  • (4) Triangulation
Correct Answer: (3) Digitization
View Solution

Digitization is the process of converting data from analog to digital format and is not an interpolation technique. Interpolation methods like Kriging and Triangulation are used for estimating values in continuous data. Quick Tip: Digitization ≠ interpolation; it's data conversion.


Question 64:

What is the approximate radius of the Earth?

  • (1) 5,000 km
  • (2) 6,371 km
  • (3) 7,500 km
  • (4) 8,000 km
Correct Answer: (2) 6,371 km
View Solution

The Earth's mean radius is approximately 6,371 kilometers, a value commonly used in geographic and geospatial calculations. Quick Tip: Earth’s radius ≈ 6,371 km — memorize for GIS and geography.


Question 65:

The Earth’s core is primarily made up of which two elements?

  • (1) Silicon and Oxygen
  • (2) Iron and Nickel
  • (3) Iron and Magnesium
  • (4) Nickel and Oxygen
Correct Answer: (2) Iron and Nickel
View Solution

The Earth's core is mainly composed of heavy elements—primarily iron and nickel—due to their high density. Quick Tip: Core = Iron + Nickel.


Question 66:

Which of the following statements accurately describes the formation of an intrusive igneous rock?

  • (1) It forms from the rapid cooling of lava on the Earth's surface, resulting in fine-grained crystals.
  • (2) It forms from the compaction and cementation of sediments over millions of years.
  • (3) It forms from the slow cooling of magma beneath the Earth's surface, allowing for the development of large crystals.
  • (4) It forms from the transformation of existing rocks due to high temperatures and pressures.
Correct Answer: (3) It forms from the slow cooling of magma beneath the Earth's surface, allowing for the development of large crystals.
View Solution

Intrusive igneous rocks like granite form deep inside Earth where magma cools slowly, creating large crystals. Quick Tip: Intrusive = slow cooling → large crystals.


Question 67:

Which one of the following are the two main constituents of granite?

  • (1) Iron and nickel
  • (2) Iron and silver
  • (3) Silica and aluminium
  • (4) Iron Oxide and potassium
Correct Answer: (3) Silica and aluminium
View Solution

Granite is composed mainly of quartz (rich in silica) and feldspar (rich in aluminum). Quick Tip: Granite = Silica + Aluminium.


Question 68:

Which of the following rocks is an intrusive igneous rock?

  • (1) Basalt
  • (2) Rhyolite
  • (3) Granite
  • (4) Pumice
Correct Answer: (3) Granite
View Solution

Granite forms from slow-cooling magma deep beneath Earth's surface, classifying it as an intrusive igneous rock. Quick Tip: Granite = intrusive igneous rock.


Question 69:

Which rock type primarily forms from cooling of lava on Earth's surface?

  • (1) Plutonic igneous
  • (2) Volcanic igneous
  • (3) Metamorphic
  • (4) Clastic sedimentary
Correct Answer: (2) Volcanic igneous
View Solution

Volcanic igneous rocks form from the rapid cooling of lava on or near the Earth's surface, resulting in fine-grained textures. Quick Tip: Lava cools quickly on the surface, forming volcanic igneous rocks.


Question 70:

Which of the following is true about rocks?

  • (1) Rocks are composed of only one mineral.
  • (2) Rocks do not contain any non-mineral matter.
  • (3) Coal is not considered a true rock.
  • (4) Most rocks are a mixture of minerals.
Correct Answer: (4) Most rocks are a mixture of minerals.
View Solution

Most rocks consist of two or more minerals combined in various proportions. For example, granite typically contains quartz, feldspar, and mica. Quick Tip: Rocks = Mixture of minerals.


Question 71:

A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an:

  • (1) Intrusive igneous rock
  • (2) Extrusive igneous rock
  • (3) Extrusive metamorphic rock
  • (4) Intrusive volcanic rock
Correct Answer: (2) Extrusive igneous rock
View Solution

When lava cools quickly on the Earth's surface, it forms fine-grained extrusive igneous rocks like basalt and rhyolite. Quick Tip: Lava \(\rightarrow\) Extrusive igneous rock.


Question 72:

Which environment is most favourable for the formation of metamorphic rocks?

  • (1) High pressure and high temperature
  • (2) Low pressure and low temperature
  • (3) High pressure and low temperature
  • (4) Surface weathering
Correct Answer: (1) High pressure and high temperature
View Solution

Metamorphic rocks form when existing rocks are subjected to intense heat and pressure, typically deep within Earth's crust. Quick Tip: Metamorphic rocks need both high pressure and high temperature.


Question 73:

Igneous rocks that crystallize from magma and are composed almost entirely of quartz and feldspars have a _________.

