AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 19, 2025

AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Food Technology is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted from June 6 to June 8 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET Food Technology Question Paper

AP PGECET​​ Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF
Download PDF Check Solution
AP PGECET Food Technology Question Paper
 


Question 1:

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid that must be obtained from the diet?

  • (1) Stearic acid
  • (2) Oleic acid
  • (3) Linoleic acid
  • (4) Palmitic acid

Question 2:

Which mineral is essential for hemoglobin formation and the prevention of anemia?

  • (1) Calcium
  • (2) Iron
  • (3) Iodine
  • (4) Sodium

Question 3:

Which mineral is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones and prevents goiter?

  • (1) Zinc
  • (2) Iron
  • (3) Iodine
  • (4) Selenium

Question 4:

The green color of leafy vegetables is due to the pigment:

  • (1) Chlorophyll
  • (2) Carotene
  • (3) Lycopene
  • (4) Anthocyanin

Question 5:

Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used in foods to enhance which taste sensation?

  • (1) Bitter
  • (2) Sour
  • (3) Umami
  • (4) Astringency

Question 6:

Enzymatic browning in cut apples is primarily caused by which enzyme?

  • (1) Amylase
  • (2) Polyphenol oxidase
  • (3) Protease
  • (4) Lipase

Question 7:

Which of the following nutrients should contribute the most calories in a balanced diet?

  • (1) Proteins
  • (2) Fats
  • (3) Carbohydrates
  • (4) Vitamins

Question 8:

During the bacterial growth curve, the phase in which bacteria multiply at the fastest rate is the:

  • (1) Lag phase
  • (2) Exponential (log) phase
  • (3) Stationary phase
  • (4) Death phase

Question 9:

Botulism, a severe form of food poisoning, is caused by a toxin produced by:

  • (1) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (2) Clostridium botulinum
  • (3) Salmonella botulinum
  • (4) Escherichia coli

Question 10:

Yogurt is produced by the fermentation of milk using:

  • (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (2) Acetobacter aceti
  • (3) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (with Streptococcus thermophilus)
  • (4) Penicillium roqueforti

Question 11:

Aflatoxin, a dangerous natural toxin found in moldy peanuts, is produced by:

  • (1) Aspergillus flavus
  • (2) Clostridium perfringens
  • (3) Lactococcus lactis
  • (4) Rhizopus stolonifer

Question 12:

Soy sauce is traditionally produced using a fermentation starter culture of:

  • (1) Aspergillus oryzae
  • (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (4) Propionibacterium shermanii

Question 13:

Which of the following is used as a starter culture for cheese production (to ferment lactose into lactic acid)?

  • (1) Lactococcus lactis
  • (2) Penicillium roqueforti
  • (3) Acetobacter aceti
  • (4) Rhizopus oligosporus

Question 14:

Using a high concentration of salt or sugar helps preserve foods mainly by:

  • (1) Lowering the pH significantly
  • (2) Adding a sterilizing effect
  • (3) Reducing the water activity
  • (4) Providing a surface sanitizer

Question 15:

Which of these bacteria forms heat-resistant spores and can survive inadequate cooking, potentially causing food poisoning?

  • (1) Bacillus cereus
  • (2) Lactobacillus casei
  • (3) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (4) Vibrio cholerae

Question 16:

"Golden rice," a genetically modified variety of rice, has been engineered to be rich in:

  • (1) Vitamin A
  • (2) Vitamin B12
  • (3) Iron
  • (4) Protein

Question 17:

Parboiling is a processing technique commonly associated with which cereal grain?

  • (1) Wheat
  • (2) Maize
  • (3) Rice
  • (4) Oats

Question 18:

High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) pasteurization of milk is typically conducted at:

  • (1) 63°C for 30 minutes
  • (2) 72°C for 15 seconds
  • (3) 100°C for 5 minutes
  • (4) 135°C for 1 second

Question 19:

If cereal grains are stored with too high moisture content, which is a likely outcome?

