AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Food Technology is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted from June 6 to June 8 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.
AP PGECET Food Technology Question Paper
Question 1:
Which of the following is an essential fatty acid that must be obtained from the diet?
- (1) Stearic acid
- (2) Oleic acid
- (3) Linoleic acid
- (4) Palmitic acid
Question 2:
Which mineral is essential for hemoglobin formation and the prevention of anemia?
- (1) Calcium
- (2) Iron
- (3) Iodine
- (4) Sodium
Question 3:
Which mineral is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones and prevents goiter?
- (1) Zinc
- (2) Iron
- (3) Iodine
- (4) Selenium
Question 4:
The green color of leafy vegetables is due to the pigment:
- (1) Chlorophyll
- (2) Carotene
- (3) Lycopene
- (4) Anthocyanin
Question 5:
Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used in foods to enhance which taste sensation?
- (1) Bitter
- (2) Sour
- (3) Umami
- (4) Astringency
Question 6:
Enzymatic browning in cut apples is primarily caused by which enzyme?
- (1) Amylase
- (2) Polyphenol oxidase
- (3) Protease
- (4) Lipase
Question 7:
Which of the following nutrients should contribute the most calories in a balanced diet?
- (1) Proteins
- (2) Fats
- (3) Carbohydrates
- (4) Vitamins
Question 8:
During the bacterial growth curve, the phase in which bacteria multiply at the fastest rate is the:
- (1) Lag phase
- (2) Exponential (log) phase
- (3) Stationary phase
- (4) Death phase
Question 9:
Botulism, a severe form of food poisoning, is caused by a toxin produced by:
- (1) Staphylococcus aureus
- (2) Clostridium botulinum
- (3) Salmonella botulinum
- (4) Escherichia coli
Question 10:
Yogurt is produced by the fermentation of milk using:
- (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- (2) Acetobacter aceti
- (3) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (with Streptococcus thermophilus)
- (4) Penicillium roqueforti
Question 11:
Aflatoxin, a dangerous natural toxin found in moldy peanuts, is produced by:
- (1) Aspergillus flavus
- (2) Clostridium perfringens
- (3) Lactococcus lactis
- (4) Rhizopus stolonifer
Question 12:
Soy sauce is traditionally produced using a fermentation starter culture of:
- (1) Aspergillus oryzae
- (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
- (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- (4) Propionibacterium shermanii
Question 13:
Which of the following is used as a starter culture for cheese production (to ferment lactose into lactic acid)?
- (1) Lactococcus lactis
- (2) Penicillium roqueforti
- (3) Acetobacter aceti
- (4) Rhizopus oligosporus
Question 14:
Using a high concentration of salt or sugar helps preserve foods mainly by:
- (1) Lowering the pH significantly
- (2) Adding a sterilizing effect
- (3) Reducing the water activity
- (4) Providing a surface sanitizer
Question 15:
Which of these bacteria forms heat-resistant spores and can survive inadequate cooking, potentially causing food poisoning?
- (1) Bacillus cereus
- (2) Lactobacillus casei
- (3) Staphylococcus aureus
- (4) Vibrio cholerae
Question 16:
"Golden rice," a genetically modified variety of rice, has been engineered to be rich in:
- (1) Vitamin A
- (2) Vitamin B12
- (3) Iron
- (4) Protein
Question 17:
Parboiling is a processing technique commonly associated with which cereal grain?
- (1) Wheat
- (2) Maize
- (3) Rice
- (4) Oats
Question 18:
High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) pasteurization of milk is typically conducted at:
- (1) 63°C for 30 minutes
- (2) 72°C for 15 seconds
- (3) 100°C for 5 minutes
- (4) 135°C for 1 second
Question 19:
If cereal grains are stored with too high moisture content, which is a likely outcome?
