AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Mechanical Engineering is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted from June 6 to June 8 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.
AP PGECET Mechanical Engineering Question Paper
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF |
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Question 1:
A particle moving in a circular path with constant speed has:
- (1) No acceleration
- (2) Centripetal acceleration
- (3) Zero net force
- (4) Constant angular momentum
Question 2:
For plane stress, Mohr’s circle has:
- (1) Radius equal to maximum normal stress
- (2) Radius equal to maximum shear stress
- (3) Centre at origin
- (4) No radius
Question 3:
A purchasing assistant has calculated the carrying cost in Rupees Per unit annum, and the EOQ = 500 units for an item. He must have taken that the annual ordering cost for this item:
- (1) Rs. 500
- (2) Rs. 100
- (3) Rs. 31.62
- (4) Rs. 22.36
Question 4:
Euler’s theory applies to:
- (1) Long columns with lateral loads
- (2) Short columns
- (3) Long, slender columns under axial compression
- (4) Beams under bending
Question 5:
Critical damping is a function of
- (1) Mass and stiffness
- (2) Mass and damping co-efficient
- (3) Stiffness and natural frequency
- (4) Natural frequency and damping co-efficient
Question 6:
In a simple gear train, the velocity ratio depends on:
- (1) Shaft distance
- (2) Number of teeth on gears
- (3) Module
- (4) Pressure angle
Question 7:
A stone of mass ‘m’ at the end of a string of length ‘l’ is whirled in a vertical position at a constant speed. The tension in the string will be minimum when the stone is at the
- (1) Bottom of the circle
- (2) Half-down from the top
- (3) Quarter way down from the top
- (4) Top of the circle
Question 8:
Critical speed of shaft corresponds to:
- (1) Zero angular velocity
- (2) Natural frequency of lateral vibration
- (3) Highest rpm
- (4) No damping
Question 9:
Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the:
- (1) Longitudinal vibration
- (2) Transverse vibration
- (3) Torsional vibration
- (4) Coupled between torsional vibration
Question 10:
The range of projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is:
- (1) 45\(^\circ\)
- (2) 30\(^\circ\)
- (3) 60\(^\circ\)
- (4) 90\(^\circ\)
Question 11:
Pressure in a static fluid:
- (1) Varies with horizontal distance
- (2) Varies with depth
- (3) Is constant
- (4) Is maximum at the surface
Question 12:
What is the nature of distribution of shear stress in a rectangular beam?
- (1) Linear
- (2) Parabolic
- (3) Hyperbolic
- (4) Elliptical
Question 13:
In laminar pipe flow, head loss varies with:
- (1) Velocity
- (2) Velocity squared
- (3) Pressure
- (4) Temperature
Question 14:
In gears, interference takes place when:
- (1) Tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circles
- (2) Gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
- (3) Pitch of the gear is not same
- (4) Gear teeth are undercut
Question 15:
In hot working:
- (1) Annealing operation is not necessary
- (2) Power requirements are low
- (3) Surface finish is good
- (4) Grain refinement is possible
Question 16:
Nusselt number is the ratio of:
- (1) Inertial to viscous forces
- (2) Convective to conductive heat transfer
- (3) Convective to radiative heat transfer
- (4) Viscous to inertial forces
Question 17:
Rankine's theory of failure is applicable for which of the following type of materials?
- (1) Brittle
- (2) Ductile
- (3) Elastic
- (4) Plastic
Question 18:
The elastic region in a stress-strain diagram corresponds to:
- (1) Plastic deformation
- (2) Reversible deformation
- (3) Necking
- (4) Fracture
Question 19:
IS specifies which of the following total number of grades of tolerances?
