AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Chemical Engineering Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jul 8, 2025

AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 for Chemical Engineering is available for download here with answer key and solution PDF. AP PGECET 2025 was conducted from June 6 to June 8 in two shifts.
AP PGECET Question Paper 2025 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET Chemical Engineering Question Paper

AP PGECET​​ Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF
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AP PGECET Chemical Engineering Question Paper

Question 1:

The absolute humidity of air at 101.325 kPa is measured to be 0.02 kg of water per kg of dry air. Then the partial pressure of water vapour in the air is:

  • (1) 1.99 kPa
  • (2) 2.55 kPa
  • (3) 3.16 kPa
  • (4) 3.87 kPa

Question 2:

The minimum amount of work required to operate a refrigerator which removes 1000 Cal heat at \(0^\circ\)C and rejects at \(50^\circ\)C will be:

  • (1) 170 Cal
  • (2) 120 Cal
  • (3) 150 Cal
  • (4) 183.15 Cal

Question 3:

The entropy of single crystalline Silicon at absolute zero will be:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 10

Question 4:

Which statement about entropy is incorrect?

  • (1) Entropy is zero at 0 K (Third Law)
  • (2) Entropy decreases in spontaneous adiabatic processes
  • (3) Entropy production is irreversible
  • (4) Entropy measures energy dispersal

Question 5:

If the vapour pressure at two temperatures of a solid phase in equilibrium with its liquid phase is known, then the latent heat of fusion can be calculated by the:

  • (1) Nernst Heat Theorem
  • (2) Maxwell's equation
  • (3) Van Laar equation
  • (4) Clapeyron–Clausius equation

Question 6:

The theoretical minimum work required to separate one mole of a liquid mixture at 1 atm, containing 50 mole % each of n-heptane and n-octane into pure compounds, each at 1 atm, is:

  • (1) \(-2RT \ln 0.5\)
  • (2) \(2RT\)
  • (3) \(-RT \ln 0.5\)
  • (4) \(0.5RT\)

Question 7:

Design an approach to estimate the activity coefficient of a component in a non-ideal liquid mixture:

  • (1) Use the ideal gas law
  • (2) Apply the Gibbs-Duhem equation with experimental data
  • (3) Assume it equals mole fraction
  • (4) Use the Second Law only

Question 8:

Which of the following equation must be perfunctorily satisfied while dealing with fluid flow problems?

  • (1) Newton’s third law
  • (2) Law of conservation of momentum
  • (3) Continuity equation
  • (4) Newton’s second law

Question 9:

1 mole of Argon gas is heated at constant pressure from 200 K to 600 K. If \(C_p = 4\ Cal.deg^{-1}mol^{-1}\), then the change in entropy will be:

(Given \(\ln 3 = 1.09\))

  • (1) 4.36 Cal.deg\(^{-1}\)mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 2.76 Cal.deg\(^{-1}\)mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 3.34 Cal.deg\(^{-1}\)mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 5.39 Cal.deg\(^{-1}\)mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 10:

The change in enthalpy of a system is related to the heat absorbed at a:

  • (1) Constant volume
  • (2) Constant temperature
  • (3) Constant mole fraction
  • (4) Constant pressure

Question 11:

If a combustion, 4 kg of organic compound gives 11 kg of CO\(_2\), the percentage of carbon in the compound will be\underline{\hspace{1cm

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 60

Question 12:

Why is the equilibrium constant (K) temperature-dependent?

  • (1) Because \(\Delta G^\circ\) depends on T
  • (2) Because pressure affects K
  • (3) Because entropy is temperature-independent
  • (4) Because fugacity coefficients change with T

Question 13:

Filter aids are added to the slurry prior to filtration in order to form \hspace{2cm}.

  • (1) Compact cakes of low porosity
  • (2) Cakes of increased porosity
  • (3) Crystalline cakes
  • (4) Baked cake

Question 14:

Pick the best difference between mixing and blending.