- (1) Increased germination during storage
- (2) Mold growth and spoilage
- (3) Improved shelf-life
- (4) Higher protein content
Question 20:
The process of "malting" barley (for brewing or malted foods) involves:
- (1) Sprouting the barley grains to activate enzymes
- (2) Roasting the grains at high temperature
- (3) Fermenting the grains with yeast
- (4) Grinding the grains into flour
Question 21:
Freezing foods very quickly (such as in blast freezers) is beneficial because it:
- (1) Freezes only the water, leaving food components unfrozen
- (2) Creates smaller ice crystals, preserving texture
- (3) Can sterilize the food completely
- (4) Adds a protective ice glaze to the food
Question 22:
Using a multiple-effect evaporator in food concentrate production is mainly to:
- (1) Improve the color of the product
- (2) Increase the boiling point in each stage
- (3) Save energy by reusing heat in successive stages
- (4) Add flavors during evaporation
Question 23:
Brix is a measurement of a solution's:
- (1) Sugar concentration
- (2) Acidity level
- (3) Protein content
- (4) Salt content
Question 24:
A common refrigerant used in large-scale food refrigeration systems (such as cold storage facilities) is:
- (1) Chlorine gas
- (2) Ammonia (NH\(_3\))
- (3) Oxygen
- (4) Carbon dioxide snow
Question 25:
Which factor generally increases the efficiency of drying a food product?
- (1) Greater surface area exposed to air
- (2) Larger piece size of the food
- (3) Lower air velocity over the food
- (4) Higher humidity in the drying air
Question 26:
Adulteration of turmeric with metanil yellow is:
- (1) Beneficial for nutrition
- (2) Permitted under food law
- (3) Illegal and a health hazard
- (4) Used to enhance natural flavor
Question 27:
FSSAI, the national food authority in India, stands for:
- (1) Food Science Society and Institute
- (2) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
- (3) Federation of Safe Food Associations, India
- (4) Food Sterility and Sanitation Agency of India
Question 28:
FSMS in food industry discussions stands for:
- (1) Food Safety Management System
- (2) Food Storage Monitoring Schedule
- (3) Federal Standard for Microbiological Safety
- (4) Food Supply Management Scheme
Question 29:
HACCP is a system designed for:
- (1) Improving the taste of food products
- (2) Analyzing food cost and pricing
- (3) Identifying and controlling potential hazards in food production
- (4) Managing inventory in food warehouses
Question 30:
AGMARK is a certification in India that assures the quality of:
- (1) Organic milk
- (2) Gold jewelry
- (3) Medical devices
- (4) Agricultural products
Question 31:
Monosaccharides present in stachyose:
- (1) galc-galc-glc-fruc.
- (2) glc-fruc-glc-glc.
- (3) galc-glc-fruc-glc.
- (4) glc-galc-glc-fruc.
Question 32:
The basic difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin is:
- (1) Phytol group
- (2) Molecular weight of globin protein
- (3) Porphyrin ring
- (4) Central iron atom
Question 33:
Examples of pigments benzopyran derivatives:
- (1) Chlorophyll and hemes
- (2) Carotenoids and anthocyanins
- (3) Anthocyanins and flavonoids
- (4) Anthocyanins and hemes
Question 34:
Examples of prolamins in corn and wheat:
- (1) Hordein and zein
- (2) Gliadin and hordein
- (3) Oryzenin and zein
- (4) Zein and gliadin
Question 35:
Cobalt is a constituent of which vitamin:
- (1) Vitamin D
- (2) Vitamin C
- (3) Vitamin B12
- (4) Folic acid
Question 36:
Deficiency symptoms of minerals iodine and iron:
- (1) Goitre and anaemia
- (2) Osteoporosis and osteomalacia
- (3) Anaemia and osteopenia
- (4) Goitre and night blindness
Question 37:
Protein efficiency ratio is not based on:
- (1) Intake of plant protein
- (2) Intake and output of food protein residues
- (3) Output of protein
- (4) Intake of animal protein
Question 38:
Amino acid which can be converted to niacin in the body:
- (1) Phenylalanine
- (2) Tyrosine
- (3) Tryptophan
- (4) Histidine
Question 39:
Red or bloody bread results from growth of:
- (1) Serratia marcescens
- (2) Bacillus licheniformis
- (3) Pseudomonas species
- (4) Endomycopsis
Question 40:
Black rots in eggs are caused by:
- (1) Serratia species
- (2) Proteus melanovogenes
- (3) Alcaligenes
- (4) Flavobacterium
Question 41:
Barny flavour in butter is produced by:
- (1) Yeasts
- (2) Actinomycetes
- (3) Enterobacter species
- (4) Pseudomonas
Question 42:
TA spoilage is caused by:
- (1) Clostridium perfringens
- (2) Clostridium botulinum
- (3) Clostridium nigricans
- (4) Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum
Question 43:
Enterohaemorrhagic E coli (EHEC) sometimes is also known as:
- (1) Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC)
- (2) Verotoxin producing E coli (VTEC)
- (3) Entero invasive E coli (EIEC)
- (4) Entero toxigenic E coli (ETEC)
Question 44:
An example of hard cheese:
- (1) Cottage cheese
- (2) Roquefort cheese
- (3) Parmesan cheese
- (4) Cheddar cheese
Question 45:
The bacteria which initiate fermentation of sauerkraut is:
- (1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
- (2) E coli
- (3) Bacillus species
- (4) Lactobacillus plantarum
Question 46:
The ratio of small fish to salt in fish sauce and paste is:
- (1) 4 parts of fish and 1 part salt
- (2) 3 parts of fish and 2 parts salt
- (3) 3 parts of fish and 1 part salt
- (4) 2 parts of fish and 2 parts salt
Question 47:
Dehulling is done for which oilseeds:
- (1) Sunflower
- (2) Sunflower and soybean
- (3) Soybean and groundnut
- (4) Soybean
Question 48:
Conventional pulses milling methods followed in India:
- (1) Wet milling
- (2) Steam milling
- (3) Wet and dry milling
- (4) Wet and steam milling
Question 49:
In dal milling industry which of the following is used for conditioning:
- (1) Oil
- (2) Water
- (3) Red earth
- (4) Oil, water and red earth
Question 50:
Blanching of fruits and vegetables is done:
- (1) To inactivate enzymes
- (2) To reduce moisture content
- (3) To reduce volume to surface area
- (4) To prevent nutrient loss
Question 51:
Which of the following step is not a part of tea processing?
- (1) Withering
- (2) Fermentation
- (3) Rolling
- (4) Winnowing
Question 52:
Wet processing of coffee bean yields:
- (1) Parchment coffee
- (2) Cherry coffee
- (3) Kerala coffee
- (4) Ivory coffee
Question 53:
Clove contains:
- (1) Carveol
- (2) Indole
- (3) Clovonol
- (4) Eugenol
Question 54:
For smoking of meat which wood is used:
- (1) Hard wood like hickory, oak, pecan, maple.