- (1) 18
- (2) 16
- (3) 20
- (4) 22
Question 20:
Second law introduces the concept of:
- (1) Heat
- (2) Energy
- (3) Entropy
- (4) Volume
Question 21:
From a metallic wall at 100\(^\circ\)C, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The temperature at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of:
- (1) Aluminium
- (2) Steel
- (3) Copper
- (4) Silver
Question 22:
The elastic constants, modulus of rigidity ‘K’ and modulus of elasticity ‘E’ are related through Poisson’s ratio ‘\(\mu\)’ as:
- (1) \( \frac{E}{3(1 - 2\mu)} \)
- (2) \( E(1 - 2\mu) \)
- (3) \( 3E(1 - 2\mu) \)
- (4) \( \frac{E}{3(1 + 2\mu)} \)
Question 23:
Availability is:
- (1) Work lost due to friction
- (2) Maximum useful work
- (3) Heat available from system
- (4) Energy in environment
Question 24:
If two bodies one light and other heavy have equal kinetic energies, which one has a greater momentum?
- (1) Heavy body
- (2) Light body
- (3) Both have equal momentum
- (4) It depends on the actual velocities
Question 25:
Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of inertial to viscous forces in forced convection?
- (1) Nusselt number
- (2) Reynolds number
- (3) Grashof number
- (4) Rayleigh number
Question 26:
A flexible manufacturing system may be:
- (1) An automated assembly line
- (2) Expensive to alter
- (3) Very difficult to change when new products are introduced
- (4) Flexibility in design of product
Question 27:
Control volume refers to a:
- (1) Specified mass
- (2) Fixed region in the space
- (3) Closed system
- (4) Specific Volume
Question 28:
Rankine cycle is used in:
- (1) Gas turbines
- (2) Steam power plants
- (3) Refrigerators
- (4) Automobiles
Question 29:
Highest thermal conductivity is of
- (1) Solid ice
- (2) Melting ice
- (3) Water
- (4) Steam
Question 30:
The ratio of applied load to instantaneous cross section area is called
- (1) Engineering stress
- (2) True stress
- (3) Engineering strain
- (4) True strain
Question 31:
Brayton cycle is used in:
- (1) Steam engines
- (2) Diesel engines
- (3) Gas turbines
- (4) Heat pumps
Question 32:
The condition for maximum power transmission by an open belt drive considering centrifugal tension is:
(T = max. tension, \( T_C \) = centrifugal tension)
- (1) \( T = 2T_C \)
- (2) \( T = 4T_C \)
- (3) \( T = 3T_C \)
- (4) \( T = 3T_C^2 \)
Question 33:
Investment casting uses pattern made of:
- (1) Wax
- (2) Clay
- (3) Metal
- (4) Wood
Question 34:
Which property of mercury is the main reason for its use in barometers?
- (1) High density
- (2) Capillary effect is negligible
- (3) Very low vapour pressure
- (4) Low compressibility
Question 35:
Compression ratio of diesel cycle is:
- (1) Lower than Otto
- (2) Equal to Otto
- (3) Higher than Otto
- (4) Depends on fuel
Question 36:
Kelvin-Planck's law deals with:
- (1) Conversion of work into heat
- (2) Conversion of heat into work
- (3) Conservation of work
- (4) Conservation of heat
Question 37:
Which one of the following is an open pair?
- (1) Ball and socket joint
- (2) Journal bearing
- (3) Lead screw and nut
- (4) Cam and follower
Question 38:
Shaft is subjected to which of the following stresses?
- (1) Bending
- (2) Torsional
- (3) Both Bending and Torsional
- (4) Tensile
Question 39:
Humidification increases:
- (1) Dry bulb temp
- (2) Moisture content of air
- (3) Air velocity
- (4) Pressure
Question 40:
The elastic strain energy stored in a rectangular cantilever beam of length \(L\), subjected to a bending moment \(M\) applied at the end of it is:
- (1) \(\dfrac{M^2 L}{2EI}\)
- (2) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{2AE}\)
- (3) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{3EI}\)
- (4) \(\dfrac{ML^2}{16EI}\)
Question 41:
A process in which no heat is transferred is called:
- (1) Isobaric
- (2) Adiabatic
- (3) Isothermal
- (4) Isochoric
Question 42:
The main component in soldering is:
- (1) Copper
- (2) Tin-lead alloy
- (3) Aluminium
- (4) Nickel
Question 43:
A refrigerator unit weighing 300 N is to be supported by three springs of stiffness of 10.26 kN/mm each. If the unit operates at 580 r.p.m., what should be the value of the spring constant \(k\) if only 10% of the shaking force of the unit is to be transmitted to the supporting structure?