  • (1) Increased germination during storage
  • (2) Mold growth and spoilage
  • (3) Improved shelf-life
  • (4) Higher protein content

Question 20:

The process of "malting" barley (for brewing or malted foods) involves:

  • (1) Sprouting the barley grains to activate enzymes
  • (2) Roasting the grains at high temperature
  • (3) Fermenting the grains with yeast
  • (4) Grinding the grains into flour

Question 21:

Freezing foods very quickly (such as in blast freezers) is beneficial because it:

  • (1) Freezes only the water, leaving food components unfrozen
  • (2) Creates smaller ice crystals, preserving texture
  • (3) Can sterilize the food completely
  • (4) Adds a protective ice glaze to the food

Question 22:

Using a multiple-effect evaporator in food concentrate production is mainly to:

  • (1) Improve the color of the product
  • (2) Increase the boiling point in each stage
  • (3) Save energy by reusing heat in successive stages
  • (4) Add flavors during evaporation

Question 23:

Brix is a measurement of a solution's:

  • (1) Sugar concentration
  • (2) Acidity level
  • (3) Protein content
  • (4) Salt content

Question 24:

A common refrigerant used in large-scale food refrigeration systems (such as cold storage facilities) is:

  • (1) Chlorine gas
  • (2) Ammonia (NH\(_3\))
  • (3) Oxygen
  • (4) Carbon dioxide snow

Question 25:

Which factor generally increases the efficiency of drying a food product?

  • (1) Greater surface area exposed to air
  • (2) Larger piece size of the food
  • (3) Lower air velocity over the food
  • (4) Higher humidity in the drying air

Question 26:

Adulteration of turmeric with metanil yellow is:

  • (1) Beneficial for nutrition
  • (2) Permitted under food law
  • (3) Illegal and a health hazard
  • (4) Used to enhance natural flavor

Question 27:

FSSAI, the national food authority in India, stands for:

  • (1) Food Science Society and Institute
  • (2) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
  • (3) Federation of Safe Food Associations, India
  • (4) Food Sterility and Sanitation Agency of India

Question 28:

FSMS in food industry discussions stands for:

  • (1) Food Safety Management System
  • (2) Food Storage Monitoring Schedule
  • (3) Federal Standard for Microbiological Safety
  • (4) Food Supply Management Scheme

Question 29:

HACCP is a system designed for:

  • (1) Improving the taste of food products
  • (2) Analyzing food cost and pricing
  • (3) Identifying and controlling potential hazards in food production
  • (4) Managing inventory in food warehouses

Question 30:

AGMARK is a certification in India that assures the quality of:

  • (1) Organic milk
  • (2) Gold jewelry
  • (3) Medical devices
  • (4) Agricultural products

Question 31:

Monosaccharides present in stachyose:

  • (1) galc-galc-glc-fruc.
  • (2) glc-fruc-glc-glc.
  • (3) galc-glc-fruc-glc.
  • (4) glc-galc-glc-fruc.

Question 32:

The basic difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin is:

  • (1) Phytol group
  • (2) Molecular weight of globin protein
  • (3) Porphyrin ring
  • (4) Central iron atom

Question 33:

Examples of pigments benzopyran derivatives:

  • (1) Chlorophyll and hemes
  • (2) Carotenoids and anthocyanins
  • (3) Anthocyanins and flavonoids
  • (4) Anthocyanins and hemes

Question 34:

Examples of prolamins in corn and wheat:

  • (1) Hordein and zein
  • (2) Gliadin and hordein
  • (3) Oryzenin and zein
  • (4) Zein and gliadin

Question 35:

Cobalt is a constituent of which vitamin:

  • (1) Vitamin D
  • (2) Vitamin C
  • (3) Vitamin B12
  • (4) Folic acid

Question 36:

Deficiency symptoms of minerals iodine and iron:

  • (1) Goitre and anaemia
  • (2) Osteoporosis and osteomalacia
  • (3) Anaemia and osteopenia
  • (4) Goitre and night blindness

Question 37:

Protein efficiency ratio is not based on:

  • (1) Intake of plant protein
  • (2) Intake and output of food protein residues
  • (3) Output of protein
  • (4) Intake of animal protein

Question 38:

Amino acid which can be converted to niacin in the body:

  • (1) Phenylalanine
  • (2) Tyrosine
  • (3) Tryptophan
  • (4) Histidine

Question 39:

Red or bloody bread results from growth of:

  • (1) Serratia marcescens
  • (2) Bacillus licheniformis
  • (3) Pseudomonas species
  • (4) Endomycopsis

Question 40:

Black rots in eggs are caused by:

  • (1) Serratia species
  • (2) Proteus melanovogenes
  • (3) Alcaligenes
  • (4) Flavobacterium

Question 41:

Barny flavour in butter is produced by:

  • (1) Yeasts
  • (2) Actinomycetes
  • (3) Enterobacter species
  • (4) Pseudomonas

Question 42:

TA spoilage is caused by:

  • (1) Clostridium perfringens
  • (2) Clostridium botulinum
  • (3) Clostridium nigricans
  • (4) Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum

Question 43:

Enterohaemorrhagic E coli (EHEC) sometimes is also known as:

  • (1) Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC)
  • (2) Verotoxin producing E coli (VTEC)
  • (3) Entero invasive E coli (EIEC)
  • (4) Entero toxigenic E coli (ETEC)

Question 44:

An example of hard cheese:

  • (1) Cottage cheese
  • (2) Roquefort cheese
  • (3) Parmesan cheese
  • (4) Cheddar cheese

Question 45:

The bacteria which initiate fermentation of sauerkraut is:

  • (1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
  • (2) E coli
  • (3) Bacillus species
  • (4) Lactobacillus plantarum

Question 46:

The ratio of small fish to salt in fish sauce and paste is:

  • (1) 4 parts of fish and 1 part salt
  • (2) 3 parts of fish and 2 parts salt
  • (3) 3 parts of fish and 1 part salt
  • (4) 2 parts of fish and 2 parts salt

Question 47:

Dehulling is done for which oilseeds:

  • (1) Sunflower
  • (2) Sunflower and soybean
  • (3) Soybean and groundnut
  • (4) Soybean

Question 48:

Conventional pulses milling methods followed in India:

  • (1) Wet milling
  • (2) Steam milling
  • (3) Wet and dry milling
  • (4) Wet and steam milling

Question 49:

In dal milling industry which of the following is used for conditioning:

  • (1) Oil
  • (2) Water
  • (3) Red earth
  • (4) Oil, water and red earth

Question 50:

Blanching of fruits and vegetables is done:

  • (1) To inactivate enzymes
  • (2) To reduce moisture content
  • (3) To reduce volume to surface area
  • (4) To prevent nutrient loss

Question 51:

Which of the following step is not a part of tea processing?

  • (1) Withering
  • (2) Fermentation
  • (3) Rolling
  • (4) Winnowing

Question 52:

Wet processing of coffee bean yields:

  • (1) Parchment coffee
  • (2) Cherry coffee
  • (3) Kerala coffee
  • (4) Ivory coffee

Question 53:

Clove contains:

  • (1) Carveol
  • (2) Indole
  • (3) Clovonol
  • (4) Eugenol

Question 54:

For smoking of meat which wood is used:

  • (1) Hard wood like hickory, oak, pecan, maple.
  • (2) Soft woods like pine, cedar
  • (3) Sandal wood
  • (4) Semi hard wood like beech

Question 55:

Enzyme present in papaya, pineapple and figs:

  • (1) Papain, bromelin
  • (2) Papain, bromelin and ficin
  • (3) Ficin
  • (4) Papain

Question 56:

Egg shell is composed of:

  • (1) Calcium carbonate
  • (2) Magnesium carbonate
  • (3) Calcium sulphate
  • (4) Manganese carbonate

Question 57:

As per FSSAI regulation, what is the fat content (percent) in whole milk powder:

  • (1) Not less than 26%
  • (2) Not less than 2%
  • (3) Not more than 1.5%
  • (4) Not more than 28%

Question 58:

Milk product obtained by acid coagulation of hot milk and subsequent drainage of whey:

  • (1) Curds
  • (2) Rasogolla
  • (3) Paneer
  • (4) Sandesh

Question 59:

Whey proteins are:

  • (1) Gamma globulins, alpha lactoglobulins
  • (2) Beta lactoglobulins, alpha lactoglobulins
  • (3) Casein, lactalbumin
  • (4) Casein, beta lactoglobulins

Question 60:

Eyes are characteristic feature of:

  • (1) Ice cream
  • (2) Khoa
  • (3) Swiss cheese
  • (4) Cottage cheese

Question 61:

Heat transfer by convection occurs in:

  • (1) Solids
  • (2) Solids and liquids
  • (3) Solid surface to liquids and gases
  • (4) Gases

Question 62:

Super-heated steam is produced at:

  • (1) Boiling point
  • (2) Above boiling point
  • (3) Below boiling point
  • (4) At boiling point

Question 63:

The filter press commonly used in oil mill is:

  • (1) Continuous type pressure filter
  • (2) Continuous type vacuum filter
  • (3) Discontinuous type pressure filter
  • (4) Discontinuous type vacuum filter

Question 64:

Separation of solids from solid is called as:

  • (1) Filtration
  • (2) Sedimentation
  • (3) Centrifugation
  • (4) Sieving

Question 65:

The milk is .......... to increase the keeping quality so that it does not spoil during distribution.