  • (1) Mixing can only be done for a solid-solid system, while blending is done for solid-liquid mixture
  • (2) Mixing is done for liquid-liquid, gas-liquid and solid-liquid systems, while blending is done for solid-solid mixture
  • (3) Blending is done for liquid-liquid and gas-liquid systems, while mixing is done for solid-solid mixture
  • (4) Mixing is done for liquid-liquid and gas-liquid systems, while blending is done for solid-solid mixture

Question 15:

For transportation of boiler ash, which one of the following conveyors will be useful?

  • (1) Belt Conveyor
  • (2) Screw Conveyor
  • (3) Pipe Conveyor
  • (4) Bucket elevator

Question 16:

Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from \textbf{..........}

  • (1) rotor to fluid
  • (2) fluid to rotor
  • (3) draft to rotor
  • (4) rotor to draft

Question 17:

Which of the following is true, when operating speed is less than critical speed?

  • (1) Bold grinding
  • (2) Effective grinding
  • (3) No grinding
  • (4) Best grinding

Question 18:

What is the term for the ratio of the actual flow rate to the maximum rated flow rate of a flow meter?

  • (1) Repeatability
  • (2) Linearity
  • (3) Turndown ratio
  • (4) Accuracy

Question 19:

Which among the following is an assumption of Hagen–Poiseuille equation?

  • (1) Fluid is uniform
  • (2) Fluid is laminar
  • (3) Fluid is turbulent
  • (4) Fluid is compressible

Question 20:

While a propeller gives an axial liquid circulation pattern, a turbine gives ..............

  • (1) Lateral
  • (2) Parallel
  • (3) Axial
  • (4) Radial

Question 21:

In S.I. system, the unit of filter medium resistance is ..............

  • (1) \(\dfrac{kg}{m^2 \cdot s}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{m^2}{s}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{kg}{m^3 \cdot s}\)
  • (4) \(m^{-1}\)

Question 22:

Surging is a phenomenon associated with:

  • (1) Reciprocating pumps
  • (2) Centrifugal compressors
  • (3) Gear pumps
  • (4) Diaphragm pumps

Question 23:

What type of filtration relies on gravity to pull liquid through the filter medium?

  • (1) Vacuum filtration
  • (2) Centrifugal filtration
  • (3) Gravity filtration
  • (4) Pressure filtration

Question 24:

Which one of the following is not a Newtonian fluid?

  • (1) Water
  • (2) Toothpaste
  • (3) Glycerol
  • (4) Alcohol

Question 25:

The property of the fluid accounts for the major losses in pipes is .............

  • (1) density
  • (2) specific gravity
  • (3) viscosity
  • (4) compressibility

Question 26:

If we have very small dp/di < 0.01, then we may use .............

  • (1) Ergun Equation
  • (2) Kozeny Carman Equation
  • (3) Sieder Tate Equation
  • (4) Arrhenius Equation

Question 27:

Which of the following is true about the speed of the conveyor belt?

  • (1) Fixed conveyors need not be shut down during any speed change
  • (2) Adjustable speed belts can be changed only manually
  • (3) Fixed speed drives can undergo minor speed changes
  • (4) Variations of speed is not possible with conveyors

Question 28:

The number of tube and shell passes of a 3-6 pass exchanger will be:

  • (1) 3 and 6
  • (2) 3 and 3
  • (3) 3 and 5
  • (4) 6 and 3

Question 29:

A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to process 40000 kg of solid caustic soda per day when it is concentrating from 10% to 25% solids. The water evaporated in kilograms per day is:

  • (1) 800
  • (2) 24000
  • (3) 60000
  • (4) 48000

Question 30:

The surface temperature of a blackbody is 400 K. What will be the emissive power?