- (1) 2.4 N/mm
- (2) 3.0 N/mm
- (3) 3.4 N/mm
- (4) 4 N/mm
Question 44:
The required diameter of the blank for the deep drawing of a cup of diameter \(d\) and height \(h\) is given by:
- (1) \(\sqrt{d^2 - 2dh}\)
- (2) \(\sqrt{d^2 + 2dh}\)
- (3) \(\sqrt{d^2 - 4dh}\)
- (4) \(\sqrt{d^2 + 4dh}\)
Question 45:
If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of rivets is 0.30, then the tearing efficiency of the joint is:
- (1) 70%
- (2) 60%
- (3) 50%
- (4) 30%
Question 46:
In thin cylindrical pressure vessels, hoop stress is:
- (1) Equal to axial stress
- (2) Half of axial stress
- (3) Twice the axial stress
- (4) One-fourth axial stress
Question 47:
Cores are used to:
- (1) Make desired recess in castings
- (2) Strengthen moulding sand
- (3) Support loose pieces
- (4) Remove pattern easily
Question 48:
Austempering is the heat treatment process used to obtain:
- (1) Low hardness
- (2) High toughness
- (3) High hardness
- (4) High ductility
Question 49:
Natural frequency of undamped SDOF system is:
- (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
- (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
- (3) \(\frac{k}{m}\)
- (4) \(\frac{m}{k}\)
Question 50:
Which of the following casting process uses an expendable pattern?
- (1) CO\(_2\) casting
- (2) Die casting
- (3) Centrifugal casting
- (4) Investment casting
Question 51:
In drawing operation, the metal flows due to:
- (1) Ductility
- (2) Work hardening
- (3) Plasticity
- (4) Shearing
Question 52:
The rake angle is a property of:
- (1) Tool wear
- (2) Tool geometry
- (3) Workpiece shape
- (4) Cutting fluid
Question 53:
A Mohr's circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to:
- (1) Pure shear
- (2) Uniaxial stress only
- (3) Equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear
- (4) Equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear
Question 54:
In a throttling process, which one of the parameters remains constant?
- (1) Temperature
- (2) Pressure
- (3) Enthalpy
- (4) Entropy
Question 55:
Resonance occurs when:
- (1) Damping is high
- (2) Mass equals stiffness
- (3) Forcing frequency equals natural frequency
- (4) Displacement is zero
Question 56:
Brazing differs from soldering primarily in the following:
- (1) Type of base metal used
- (2) Temperature of the filler metal
- (3) Use of electricity
- (4) Type of shielding gas used
Question 57:
The addition of coal dust to the green moulding sand is to improve:
- (1) Permeability
- (2) Surface finish
- (3) Mouldability
- (4) Green strength
Question 58:
Seam welding used for metal sheets having thickness in the range:
- (1) 0.025 to 3 mm
- (2) 3 to 6 mm
- (3) 6 to 10 mm
- (4) More than 10 mm
Question 59:
Which of the following is a Taylor’s tool life equation, where V-cutting speed (m/min), T-tool life (min), n-exponent and C-constant?
- (1) \(TV^n = C\)
- (2) \(VT^n = C\)
- (3) \(VC^n = T\)
- (4) \(CV^n = T\)
Question 60:
CAD/CAM is hardware oriented, but gives it life.