- (2) Soft woods like pine, cedar
- (3) Sandal wood
- (4) Semi hard wood like beech
Question 55:
Enzyme present in papaya, pineapple and figs:
- (1) Papain, bromelin
- (2) Papain, bromelin and ficin
- (3) Ficin
- (4) Papain
Question 56:
Egg shell is composed of:
- (1) Calcium carbonate
- (2) Magnesium carbonate
- (3) Calcium sulphate
- (4) Manganese carbonate
Question 57:
As per FSSAI regulation, what is the fat content (percent) in whole milk powder:
- (1) Not less than 26%
- (2) Not less than 2%
- (3) Not more than 1.5%
- (4) Not more than 28%
Question 58:
Milk product obtained by acid coagulation of hot milk and subsequent drainage of whey:
- (1) Curds
- (2) Rasogolla
- (3) Paneer
- (4) Sandesh
Question 59:
Whey proteins are:
- (1) Gamma globulins, alpha lactoglobulins
- (2) Beta lactoglobulins, alpha lactoglobulins
- (3) Casein, lactalbumin
- (4) Casein, beta lactoglobulins
Question 60:
Eyes are characteristic feature of:
- (1) Ice cream
- (2) Khoa
- (3) Swiss cheese
- (4) Cottage cheese
Question 61:
Heat transfer by convection occurs in:
- (1) Solids
- (2) Solids and liquids
- (3) Solid surface to liquids and gases
- (4) Gases
Question 62:
Super-heated steam is produced at:
- (1) Boiling point
- (2) Above boiling point
- (3) Below boiling point
- (4) At boiling point
Question 63:
The filter press commonly used in oil mill is:
- (1) Continuous type pressure filter
- (2) Continuous type vacuum filter
- (3) Discontinuous type pressure filter
- (4) Discontinuous type vacuum filter
Question 64:
Separation of solids from solid is called as:
- (1) Filtration
- (2) Sedimentation
- (3) Centrifugation
- (4) Sieving
Question 65:
The milk is .......... to increase the keeping quality so that it does not spoil during distribution.
- (1) Homogenised
- (2) Defatted
- (3) Pasteurized
- (4) Fortified
Question 66:
Instrument used to test specific gravity of milk and adulteration of milk by water:
- (1) Hydrometer
- (2) Penetrometer
- (3) Lactometer
- (4) Colorimeter
Question 67:
Guidelines for nutritional labelling has been published by:
- (1) ISO 14000
- (2) ISO 9000
- (3) Codex Alimentarius Commission
- (4) ISO 22000
Question 68:
Turmeric is adulterated with:
- (1) Auramine
- (2) Metanil yellow
- (3) Rhodamine B
- (4) Orange-II
Question 69:
ISO9001:2008 Quality Management System deals with:
- (1) Fundamentals and vocabulary
- (2) Management
- (3) Requirements
- (4) Performance improvement
Question 70:
Adulterant found in watermelon fruits:
- (1) Carmosine
- (2) Erythrosine
- (3) Rhodamine B
- (4) Auramine
Question 71:
Which of the following statement is true for enantiomers?
- (1) Optical isomers that are superimposable mirror images
- (2) Isomers which differ in their configuration around a single carbon atom
- (3) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and non-mirror images
- (4) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images
Question 72:
Trehalose is a combination of:
- (1) Two glucose molecules
- (2) Two maltose molecules
- (3) Two lactose molecules
- (4) Two sucrose molecules
Question 73:
The chemical formula of palmitic acid is:
- (1) CH4(CH2)14COOH
- (2) CH3(CH2)15COOH
- (3) CH3(CH2)14COOH
- (4) CH3(CH3)14COOH
Question 74:
Tartrazine is an:
- (1) Food colouring agent
- (2) Food sweetner
- (3) Food fortifier
- (4) Food preservative
Question 75:
In animals, pantothenic acid is associated with which of the following?
- (1) Synthesis of cholesterol
- (2) Synthesis of Coenzyme A
- (3) Synthesis of thyroid hormones
- (4) Synthesis of hemoglobin
Question 76:
Limonene is a:
- (1) Ketone
- (2) Quinone
- (3) Terpene
- (4) Ester
Question 77:
The basic difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b is:
- (1) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
- (2) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains methyl group
- (3) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
- (4) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group
Question 78:
Shigella flexneri is:
- (1) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
- (2) gram-negative, motile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
- (3) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively aerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
- (4) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus
Question 79:
Mevalonate pathway is associated with the biosynthesis of:
- (1) Cholesterol
- (2) Testosterone
- (3) Thyroid hormones
- (4) Corticosteroids
Question 80:
What represents dx/dt in a microbial growth equation: dx/dt = \(\mu x\)?