  • (1) Homogenised
  • (2) Defatted
  • (3) Pasteurized
  • (4) Fortified

Question 66:

Instrument used to test specific gravity of milk and adulteration of milk by water:

  • (1) Hydrometer
  • (2) Penetrometer
  • (3) Lactometer
  • (4) Colorimeter

Question 67:

Guidelines for nutritional labelling has been published by:

  • (1) ISO 14000
  • (2) ISO 9000
  • (3) Codex Alimentarius Commission
  • (4) ISO 22000

Question 68:

Turmeric is adulterated with:

  • (1) Auramine
  • (2) Metanil yellow
  • (3) Rhodamine B
  • (4) Orange-II

Question 69:

ISO9001:2008 Quality Management System deals with:

  • (1) Fundamentals and vocabulary
  • (2) Management
  • (3) Requirements
  • (4) Performance improvement

Question 70:

Adulterant found in watermelon fruits:

  • (1) Carmosine
  • (2) Erythrosine
  • (3) Rhodamine B
  • (4) Auramine

Question 71:

Which of the following statement is true for enantiomers?

  • (1) Optical isomers that are superimposable mirror images
  • (2) Isomers which differ in their configuration around a single carbon atom
  • (3) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and non-mirror images
  • (4) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images

Question 72:

Trehalose is a combination of:

  • (1) Two glucose molecules
  • (2) Two maltose molecules
  • (3) Two lactose molecules
  • (4) Two sucrose molecules

Question 73:

The chemical formula of palmitic acid is:

  • (1) CH4(CH2)14COOH
  • (2) CH3(CH2)15COOH
  • (3) CH3(CH2)14COOH
  • (4) CH3(CH3)14COOH

Question 74:

Tartrazine is an:

  • (1) Food colouring agent
  • (2) Food sweetner
  • (3) Food fortifier
  • (4) Food preservative

Question 75:

In animals, pantothenic acid is associated with which of the following?

  • (1) Synthesis of cholesterol
  • (2) Synthesis of Coenzyme A
  • (3) Synthesis of thyroid hormones
  • (4) Synthesis of hemoglobin

Question 76:

Limonene is a:

  • (1) Ketone
  • (2) Quinone
  • (3) Terpene
  • (4) Ester

Question 77:

The basic difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b is:

  • (1) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
  • (2) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains methyl group
  • (3) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
  • (4) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group

Question 78:

Shigella flexneri is:

  • (1) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (2) gram-negative, motile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (3) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively aerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (4) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus

Question 79:

Mevalonate pathway is associated with the biosynthesis of:

  • (1) Cholesterol
  • (2) Testosterone
  • (3) Thyroid hormones
  • (4) Corticosteroids

Question 80:

What represents dx/dt in a microbial growth equation: dx/dt = \(\mu x\)?

  • (1) Rate of change of time
  • (2) No change of time
  • (3) No change of biomass
  • (4) Rate of change of biomass

Question 81:

The oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin is:

  • (1) Sigmoid
  • (2) Rectangular hyperbola
  • (3) Flat
  • (4) Hampered

Question 82:

Feni is a:

  • (1) Wine prepared from cashew nuts
  • (2) Wine prepared from grapes
  • (3) Wine prepared from mangoes
  • (4) Wine prepared from mixture of mangoes and grapes

Question 83:

Hooke's law states that:

  • (1) Stress is irreversible to the strain of ideal solid
  • (2) Stress is directly proportional to strain of ideal solid
  • (3) Stress is independent of strain of ideal solid
  • (4) Strain is proportional to stress of ideal solids

Question 84:

How many iodine molecules are present in thyroxine?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4

Question 85:

World food day is celebrated every year on:

  • (1) October 16
  • (2) January 16
  • (3) December 16
  • (4) March 16

Question 86:

Butyrometer is used to:

  • (1) Detect water percentage in milk
  • (2) Detect fat percentage in milk
  • (3) Detect protein content in milk
  • (4) Detect fat percentage in oils

Question 87:

Sequence of steps in gram’s staining technique in the identification of bacteria are:

  • (1) Crystal violet - ethanol - Grams Iodine - Safranin
  • (2) Crystal violet - Safranin - Grams Iodine - ethanol
  • (3) Crystal violet - ethanol - Safranin - Grams Iodine
  • (4) Crystal violet - Grams Iodine - ethanol - Safranin

Question 88:

Which of the following is correct about \(\alpha\)-amino acids?