- (1) Numerical control
- (2) Documentation
- (3) Software
- (4) Communications
Question 61:
EDM (Electric Discharge Machining) is suitable for:
- (1) Plastic parts
- (2) Hard conductive materials
- (3) Wooden molds
- (4) Composites
Question 62:
The continuity equation \[ \frac{du}{dx} + \frac{dv}{dy} + \frac{dw}{dz} = 0 \]
is valid only for:
- (1) Ideal fluid flow
- (2) Incompressible fluid
- (3) Steady flow and incompressible fluids
- (4) Steady flow and compressible fluids
Question 63:
In a planar truss, the number of members (m), joints (j), and reactions (r) are related by:
- (1) \(m + r = 2j\)
- (2) \(m + j = 2r\)
- (3) \(m + r = j\)
- (4) \(m + j = r\)
Question 64:
Quick return mechanism is an inversion of:
- (1) Four bar chain
- (2) Single slider crank chain
- (3) Double slider crank chain
- (4) Crossed slider crank chain
Question 65:
In wire drawing operation, the maximum reduction per pass for perfectly plastic material in ideal condition is:
- (1) 30 %
- (2) 45 %
- (3) 63 %
- (4) 50 %
Question 66:
In metal cutting operations, discontinuous chips are produced while machining:
- (1) Brittle material
- (2) Ductile material
- (3) Hard material
- (4) Soft material
Question 67:
Least count of a micrometer screw gauge is usually:
- (1) 0.1 mm
- (2) 0.01 mm
- (3) 0.001 mm
- (4) 1 mm
Question 68:
In an open system, both ............. and ............. can cross the boundary?
- (1) Heat and mass
- (2) Work and energy
- (3) Mass and energy
- (4) Pressure and volume
Question 69:
Reheating in Brayton cycle:
- (1) Decreases work output
- (2) Reduces temperature
- (3) Increases work output
- (4) Reduces efficiency
Question 70:
Strength of a material is its ability to resist:
- (1) Deformation due to stress
- (2) Fracture due to high load
- (3) External forces applied with yielding or break down
- (4) The flow
Question 71:
As the distance from the leading edge increases, the thermal boundary layer thickness:
- (1) Increases
- (2) Remains constant
- (3) Decreases
- (4) Becomes zero
Question 72:
Provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more, if there are:
- (1) Fewer number of thick fins
- (2) Fewer number of thin fins
- (3) Large number of thin fins
- (4) Large number of thick fins
Question 73:
The primary mechanism of material removal in electrochemical machining (ECM) is:
- (1) Chemical corrosion
- (2) Ionic dissolution
- (3) Etching
- (4) Spark erosion
Question 74:
In the S-N curve, "N" represents :
- (1) Load cycles
- (2) Number of cycles to failure
- (3) Stress amplitude
- (4) Time to failure
Question 75:
The value of Poisson's ratio for any material cannot exceed:
- (1) 0.2
- (2) 1.0
- (3) 1.414
- (4) 0.5
Question 76:
Amount of external energy required to deform an elastic body is called:
- (1) Elastic energy
- (2) Plastic energy
- (3) Strain energy
- (4) Thermal energy
Question 77:
Balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately balancing masses in:
- (1) Single plane
- (2) Two planes
- (3) Three planes
- (4) Four planes
Question 78:
Forecasting in PPC helps in:
- (1) Inventory disposal
- (2) Machine maintenance
- (3) Planning future production needs
- (4) Waste disposal
Question 79:
Heat transfer takes place according to:
- (1) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
- (2) First law of thermodynamics
- (3) Second law of thermodynamics
- (4) Third law of thermodynamics
Question 80:
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tubes is called:
- (1) The hydraulic grade line
- (2) The energy grade line
- (3) The velocity head
- (4) The pressure head
Question 81:
Which material is commonly used for pattern making?
- (1) Cast iron
- (2) Wood
- (3) Bronze
- (4) Lead
Question 82:
The instantaneous centre of rotation of a rigid thin disc rolling on a plane rigid surface is located at:
- (1) Centre of the disc
- (2) An infinite distance on the plane surface
- (3) The point of contact
- (4) The point on the circumference situated vertically opposite to the contact point
Question 83:
The gears employed for connecting two non-intersecting and non-parallel, i.e., non-coplanar shafts are:
- (1) Bevel gears
- (2) Spiral gears
- (3) Helical gears
- (4) Mitre gears
Question 84:
Which of the machining processes uses the principle of Faraday’s law for material removal?
