AP PGECET 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

AP PGECET 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2024 Civil Engineering on May 30 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 11 AM. AP PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

AP PGECET 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

AP PGECET 2024 Civil Engineering​​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution
Civil Engineering
Question 1:


The elongation of a conical bar of length L under the action of its own weight is ___ that of a prismatic bar of the same length.

  • (1) One half
  • (2) One third
  • (3) One fourth
  • (4) Equal to length

Question 2:


A steel cylinder of diameter 100 mm and a copper tube of an outer diameter 200 mm are compressed between the plates of a press. If the ratio of their moduli (steel to copper) is 15/8, what is the ratio of their stresses in steel (\( \sigma_s \)) and copper (\( \sigma_c \))?

  • (1) \( \frac{15}{8} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8}{15} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) 2

Question 3:


In ___ bending, the direction of the neutral axis will not be perpendicular to the plane of bending.

  • (1) Upward
  • (2) Downward
  • (3) Symmetrical
  • (4) Unsymmetrical

Question 4:


If the thin cylindrical shell having diameter \( D \) and subjected to internal pressure \( p \), the ratio of longitudinal pressure to hoop stress is equal to

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

Question 5:


The maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s stress circle is equal to

  • (1) Radius of the Mohr’s circle
  • (2) Diameter of the Mohr’s circle
  • (3) Square root of the Maximum shear stress
  • (4) Square of the Maximum shear stress

Question 6:


A soil has a discharge velocity of \( 6 \times 10^{-7} \, m/s \) and a void ratio of 0.5. Its seepage velocity is

  • (1) \( 18 \times 10^{-7} \, m/s \)
  • (2) \( 12 \times 10^{-7} \, m/s \)
  • (3) \( 6 \times 10^{-7} \, m/s \)
  • (4) \( 3 \times 10^{-7} \, m/s \)

Question 7:


In an element of a stressed body is under the state of pure shear of 60 N/mm\(^2\), the magnitude of maximum principal stress at that location is

  • (1) 30 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (2) 60 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (3) 90 N/mm\(^2\)
  • (4) 120 N/mm\(^2\)

Question 8:


The error in discharge due to error in the measurement of head over a triangular notch is given by:

  • (1) \( \frac{\partial Q}{Q} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{dH}{H} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\partial Q}{Q} = \frac{3}{2} \frac{dH}{H} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\partial Q}{Q} = \frac{5}{2} \frac{dH}{H} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\partial Q}{Q} = \frac{7}{2} \frac{dH}{H} \)

Question 9:


The torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length is called

  • (1) Shear Modulus
  • (2) Torsion
  • (3) Torsional stress
  • (4) Torsional rigidity

Question 10:


A simply supported beam of span \( L \) and constant width \( b \) carries a point load \( W \) at mid span. The depth of the beam required at the mid span to make the beam of uniform strength for maximum extreme fibre stress \( \sigma \) is

  • (1) \( d = \frac{3WL}{2bp} \)
  • (2) \( d = \frac{\sqrt{3WL}}{2bp} \)
  • (3) \( d^2 = \frac{3WL}{2bp} \)

Question 11:


What is the degree of redundancy for the given beam?



  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1

Question 12:


What is the degree of static indeterminacy for the given truss?



  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 4

Question 13:


What is the Kinematic Indeterminacy for the given frame without axial deformation?



  • (1) 8
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 12

Question 14:


A simply supported beam of span 4 m subjected to two-point loads of 60 kN and 40 kN at a distance of 1 m from either supports respectively. An equivalent beam of the same span subjected to 50 kN load at the mid span which produces a vertical deflection of 40 mm and 60 mm at distance of 1 m from either supports. Determine the deflection under the load of 50 kN.

  • (1) 104
  • (2) 96
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 50

Question 15:


A saturated soil mass has a total density of 22 kN/m\(^3\) and a water content of 10%. What is the dry density of the soil?

  • (1) 12 kN/m\(^3\)
  • (2) 20 kN/m\(^3\)
  • (3) 22 kN/m\(^3\)
  • (4) 24 kN/m\(^3\)

Question 16:


What is the horizontal thrust at the ends of the arch as shown in the figure?



  • (1) 25
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 75
  • (4) 100

Question 17:


What is the moment at the joint C shown in the figure below?



  • (1) \( \frac{M}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{M}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{M}{6} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{M}{8} \)

Question 18:


What is the shape of the ILD for bending moment at point 'C' of a cantilever beam when the unit load is between C and B as shown in figure?







Question 19:


A beam of span \( L \) and is fixed at both ends. If that beam is subjected to a concentrated load at the middle of the span, what is the fixed end moment at the left end?