  • (1) 1451.26 Wm\(^{-2}\)
  • (2) 4521.56 Wm\(^{-2}\)
  • (3) 2890 Wm\(^{-2}\)
  • (4) 5500 Wm\(^{-2}\)

Question 31:

A cavity with a small hole will always behave as a:

  • (1) White body
  • (2) Transparent body
  • (3) Black body
  • (4) Opaque body

Question 32:

The temperature of the liquid is below the saturation temperature and boiling takes place only in vicinity of the heated surface. This type of boiling is known as:

  • (1) Subcooled
  • (2) Forces
  • (3) Saturated
  • (4) Pool

Question 33:

Drop wise condensation usually occurs on:

  • (1) Oily surface
  • (2) Glazed surface
  • (3) Smooth surface
  • (4) Coated surface

Question 34:

The dimensions of diffusion coefficient is given by:

  • (1) \(M\ L\ T^{-2}\)
  • (2) \(L^2\ T^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(L\ T^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(M\ L^{-2}\ T\)

Question 35:

Which of the following materials has the highest thermal conductivity?

  • (1) Wood
  • (2) Air
  • (3) Copper
  • (4) Glass

Question 36:

The Wien’s Displacement Law relates the wavelength at which maximum emission occurs to:

  • (1) Emissivity of the surface
  • (2) Absolute temperature of the blackbody
  • (3) Surface area of the emitter
  • (4) Stefan-Boltzmann constant

Question 37:

A smaller HTU indicates:

  • (1) Poor mass transfer efficiency
  • (2) Higher column height required
  • (3) Less height needed per transfer unit
  • (4) Lower gas flow rates

Question 38:

A hydraulic system operating at \(80^\circ\)C must be cooled to \(45^\circ\)C using a heat transfer oil. A water source of \(30^\circ\)C is available. The effectiveness of heat exchanger will be

  • (1) 0.7
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0.5

Question 39:

With respect to incident radiation, transmissivity varies with

  • (1) Time
  • (2) Temperature
  • (3) Surface area
  • (4) Wavelength

Question 40:

The evaporative heat transfer coefficient is typically

  • (1) Dependent on the latent heat of vaporization
  • (2) Independent of air velocity
  • (3) Higher for still air compared to moving air
  • (4) Not affected by the liquid surface area

Question 41:

Double-pipe heat exchangers are used for cases where the heat transfer area requirement is around

  • (1) 10 to 20 m\(^2\)
  • (2) 100 to 200 m\(^2\)
  • (3) 500 to 1000 m\(^2\)
  • (4) 5000 to 10000 m\(^2\)

Question 42:

Consider a uniformly tapered steel rod of circular cross-section of 1 m length. The diameter of the rod at one end is 5 cm, and that at the other end is 2.5 cm. If the heat flux at the end of the larger cross-section is 2500 kcal/m\(^2\cdot\)hr, the heat flux at the other end is equal to

  • (1) 2500 kcal/m\(^2\cdot\)hr
  • (2) 5000 kcal/m\(^2\cdot\)hr
  • (3) 7500 kcal/m\(^2\cdot\)hr
  • (4) 10,000 kcal/m\(^2\cdot\)hr

Question 43:

What type of process is used to separate liquid mixtures based on differences in volatility?

  • (1) Filtration
  • (2) Extraction
  • (3) Adsorption
  • (4) Distillation

Question 44:

According to penetration theory, the relationship between mass transfer coefficient (k) and diffusivity (D) is given by .............

  • (1) \( k \propto D^{1.5} \)
  • (2) \( k \propto D^{2} \)
  • (3) \( k \propto D^{0.5} \)
  • (4) \( k \propto D \)

Question 45:

Pendular state in drying of wet solids generally refers to:

  • (1) Constant rate
  • (2) First falling rate
  • (3) Second falling rate
  • (4) Equilibrium

Question 46:

Which of the following equipment is essential in a simple distillation setup?

  • (1) Separating funnel
  • (2) Condenser
  • (3) Chromatography column
  • (4) Bunsen burner only

Question 47:

Which of the following is NOT a type of distillation?