  • (1) All \(\alpha\)-amino acids contain an asymmetric carbon atom
  • (2) In nature, they are always present in optically active form
  • (3) They are always exist in L forms
  • (4) In nature, they are present in both L and D forms

Question 89:

Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food standard commission?

  • (1) Jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Health Organization
  • (2) Established by HACCP
  • (3) Established by FSSAI
  • (4) Jointly established by FSSAI and HACCP

Question 90:

Heat sterilization method to inactivate deleterious enzymes prior to canning, freezing and drying is .........

  • (1) Sterilization
  • (2) Pasteurization
  • (3) Leaching
  • (4) Blanching

Question 91:

The scientific name of barley is:

  • (1) Triticum vulgare
  • (2) Hordeum vulgare
  • (3) Vigna mungo
  • (4) Oryza sativum

Question 92:

The mathematical equation of enthalpy (H) is:

  • (1) \( H = U + pV \)
  • (2) \( H = U - pV \)
  • (3) \( H = \frac{U}{pV} \)
  • (4) \( H = pV \)

Question 93:

Caffeine belongs to .......... class.

  • (1) Methylxanthine
  • (2) Ethylxanthine
  • (3) Trimethylhydroxanthine
  • (4) Tetrahydromethylxanthine

Question 94:

Water activity is defined as:

  • (1) the vapour pressure of water in substance
  • (2) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the different temperatures
  • (3) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature
  • (4) vapour pressure of pure water

Question 95:

High gravity wort refers to a brew where the original gravity is significantly higher than standard and ranges between:

  • (1) 13-18° Plato.
  • (2) 18-20° Plato.
  • (3) 20-25° Plato.
  • (4) 25-30° Plato.

Question 96:

Penetrometer is a device to:

  • (1) Measure the tenderness of meat
  • (2) Measure the taste of meat
  • (3) Measure the colour of meat
  • (4) Measure the quantity of meat

Question 97:

What are the factors that affect fluid flow regimes?

  • (1) Mass flow rate, density, viscosity of fluid and geometry of the flow channel
  • (2) Mass flow rate and geometry of the flow channel
  • (3) Density and viscosity of the fluid
  • (4) Geometry of the flow channel only

Question 98:

Which of the following diseases occurs due to vitamin deficiency:

  • (1) Hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
  • (2) Pellagra and Beriberi
  • (3) Phenylketonuria and alkaptonuria
  • (4) Myositis and Myasthenia gravis

Question 99:

Maillard browning is a:

  • (1) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
  • (2) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
  • (3) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids
  • (4) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids

Question 100:

What is the principle of centrifugation?

  • (1) Sedimentation principle
  • (2) Filtration principle
  • (3) Evaporation principle
  • (4) Size reduction principle

Question 101:

The basic law of fluid flow through porous media is known as:

  • (1) Boltzmann law
  • (2) Bernoulli’s law
  • (3) Darcy Law
  • (4) Stokes law

Question 102:

Which of the following is a size reduction unit operation in liquids?

  • (1) Milling
  • (2) Homogenization
  • (3) Grinding
  • (4) Mixing

Question 103:

If the value of Reynolds number \( > 10000 \) for an impeller, the power number:

  • (1) Increases first and then decreases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (2) Increase with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (3) Remains constant with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (4) Decreases first and then increases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number

Question 104:

In a feedback control of milk heat exchanger:

  • (1) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk coming out of the heat exchanger and sends to the controller a measurement signal
  • (2) Temperature of the milk is not measured through feedback control of milk heat exchanger
  • (3) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger and sends a measurement signal to the controller.
  • (4) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger first and then measure temperature coming out of the heat exchanger

Question 105:

The process of food preservation using drying technique:

  • (1) Increases water activity
  • (2) No change in water activity
  • (3) Reduces water activity
  • (4) Independent of water activity

Question 106:

If a culture starts with 500 bacteria and doubles every hour, how many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?