  • (1) Granitic composition
  • (2) Ultramafic composition
  • (3) Andesitic composition
  • (4) Basaltic composition
Correct Answer: (1) Granitic composition
View Solution

Igneous rocks rich in quartz and feldspars are categorized as having granitic composition, typical of intrusive igneous rocks like granite. Quick Tip: Quartz + Feldspar = Granitic composition.


Question 74:

The mineral group that constitutes most of Earth's crust is _____.

  • (1) Carbonates
  • (2) Oxides
  • (3) Silicates
  • (4) Sulfides
Correct Answer: (3) Silicates
View Solution

Silicates are the most abundant mineral group in the Earth's crust, making up about 90% of its composition, primarily in rocks like granite and basalt. Quick Tip: Earth's crust = mostly silicates.


Question 75:

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between a silicate and a non-silicate mineral?

  • (1) Silicate minerals are always harder than non-silicate minerals.
  • (2) Non-silicate minerals never contain oxygen in their chemical formula.
  • (3) Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen as major elements, while non-silicate minerals do not always contain both.
  • (4) Non-silicate minerals are always formed through biological processes.
Correct Answer: (3) Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen as major elements, while non-silicate minerals do not always contain both.
View Solution

Silicate minerals are characterized by the presence of both silicon and oxygen in their structure, forming a silicate tetrahedron. Non-silicate minerals may or may not contain these elements. Quick Tip: Silicates = Silicon + Oxygen; Non-silicates may lack one or both.


Question 76:

Which instrument is primarily used to measure angles between lines of sight in surveying?

  • (1) A GPS receiver.
  • (2) A theodolite.
  • (3) A level.
  • (4) A clinometer.
Correct Answer: (2) A theodolite.
View Solution

A theodolite is a precision surveying instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles between points. Quick Tip: Theodolite = Surveying angles.


Question 77:

Which type of aerial photograph is taken with the camera's optical axis directed vertically downward?

  • (1) An oblique photograph.
  • (2) A tilted photograph.
  • (3) A stereoscopic photograph.
  • (4) A vertical photograph.
Correct Answer: (4) A vertical photograph.
View Solution

A vertical photograph is captured with the camera lens pointing straight down at a right angle to the ground, providing a plan view, commonly used in mapping and surveying. Quick Tip: Vertical photograph = Camera facing straight down.


Question 78:

Which of the following is NOT typically found as marginal information on a topographic sheet?

  • (1) The sheet name and number.
  • (2) The contour interval.
  • (3) The magnetic declination.
  • (4) The coordinates of specific landmarks within the mapped area.
Correct Answer: (4) The coordinates of specific landmarks within the mapped area.
View Solution

Topographic sheets typically display marginal information like the sheet number, contour interval, and magnetic declination. Specific landmark coordinates are not part of this marginal data. Quick Tip: Marginal info: Sheet name, contour interval, magnetic declination — not specific landmark coordinates.


Question 79:

Parallax in aerial photographs is an error due to \hspace{2cm}.

  • (1) Movement of camera and ground relief
  • (2) Overlap in photographs
  • (3) Distortion caused by camera lens
  • (4) Distortion due to lack of focus
Correct Answer: (1) Movement of camera and ground relief
View Solution

Parallax in aerial photographs is mainly caused by the relative displacement of objects due to changes in the camera's position and variations in terrain elevation (ground relief). Quick Tip: Parallax = Error due to camera shift and uneven ground.


Question 80:

In map projections, the Mercator projection is best suited for \hspace{2cm}.

  • (1) Polar regions
  • (2) Small-scale world maps
  • (3) Navigation purposes
  • (4) Land use planning
Correct Answer: (3) Navigation purposes
View Solution

The Mercator projection preserves accurate angles and directions, making it ideal for marine navigation, although it distorts area near the poles. Quick Tip: Mercator projection = Best for navigation maps.


Question 81:

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a map projection?

  • (1) It accurately portrays the true shape of the Earth's surface.
  • (2) It preserves the scale and area of the map.
  • (3) It provides a 3D representation of the terrain.
  • (4) It distorts the Earth's shape to fit on a flat surface.
Correct Answer: (4) It distorts the Earth's shape to fit on a flat surface.
View Solution

A map projection involves representing the curved surface of the Earth onto a flat map, which inevitably introduces distortions in shape, area, distance, or direction. Quick Tip: All map projections distort Earth’s shape to flatten it.


Question 82:

Which aerial photo format typically provides the largest area of coverage on a single photograph?