  • (1) Simple distillation
  • (2) Fractional distillation
  • (3) Steam distillation
  • (4) Magnetic distillation

Question 48:

In a gas absorption process, the gas phase is typically:

  • (1) The solvent
  • (2) The solute
  • (3) The carrier
  • (4) The product

Question 49:

The distribution of a solute between two immiscible liquids is governed by:

  • (1) Henry's Law
  • (2) Le Chatelier's Principle
  • (3) Distribution coefficient
  • (4) Dalton’s Law

Question 50:

Which of the following increases the efficiency of liquid-liquid extraction?

  • (1) Multiple extractions with small volumes of solvent
  • (2) Using the same solvent multiple times
  • (3) Increasing the temperature excessively
  • (4) Using highly miscible solvents

Question 51:

What type of dryer is typically used for drying granular materials like grains?

  • (1) Freeze dryer
  • (2) Rotary dryer
  • (3) Tunnel dryer
  • (4) Tray dryer

Question 52:

For temperature sensitive pharmaceuticals which one of the following drying methods is ideal?

  • (1) Vacuum Rotary Drying
  • (2) Agitated pan Drying
  • (3) Vacuum Shelf Drying
  • (4) Sublimation Drying

Question 53:

Tannin is extracted from tree barks by leaching with:

  • (1) Alkaline solution
  • (2) Acidic solution
  • (3) Hot water
  • (4) Organic solvents

Question 54:

In order to have efficient leaching of the desired material, the process Flaking is done to which of the following raw material:

  • (1) Sugar extraction from Sugar beet
  • (2) Oil extraction from vegetable seeds
  • (3) Iron extraction from hematite
  • (4) Aluminium extraction from bauxite

Question 55:

The constant rate period in drying refers to the stage when:

  • (1) Surface moisture is completely removed
  • (2) Internal moisture starts to migrate
  • (3) Drying rate remains constant
  • (4) The temperature of the material drops

Question 56:

What happens to the air in a cooling and dehumidification process?

  • (1) Temperature and humidity increase
  • (2) Temperature increases, humidity decreases
  • (3) Temperature and humidity decrease
  • (4) Only humidity increases

Question 57:

The rate-determining step in a reaction mechanism is the one with:

  • (1) The lowest activation energy
  • (2) The highest activation energy
  • (3) No energy barrier
  • (4) The fastest rate

Question 58:

When the conversion of a liquid phase reaction of first order occurring in a CSTR is 60%, and the molar feed rate is 10 mol/min, and the volume of the reactor is 0.50 litre, then the reaction rate in mol/lit/min will be:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 6

Question 59:

The reaction type for acid catalysed ester hydrolysis will be:

  • (1) Zero order reaction
  • (2) First order reaction
  • (3) Pseudo first order reaction
  • (4) Second order reaction

Question 60:

Mixing of entering and exit fluid does not occur in which one of the following reactors?

  • (1) Batch flow
  • (2) Plug flow
  • (3) Mixed Flow
  • (4) Semi batch

Question 61:

The Thiele modulus represents:

  • (1) Surface reaction rate to diffusion rate
  • (2) Overall reaction order
  • (3) Mass transfer rate
  • (4) Temperature profile

Question 62:

In a heterogeneous catalytic reaction, the effectiveness factor is:

  • (1) Ratio of actual rate to rate if no diffusion limitations
  • (2) Ratio of surface area to catalyst weight
  • (3) Mass transfer coefficient
  • (4) Catalyst deactivation factor

Question 63:

A zero-order reaction has a rate that is:

  • (1) Independent of reactant concentration
  • (2) Proportional to the reactant concentration
  • (3) Proportional to the square of the reactant concentration
  • (4) Inversely proportional to reactant concentration

Question 64:

The Damköhler number (Da) relates:

  • (1) Reaction rate to diffusion rate
  • (2) Heat transfer to mass transfer
  • (3) Reactor volume to flow rate
  • (4) Pressure to temperature