  • (1) \(4 \times 10^3\)
  • (2) \(8 \times 10^3\)
  • (3) \(6 \times 10^3\)
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^3\)

Question 107:

PFA act was established in the year:

  • (1) 1954
  • (2) 1955
  • (3) 1956
  • (4) 1965

Question 108:

Alpha tocopherol contains:

  • (1) No methyl group attached to chromanol ring
  • (2) One methyl group attached to chromanol ring
  • (3) Eight methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
  • (4) Three methyl groups attached to chromanol ring

Question 109:

The relationship between pressure drop and velocity follows:

  • (1) Hooke’s law
  • (2) Stokes’ Law
  • (3) Bernoulli Law
  • (4) Venturi’s Law

Question 110:

Identify the index organism of pasteurization efficacy:

  • (1) Escherichia coli
  • (2) Bacillus subtilis
  • (3) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (4) Coxiella burnetti

Question 111:

Role of Gram's Iodine in gram staining technique:

  • (1) Enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (2) Blocks the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (3) Neither blocks nor enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (4) Enhances the ability of alcohol to remove the binding of crystal violet to cell wall

Question 112:

Which of the following is a phospholipid?

  • (1) Lecithin
  • (2) Arachidonic acid
  • (3) Ergosterol
  • (4) Cerebroside

Question 113:

The gelling agent in the preparation of jam is:

  • (1) Lectin
  • (2) Rutin
  • (3) Pectin
  • (4) Inulin

Question 114:

Consumer protection act was established in the year?

  • (1) 1987
  • (2) 1980
  • (3) 1986
  • (4) 1979

Question 115:

Spice oils are extracted by a process known as:

  • (1) Fermentation
  • (2) Steam distillation
  • (3) Sublimation
  • (4) Milling

Question 116:

Which international standardization organization represents food safety management system?

  • (1) ISO 20000
  • (2) ISO 22000
  • (3) ISO 02000
  • (4) ISO 22200

Question 117:

If the melting point of oils are low as compared to its surrounding temperature, then oils remain in:

  • (1) gaseous state
  • (2) solid state
  • (3) liquid state
  • (4) vapour state

Question 118:

A wet food product contains 70% water. After drying, it is found that 70% of original water has been removed. The mass of water removed per kilogram of wet food is:

  • (1) 4.9 kg
  • (2) 49 kg
  • (3) 0.49 kg
  • (4) 0.049 kg

Question 119:

Miso is a product of:

  • (1) Fermented mangoes
  • (2) Fermented Soya beans
  • (3) Fermented grapes
  • (4) Fermented cabbage

Question 120:

Fat bloom is the defect found in:

  • (1) Margarine
  • (2) Yoghurt
  • (3) Ghee
  • (4) Chocolate

AP PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    If \( \vec{F}(x, y, z) = 3x^2y\,\hat{i} + 5y^2z\,\hat{j} - 8xyz\,\hat{k} \) is a continuously differentiable vector field, then the curl of \( \vec{F} \) at (1,1,1) is ...............

      • $-13\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$
      • $-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}$
      • $-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$
      • $13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}$

    • 2.

      For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it is necessary that ……..

        • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( y_{21} = y_{12} \)

        • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

        • \( h_{11} = -h_{12} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

        • \( y_{12} = y_{21} \) and \( h_{21} = -h_{12} \)


      • 3.
        Which statement about entropy is incorrect?

          • Entropy is zero at 0 K (Third Law)
          • Entropy decreases in spontaneous adiabatic processes
          • Entropy production is irreversible
          • Entropy measures energy dispersal

        • 4.
          The value of the integral \( \int_1^3 \frac{2}{x} \, dx \), when evaluated by using Simpson’s \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule on two equal subintervals each of length 1, is ...........

            • 2.00
            • 2.24
            • 2.19
            • 2.22

          • 5.
            For a stable closed loop system, the gain at phase crossover frequency should always be:

              • < 20 dB

              • < 6 dB

              •  > 0 dB

              • > 6 dB


            • 6.
              Determine the value of $\lambda$ and $\mu$ for which the system of equations
              $x + 2y + z = 6$,
              $x + 4y + 3z = 10$,
              $2x + 4y + \lambda z = \mu$
              has a unique solution.

                • $\lambda = 2$, $\mu = 12$
                • $\lambda = 2$, $\mu \neq 12$
                • $\lambda \neq 2$, $\mu \neq 12$
                • for any $\lambda$ and any $\mu$

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General1200
              sc700

              In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

              Comments


              No Comments To Show