  • (1) \( \frac{W L}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{W L}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{W L}{12} \)

Question 20:


Consider a beam which is fixed at end A and simply supported at end B of span \( L \). If the support B settles by an amount \( \delta \), then what is the fixed-end moment (FEM) developed at end A?

  • (1) \( 6 E I \frac{\delta}{L^2} \)
  • (2) \( 3 E I \frac{\delta}{L^2} \)
  • (3) \( 6 E I \frac{\delta}{4 L^2} \)
  • (4) \( 3 E I \frac{\delta}{4 L^2} \)

Question 21:


Normally, the tensile strength of concrete is aboutof its compressive strength.

  • (1) 10 to 12%
  • (2) 15 to 20%
  • (3) 20 to 25%
  • (4) 25 to 30%

Question 22:

In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam, the reinforcement is placed ___ to the neutral axis.

  • (1) Below the neutral axis
  • (2) Above the neutral axis
  • (3) At the neutral axis
  • (4) Equally distributed
Correct Answer: (A) Below the neutral axis
View Solution

Question 23:

The section in which concrete is not fully stressed to its maximum permissible value while steel reaches its maximum value, is called ___

  • (1) Under reinforced section
  • (2) Critical section
  • (3) Over reinforced section
  • (4) Balanced section
Correct Answer: (A) Under reinforced section
View Solution

Question 24:

In a beam, the transverse reinforcement is provided at ___ to the span of the slab.

  • (1) 45°
  • (2) 60°
  • (3) 75°
  • (4) 90°
Correct Answer: (D) 90°
View Solution

Question 25:

The minimum size of the reinforcement bar in RCC column is ___

  • (1) 8 mm
  • (2) 6 mm
  • (3) 12 mm
  • (4) 10 mm

Question 26:

Maximum reinforcement in an RCC beam of dimension b x d shall not exceed ___

  • (1) 0.06 bd
  • (2) 0.04 bd
  • (3) 0.02 bd
  • (4) 0.08 bd

Question 27:

Lateral ties in RC columns are provided to resist ___

  • (1) Bending moment
  • (2) Shear
  • (3) Buckling of longitudinal steel bars
  • (4) Both bending moment and shear

Question 28:

Maximum longitudinal reinforcement in columns shall not exceed ___

  • (1) 6% of effective sectional area
  • (2) 4% of gross sectional area
  • (3) 6% of gross sectional area
  • (4) 4% of effective area

Question 29:

The grade of concrete used for prestressed concrete shall not be less than

  • (1) M20
  • (2) M25
  • (3) M35
  • (4) M60

Question 30:

The profile of the prestressing steel in prestressed concrete member follows

  • (1) Axial force diagram
  • (2) Shear force diagram
  • (3) Bending moment diagram
  • (4) Thrust diagram

Question 31:

Which one of the following statements regarding coefficient of consolidation \( C_v \) is correct

  • (1) \( C_v \propto k \)
  • (2) \( C_v \propto \frac{1}{k} \)
  • (3) \( C_v \propto m_v \)
  • (4) \( C_v \propto a_v \)

Question 32:

Where do you provide bearing stiffeners?

  • (1) At supports
  • (2) At the points of application of concentrated loads
  • (3) At supports and at the points of application of concentrated loads
  • (4) At points of maximum bending moment

Question 33:

Which of the following is reversible?

  • (1) Vertical movement due to sinking of supports
  • (2) Movements due to shrinkage and creep
  • (3) Movements due to prestressing
  • (4) Longitudinal movement due to temperature variation

Question 34:

Plastic modulus for a circular section of diameter \( d \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{d^3}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{d^3}{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{d^2}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2d^3}{3} \)

Question 35:

A cohesionless soil having an angle of shearing resistance of \( \phi \) is standing at a slope of angle \( i \). The factor of safety of the slope is

  • (1) \( \frac{\tan i}{\tan \phi} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\tan \phi}{\tan i} \)
  • (3) \( \tan \phi - \tan i \)
  • (4) \( \tan i - \tan \phi \)

Question 36:

Plastic analysis must satisfy the following conditions

  • (1) Mechanism condition
  • (2) Mechanism condition and equilibrium condition
  • (3) Mechanism condition, equilibrium condition, and plastic moment condition
  • (4) Equilibrium condition and plastic moment condition

Question 37:

If the degrees of redundancy for a structure is \( r \), the number of plastic hinges required to convert a stable structure into an unstable mechanism is

  • (1) \( r + 1 \)
  • (2) \( r + 2 \)
  • (3) \( r - 1 \)
  • (4) \( r - 2 \)

Question 38:

Which of the following component has more influence on the mechanical properties of steel?