  • (1) Small format (e.g., 70mm)
  • (2) Medium format (e.g., 9 inches × 9 inches)
  • (3) Large format (e.g., 12 inches × 12 inches)
  • (4) Digital imagery with a small sensor size.
Correct Answer: (2) Medium format (e.g., 9 inches × 9 inches)
View Solution

Among commonly used formats, medium format aerial photographs offer an optimal balance of image detail and coverage area, making them suitable for most mapping applications. Quick Tip: Medium format photos = Large, efficient coverage.


Question 83:

Which type of map projection is most likely to distort the shape of large landmasses?

  • (1) Cylindrical map projection.
  • (2) Conic map projection.
  • (3) Planar map projection.
  • (4) Gnomonic map projection.
Correct Answer: (4) Gnomonic map projection.
View Solution

Gnomonic projections are known for significant distortion in shape and size, especially as distance from the center increases — particularly affecting large landmasses. Quick Tip: Gnomonic = severe shape distortion with distance from center.


Question 84:

The process of transforming and representing features from the Earth's curved surface onto a flat map is known as \hspace{1.5cm}.

  • (1) Geo-referencing.
  • (2) Cartography.
  • (3) Photogrammetry.
  • (4) Remote sensing.
Correct Answer: (2) Cartography.
View Solution

Cartography is the science and art of creating maps, which involves projecting the 3D Earth's surface onto a 2D map while managing distortions in shape, area, distance, and direction. Quick Tip: Cartography = map-making from Earth's surface to flat maps.


Question 85:

In cartography, map generalization refers to the process of:

  • (1) Accurately representing every single feature on the ground at the map scale.
  • (2) Simplifying or omitting features on a map to maintain clarity and legibility at a reduced scale.
  • (3) Projecting geographic coordinates onto a flat map surface.
  • (4) Assigning colors and symbols to different features on a map.
Correct Answer: (2) Simplifying or omitting features on a map to maintain clarity and legibility at a reduced scale.
View Solution

Map generalization is essential when scaling down maps, as it selectively simplifies features to avoid clutter and ensures that the most relevant information remains clear and interpretable. Quick Tip: Generalization simplifies details on small-scale maps for clarity.


Question 86:

The propagation of electromagnetic waves involves the interplay of oscillating:

  • (1) Electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation.
  • (2) Electric and gravitational fields parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
  • (3) Magnetic and gravitational fields perpendicular to each other and parallel to the direction of propagation.
  • (4) Electric and magnetic fields parallel to each other and the direction of propagation.
Correct Answer: (1) Electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation.
View Solution

In electromagnetic waves, the electric field and magnetic field oscillate perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave travel, forming a transverse wave. Quick Tip: EM waves: E-field, B-field, and propagation direction — all mutually perpendicular.


Question 87:

Radiance is best defined as:

  • (1) Power per unit area
  • (2) Power per unit solid angle
  • (3) Power per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (4) Power per unit wavelength
Correct Answer: (3) Power per unit area per unit solid angle
View Solution

Radiance quantifies the amount of energy radiating from a surface area within a specific solid angle. It is a fundamental quantity in remote sensing and radiometry. Quick Tip: Remember: Radiance = Power per unit area per unit solid angle.


Question 88:

Which of the following defines the spatial resolution of a sensor?

  • (1) Number of spectral bands
  • (2) Smallest object detectable on the ground
  • (3) Energy detection capacity
  • (4) Frequency of satellite revisits
Correct Answer: (2) Smallest object detectable on the ground
View Solution

Spatial resolution describes the smallest discernible detail or object on the ground that a sensor can detect. Higher spatial resolution means finer detail in the captured image. Quick Tip: Spatial resolution = Smallest ground feature a sensor can detect.


Question 89:

Higher radiometric resolution means:

  • (1) Ability to distinguish finer wavelength differences
  • (2) Ability to detect small differences in energy
  • (3) Ability to capture more images per day
  • (4) Ability to detect larger objects
Correct Answer: (2) Ability to detect small differences in energy
View Solution

Radiometric resolution refers to a sensor's ability to detect slight variations in energy. A higher radiometric resolution means the sensor can differentiate finer differences in reflected or emitted energy. Quick Tip: Radiometric resolution = Ability to detect small energy differences.


Question 90:

Along-track stereoscopic imaging involves __________.

  • (1) Two separate satellites imaging the same area
  • (2) Imaging the same area from different angles during the same orbit
  • (3) Successive orbits imaging the same area
  • (4) Using a microwave radar for 3D imaging
Correct Answer: (2) Imaging the same area from different angles during the same orbit
View Solution

Along-track stereoscopic imaging is achieved by capturing images of the same location from different angles within the same orbit using sensors positioned at different locations along the satellite track. Quick Tip: Along-track = Different angles in same orbit for 3D image.


Question 91:

Which systematic error in digital image processing is caused by the Earth's rotation during image acquisition?

