AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Mechanical Engineering Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jul 8, 2025

AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Mechanical Engineering is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted from June 6 to June 8 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

AP PGECET​​ Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF
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AP PGECET Mechanical Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

A particle moving in a circular path with constant speed has:

  • (1) No acceleration
  • (2) Centripetal acceleration
  • (3) Zero net force
  • (4) Constant angular momentum

Question 2:

For plane stress, Mohr’s circle has:

  • (1) Radius equal to maximum normal stress
  • (2) Radius equal to maximum shear stress
  • (3) Centre at origin
  • (4) No radius

Question 3:

A purchasing assistant has calculated the carrying cost in Rupees Per unit annum, and the EOQ = 500 units for an item. He must have taken that the annual ordering cost for this item:

  • (1) Rs. 500
  • (2) Rs. 100
  • (3) Rs. 31.62
  • (4) Rs. 22.36

Question 4:

Euler’s theory applies to:

  • (1) Long columns with lateral loads
  • (2) Short columns
  • (3) Long, slender columns under axial compression
  • (4) Beams under bending

Question 5:

Critical damping is a function of

  • (1) Mass and stiffness
  • (2) Mass and damping co-efficient
  • (3) Stiffness and natural frequency
  • (4) Natural frequency and damping co-efficient

Question 6:

In a simple gear train, the velocity ratio depends on:

  • (1) Shaft distance
  • (2) Number of teeth on gears
  • (3) Module
  • (4) Pressure angle

Question 7:

A stone of mass ‘m’ at the end of a string of length ‘l’ is whirled in a vertical position at a constant speed. The tension in the string will be minimum when the stone is at the

  • (1) Bottom of the circle
  • (2) Half-down from the top
  • (3) Quarter way down from the top
  • (4) Top of the circle

Question 8:

Critical speed of shaft corresponds to:

  • (1) Zero angular velocity
  • (2) Natural frequency of lateral vibration
  • (3) Highest rpm
  • (4) No damping

Question 9:

Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the:

  • (1) Longitudinal vibration
  • (2) Transverse vibration
  • (3) Torsional vibration
  • (4) Coupled between torsional vibration

Question 10:

The range of projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is:

  • (1) 45\(^\circ\)
  • (2) 30\(^\circ\)
  • (3) 60\(^\circ\)
  • (4) 90\(^\circ\)

Question 11:

Pressure in a static fluid:

  • (1) Varies with horizontal distance
  • (2) Varies with depth
  • (3) Is constant
  • (4) Is maximum at the surface

Question 12:

What is the nature of distribution of shear stress in a rectangular beam?

  • (1) Linear
  • (2) Parabolic
  • (3) Hyperbolic
  • (4) Elliptical

Question 13:

In laminar pipe flow, head loss varies with:

  • (1) Velocity
  • (2) Velocity squared
  • (3) Pressure
  • (4) Temperature

Question 14:

In gears, interference takes place when:

  • (1) Tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circles
  • (2) Gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
  • (3) Pitch of the gear is not same
  • (4) Gear teeth are undercut

Question 15:

In hot working:

  • (1) Annealing operation is not necessary
  • (2) Power requirements are low
  • (3) Surface finish is good
  • (4) Grain refinement is possible

Question 16:

Nusselt number is the ratio of:

  • (1) Inertial to viscous forces
  • (2) Convective to conductive heat transfer
  • (3) Convective to radiative heat transfer
  • (4) Viscous to inertial forces

Question 17:

Rankine's theory of failure is applicable for which of the following type of materials?

  • (1) Brittle
  • (2) Ductile
  • (3) Elastic
  • (4) Plastic

Question 18:

The elastic region in a stress-strain diagram corresponds to:

  • (1) Plastic deformation
  • (2) Reversible deformation
  • (3) Necking
  • (4) Fracture

Question 19:

IS specifies which of the following total number of grades of tolerances?