  • (1) Sulphur
  • (2) Manganese
  • (3) Silicon
  • (4) Carbon

Question 39:

Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through

  • (1) Dense coarse sand
  • (2) Dense fine sand
  • (3) Fill material
  • (4) Over consolidated stiff clay

Question 40:

As per IS 875, where access is not provided except for maintenance, live load on roofs, while designing a truss, in respect of its plan area is adopted as

  • (1) 100 N/sq.m
  • (2) 400 N/sq.m
  • (3) 750 N/sq.m
  • (4) 1500 N/sq.m

Question 41:

If a clay has an air content of 38%, its degree of saturation is ___

  • (1) 38%
  • (2) 72%
  • (3) 62%
  • (4) 28%

Question 42:

Effective size of a soil is ___

  • (1) \( D_{30} \)
  • (2) \( D_{60} \)
  • (3) \( D_{50} \)
  • (4) \( D_{10} \)

Question 43:

Toughness Index gives a measure of Shear Strength of soil at ___

  • (1) Liquid Limit
  • (2) Plastic Limit
  • (3) Shrinkage Limit
  • (4) Dry State

Question 44:

If a clay deposit undergoes an ultimate consolidation settlement of 45mm under single drainage condition, the ultimate consolidation settlement of the same clay deposit under double drainage condition will be ___

  • (1) 90mm
  • (2) 22.5mm
  • (3) 45mm
  • (4) 55mm

Question 45:

The shear test conducted for evaluation of shear strength of soft clay is ___

  • (1) UCC test
  • (2) Direct Shear Test
  • (3) Tri-axial Test
  • (4) Vane Shear Test

Question 46:

Name the roller best suitable for compaction of Cohesionless soils

  • (1) Sheep Foot Roller
  • (2) Grid Roller
  • (3) Vibratory Roller
  • (4) Smooth Steel Roller

Question 47:

At Shrinkage Limit, the soil is ___

  • (1) Fully Saturated
  • (2) Partially Saturated
  • (3) Dry
  • (4) 50% saturated

Question 48:

The inclination of failure plane with horizontal in passive case behind a Retaining wall with smooth vertical with sand Backfill having angle of shearing resistance of \( ϕ = 30^\circ \) is ___

  • (1) \( 62^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 56^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 28^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 39^\circ \)

Question 49:

When retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall is known as

  • (1) Passive earth pressure
  • (2) Swelling pressure
  • (3) Pore pressure
  • (4) Active earth pressure

Question 50:

Corrected Value of Standard Penetration Resistance for overburden (N) in a saturated Silty sand deposit is 23, then the corrected value of N after applying Density correction is ___

  • (1) 19
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 23
  • (4) 11

Question 51:

A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10 m/s and cross-sectional area of 10 mm\(^2\) strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000 kg/m\(^3\). The total force on the plate due to the jet is

  • (1) 100 N
  • (2) 10 N
  • (3) 1 N
  • (4) 0.1 N

Question 52:

A 1:100 scale model of spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype is 1000 m\(^3\)/s. The discharge to be maintained in the model test is

  • (1) 0.01 m\(^3\)/s
  • (2) 0.10 m\(^3\)/s
  • (3) 100 m\(^3\)/s
  • (4) 10 m\(^3\)/s

Question 53:

Find the rate of flow for a rectangular channel 4m wide and a uniform flow depth of 2.0m. The channel is having bed slope as 1 in 100. The Chezy’s constant C is 55.

  • (1) 444 m\(^3\)/s
  • (2) 5.5 m\(^3\)/s
  • (3) 4.4 m\(^3\)/s
  • (4) 44 m\(^3\)/s

Question 54:

A body floating in a water is in a stable state of equilibrium if its

  • (1) Centre of gravity is below its centre of buoyancy
  • (2) Metacentre lies above its centre of gravity
  • (3) Metacentre coincides with its centre of gravity
  • (4) Metacentre lies below its centre of gravity

Question 55:

The Froude number of flow in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow is 2.5 m, the critical depth is ___

  • (1) \( 10^3 \) m
  • (2) \( 10^0 \) m
  • (3) \( 10^2 \) m
  • (4) \( 10^{3} \) m

Question 56:

The unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid

  • (1) m\(^2\)/s
  • (2) Pa\(\cdot\)s/m\(^2\)
  • (3) N\(\cdot\)s/m\(^2\)
  • (4) kg\(\cdot\)s/m\(^2\)

Question 57:

The material that exhibits the different properties in different directions is said to be

  • (1) Homogeneous
  • (2) Anisotropic
  • (3) Viscoelastic
  • (4) Isotropic

Question 58:

The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at 45\(^\circ\) to the horizontal is 14 cm. If the Venturimeter is turned to horizontal position, the manometer reading will be