  • (1) Scan Skew
  • (2) Mirror-Scan Velocity
  • (3) Panoramic Distortion
  • (4) Earth Rotation
Correct Answer: (4) Earth Rotation
View Solution

Earth’s rotation during image acquisition introduces a shift in the captured scene, which is a systematic error known as the Earth rotation effect. This needs to be corrected during digital image processing. Quick Tip: Systematic error due to Earth's rotation = Earth Rotation correction needed.


Question 92:

The ALOS satellite belongs to ________.

  • (1) Europe
  • (2) Japan
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) India
Correct Answer: (2) Japan
View Solution

ALOS (Advanced Land Observing Satellite) is an Earth observation satellite launched and operated by JAXA, the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency. Quick Tip: ALOS = Advanced Land Observing Satellite by Japan (JAXA).


Question 93:

The Copernicus program for Earth Observation is run by ________.

  • (1) NASA
  • (2) JAXA
  • (3) ESA - European Space Agency
  • (4) ISRO
Correct Answer: (3) ESA - European Space Agency
View Solution

The Copernicus program is a European Union initiative for Earth observation, implemented in partnership with the European Space Agency (ESA) for satellite operations and data collection. Quick Tip: Copernicus = EU’s Earth Observation Program, operated by ESA.


Question 94:

Which image enhancement technique stretches the range of pixel intensity values to cover the full dynamic range of display devices?

  • (1) Level slicing
  • (2) Contrast stretching
  • (3) Gray level thresholding
  • (4) Histogram equalization
Correct Answer: (2) Contrast stretching
View Solution

Contrast stretching improves the visibility of features in an image by expanding the range of intensity levels. It maps low and high input values to a broader output range, making use of the full display capacity. Quick Tip: Contrast stretching = Expands pixel intensity range for better display contrast.


Question 95:

The European Space Agency's primary Earth observation program is known as _______.

  • (1) ENVISAT/Sentinel
  • (2) JERS
  • (3) ALOS
  • (4) CBERS
Correct Answer: (1) ENVISAT/Sentinel
View Solution

The European Space Agency (ESA) operates the ENVISAT and Sentinel satellite missions under its Copernicus program for global environmental monitoring and Earth observation. Quick Tip: ESA's Earth Observation = ENVISAT and Sentinel missions.


Question 96:

For urban mapping requiring very detailed building footprints, the ideal satellite would provide _______.

  • (1) 30 m spatial resolution multispectral data
  • (2) 5 m spatial resolution panchromatic data
  • (3) 1 m or finer spatial resolution imagery
  • (4) 250 m spatial resolution MODIS data
Correct Answer: (3) 1 m or finer spatial resolution imagery
View Solution

For detailed urban mapping, especially for building footprints, high spatial resolution is essential. Imagery with 1 m or finer resolution captures minute structural details crucial for accurate mapping. Quick Tip: Urban mapping needs sub-meter to 1 m resolution for building-level accuracy.


Question 97:

What does spectral resolution refer to in remote sensing?

  • (1) Ability to detect different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation
  • (2) Ability to distinguish between different features on the ground
  • (3) Ability to capture images at various times
  • (4) Ability to discern details within an image
Correct Answer: (1) Ability to detect different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation
View Solution

Spectral resolution defines a sensor's ability to distinguish between different wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum. Higher spectral resolution allows better discrimination between different materials based on their spectral signatures. Quick Tip: Spectral resolution is about wavelength discrimination, not spatial or temporal resolution.


Question 98:

Which of the following best describes a relational database structure commonly used in GIS?

  • (1) Data is organized in a tree-like hierarchy.
  • (2) Data elements are linked through predefined relationships, forming a network.
  • (3) Data is organized into tables with rows representing entities and columns representing attributes, with relationships established through keys.
  • (4) Spatial data and attribute data are stored in separate, unconnected files.
Correct Answer: (3) Data is organized into tables with rows representing entities and columns representing attributes, with relationships established through keys.
View Solution

In GIS, relational databases organize data into tables (relations) where each row (tuple) is an individual record and each column (attribute) holds data about that entity. Keys (primary and foreign) establish logical links between tables. Quick Tip: Relational = tables + keys. It’s the most common GIS database model.


Question 99:

Raster data typically represents geographic phenomena as:

  • (1) Points, lines, and polygons.
  • (2) A grid of cells, each with an associated value.
  • (3) Topologically structured features with nodes and edges.
  • (4) A collection of attribute records linked to spatial coordinates.
Correct Answer: (2) A grid of cells, each with an associated value.
View Solution

Raster data represents spatial information in the form of a regular grid of cells (pixels), where each cell holds a value representing information such as temperature, elevation, or land cover. Quick Tip: Raster = grid of values; Vector = points, lines, polygons.