Question 65:

A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by:

  • (1) Increasing activation energy
  • (2) Decreasing activation energy
  • (3) Changing the equilibrium constant
  • (4) Increasing temperature

Question 66:

The reaction A + B → C is elementary. If the concentration of A is doubled, the rate will:

  • (1) Remain the same
  • (2) Double
  • (3) Quadruple
  • (4) Decrease by half

Question 67:

For an exothermic reaction, increasing temperature will:

  • (1) Shift the equilibrium toward products
  • (2) Not affect the equilibrium
  • (3) Increase activation energy
  • (4) Shift the equilibrium toward reactants

Question 68:

A reversible reaction A⇌B reaches equilibrium when:

  • (1) Forward rate = Reverse rate
  • (2) All A is converted to B
  • (3) Temperature is zero
  • (4) Pressure is infinite

Question 69:

For a first order reaction, the starting material reduces to \(\dfrac{1}{4}\)th of its initial value after 20 min. The rate constant of the reaction will be: (Given \(\ln 4 = 1.38\))

  • (1) 0.069 min\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 1.3844 min\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 4.3465 min\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 2.1674 min\(^{-1}\)

Question 70:

If the formation of ammonia, shown below, is exothermic at 25°C, what will be the effect of increasing the system's temperature?

3H\(_2\)(g) + N\(_2\)(g) \(\leftrightarrow\) 2NH\(_3\)(g)

  • (1) The value of \(K\) will increase
  • (2) The value of \(K\) will decrease
  • (3) The equilibrium will shift to the right
  • (4) The [H\(_2\)] will decrease

Question 71:

Which model is commonly used to describe non-ideal flow with backmixing?

  • (1) Ideal PFR model
  • (2) Ideal CSTR model
  • (3) Axial Dispersion Model
  • (4) Batch reactor model

Question 72:

The Arrhenius equation describes the effect of .............. on reaction rate.

  • (1) Pressure
  • (2) Temperature
  • (3) Volume
  • (4) Catalyst

Question 73:

Which of the options correctly represents the Laplace inverse of \(\dfrac{2}{s^3}\)?

  • (1) \(t^2\)
  • (2) \(t^3\)
  • (3) \(t^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(t^{-3}\)

Question 74:

What type of controller is used for the control of flow of liquid from a pump?

  • (1) P controller
  • (2) PD controller
  • (3) PID controller
  • (4) PI controller

Question 75:

For a stable closed loop system, the gain at phase crossover frequency should always be:

  • (1) \(< 20\) dB
  • (2) \(< 6\) dB
  • (3) \(> 0\) dB
  • (4) \(> 6\) dB

Question 76:

Gain margin and phase margin are measures of:

  • (1) Process efficiency
  • (2) Steady-state error
  • (3) Controller cost
  • (4) Relative stability

Question 77:

Which control strategy is used to anticipate disturbances before they affect the process?

  • (1) Feedback control
  • (2) Feedforward control
  • (3) Cascade control
  • (4) On-off control

Question 78:

Dead time in a process refers to:

  • (1) Time taken to reach steady state
  • (2) Time delay between input change and output response
  • (3) Time constant of the system
  • (4) Time for the controller to react

Question 79:

In a heat exchanger, the primary controlled variable is often:

  • (1) Outlet temperature
  • (2) Inlet pressure
  • (3) Pump speed
  • (4) Pipe diameter

Question 80:

Which one of the following is not a type of actuator?

  • (1) Pneumatic
  • (2) Hydraulic
  • (3) Solenoid
  • (4) Ultrasonic

Question 81:

Which one of the following valves are best suitable for corrosive liquids?

  • (1) Diaphragm valve
  • (2) Rotary plug valve
  • (3) Ball valve
  • (4) Butterfly valve

Question 82:

For highly accurate incremental position measurement which one of the following systems is used?