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 22

Question 20:

Second law introduces the concept of:

  • (1) Heat
  • (2) Energy
  • (3) Entropy
  • (4) Volume

Question 21:

From a metallic wall at 100\(^\circ\)C, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The temperature at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of:

  • (1) Aluminium
  • (2) Steel
  • (3) Copper
  • (4) Silver

Question 22:

The elastic constants, modulus of rigidity ‘K’ and modulus of elasticity ‘E’ are related through Poisson’s ratio ‘\(\mu\)’ as:

  • (1) \( \frac{E}{3(1 - 2\mu)} \)
  • (2) \( E(1 - 2\mu) \)
  • (3) \( 3E(1 - 2\mu) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{E}{3(1 + 2\mu)} \)

Question 23:

Availability is:

  • (1) Work lost due to friction
  • (2) Maximum useful work
  • (3) Heat available from system
  • (4) Energy in environment

Question 24:

If two bodies one light and other heavy have equal kinetic energies, which one has a greater momentum?

  • (1) Heavy body
  • (2) Light body
  • (3) Both have equal momentum
  • (4) It depends on the actual velocities

Question 25:

Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of inertial to viscous forces in forced convection?

  • (1) Nusselt number
  • (2) Reynolds number
  • (3) Grashof number
  • (4) Rayleigh number

Question 26:

A flexible manufacturing system may be:

  • (1) An automated assembly line
  • (2) Expensive to alter
  • (3) Very difficult to change when new products are introduced
  • (4) Flexibility in design of product

Question 27:

Control volume refers to a:

  • (1) Specified mass
  • (2) Fixed region in the space
  • (3) Closed system
  • (4) Specific Volume

Question 28:

Rankine cycle is used in:

  • (1) Gas turbines
  • (2) Steam power plants
  • (3) Refrigerators
  • (4) Automobiles

Question 29:

Highest thermal conductivity is of

  • (1) Solid ice
  • (2) Melting ice
  • (3) Water
  • (4) Steam

Question 30:

The ratio of applied load to instantaneous cross section area is called

  • (1) Engineering stress
  • (2) True stress
  • (3) Engineering strain
  • (4) True strain

Question 31:

Brayton cycle is used in:

  • (1) Steam engines
  • (2) Diesel engines
  • (3) Gas turbines
  • (4) Heat pumps

Question 32:

The condition for maximum power transmission by an open belt drive considering centrifugal tension is:

(T = max. tension, \( T_C \) = centrifugal tension)

  • (1) \( T = 2T_C \)
  • (2) \( T = 4T_C \)
  • (3) \( T = 3T_C \)
  • (4) \( T = 3T_C^2 \)

Question 33:

Investment casting uses pattern made of:

  • (1) Wax
  • (2) Clay
  • (3) Metal
  • (4) Wood

Question 34:

Which property of mercury is the main reason for its use in barometers?

  • (1) High density
  • (2) Capillary effect is negligible
  • (3) Very low vapour pressure
  • (4) Low compressibility

Question 35:

Compression ratio of diesel cycle is:

  • (1) Lower than Otto
  • (2) Equal to Otto
  • (3) Higher than Otto
  • (4) Depends on fuel

Question 36:

Kelvin-Planck's law deals with:

  • (1) Conversion of work into heat
  • (2) Conversion of heat into work
  • (3) Conservation of work
  • (4) Conservation of heat

Question 37:

Which one of the following is an open pair?

  • (1) Ball and socket joint
  • (2) Journal bearing
  • (3) Lead screw and nut
  • (4) Cam and follower

Question 38:

Shaft is subjected to which of the following stresses?

  • (1) Bending
  • (2) Torsional
  • (3) Both Bending and Torsional
  • (4) Tensile

Question 39:

Humidification increases:

  • (1) Dry bulb temp
  • (2) Moisture content of air
  • (3) Air velocity
  • (4) Pressure

Question 40:

The elastic strain energy stored in a rectangular cantilever beam of length \(L\), subjected to a bending moment \(M\) applied at the end of it is:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{M^2 L}{2EI}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{2AE}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{3EI}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{16EI}\)

Question 41:

A process in which no heat is transferred is called:

  • (1) Isobaric
  • (2) Adiabatic
  • (3) Isothermal
  • (4) Isochoric

Question 42:

The main component in soldering is:

  • (1) Copper
  • (2) Tin-lead alloy
  • (3) Aluminium
  • (4) Nickel

Question 43:

A refrigerator unit weighing 300 N is to be supported by three springs of stiffness of 10.26 kN/mm each. If the unit operates at 580 r.p.m., what should be the value of the spring constant \(k\) if only 10% of the shaking force of the unit is to be transmitted to the supporting structure?