Question 100:

A topological error where adjacent polygons overlap is called ________.

  • (1) Dangle
  • (2) Overshoot
  • (3) Gap
  • (4) Sliver
Correct Answer: (4) Sliver
View Solution

Sliver polygons are narrow, unintended overlaps between adjacent polygons, often resulting from inaccuracies in digitizing or overlay processes in GIS. Quick Tip: Sliver = small overlap; Gap = missing area; Dangle = unconnected line.


Question 101:

DEM files are critical in which GIS applications?

  • (1) Noise pollution mapping
  • (2) Surface water runoff modeling
  • (3) Soil pH mapping
  • (4) Land use categorization
Correct Answer: (2) Surface water runoff modeling
View Solution

Digital Elevation Models (DEMs) provide topographic data essential for analyzing terrain and hydrological flow, making them indispensable for modeling surface water runoff. Quick Tip: DEMs = Elevation data → Useful for water flow and terrain analysis.


Question 102:

In raster to vector conversion, errors typically occur because of ______.

  • (1) Topological inaccuracies
  • (2) Attribute duplication
  • (3) File compression
  • (4) Metadata loss
Correct Answer: (1) Topological inaccuracies
View Solution

When converting raster data (grid-based) into vector format (points, lines, polygons), boundaries can be misrepresented, resulting in topological errors like gaps, slivers, or overlaps. Quick Tip: Raster to vector → Risk of topological mismatch due to pixel boundaries.


Question 103:

In the vector data model, an area is typically stored as ______.

  • (1) A single coordinate pair representing its centroid.
  • (2) A grid of cells covering its extent.
  • (3) A closed sequence of connected coordinate pairs forming a polygon.
  • (4) A series of disconnected line segments
Correct Answer: (3) A closed sequence of connected coordinate pairs forming a polygon.
View Solution

In the vector model, areas are represented as polygons. Polygons are defined by a series of connected coordinate pairs that form a closed shape, distinguishing them from points or lines. Quick Tip: Vector data: Points (location), Lines (path), Polygons (area with boundaries).


Question 104:

TIN (Triangulated Irregular Network) sheeting is a method used to represent ______.

  • (1) Categorical spatial data.
  • (2) Continuous surface data using non-overlapping triangles.
  • (3) Linear features with associated attributes.
  • (4) Regularly spaced grid data
Correct Answer: (2) Continuous surface data using non-overlapping triangles.
View Solution

TIN models represent terrain surfaces using a network of contiguous, non-overlapping triangles. This allows accurate representation of elevation and other continuous surface phenomena. Quick Tip: TIN = Continuous surface (like elevation) using triangular facets.


Question 105:

A common challenge in raster to vector conversion, especially when dealing with scanned maps, is ______.

  • (1) Loss of attribute information.
  • (2) Introduction of topological errors.
  • (3) Generalization and loss of detail in curved or complex features.
  • (4) Difficulty in assigning coordinate values.
Correct Answer: (3) Generalization and loss of detail in curved or complex features.
View Solution

When converting raster data—especially scanned maps—into vector format, curved or intricate features may be approximated using straight line segments. This leads to generalization and detail loss. Quick Tip: Raster to vector conversion may simplify or distort intricate map details.


Question 106:

Structured Query Language (SQL) is primarily used in GIS to ______.

  • (1) Perform spatial analysis operations.
  • (2) Manage and query attribute data stored in databases.
  • (3) Visualize spatial data in different map projections.
  • (4) Convert data between different file formats.
Correct Answer: (2) Manage and query attribute data stored in databases.
View Solution

SQL is a powerful language for querying and managing attribute data within GIS databases, allowing filtering, sorting, and retrieving records based on specified conditions. Quick Tip: SQL in GIS handles attribute data, not spatial analysis directly.


Question 107:

A GPS collected point dataset suffers from high horizontal error.
The best immediate action is:

  • (1) Increase the sampling interval
  • (2) Correct using differential GPS (DGPS)
  • (3) Rasterize the point data
  • (4) Smooth using TIN creation
Correct Answer: (2) Correct using differential GPS (DGPS)
View Solution

Differential GPS (DGPS) enhances the accuracy of position data by correcting GPS signal errors in real time using a fixed reference station, making it ideal for reducing horizontal errors. Quick Tip: Use DGPS to immediately correct high GPS positional inaccuracies.