  • (1) Ultrasonic devices
  • (2) Hall effect Sensors
  • (3) Microwave devices
  • (4) Light interference laser

Question 83:

The device that can change the format of a signal without changing the energy form is known as:

  • (1) Converters
  • (2) Transducers
  • (3) Actuators
  • (4) Controllers

Question 84:

Smallest change which a sensor can detect is ...............

  • (1) Resolution
  • (2) Accuracy
  • (3) Precision
  • (4) Scale

Question 85:

Which document provides detailed specifications for equipment and materials?

  • (1) Process Flow Diagram
  • (2) Piping and Instrumentation Diagram
  • (3) Material Safety Data Sheet
  • (4) Equipment datasheets

Question 86:

Which of the following is the first step in plant design?

  • (1) Detailed engineering
  • (2) Process synthesis
  • (3) Feasibility study
  • (4) Piping and instrumentation design

Question 87:

Which cost estimation method uses historical data from similar plants?

  • (1) Detailed itemized estimation
  • (2) Factored estimation
  • (3) Lang factor method
  • (4) Turnkey costing

Question 88:

Fixed costs in plant operations include:

  • (1) Raw materials
  • (2) Labor wages
  • (3) Depreciation and plant maintenance
  • (4) Utility costs

Question 89:

A pump has an installed cost of Rs. 40,000 and a 10-year estimated life. The salvage value of the pump is zero at the end of 10 years. The pump value (in rupees) after depreciation by the double declining balance method, at the end of 6 years is:

  • (1) 4295
  • (2) 10486
  • (3) 21257
  • (4) 37600

Question 90:

Due to a 20% drop in the product selling price, the pay-back period of a new plant increased to 1.5 times that estimated initially, the production cost and the production rate remaining unchanged. If the production cost is \(C_p\) and the new selling price is \(C_s\), then \(C_p/C_s\) is:

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) 0.5
  • (4) 0.6

Question 91:

Which of the following is a limitation of the payback period method?

  • (1) It considers the time value of money
  • (2) It ignores cash flows beyond the payback period
  • (3) It is difficult to calculate
  • (4) It always matches the IRR results

Question 92:

Profitability calculation method that includes time value of money is:

  • (1) Payback period
  • (2) Net return
  • (3) Rate of return on investment
  • (4) Net present worth

Question 93:

For a business if the net profit is 10 Lakhs and total capital investment is 5 crore rupees, then the return on investment in percentage will be:

  • (1) 5%
  • (2) 3%
  • (3) 2%
  • (4) 50%

Question 94:

A compressor design primarily depends on:

  • (1) Suction pressure
  • (2) Discharge pressure
  • (3) Pressure ratio
  • (4) Compressor size

Question 95:

Equipment costs generally follow the relation:

  • (1) Linear with size
  • (2) Power law with size
  • (3) Exponential with size
  • (4) Inversely with size

Question 96:

For a commercial fertilizer designated as 5-20-20 the numbers indicate what information about the composition?

  • (1) 5% K, 20% N, 20% P
  • (2) 5% N, 20% Na, 20% S
  • (3) 5% N, 20% P\(_2\)O\(_5\), 20% K\(_2\)O
  • (4) 5% K\(_2\)O, 20% N, 20% P\(_2\)O\(_5\)

Question 97:

Polythene is the polymer obtained during polymerization of

  • (1) Propylene
  • (2) Acetylene
  • (3) Methylene
  • (4) Ethylene

Question 98:

In the Haber process of ammonia preparation, the catalyst and the promoter are

  • (1) Reduced Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\) and Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) respectively
  • (2) Reduced Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\) and Mn\(_2\)O\(_3\) respectively
  • (3) Reduced Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) and Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\) respectively
  • (4) Reduced Mn\(_2\)O\(_3\) and Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) respectively

Question 99:

The Kraft process of chemical pulping involves a mixture of two chemicals in water which are?