  • (1) 2.4 N/mm
  • (2) 3.0 N/mm
  • (3) 3.4 N/mm
  • (4) 4 N/mm

Question 44:

The required diameter of the blank for the deep drawing of a cup of diameter \(d\) and height \(h\) is given by:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{d^2 - 2dh}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{d^2 + 2dh}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{d^2 - 4dh}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{d^2 + 4dh}\)

Question 45:

If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of rivets is 0.30, then the tearing efficiency of the joint is:

  • (1) 70%
  • (2) 60%
  • (3) 50%
  • (4) 30%

Question 46:

In thin cylindrical pressure vessels, hoop stress is:

  • (1) Equal to axial stress
  • (2) Half of axial stress
  • (3) Twice the axial stress
  • (4) One-fourth axial stress

Question 47:

Cores are used to:

  • (1) Make desired recess in castings
  • (2) Strengthen moulding sand
  • (3) Support loose pieces
  • (4) Remove pattern easily

Question 48:

Austempering is the heat treatment process used to obtain:

  • (1) Low hardness
  • (2) High toughness
  • (3) High hardness
  • (4) High ductility

Question 49:

Natural frequency of undamped SDOF system is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{k}{m}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{m}{k}\)

Question 50:

Which of the following casting process uses an expendable pattern?

  • (1) CO\(_2\) casting
  • (2) Die casting
  • (3) Centrifugal casting
  • (4) Investment casting

Question 51:

In drawing operation, the metal flows due to:

  • (1) Ductility
  • (2) Work hardening
  • (3) Plasticity
  • (4) Shearing

Question 52:

The rake angle is a property of:

  • (1) Tool wear
  • (2) Tool geometry
  • (3) Workpiece shape
  • (4) Cutting fluid

Question 53:

A Mohr's circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to:

  • (1) Pure shear
  • (2) Uniaxial stress only
  • (3) Equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear
  • (4) Equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear

Question 54:

In a throttling process, which one of the parameters remains constant?

  • (1) Temperature
  • (2) Pressure
  • (3) Enthalpy
  • (4) Entropy

Question 55:

Resonance occurs when:

  • (1) Damping is high
  • (2) Mass equals stiffness
  • (3) Forcing frequency equals natural frequency
  • (4) Displacement is zero

Question 56:

Brazing differs from soldering primarily in the following:

  • (1) Type of base metal used
  • (2) Temperature of the filler metal
  • (3) Use of electricity
  • (4) Type of shielding gas used

Question 57:

The addition of coal dust to the green moulding sand is to improve:

  • (1) Permeability
  • (2) Surface finish
  • (3) Mouldability
  • (4) Green strength

Question 58:

Seam welding used for metal sheets having thickness in the range:

  • (1) 0.025 to 3 mm
  • (2) 3 to 6 mm
  • (3) 6 to 10 mm
  • (4) More than 10 mm

Question 59:

Which of the following is a Taylor’s tool life equation, where V-cutting speed (m/min), T-tool life (min), n-exponent and C-constant?

  • (1) \(TV^n = C\)
  • (2) \(VT^n = C\)
  • (3) \(VC^n = T\)
  • (4) \(CV^n = T\)

Question 60:

CAD/CAM is hardware oriented, but gives it life.

  • (1) Numerical control
  • (2) Documentation
  • (3) Software
  • (4) Communications

Question 61:

EDM (Electric Discharge Machining) is suitable for:

  • (1) Plastic parts
  • (2) Hard conductive materials
  • (3) Wooden molds
  • (4) Composites

Question 62:

The continuity equation \[ \frac{du}{dx} + \frac{dv}{dy} + \frac{dw}{dz} = 0 \]
is valid only for:

  • (1) Ideal fluid flow
  • (2) Incompressible fluid
  • (3) Steady flow and incompressible fluids
  • (4) Steady flow and compressible fluids

Question 63:

In a planar truss, the number of members (m), joints (j), and reactions (r) are related by:

  • (1) \(m + r = 2j\)
  • (2) \(m + j = 2r\)
  • (3) \(m + r = j\)
  • (4) \(m + j = r\)

Question 64:

Quick return mechanism is an inversion of:

  • (1) Four bar chain
  • (2) Single slider crank chain
  • (3) Double slider crank chain
  • (4) Crossed slider crank chain

Question 65:

In wire drawing operation, the maximum reduction per pass for perfectly plastic material in ideal condition is:

  • (1) 30 %
  • (2) 45 %
  • (3) 63 %
  • (4) 50 %

Question 66:

In metal cutting operations, discontinuous chips are produced while machining:

  • (1) Brittle material
  • (2) Ductile material
  • (3) Hard material
  • (4) Soft material

Question 67:

Least count of a micrometer screw gauge is usually:

  • (1) 0.1 mm
  • (2) 0.01 mm
  • (3) 0.001 mm
  • (4) 1 mm

Question 68:

In an open system, both ............. and ............. can cross the boundary?