Question 108:

In the context of GIS modeling, a conceptual model represents:

  • (1) The physical implementation of the database.
  • (2) A high-level, user-oriented understanding of the real-world phenomena and their relationships.
  • (3) The logical organization of data elements and their relationships within a database.
  • (4) The specific data structures and file formats used to store the data.
Correct Answer: (2) A high-level, user-oriented understanding of the real-world phenomena and their relationships.
View Solution

A conceptual model abstracts the real world into meaningful entities and relationships from a user perspective, serving as the first step in GIS database design. Quick Tip: Conceptual models focus on what to represent, not how it's stored.


Question 109:

A key characteristic of object-oriented database models in GIS is their ability to:

  • (1) Only store spatial data efficiently.
  • (2) Represent both spatial and non-spatial data as objects with associated attributes and behaviors (methods).
  • (3) Organize data in a strictly hierarchical structure.
  • (4) Primarily handle raster data.
Correct Answer: (2) Represent both spatial and non-spatial data as objects with associated attributes and behaviors (methods).
View Solution

Object-oriented databases in GIS can represent real-world features as objects that encapsulate both spatial and non-spatial data along with their behavior (methods). This allows better modeling of complex relationships and functionalities within GIS. Quick Tip: Object-oriented models store both data and behaviors, ideal for complex spatial entities.


Question 110:

Recent trends in GIS applications include all EXCEPT:

  • (1) Mobile GIS
  • (2) Cloud-based GIS
  • (3) Real-time spatial analytics
  • (4) Paper-based cartography
Correct Answer: (4) Paper-based cartography
View Solution

While Mobile GIS, cloud platforms, and real-time spatial analytics are part of modern GIS trends, paper-based cartography is outdated and no longer considered a current trend in GIS applications. Quick Tip: Modern GIS trends focus on digital, mobile, and real-time technologies.


Question 111:

In GIS, what is the function of a topology rule?

  • (1) To enforce spatial relationships between features
  • (2) To define the spatial extent of a dataset
  • (3) To specify the coordinate system of a map
  • (4) To categorize features based on attributes
Correct Answer: (1) To enforce spatial relationships between features
View Solution

Topology rules in GIS define and enforce spatial relationships such as adjacency, connectivity, and containment between features. This ensures data integrity and prevents errors like overlapping polygons or gaps in boundaries. Quick Tip: Use topology rules to maintain spatial data accuracy and enforce logical feature relationships.


Question 112:

In the context of hydrological modeling within GIS, a Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is crucial for:

  • (1) Determining soil texture and permeability.
  • (2) Estimating evapotranspiration rates.
  • (3) Delineating watersheds and analyzing flow direction.
  • (4) Measuring rainfall intensity directly.
Correct Answer: (3) Delineating watersheds and analyzing flow direction.
View Solution

Digital Elevation Models (DEMs) represent terrain surfaces and are vital in hydrological GIS models. They help identify watershed boundaries and compute the flow direction and accumulation of water based on elevation data. Quick Tip: Use DEMs to analyze terrain-driven hydrological features like watersheds and stream networks.


Question 113:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are two non-zero square matrices of same size such that the product matrix \( AB \) is a zero matrix, then which of the following must be true?

  • (1) Both \( A \) and \( B \) are invertible
  • (2) At least one of \( A \) or \( B \) is singular
  • (3) \( A + B \) is invertible
  • (4) \( A \) and \( B \) must be symmetric matrices
Correct Answer: (2) At least one of \( A \) or \( B \) is singular
View Solution

If \( AB = 0 \) for non-zero square matrices \( A \) and \( B \), then the product being the zero matrix implies that the rank of \( AB \) is zero. Since rank cannot increase in matrix multiplication, at least one of the matrices must have less than full rank—i.e., must be singular (non-invertible). If both were invertible, their product could not be zero. Quick Tip: If \( AB = 0 \) for non-zero matrices \( A \) and \( B \), at least one must be singular.


Question 114:

Consider the system of equations: \[ \begin{aligned} x + y + z &= 6
2x + 2y + 3z &= 13
3x + 4y + 5z &= 20 \end{aligned} \]
Which of the following statements is true about the solution to this system?

  • (1) The system has a unique solution.
  • (2) The system has no solution.
  • (3) The system has infinitely many solutions.
  • (4) The system has finitely many solutions but not unique.
Correct Answer: (1) The system has a unique solution.
View Solution

This is a system of three linear equations in three variables. Writing it in matrix form and solving using Gaussian elimination or checking the determinant of the coefficient matrix shows that the system is consistent and the coefficient matrix is non-singular (i.e., has full rank). Therefore, the system has a unique solution. Quick Tip: A square system with full rank has a unique solution.


Question 115:

Let \( f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) be a function such that \( f(0) = 3 \) and \( |f'(x)| \leq 2 \), \( \forall x \in \mathbb{R} \). Then \( f(2) \) lies in which of the following intervals?