  • (1) NaOH, and Na\(_2\)S
  • (2) NaOH, and NaCl
  • (3) NaCl, and Na\(_2\)S
  • (4) NaOH, and K\(_2\)S

Question 100:

LPG contains mostly:

  • (1) Methane, Ethane, and Propane
  • (2) Ethane, Propane, and Butane
  • (3) Propane, Butane, and Isobutene
  • (4) Methane

Question 101:

For which refractory material the thermal conductivity decreases with increasing temperature?

  • (1) Zirconia
  • (2) Silica
  • (3) Magnesite
  • (4) Alumina

Question 102:

Which of the following equipment has the maximum capital cost contribution in a chemical plant?

  • (1) Pumps
  • (2) Compressors
  • (3) Heat exchangers
  • (4) Reactors

Question 103:

Hydrogenation is the conversion of unsaturated acid groups into the saturated using ............... catalyst.

  • (1) Fe
  • (2) Zn
  • (3) Ti
  • (4) Ni

Question 104:

Which of the following is fully synthetic first produced fibre?

  • (1) Jute
  • (2) Acrylic
  • (3) Rayon
  • (4) Nylon

Question 105:

The term "circular economy" in chemical technology refers to:

  • (1) Linear production and disposal
  • (2) Increasing single-use plastics
  • (3) Maximizing waste generation
  • (4) Reusing and recycling materials

Question 106:

............... is not an intermediate distillate product in petroleum refining.

  • (1) Heavy fuel oils
  • (2) Diesel oils
  • (3) Lubricating oil
  • (4) Gas oil

Question 107:

The Ostwald process is used to produce:

  • (1) Nitric acid
  • (2) Sulfuric acid
  • (3) Hydrochloric acid
  • (4) Phosphoric acid

Question 108:

............... is the waste liquor from the Kraft pulping process after pulping is completed.

  • (1) White liquor
  • (2) Black liquor
  • (3) Brown liquor
  • (4) Red liquor

Question 109:

............... includes the largest fraction of petroleum crude.

  • (1) n-paraffin series
  • (2) Naphthene series
  • (3) Asphalts
  • (4) Isoparaffin series

Question 110:

............... act as a catalyst in anionic polymerisation.

  • (1) Grignard reagent
  • (2) Lewis acids
  • (3) Benzoyl peroxide
  • (4) AIBN

Question 111:

If the systems of equations \(3x - 2y + z = 0\), \(5x + ay + 15z = 0\), \(x + 2y - 3z = 0\) have non-zero solution, then \(a =\) ...............

  • (1) \(-2\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(-14\)
  • (4) \(14\)

Question 112:

If the matrix \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & -1 & 1
-1 & 5 & -1
1 & -1 & 3 \end{pmatrix}\) has three distinct eigenvalues and one of its eigenvectors is \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
0
-1 \end{pmatrix}\), then which of the following can be another eigenvector of \(A\)?

  • (1) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
    0
    1 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{pmatrix} -1
    0
    2 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
    1
    -1 \end{pmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{pmatrix} 1
    -2
    1 \end{pmatrix}\)

Question 113:

Let \(f(x) = x^3 - \dfrac{9}{2}x^2 + 6x - 2\) be a function defined on the closed interval \([0, 3]\). Then, the global maximum value of \(f(x)\) is ...............

  • (1) 4.5
  • (2) 0.5
  • (3) 2.5
  • (4) 3.0

Question 114:

If \(\vec{F}(x, y, z) = 3x^2y\,\hat{i} + 5y^2z\,\hat{j} - 8xyz\,\hat{k}\) is a continuously differentiable vector field, then the curl of \(\vec{F}\) at (1,1,1) is ...............