- (1) EDM
- (2) LBM
- (3) ECM
- (4) EBM
Question 85:
A master gauge is an:
- (1) New gauge
- (2) International reference standard
- (3) Standard gauge for checking accuracy of gauges used on shop floors
- (4) Gauge used by experienced technicians
Question 86:
Gating system in casting controls:
- (1) Cooling rate only
- (2) Flow of molten metal
- (3) Pouring time
- (4) Mold expansion
Question 87:
For the two shafts connected in parallel, find which statement is true?
- (1) Torque in each shaft is the same
- (2) Shear stress in each shaft is the same
- (3) Angle of twist of each shaft is the same
- (4) Torsional stiffness of each shaft is the same
Question 88:
Which of the following metals shows a clear yield point?
- (1) Copper
- (2) Aluminium
- (3) Mild steel
- (4) Titanium
Question 89:
Cold working process can be applied on the components having diameter up to:
- (1) 12 mm
- (2) 25 mm
- (3) 49 mm
- (4) 50 mm
Question 90:
Thermal stress occurs when:
- (1) Temperature is uniform
- (2) Expansion is allowed
- (3) Expansion is restrained
- (4) There is no temperature change
Question 91:
In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant absorbs heat in the following.
- (1) Condenser
- (2) Compressor
- (3) Expansion valve
- (4) Evaporator
Question 92:
Group technology brings together and organizes:
- (1) Parts and simulation analysis
- (2) Documentation and analysis
- (3) Automation and tool production
- (4) Common parts, problems, and tasks
Question 93:
Forging is typically done:
- (1) At room temperature
- (2) At elevated temperatures
- (3) In powder form
- (4) For non-metallic parts
Question 94:
With rise in gas temperature, dynamic viscosity of most of the gases:
- (1) Increases
- (2) Decreases
- (3) Does not change significantly
- (4) Remains constant
Question 95:
Conduction requires:
- (1) Temperature gradient
- (2) Fluid motion
- (3) Radiation
- (4) Vacuum
Question 96:
A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant:
- (1) Force is equal to zero
- (2) Couple is equal to zero
- (3) Force and the resultant couple are both equal to zero
- (4) Force is numerically equal to the resultant couple, but neither of them need necessarily be zero
Question 97:
Ability of a material to retain the deformation permanently is called:
- (1) Stiffness
- (2) Ductility
- (3) Hardness
- (4) Plasticity
Question 98:
The creep in belt drive is due to the:
- (1) Material of the pulleys
- (2) Material of the belt
- (3) Unequal size of the pulleys
- (4) Unequal tension on tight side and slack sides of the belt
Question 99:
Spur gears have:
- (1) Helical teeth
- (2) Straight teeth
- (3) Bevel teeth
- (4) Spiral teeth
Question 100:
A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other, is called:
- (1) Steady flow
- (2) Uniform flow
- (3) Streamline flow
- (4) Turbulent flow
Question 101:
Heat conduction through a wall follows:
- (1) Fourier's law
- (2) Newton's law
- (3) Stefan–Boltzmann law
- (4) Kirchhoff's law
Question 102:
If the efficiency of a belt drive is more than 50%, then it is called:
- (1) Self-locking
- (2) Over loading
- (3) Over-hauling
- (4) Over efficiency drive
Question 103:
Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of:
- (1) Cast iron
- (2) Mild steel
- (3) Aluminium
- (4) Stainless steel
Question 104:
Limits and fits ensure:
- (1) Aesthetic appeal
- (2) Proper function and interchangeability
- (3) Heat transfer
- (4) Colour coding
Question 105:
For maximum horizontal range, the angle of projection of a projectile should be:
- (1) 30°
- (2) 45°
- (3) 60°
- (4) 90°
Question 106:
Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of:
- (1) Reaction turbines
- (2) Impulse turbines
- (3) Axial flow turbines
- (4) Mixed flow turbines
Question 107:
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to:
- (1) Compressible viscous flows
- (2) All types of flow
- (3) Incompressible and inviscid flow
- (4) Steady turbulent flows
Question 108:
The area enclosed by a thermodynamic cycle on a p-v diagram represents:
- (1) Heat rejected
- (2) Net work done
- (3) Energy loss
- (4) Efficiency
Question 109:
In electrical resistance welding, pressure applied varies in the range:
- (1) 50 to 100 kgf/cm²
- (2) 100 to 200 kgf/cm²
- (3) 250 to 550 kgf/cm²
- (4) 600 to 900 kgf/cm²
Question 110:
Compared to the Otto cycle for the same compression ratio, the diesel cycle efficiency is:
- (1) Lower
- (2) Higher
- (3) Equal
- (4) Cannot be determined
Question 111:
Determine the value of \(\lambda\) and \(\mu\) for which such that the system of equations \(x + 2y + z = 6\), \(x + 4y + 3z = 10\), and \(2x + 4y + \lambda z = \mu\) has infinite number of solutions.