- (1) Rate of change of time
- (2) No change of time
- (3) No change of biomass
- (4) Rate of change of biomass
Question 81:
The oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin is:
- (1) Sigmoid
- (2) Rectangular hyperbola
- (3) Flat
- (4) Hampered
Question 82:
Feni is a:
- (1) Wine prepared from cashew nuts
- (2) Wine prepared from grapes
- (3) Wine prepared from mangoes
- (4) Wine prepared from mixture of mangoes and grapes
Question 83:
Hooke's law states that:
- (1) Stress is irreversible to the strain of ideal solid
- (2) Stress is directly proportional to strain of ideal solid
- (3) Stress is independent of strain of ideal solid
- (4) Strain is proportional to stress of ideal solids
Question 84:
How many iodine molecules are present in thyroxine?
Question 85:
World food day is celebrated every year on:
- (1) October 16
- (2) January 16
- (3) December 16
- (4) March 16
Question 86:
Butyrometer is used to:
- (1) Detect water percentage in milk
- (2) Detect fat percentage in milk
- (3) Detect protein content in milk
- (4) Detect fat percentage in oils
Question 87:
Sequence of steps in gram’s staining technique in the identification of bacteria are:
- (1) Crystal violet - ethanol - Grams Iodine - Safranin
- (2) Crystal violet - Safranin - Grams Iodine - ethanol
- (3) Crystal violet - ethanol - Safranin - Grams Iodine
- (4) Crystal violet - Grams Iodine - ethanol - Safranin
Question 88:
Which of the following is correct about \(\alpha\)-amino acids?
- (1) All \(\alpha\)-amino acids contain an asymmetric carbon atom
- (2) In nature, they are always present in optically active form
- (3) They are always exist in L forms
- (4) In nature, they are present in both L and D forms
Question 89:
Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food standard commission?
- (1) Jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Health Organization
- (2) Established by HACCP
- (3) Established by FSSAI
- (4) Jointly established by FSSAI and HACCP
Question 90:
Heat sterilization method to inactivate deleterious enzymes prior to canning, freezing and drying is .........
- (1) Sterilization
- (2) Pasteurization
- (3) Leaching
- (4) Blanching
Question 91:
The scientific name of barley is:
- (1) Triticum vulgare
- (2) Hordeum vulgare
- (3) Vigna mungo
- (4) Oryza sativum
Question 92:
The mathematical equation of enthalpy (H) is:
- (1) \( H = U + pV \)
- (2) \( H = U - pV \)
- (3) \( H = \frac{U}{pV} \)
- (4) \( H = pV \)
Question 93:
Caffeine belongs to .......... class.
- (1) Methylxanthine
- (2) Ethylxanthine
- (3) Trimethylhydroxanthine
- (4) Tetrahydromethylxanthine
Question 94:
Water activity is defined as:
- (1) the vapour pressure of water in substance
- (2) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the different temperatures
- (3) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature
- (4) vapour pressure of pure water
Question 95:
High gravity wort refers to a brew where the original gravity is significantly higher than standard and ranges between:
- (1) 13-18° Plato.
- (2) 18-20° Plato.
- (3) 20-25° Plato.
- (4) 25-30° Plato.
Question 96:
Penetrometer is a device to:
- (1) Measure the tenderness of meat
- (2) Measure the taste of meat
- (3) Measure the colour of meat
- (4) Measure the quantity of meat
Question 97:
What are the factors that affect fluid flow regimes?
- (1) Mass flow rate, density, viscosity of fluid and geometry of the flow channel
- (2) Mass flow rate and geometry of the flow channel
- (3) Density and viscosity of the fluid
- (4) Geometry of the flow channel only
Question 98:
Which of the following diseases occurs due to vitamin deficiency:
- (1) Hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
- (2) Pellagra and Beriberi
- (3) Phenylketonuria and alkaptonuria
- (4) Myositis and Myasthenia gravis
Question 99:
Maillard browning is a:
- (1) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
- (2) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
- (3) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids
- (4) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids
Question 100:
What is the principle of centrifugation?