  • (1) \([-2, 5]\)
  • (2) \([0, 8]\)
  • (3) \([3, 8]\)
  • (4) \([-1, 7]\)
Correct Answer: (4) \([-1, 7]\)
View Solution

Since \( |f'(x)| \leq 2 \), the function is Lipschitz continuous with constant 2. By the Mean Value Theorem: \[ |f(2) - f(0)| \leq 2 \cdot |2 - 0| = 4 \]
Given \( f(0) = 3 \), we have: \[ |f(2) - 3| \leq 4 \Rightarrow -4 \leq f(2) - 3 \leq 4 \Rightarrow -1 \leq f(2) \leq 7 \]
So, \( f(2) \in [-1, 7] \). Quick Tip: Apply the Mean Value Theorem and bounds on the derivative to estimate function values.


Question 116:

The directional derivative of the function \( f(x, y) = 2x^2 + y^2 \)
along a line directed from \( (0, 0) \) to \( (1, 1) \), evaluated at the point \( x = 1, y = 1 \), is \underline{\hspace{2cm

  • (1) \( 6\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 6 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 3\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

The gradient of \( f(x, y) = 2x^2 + y^2 \) is: \[ \nabla f = \left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \right) = (4x, 2y) \]
At the point \( (1, 1) \), \[ \nabla f(1,1) = (4, 2) \]

The direction vector from \( (0,0) \) to \( (1,1) \) is \( \vec{v} = (1, 1) \). The unit vector in this direction is: \[ \hat{v} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(1, 1) \]

The directional derivative is: \[ \nabla f \cdot \hat{v} = (4, 2) \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(1, 1) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(4 + 2) = \frac{6}{\sqrt{2}} = 3\sqrt{2} \] Quick Tip: Directional derivative = Gradient dot Unit Direction Vector.


Question 117:

Given \( f(z) = \dfrac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} \), which of the following is the Laurent series expansion of \( f(z) \) around \( z = 2 \)?

  • (1) \( f(z) = \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (2) \( f(z) = \dfrac{2}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{z}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (3) \( f(z) = \dfrac{z}{(z - 2)^2} \)
  • (4) \( f(z) = \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \dfrac{1}{(z - 2)} + \dfrac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \)
View Solution

We are given: \[ f(z) = \frac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} \]

We rewrite \( -z \) as: \[ -z = -(z - 2 + 2) = -(z - 2) - 2 \]

So, \[ f(z) = \frac{-(z - 2) - 2}{(z - 2)^2} = -\frac{z - 2}{(z - 2)^2} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]

Now simplify: \[ f(z) = -\frac{1}{(z - 2)} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]

But we had: \[ f(z) = \frac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} = \frac{-(z - 2 + 2)}{(z - 2)^2} = \frac{-(z - 2)}{(z - 2)^2} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \Rightarrow -\frac{1}{(z - 2)} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]

However, since the question has \( f(z) = \dfrac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} \), we consider:
\[ f(z) = \frac{-z}{(z - 2)^2} = \frac{-(z - 2 + 2)}{(z - 2)^2} = \frac{-(z - 2)}{(z - 2)^2} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]
\[ = -\frac{1}{(z - 2)} - \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]

So we match sign by factoring out the minus: \[ f(z) = -\left(\frac{1}{(z - 2)} + \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2}\right) \]

However, if the original function was: \[ f(z) = \frac{z}{(z - 2)^2} \Rightarrow z = (z - 2) + 2 \Rightarrow f(z) = \frac{(z - 2) + 2}{(z - 2)^2} = \frac{1}{(z - 2)} + \frac{2}{(z - 2)^2} \]

This matches option (4). Quick Tip: Use algebraic substitution like \( z = (z - a) + a \) to express functions in terms of Laurent expansions around \( z = a \).


Question 118:

A complex function \( f(z) = u + iv \) with \( u = \operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) \) is analytic if \( v = \) ________

  • (1) \( v = \operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (2) \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (3) \( v = \operatorname{Re}(z) - \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
  • (4) \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) - \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \), where \( c \) is an arbitrary constant
Correct Answer: (2) \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \)
View Solution

To ensure analyticity, \( f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y) \) must satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \]

Given \( u(x, y) = x + y \), we have: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = 1, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = 1 \]

So we require: \[ \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = 1, \quad \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -1 \]

Integrating, \[ \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -1 \Rightarrow v = -x + g(y) \] \[ \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = g'(y) = 1 \Rightarrow g(y) = y + c \Rightarrow v = -x + y + c \]

So \( v = -\operatorname{Re}(z) + \operatorname{Im}(z) + c \) Quick Tip: Use Cauchy-Riemann equations to test whether a complex function is analytic. Express \( f(z) \) as \( u(x,y) + iv(x,y) \), then solve accordingly.