  • (1) \(-13\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}\)
  • (2) \(-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\)
  • (3) \(-13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}\)
  • (4) \(13\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 3\hat{k}\)

Question 115:

If \(\vec{F} = x(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)\hat{i} + 2y(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)\hat{j} + 3z(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)\hat{k}\), then \(div \, \vec{F}\) at \((1,1,1)\) is equal to ______

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 33

Question 116:

Consider the ordinary differential equation \[ x^2 \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - 2x \frac{dy}{dx} + 2y = 0 \]
with \( y(x) \) as a general solution. Given the values of \( y(1) = 1 \), \( y(2) = 5 \), the value of \( y(3) \) is equal to ______

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 15
  • (4) -15

Question 117:

If the Laplace transform of a function \( f(t) \) is given by \[ \frac{2s + 1}{(s + 1)(s + 2)} \]
then \( f(0) \) is equal to ______

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) -4
  • (4) \( 3e - 1 \)

Question 118:

Let \( z \) be a complex variable and \( C: |z| = 3 \) be a circle in the complex plane. Then, \[ \oint_C \frac{z^2}{(z - 1)^2(z + 2)} \, dz = \, ______ \]

  • (1) \( \pi i \)
  • (2) \( 2\pi i \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( \pi(2 + i) \)

Question 119:

The probability of a component being defective is 0.01. There are 100 such components in a machine. Then the probability of two or more defective components in the machine is ...........

  • (1) \( 1 - e^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 2e^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 1 - 2e^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( e^{-1} \)

Question 120:

The value of the integral \( \int_1^3 \frac{2}{x} \, dx \), when evaluated by using Simpson’s \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule on two equal subintervals each of length 1, is ...........

  • (1) 2.00
  • (2) 2.24
  • (3) 2.19
  • (4) 2.22

AP PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    1 mole of Argon gas is heated at constant pressure from 200 K to 600 K.
    If \( C_p = 4\ \text{cal} \cdot \text{deg}^{-1} \cdot \text{mol}^{-1} \), then the change in entropy will be:
    (Given \( \ln 3 = 1.09 \))

      • 4.36 Cal.deg$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$
      • 2.76 Cal.deg$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$
      • 3.34 Cal.deg$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$
      • 5.39 Cal.deg$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$

    • 2.
      For a first order reaction, the starting material reduces to \( \dfrac{1}{4} \) of its initial value after 20 min.
      The rate constant of the reaction will be: (Given \( \ln 4 = 1.38 \))

        • 0.069 min$^{-1}$
        • 1.3844 min$^{-1}$
        • 4.3465 min$^{-1}$
        • 2.1674 min$^{-1}$

      • 3.
        Which statement about entropy is incorrect?

          • Entropy is zero at 0 K (Third Law)
          • Entropy decreases in spontaneous adiabatic processes
          • Entropy production is irreversible
          • Entropy measures energy dispersal

        • 4.
          Suppose \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) are reflexive relations on a set \( A \). Which of the following statements is correct?

            • \( R_1 \cap R_2 \) is reflexive and \( R_1 \cup R_2 \) is irreflexive
            • \( R_1 \cap R_2 \) is irreflexive and \( R_1 \cup R_2 \) is reflexive
            • Both \( R_1 \cap R_2 \) and \( R_1 \cup R_2 \) are irreflexive
            • Both \( R_1 \cap R_2 \) and \( R_1 \cup R_2 \) are reflexive

          • 5.

            For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it is necessary that ……..

              • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( y_{21} = y_{12} \)

              • \( z_{11} = z_{22} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

              • \( h_{11} = -h_{12} \) and \( AD - BC = 0 \)

              • \( y_{12} = y_{21} \) and \( h_{21} = -h_{12} \)


            • 6.
              If the matrix \[ A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & -1 & 1 \\ -1 & 5 & -1 \\ 1 & -1 & 3 \end{pmatrix} \] has three distinct eigenvalues, and one of its eigenvectors is \[ \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}, \] then which of the following can be another eigenvector of \( A \)?

                • \( \begin{pmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \)
                • \( \begin{pmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 2 \end{pmatrix} \)
                • \( \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix} \)
                • \( \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -2 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \)

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