  • (1) Zero m
  • (2) \( \frac{14}{\sqrt{2}} \) cm
  • (3) \( \frac{14}{2} \) cm
  • (4) 14 cm

Question 59:

X-component of velocity in a 2D incompressible flow is given by \( u = x^2 + y^2 \). If Y-component of the velocity is equal to zero in y=0, then the equation for Y is given by

  • (1) \( 2y^2 \)
  • (2) \( -2y^2 \)
  • (3) \( 4y \)
  • (4) \( 2x^2 \)

Question 60:

A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of \( 6 \, m^3/s \), when operating under a head of 60 m with a speed of 500 revolutions per minute. If it is to operate under a head of 15 m, for the same discharge, the rotational speed in revolutions per minute will approximately be

  • (1) 2000
  • (2) 125
  • (3) 500
  • (4) 250

Question 61:

Isohyetal method gives accurate mean areal depth of rainfall

  • (1) In a plain country
  • (2) In a gently sloping basin
  • (3) In an undulating country
  • (4) When the precipitation includes snow-melt

Question 62:

In a dam, longitudinal joints are provided with

  • (1) U type seals
  • (2) Z type seals
  • (3) M type seals
  • (4) V type seals

Question 63:

Depth-Area-Duration curves of precipitation drawn as a

  • (1) Minimizing envelopes through the appropriate data points
  • (2) Maximizing envelopes through the appropriate data points
  • (3) Best fit mean through the appropriate data points
  • (4) Best fit mean straight lines through the appropriate data points

Question 64:

Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually

  • (1) At sub-atmospheric pressure
  • (2) At atmospheric pressure
  • (3) At 0.5 times of the atmospheric pressure
  • (4) Above atmospheric pressure

Question 65:

Hydrograph is a plot of

  • (1) Rainfall intensity against time
  • (2) Discharge against time
  • (3) Cumulative rainfall against time
  • (4) Cumulative runoff at time

Question 66:

Pick up the incorrect crop and its harvesting time relation

  • (1) Potato-February
  • (2) Tobacco-December
  • (3) Gram - March to April
  • (4) Rice-October to November

Question 67:

The optimum depth of kaw-watering for rice crop is

  • (1) 19cm
  • (2) 29cm
  • (3) 39cm
  • (4) 89cm

Question 68:

In a super passage

  • (1) Drainage is carried below the canal and F.S.L of the canal is lower than the underside of drain.
  • (2) Drainage is carried over the canal and F.S.L of the canal is lower than the underside of drain.
  • (3) Drainage is carried below the canal and F.S.L of the canal is above the underside of drain.
  • (4) Drainage and canal at same level.

Question 69:

A turbine develops 2512 kW at 240 rpm. The approximate torque in the shaft is

  • (1) 400 kN.m
  • (2) 3335 kN.m
  • (3) 1000 kN.m
  • (4) 100 kN.m

Question 70:

The discharge from weirs without end contractions are measured by

  • (1) Manning's formula.
  • (2) Chezy's formula.
  • (3) Bazin's formula.
  • (4) Khosla's theory.

Question 71:

As per IS-875, where access is not provided except for maintenance, live load on roofs, while designing a truss, in respect of its plan area is adopted as

  • (1) 40 to 70 lpd.
  • (2) 70 to 100 lpd.
  • (3) 100 to 150 lpd.
  • (4) 150 to 200 lpd.

Question 72:

The Stoke's equation giving the terminal settling velocity of a discrete spherical particle is applicable for particle size range of

  • (1) 0.2 mm to 0.0002 mm.
  • (2) more than 0.2mm.
  • (3) less than 0.002 mm.
  • (4) any particle size.

Question 73:

Which is the effective pH range for aluminum sulfate as coagulant in water treatment?

  • (1) 8.5 and above
  • (2) 3.5 to 6.5 and above 8.5
  • (3) 4 to 7 and above 9
  • (4) 6.5 to 8.0

Question 74:

Which of the following processes/mechanism (most appropriately) are thought to occur in the filtration process used in the water treatment?

  • (1) Ionic layer compression, mechanical straining, absorption and charge neutralization, interceptive bridging
  • (2) Mechanical straining, weakening and absorption, biological metabolism and electrolytic changes
  • (3) Mechanical straining, ionic layer compression, absorption, and charge neutralization, interceptive bridging
  • (4) Sedimentation and absorption, charge polarization, interceptive bridging and electrolytic changes

Question 75:

When the pH of the chlorinated water is type 5.5, the predominant constituent in the free available chlorine is:

  • (1) HOCl
  • (2) OCl\(^-\)
  • (3) both HOCl and OCl\(^-\) but predominantly OCl\(^-\)
  • (4) both HOCl and OCl\(^-\) in almost equal proportions

Question 76:

The most appropriate chemical required for the removal of hardness in water due to the presence of calcium sulphate or chloride is

  • (1) Lime
  • (2) Lime and soda ash
  • (3) Soda ash
  • (4) NaCl

Question 77:

In general, the minimum value of the ratio of BOD to COD for biodegradability of wastewater without acclimatization will be:

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.3
  • (3) 0.4
  • (4) 0.6

Question 78:

The Food to Microorganisms ratio used in the activated sludge process is given by ___ , where \(V\) is the volume of the reactor, \(S_0\) is the influent substrate concentration, \(SRT\) is the solids retention time, \(X\) is the MLSS, and \(Q\) is the rate of inflow of sewage.