  • (1) Heat and mass
  • (2) Work and energy
  • (3) Mass and energy
  • (4) Pressure and volume

Question 69:

Reheating in Brayton cycle:

  • (1) Decreases work output
  • (2) Reduces temperature
  • (3) Increases work output
  • (4) Reduces efficiency

Question 70:

Strength of a material is its ability to resist:

  • (1) Deformation due to stress
  • (2) Fracture due to high load
  • (3) External forces applied with yielding or break down
  • (4) The flow

Question 71:

As the distance from the leading edge increases, the thermal boundary layer thickness:

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Remains constant
  • (3) Decreases
  • (4) Becomes zero

Question 72:

Provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more, if there are:

  • (1) Fewer number of thick fins
  • (2) Fewer number of thin fins
  • (3) Large number of thin fins
  • (4) Large number of thick fins

Question 73:

The primary mechanism of material removal in electrochemical machining (ECM) is:

  • (1) Chemical corrosion
  • (2) Ionic dissolution
  • (3) Etching
  • (4) Spark erosion

Question 74:

In the S-N curve, "N" represents :

  • (1) Load cycles
  • (2) Number of cycles to failure
  • (3) Stress amplitude
  • (4) Time to failure

Question 75:

The value of Poisson's ratio for any material cannot exceed:

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 1.0
  • (3) 1.414
  • (4) 0.5

Question 76:

Amount of external energy required to deform an elastic body is called:

  • (1) Elastic energy
  • (2) Plastic energy
  • (3) Strain energy
  • (4) Thermal energy

Question 77:

Balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately balancing masses in:

  • (1) Single plane
  • (2) Two planes
  • (3) Three planes
  • (4) Four planes

Question 78:

Forecasting in PPC helps in:

  • (1) Inventory disposal
  • (2) Machine maintenance
  • (3) Planning future production needs
  • (4) Waste disposal

Question 79:

Heat transfer takes place according to:

  • (1) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
  • (2) First law of thermodynamics
  • (3) Second law of thermodynamics
  • (4) Third law of thermodynamics

Question 80:

The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tubes is called:

  • (1) The hydraulic grade line
  • (2) The energy grade line
  • (3) The velocity head
  • (4) The pressure head

Question 81:

Which material is commonly used for pattern making?

  • (1) Cast iron
  • (2) Wood
  • (3) Bronze
  • (4) Lead

Question 82:

The instantaneous centre of rotation of a rigid thin disc rolling on a plane rigid surface is located at:

  • (1) Centre of the disc
  • (2) An infinite distance on the plane surface
  • (3) The point of contact
  • (4) The point on the circumference situated vertically opposite to the contact point

Question 83:

The gears employed for connecting two non-intersecting and non-parallel, i.e., non-coplanar shafts are:

  • (1) Bevel gears
  • (2) Spiral gears
  • (3) Helical gears
  • (4) Mitre gears

Question 84:

Which of the machining processes uses the principle of Faraday’s law for material removal?

  • (1) EDM
  • (2) LBM
  • (3) ECM
  • (4) EBM

Question 85:

A master gauge is an:

  • (1) New gauge
  • (2) International reference standard
  • (3) Standard gauge for checking accuracy of gauges used on shop floors
  • (4) Gauge used by experienced technicians

Question 86:

Gating system in casting controls:

  • (1) Cooling rate only
  • (2) Flow of molten metal
  • (3) Pouring time
  • (4) Mold expansion

Question 87:

For the two shafts connected in parallel, find which statement is true?

  • (1) Torque in each shaft is the same
  • (2) Shear stress in each shaft is the same
  • (3) Angle of twist of each shaft is the same
  • (4) Torsional stiffness of each shaft is the same

Question 88:

Which of the following metals shows a clear yield point?