- (1) \(\lambda = 2, \mu \neq 12\)
- (2) \(\lambda = 2, \mu = 12\)
- (3) \(\lambda \neq 2, \mu = 12\)
- (4) for any \(\lambda\) and any \(\mu\)
Question 112:
If the matrix \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & -1 & 1
-1 & 5 & -1
1 & -1 & 3 \end{pmatrix}\) has three distinct eigenvalues and one of its eigenvectors is \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
0
-1 \end{pmatrix}\), then which of the following can be another eigenvector of \(A\)?
- (1) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
0
1 \end{pmatrix}\)
- (2) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
0
2 \end{pmatrix}\)
- (3) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
1
-1 \end{pmatrix}\)
- (4) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
-2
1 \end{pmatrix}\)
Question 113:
If \(\vec{F} = x(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{i} + 2y(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{j} + 3z(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) \hat{k}\), then \( div \, \vec{F}\) at \((1, 1, 1)\) is equal to ...........
- (1) 12
- (2) 21
- (3) 30
- (4) 33
Question 114:
The value of the line integral \(\int_{C}(2xy^2 dx + 2x^2 y dy - \frac{1}{3} z dz)\) along a path joining the origin \((0,0,0)\) and the point \((1,1,1)\) is ...........
- (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
- (2) \(\frac{7}{6}\)
- (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
- (4) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Question 115:
If \(y(x)\) satisfies the differential equation \(x \frac{dy}{dx} + (x - y) = 0\) subject to the condition \(y(1) = 0\), then \(y(e)\) is ...........
- (1) \(-e\)
- (2) \(-2e\)
- (3) \(e\)
- (4) \(2e\)
Question 116:
If the Laplace transform of a function \(f(t)\) is given by \(\frac{2s + 1}{(s+1)(s+2)}\), then \(f(0)\) is equal to ...........
- (1) 2
- (2) 4
- (3) -4
- (4) \(3e - 1\)
Question 117:
Let A, B be two events and \(\overline{A}\) be the complement of A. If \(P(\overline{A}) = 0.7\), \(P(B) = 0.7\) and \(P(B|A) = 0.5\), then \(P(A \cup B) = \) ...........
- (1) 0.65
- (2) 0.85
- (3) 0.75
- (4) 0.50
Question 118:
A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective items in a day with probabilities of \(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}\) respectively. Then, the standard deviation of the number of defective items produced by the machine in a day, is ...........
- (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
- (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
- (3) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
- (4) 1
Question 119:
Evaluation of the integral \(\int_{2}^{4} x^2 \, dx\) using the trapezoidal rule (with two equal segments) gives a value of ...........
- (1) 14.5
- (2) 22.5
- (3) 19.0
- (4) 18.6
Question 120:
Let \(f(x) = x^3 + 2x^2 + 3x - 1\). Newton-Raphson method is used to find the root of the equation \(f(x) = 0\). If the initial guess is \(x_0 = 1\), then the value of \(x\) after first iteration is ...........
- (1) 0.30
- (2) 0.36
- (3) 0.40
- (4) 0.50
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