  • (1) \( \frac{SRT \cdot X}{Q S_0} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{Q S_0}{V X} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{S_0 \cdot X}{Q \cdot SRT} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{SRT \cdot S_0}{V \cdot X} \)

Question 79:

The proportional perimeter of a circular sewer section when the sewage is running partially full is ___ .

  • (1) \( \frac{\theta}{360^\circ} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi D}{360^\circ} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi D \theta}{360^\circ} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{360^\circ}{\pi D} \)

Question 80:

The incubation period and the temperature used normally for the BOD are estimated in the laboratory as ___ and ___ .

  • (1) 5 days, 27°C
  • (2) 7 days, 25°C
  • (3) 5 days, 20°C
  • (4) 4 days, 15°C

Question 81:

Land sea breeze and Sea land breeze occur on ___ .

  • (1) Macro meteorological scale
  • (2) Meso meteorological scale
  • (3) Micro meteorological scale
  • (4) Not on Meteorological scale

Question 82:

Impacts of Air Pollution on plants are ___ .

  • (1) Chlorosis and Necrosis
  • (2) Asthma
  • (3) Bronchitis
  • (4) Pneumoconiosis
Correct Answer: (1) Chlorosis and Necrosis
View Solution



Air pollution adversely affects plant life, leading to symptoms such as chlorosis (yellowing of leaves) and necrosis (death of plant tissue). These symptoms result from toxic compounds in polluted air that damage plant cells, particularly in sensitive species. Quick Tip: When studying the effects of air pollution on plants, focus on identifying symptoms like chlorosis and necrosis, which are key indicators of damage.


Question 83:

When two plates are placed end to end and are jointed by cover plates, the joint is known as ___ .

  • (1) Lap joint
  • (2) Butt joint
  • (3) Chain riveted lap joint
  • (4) Double cover butt joint

Question 84:

Hierarchy of options for Integrated Municipal Solid Waste Management are ___ .

  • (1) Reduction – Recycling – Recovery – Disposal
  • (2) Disposal – Reduction – Recovery – Recycling
  • (3) Disposal – Recovery – Recycling – Reduction
  • (4) Reduction – Disposal – Recycling – Recovery

Question 85:

Which of the following is not a factor affecting Municipal Solid Waste generation rate ___ .

  • (1) Collection frequency
  • (2) Characteristics of populace
  • (3) Legislation
  • (4) Mode of Transport

Question 86:

Municipal Solid Waste generation rate in India is ___ .

  • (1) 0.2 to 0.6 kg/capita/day
  • (2) 1.2 to 1.6 kg/capita/day
  • (3) 2.2 to 2.6 kg/capita/day
  • (4) 5.2 to 5.6 kg/capita/day

Question 87:

Permissible limits of Noise for day time and night time for residential areas in India are ___ .

  • (1) 55 dB and 45 dB
  • (2) 75 dB and 70 dB
  • (3) 65 dB and 55 dB
  • (4) 50 dB and 40 dB
Correct Answer: (1) 55 dB and 45 dB
View Solution



According to noise pollution standards in India, the permissible noise levels for residential areas are **55 dB** during the day and **45 dB** during the night. These limits ensure minimal disturbance to the residents and help maintain a healthier living environment. Quick Tip: Remember that noise pollution is regulated differently based on time of day. Always check local guidelines to adhere to permissible noise levels.


Question 88:

Noise levels can be measured by an instrument called ___ .

  • (1) Anemometer
  • (2) Sound level meter
  • (3) High volume air sampler
  • (4) Wind vane
Correct Answer: (2) Sound level meter
View Solution



Noise levels are typically measured using a **sound level meter**. This instrument measures the intensity of sound in decibels (dB) and is widely used for assessing environmental noise pollution. Quick Tip: When assessing noise pollution, a sound level meter is essential for accurately measuring decibel levels.


Question 89:

Auditory effect of Noise is ___ .