  • (1) Copper
  • (2) Aluminium
  • (3) Mild steel
  • (4) Titanium

Question 89:

Cold working process can be applied on the components having diameter up to:

  • (1) 12 mm
  • (2) 25 mm
  • (3) 49 mm
  • (4) 50 mm

Question 90:

Thermal stress occurs when:

  • (1) Temperature is uniform
  • (2) Expansion is allowed
  • (3) Expansion is restrained
  • (4) There is no temperature change

Question 91:

In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant absorbs heat in the following.

  • (1) Condenser
  • (2) Compressor
  • (3) Expansion valve
  • (4) Evaporator

Question 92:

Group technology brings together and organizes:

  • (1) Parts and simulation analysis
  • (2) Documentation and analysis
  • (3) Automation and tool production
  • (4) Common parts, problems, and tasks

Question 93:

Forging is typically done:

  • (1) At room temperature
  • (2) At elevated temperatures
  • (3) In powder form
  • (4) For non-metallic parts

Question 94:

With rise in gas temperature, dynamic viscosity of most of the gases:

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Decreases
  • (3) Does not change significantly
  • (4) Remains constant

Question 95:

Conduction requires:

  • (1) Temperature gradient
  • (2) Fluid motion
  • (3) Radiation
  • (4) Vacuum

Question 96:

A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant:

  • (1) Force is equal to zero
  • (2) Couple is equal to zero
  • (3) Force and the resultant couple are both equal to zero
  • (4) Force is numerically equal to the resultant couple, but neither of them need necessarily be zero

Question 97:

Ability of a material to retain the deformation permanently is called:

  • (1) Stiffness
  • (2) Ductility
  • (3) Hardness
  • (4) Plasticity

Question 98:

The creep in belt drive is due to the:

  • (1) Material of the pulleys
  • (2) Material of the belt
  • (3) Unequal size of the pulleys
  • (4) Unequal tension on tight side and slack sides of the belt

Question 99:

Spur gears have:

  • (1) Helical teeth
  • (2) Straight teeth
  • (3) Bevel teeth
  • (4) Spiral teeth

Question 100:

A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other, is called:

  • (1) Steady flow
  • (2) Uniform flow
  • (3) Streamline flow
  • (4) Turbulent flow

Question 101:

Heat conduction through a wall follows:

  • (1) Fourier's law
  • (2) Newton's law
  • (3) Stefan–Boltzmann law
  • (4) Kirchhoff's law

Question 102:

If the efficiency of a belt drive is more than 50%, then it is called:

  • (1) Self-locking
  • (2) Over loading
  • (3) Over-hauling
  • (4) Over efficiency drive

Question 103:

Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of:

  • (1) Cast iron
  • (2) Mild steel
  • (3) Aluminium
  • (4) Stainless steel

Question 104:

Limits and fits ensure:

  • (1) Aesthetic appeal
  • (2) Proper function and interchangeability
  • (3) Heat transfer
  • (4) Colour coding

Question 105:

For maximum horizontal range, the angle of projection of a projectile should be:

  • (1) 30°
  • (2) 45°
  • (3) 60°
  • (4) 90°

Question 106:

Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of:

  • (1) Reaction turbines
  • (2) Impulse turbines
  • (3) Axial flow turbines
  • (4) Mixed flow turbines

Question 107:

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to:

  • (1) Compressible viscous flows
  • (2) All types of flow
  • (3) Incompressible and inviscid flow
  • (4) Steady turbulent flows

Question 108:

The area enclosed by a thermodynamic cycle on a p-v diagram represents:

  • (1) Heat rejected
  • (2) Net work done
  • (3) Energy loss
  • (4) Efficiency

Question 109:

In electrical resistance welding, pressure applied varies in the range:

  • (1) 50 to 100 kgf/cm²
  • (2) 100 to 200 kgf/cm²
  • (3) 250 to 550 kgf/cm²
  • (4) 600 to 900 kgf/cm²

Question 110:

Compared to the Otto cycle for the same compression ratio, the diesel cycle efficiency is:

  • (1) Lower
  • (2) Higher
  • (3) Equal
  • (4) Cannot be determined

Question 111:

Determine the value of \(\lambda\) and \(\mu\) for which such that the system of equations \(x + 2y + z = 6\), \(x + 4y + 3z = 10\), and \(2x + 4y + \lambda z = \mu\) has infinite number of solutions.