- (1) Sedimentation principle
- (2) Filtration principle
- (3) Evaporation principle
- (4) Size reduction principle
Question 101:
The basic law of fluid flow through porous media is known as:
- (1) Boltzmann law
- (2) Bernoulli’s law
- (3) Darcy Law
- (4) Stokes law
Question 102:
Which of the following is a size reduction unit operation in liquids?
- (1) Milling
- (2) Homogenization
- (3) Grinding
- (4) Mixing
Question 103:
If the value of Reynolds number \( > 10000 \) for an impeller, the power number:
- (1) Increases first and then decreases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
- (2) Increase with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
- (3) Remains constant with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
- (4) Decreases first and then increases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
Question 104:
In a feedback control of milk heat exchanger:
- (1) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk coming out of the heat exchanger and sends to the controller a measurement signal
- (2) Temperature of the milk is not measured through feedback control of milk heat exchanger
- (3) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger and sends a measurement signal to the controller.
- (4) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger first and then measure temperature coming out of the heat exchanger
Question 105:
The process of food preservation using drying technique:
- (1) Increases water activity
- (2) No change in water activity
- (3) Reduces water activity
- (4) Independent of water activity
Question 106:
If a culture starts with 500 bacteria and doubles every hour, how many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?
- (1) \(4 \times 10^3\)
- (2) \(8 \times 10^3\)
- (3) \(6 \times 10^3\)
- (4) \(5 \times 10^3\)
Question 107:
PFA act was established in the year:
- (1) 1954
- (2) 1955
- (3) 1956
- (4) 1965
Question 108:
Alpha tocopherol contains:
- (1) No methyl group attached to chromanol ring
- (2) One methyl group attached to chromanol ring
- (3) Eight methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
- (4) Three methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
Question 109:
The relationship between pressure drop and velocity follows:
- (1) Hooke’s law
- (2) Stokes’ Law
- (3) Bernoulli Law
- (4) Venturi’s Law
Question 110:
Identify the index organism of pasteurization efficacy:
- (1) Escherichia coli
- (2) Bacillus subtilis
- (3) Staphylococcus aureus
- (4) Coxiella burnetti
Question 111:
Role of Gram's Iodine in gram staining technique:
- (1) Enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
- (2) Blocks the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
- (3) Neither blocks nor enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
- (4) Enhances the ability of alcohol to remove the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
Question 112:
Which of the following is a phospholipid?
- (1) Lecithin
- (2) Arachidonic acid
- (3) Ergosterol
- (4) Cerebroside
Question 113:
The gelling agent in the preparation of jam is:
- (1) Lectin
- (2) Rutin
- (3) Pectin
- (4) Inulin
Question 114:
Consumer protection act was established in the year?
- (1) 1987
- (2) 1980
- (3) 1986
- (4) 1979
Question 115:
Spice oils are extracted by a process known as:
- (1) Fermentation
- (2) Steam distillation
- (3) Sublimation
- (4) Milling
Question 116:
Which international standardization organization represents food safety management system?
- (1) ISO 20000
- (2) ISO 22000
- (3) ISO 02000
- (4) ISO 22200
Question 117:
If the melting point of oils are low as compared to its surrounding temperature, then oils remain in:
- (1) gaseous state
- (2) solid state
- (3) liquid state
- (4) vapour state
Question 118:
A wet food product contains 70% water. After drying, it is found that 70% of original water has been removed. The mass of water removed per kilogram of wet food is:
- (1) 4.9 kg
- (2) 49 kg
- (3) 0.49 kg
- (4) 0.049 kg
Question 119:
Miso is a product of:
- (1) Fermented mangoes
- (2) Fermented Soya beans
- (3) Fermented grapes
- (4) Fermented cabbage
Question 120:
Fat bloom is the defect found in:
- (1) Margarine
- (2) Yoghurt
- (3) Ghee
- (4) Chocolate
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