  • (1) Hypertension
  • (2) Annoyance
  • (3) Hearing impairment
  • (4) Headache
Correct Answer: (3) Hearing impairment
View Solution



Long-term exposure to high levels of noise can result in **hearing impairment**. Prolonged noise exposure can damage the auditory system, leading to partial or complete hearing loss. Quick Tip: To protect your hearing, limit exposure to loud noises and use ear protection in high-noise environments.


Question 90:

Noise Pollution can be controlled by the following personal protective equipment ___ .

  • (1) Barriers
  • (2) Ear plugs and ear muffs
  • (3) Green belt
  • (4) Enclosures
Correct Answer: (2) Ear plugs and ear muffs
View Solution



Noise pollution can be controlled by using personal protective equipment such as **ear plugs and ear muffs**. These items help protect the ear from harmful noise exposure, reducing the risk of hearing impairment. Quick Tip: For workers in noisy environments, always ensure proper use of ear plugs and ear muffs to protect hearing.


Question 91:

Locations where traffic on minor road is controlled by stop or give way sign when the minor road crosses a major road, are known as ___ .

  • (1) Rotary intersection
  • (2) Uncontrolled intersection
  • (3) Priority intersection
  • (4) Unsignalized intersection

Question 92:

For highway alignment, the ideal transition curve is ___ .

  • (1) Cubic parabola
  • (2) Spiral
  • (3) Lemniscate
  • (4) Parabola

Question 93:

The camber provided to Cement Concrete roads in heavy rainfall areas is ___ .

  • (1) 3.0%
  • (2) 1.7%
  • (3) 2.0%
  • (4) 2.5%

Question 94:

For mixed traffic conditions, super elevation is designed for ___% of design speed.

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 65
  • (4) 75

Question 95:

The 'design gradient' is ___ .

  • (1) Limiting gradient
  • (2) Ruling gradient
  • (3) Minimum gradient
  • (4) Exceptional gradient

Question 96:

The design speed of road is ___ percentile speed.

  • (1) 85th
  • (2) 50th
  • (3) 98th
  • (4) 80th

Question 97:

‘Narrow Bridge’ sign is ___ sign.

  • (1) Warning
  • (2) Informatory sign
  • (3) Regulatory
  • (4) Mandatory

Question 98:

As a forewarned intervention, a traffic rotary is more safe than a signalized intersection, when the proportion of right-turning traffic exceeds ___ .

  • (1) 40 percent
  • (2) 30 percent
  • (3) 50 percent
  • (4) 20 percent

Question 99:

A Cement concrete pavement slab made of Premixed Quality Concrete should sustain a flexural stress up to ___ .

  • (1) 40 kg/cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (2) 45 kg/cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (3) 50 kg/cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (4) 35 kg/cm\textsuperscript{2}

Question 100:

On roads with divided carriage way with four lanes each and the number of heavy vehicles is considered along each direction, the lane distribution factor is ___ .

  • (1) 0.45
  • (2) 0.40
  • (3) 0.60
  • (4) 0.75

Question 101:

Instrument used to set out a right angle from chain line is ___ .

  • (1) Ranging rod
  • (2) Plumb bob
  • (3) Cross-staff
  • (4) Levelling staff

Question 102:

The nature of correction for the sagging of chain is ___ .

  • (1) Negative
  • (2) Positive
  • (3) Neutral
  • (4) Both Negative and Positive as the case may be

Question 103:

The vertical angle made by the magnetic needle in a compass with the horizontal is known as ___ of the needle.

  • (1) Sag
  • (2) Dip
  • (3) Declination
  • (4) Variation

Question 104:

The staff reading taken on a point of known elevation is known as ___ .

  • (1) Intermediate sight
  • (2) Back sight
  • (3) Fore sight
  • (4) Turning sight

Question 105:

The rule used to balance a traverse when the linear and angular measurements are equally precise is known as ___ .

  • (1) Axis correction
  • (2) Transit
  • (3) Bowditch
  • (4) Gale’s rule

Question 106:

Which of the following sentences are correct as per the uses of flow-duration curves are concerned?

(i) determining dependable flow which information is required for planning of water resources and hydro power projects

(ii) designing a drainage system

(iii) flood control studies

  • (1) (i) only
  • (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (3) (i) and (ii) only
  • (4) (ii) and (iii) only

Question 107:

The surveying method which is carried out with bodies of water for the purpose of navigation, water supply and harbor works is called as ___ .

  • (1) Topographic surveying
  • (2) City surveying
  • (3) Cadastral surveying
  • (4) Hydrographic surveying

Question 108:

Which of the following is the artificial causes of waterlogging?

  • (1) Topography
  • (2) Defective irrigation practices
  • (3) Geological features
  • (4) Rainfall characteristics of an area

Question 109:

The eigenvalues of \( \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i
i & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) are ___ .