  • (1) \(\lambda = 2, \mu \neq 12\)
  • (2) \(\lambda = 2, \mu = 12\)
  • (3) \(\lambda \neq 2, \mu = 12\)
  • (4) for any \(\lambda\) and any \(\mu\)

Question 112:

If the matrix \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & -1 & 1
-1 & 5 & -1
1 & -1 & 3 \end{pmatrix}\) has three distinct eigenvalues and one of its eigenvectors is \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
0
-1 \end{pmatrix}\), then which of the following can be another eigenvector of \(A\)?

  • (1) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
    0
    1 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
    0
    2 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
    1
    -1 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
    -2
    1 \end{pmatrix}\)

Question 113:

If \(\vec{F} = x(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{i} + 2y(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{j} + 3z(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{k}\), then \( div \, \vec{F}\) at \((1, 1, 1)\) is equal to ...........

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 33

Question 114:

The value of the line integral \(\int_{C}(2xy^2 dx + 2x^2 y dy - \frac{1}{3} z dz)\) along a path joining the origin \((0,0,0)\) and the point \((1,1,1)\) is ...........

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{6}\)

Question 115:

If \(y(x)\) satisfies the differential equation \(x \frac{dy}{dx} + (x - y) = 0\) subject to the condition \(y(1) = 0\), then \(y(e)\) is ...........

  • (1) \(-e\)
  • (2) \(-2e\)
  • (3) \(e\)
  • (4) \(2e\)

Question 116:

If the Laplace transform of a function \(f(t)\) is given by \(\frac{2s + 1}{(s+1)(s+2)}\), then \(f(0)\) is equal to ...........

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) -4
  • (4) \(3e - 1\)

Question 117:

Let A, B be two events and \(\overline{A}\) be the complement of A. If \(P(\overline{A}) = 0.7\), \(P(B) = 0.7\) and \(P(B|A) = 0.5\), then \(P(A \cup B) = \) ...........

  • (1) 0.65
  • (2) 0.85
  • (3) 0.75
  • (4) 0.50

Question 118:

A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective items in a day with probabilities of \(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}\) respectively. Then, the standard deviation of the number of defective items produced by the machine in a day, is ...........

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (4) 1

Question 119:

Evaluation of the integral \(\int_{2}^{4} x^2 \, dx\) using the trapezoidal rule (with two equal segments) gives a value of ...........

  • (1) 14.5
  • (2) 22.5
  • (3) 19.0
  • (4) 18.6

Question 120:

Let \(f(x) = x^3 + 2x^2 + 3x - 1\). Newton-Raphson method is used to find the root of the equation \(f(x) = 0\). If the initial guess is \(x_0 = 1\), then the value of \(x\) after first iteration is ...........

  • (1) 0.30
  • (2) 0.36
  • (3) 0.40
  • (4) 0.50

AP PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    Let \( f(x) = x^3 - \dfrac{9}{2}x^2 + 6x - 2 \) be a function defined on the closed interval \([0, 3]\). Then, the global maximum value of \( f(x) \) is ...............

      • 4.5
      • 0.5
      • 2.5
      • 3.0

    • 2.
      If the systems of equations $3x - 2y + z = 0$, $5x + ay + 15z = 0$, $x + 2y - 3z = 0$ have non-zero solution, then $a =$ ...............

        • $-2$
        • $2$
        • $-14$
        • $14$

      • 3.

        For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it is necessary that ……..

          • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( y_{21} = y_{12} \)

          • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

          • \( h_{11} = -h_{12} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

          • \( y_{12} = y_{21} \) and \( h_{21} = -h_{12} \)


        • 4.
          Which strategy can be used to minimize the shear damage in bioreactors used for animal cell culture?

            • Using spargers
            • Increasing agitation rate
            • Adding Pluronic F-68
            • Increasing temperature

          • 5.
            Which statement about entropy is incorrect?

              • Entropy is zero at 0 K (Third Law)
              • Entropy decreases in spontaneous adiabatic processes
              • Entropy production is irreversible
              • Entropy measures energy dispersal

            • 6.
              If \( \vec{F}(x, y, z) = 3x^2y\,\hat{i} + 5y^2z\,\hat{j} - 8xyz\,\hat{k} \) is a continuously differentiable vector field, then the curl of \( \vec{F} \) at (1,1,1) is ...............

                • $-13\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$
                • $-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}$
                • $-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$
                • $13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$

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