Question 119:

Let \( f(x) = x^3 - \dfrac{9}{2}x^2 + 6x - 2 \) be a function defined on the closed interval \( [0, 3] \). Then, the global maximum value of \( f(x) \) is

  • (1) 4.5
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 3.0
Correct Answer: (3) 2.5
View Solution

Given: \[ f(x) = x^3 - \frac{9}{2}x^2 + 6x - 2 \]

Take derivative: \[ f'(x) = 3x^2 - 9x + 6 \]

Solve \( f'(x) = 0 \): \[ 3x^2 - 9x + 6 = 0 \Rightarrow x^2 - 3x + 2 = 0 \Rightarrow x = 1, 2 \]

Evaluate \( f(x) \) at endpoints and critical points: \[ f(0) = -2,\quad f(1) = 1 - 4.5 + 6 - 2 = 0.5,\quad f(2) = 8 - 18 + 12 - 2 = 0,\quad f(3) = 27 - 40.5 + 18 - 2 = 2.5 \]

Maximum = 2.5 Quick Tip: To find global extrema on a closed interval, evaluate \( f(x) \) at endpoints and at points where \( f'(x) = 0 \).


Question 120:

In a town, the probability that a person attends a gym on weekdays is 0.7, the probability that a person attends the gym on weekends is 0.4, and the probability that a person attends the gym on weekdays or weekends, or both is 0.3. What is the probability that a person attends the gym on both weekdays and weekends?

  • (1) 0.6
  • (2) 0.7
  • (3) 0.8
  • (4) 0.9
Correct Answer: (3) 0.8
View Solution

Let \( A \) be the event "person attends gym on weekdays" and \( B \) be "attends gym on weekends". We are given: \[ P(A) = 0.7, \quad P(B) = 0.4, \quad P(A \cup B) = 0.3 \]

Using the identity: \[ P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B) \]

Substitute values: \[ 0.3 = 0.7 + 0.4 - P(A \cap B) \Rightarrow P(A \cap B) = 1.1 - 0.3 = 0.8 \] Quick Tip: Use the formula \( P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B) \) to find intersection probabilities in overlapping events.


Question 121:

In a workshop of 100 machines, 25 machines are defective. Assuming the Poisson law for the number of defective machines, the probability that a random sample of 5 machines will have no defective machine is

  • (1) \( e^{-0.25} \)
  • (2) \( 0.25\, e^{-0.25} \)
  • (3) \( 0.25\, e^{-1.25} \)
  • (4) \( e^{-1.25} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( e^{-1.25} \)
View Solution

Total machines = 100, defective = 25
So, probability of a machine being defective = \( \frac{25}{100} = 0.25 \)

Let \( X \) be the number of defective machines in a sample of 5.
Then \( X \sim Poisson(\lambda = 5 \times 0.25 = 1.25) \)

We are required to find: \[ P(X = 0) = \frac{(1.25)^0}{0!} e^{-1.25} = 1 \cdot e^{-1.25} = e^{-1.25} \] Quick Tip: For small probability and large number of trials, use Poisson approximation with \( \lambda = n \cdot p \). The probability of zero occurrences is \( e^{-\lambda} \).


Question 122:

Let \( A, B \) be two events of a sample space such that \( P(A) = \frac{1}{4} \), \( P(B|A) = \frac{1}{2} \), \( P(A|B) = \frac{1}{4} \). If \( \overline{B} \) is the complement of \( B \), then \( P(A | \overline{B}) \) is _____

  • (1) \( \dfrac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{2}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \dfrac{1}{4} \)
View Solution

We are given: \[ P(A) = \frac{1}{4},\quad P(B|A) = \frac{1}{2},\quad P(A|B) = \frac{1}{4} \]

From the definition of conditional probability: \[ P(A \cap B) = P(B) \cdot P(A|B) = P(B) \cdot \frac{1}{4} \]
Also: \[ P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B|A) = \frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{8} \]

So equating the two expressions for \( P(A \cap B) \): \[ \frac{1}{8} = P(B) \cdot \frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow P(B) = \frac{1}{2} \]

Now we calculate \( P(A \cap \overline{B}) \): \[ P(A \cap \overline{B}) = P(A) - P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{8} = \frac{1}{8} \]

And: \[ P(\overline{B}) = 1 - P(B) = 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \]

Therefore: \[ P(A|\overline{B}) = \frac{P(A \cap \overline{B})}{P(\overline{B})} = \frac{\frac{1}{8}}{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{1}{4} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with conditional probabilities involving complements, use \( P(A|\overline{B}) = \frac{P(A) - P(A \cap B)}{1 - P(B)} \) to simplify.

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