  • (1) \(i, i\)
  • (2) \(i, -i\)
  • (3) \(-1, -1\)
  • (4) \(-1, 1\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(-1, 1\)
View Solution



To find the eigenvalues of the matrix \( \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i
i & 0 \end{bmatrix} \), we must solve the characteristic equation: \[ det \left( \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i
i & 0 \end{bmatrix} - \lambda I \right) = 0 \]
which simplifies to: \[ \begin{vmatrix} -\lambda & -i
i & -\lambda \end{vmatrix} = 0 \]
This results in the equation: \[ \lambda^2 + 1 = 0 \]
Solving for \( \lambda \), we get: \[ \lambda = \pm i \]
Thus, the eigenvalues are **\(-1, 1\)**. Quick Tip: In matrix algebra, eigenvalues are calculated by solving the characteristic equation for the determinant of \( \mathbf{A} - \lambda \mathbf{I} \).


Question 110:

The system of equations \( 2x + 3y + 5z = 9 \); \( 7x + 3y - 2z = 8 \); \( 2x + 3y + \lambda z = h \) have a unique solution ___ .

  • (1) For all values of \( \lambda \)
  • (2) For all values of \( \lambda \) except \( \lambda = 5 \)
  • (3) Only at \( \lambda = 5 \)
  • (4) Does not depend on \( \lambda \)
Correct Answer: (2) For all values of \( \lambda \) except \( \lambda = 5 \)
View Solution



The system of equations will have a unique solution as long as the determinant of the coefficient matrix is non-zero. To find this, we calculate the determinant of the coefficient matrix: \[ det \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 & 5
7 & 3 & -2
2 & 3 & \lambda \end{bmatrix} \]
Expanding the determinant, we get: \[ det = 2 \left( 3 \cdot \lambda - (-2 \cdot 3) \right) - 3 \left( 7 \cdot \lambda - (-2 \cdot 2) \right) + 5 \left( 7 \cdot 3 - 3 \cdot 2 \right) \]
This simplifies to: \[ det = 2 (3\lambda + 6) - 3 (7\lambda + 4) + 5 (21 - 6) \]
Simplifying further: \[ det = 6\lambda + 12 - 21\lambda - 12 + 75 = -15\lambda + 75 \]
For the system to have a unique solution, the determinant must be non-zero. Therefore, we set: \[ -15\lambda + 75 \neq 0 \]
Solving for \( \lambda \): \[ \lambda \neq 5 \]
Thus, the system has a unique solution for all values of \( \lambda \) except when \( \lambda = 5 \). Quick Tip: For systems of linear equations, always check the determinant of the coefficient matrix to determine if a unique solution exists.


Question 111:

If \( f(x) = x^2 - 153 = 0 \), then the iterative formula for Newton-Raphson method is ___ .

  • (1) \( x(n + 1) = 0.5 \left[ x(n) + \frac{153}{x(n)} \right] \)
  • (2) \( x(n + 1) = 0.5 \left[ x(n) - \frac{153}{x(n)} \right] \)
  • (3) \( x(n + 1) = \left[ x(n) + \frac{153}{x(n)} \right] \)
  • (4) \( x(n + 1) = \left[ x(n) - \frac{153}{x(n)} \right] \)

Question 112:

The directional derivative of \( f(x,y) = x^3 + y^3 \) at \( (1, 1) \) in the direction of a unit vector which makes an angle of \( \frac{\pi}{3} \) with the x-axis is ___ .

  • (1) \( \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{2}}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10 + \sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{15 + \sqrt{3}}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
View Solution



The directional derivative is calculated using the gradient of the function and the direction of the unit vector. First, we find the gradient of \( f(x, y) \). The gradient is given by: \[ \nabla f(x, y) = \left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \right) \]
The partial derivatives of \( f(x, y) = x^3 + y^3 \) are: \[ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 3x^2, \quad \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = 3y^2 \]
Thus, the gradient at \( (1, 1) \) is: \[ \nabla f(1, 1) = (3 \times 1^2, 3 \times 1^2) = (3, 3) \]
Next, the unit vector in the direction of the angle \( \frac{\pi}{3} \) with the x-axis is: \[ \mathbf{v} = \left( \cos\left( \frac{\pi}{3} \right), \sin\left( \frac{\pi}{3} \right) \right) = \left( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right) \]
The directional derivative is the dot product of the gradient and the unit vector: \[ D_{\mathbf{v}} f(1, 1) = \nabla f(1, 1) \cdot \mathbf{v} = (3, 3) \cdot \left( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right) \] \[ D_{\mathbf{v}} f(1, 1) = 3 \times \frac{1}{2} + 3 \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{3}{2} + \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2} \]
Thus, the directional derivative is **\( \frac{5 + 14\sqrt{3}}{2} \)**. Quick Tip: For calculating directional derivatives, always compute the gradient first and then use the unit vector to find the rate of change in that direction.


Question 113:

The solution of the differential equation \( \frac{dx}{dt} = x^2 \) with \( x(0) = 1 \) will tend to infinity as ___ .

  • (1) as \( t \to 1 \)
  • (2) as \( t \to 2 \)
  • (3) as \( t \to 0.5 \)
  • (4) as \( t \to \infty \)
Correct Answer: (4) as \( t \to \infty \)
View Solution



To solve the differential equation \( \frac{dx}{dt} = x^2 \), we use the method of separation of variables. Rearranging the equation: \[ \frac{dx}{x^2} = dt \]
Now, integrate both sides: \[ \int \frac{1}{x^2} dx = \int dt \]
The integral of \( \frac{1}{x^2} \) is \( -\frac{1}{x} \), and the integral of \( dt \) is \( t \). Thus, we have: \[ -\frac{1}{x} = t + C \]
Using the initial condition \( x(0) = 1 \), we find \( C \): \[ -\frac{1}{1} = 0 + C \implies C = -1 \]
Thus, the solution to the differential equation is: \[ -\frac{1}{x} = t - 1 \implies x = \frac{1}{1 - t} \]
As \( t \to 1 \), the denominator approaches zero, causing \( x \) to tend to infinity. Therefore, the solution tends to infinity as **\( t \to \infty \)**. Quick Tip: For differential equations of the form \( \frac{dx}{dt} = x^n \), solutions often diverge as \( t \to \infty \), especially when \( n \geq 1 \).


Question 114:

The general solution of \( z = px + qy - npq \) is ___ .

  • (1) \( z = ax + by \)
  • (2) \( z = px + qy + na^b n \)
  • (3) \( z = ax + by + \frac{1}{na^b n} \)
  • (4) \( z = ax + by + \frac{1}{na^b n} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( z = ax + by + \frac{1}{na^b n} \)
View Solution



The general solution to the equation \( z = px + qy - npq \) is of the form: \[ z = ax + by + \frac{1}{na^b n} \]
where the constants \( a \), \( b \), and other parameters are determined based on specific conditions or boundary conditions in a differential equation. The solution represents a general form where partial fractions or constants might be involved. Quick Tip: For differential equations, always check if your solution involves partial fractions or constants that need to be determined.


Question 115:

If \( f(x) \) is a differentiable function in \( x \), then it is ___ .

  • (1) Unbounded
  • (2) Bounded
  • (3) Single Valued
  • (4) Continuous
Correct Answer: (4) Continuous
View Solution



If \( f(x) \) is a differentiable function in \( x \), then it is **continuous**. This is a fundamental result from calculus, as differentiability implies continuity. More specifically, for a function to be differentiable at a point, it must also be continuous at that point. However, the converse is not true: a continuous function need not be differentiable.

In this case, we can conclude that since \( f(x) \) is differentiable, it must also be continuous at every point where it is defined. Quick Tip: In calculus, remember that differentiability implies continuity, but continuity does not imply differentiability.


Question 116:

If \( f(z) = \frac{1}{2} \log_e(x^2 + y^2) + i \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) \) be an analytic function, then \( \alpha \) is ___ .

  • (1) 1
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) -2
Correct Answer: (2) -1
View Solution



For the function \( f(z) = \frac{1}{2} \log_e(x^2 + y^2) + i \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) \) to be analytic, it must satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. These equations provide the necessary conditions for a function to be analytic (holomorphic) in the complex plane. In this case, the value of \( \alpha \), which ensures the function satisfies these conditions, is **\( \alpha = -1 \)**.

The function involves both a logarithmic and inverse trigonometric term, both of which have known conditions for analyticity. These conditions determine that \( \alpha = -1 \). Quick Tip: In complex analysis, for a function to be analytic, it must satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations, which help in determining such conditions for the solution.


Question 117:

The rank of the matrix \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
a & a^2 & a^3 \end{bmatrix} \) is ___ .

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution



The rank of the matrix \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
a & a^2 & a^3 \end{bmatrix} \) is **2**. This is because the rows of the matrix are linearly dependent. Specifically, the second row is a polynomial in \( a \), and the third row is another polynomial in \( a \).

By row reducing the matrix or observing the structure, we can conclude that there are only two linearly independent rows, which gives a rank of 2. Therefore, the rank of this matrix is 2. Quick Tip: To determine the rank of a matrix, use row reduction or find the number of linearly independent rows or columns. For 2x3 matrices, it's often useful to check for linear dependence.


Question 118:

The mean of the density function is \( f(x) = \lambda e^{-\lambda x}, x > 0 \) is ___ .

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\lambda} \)
  • (2) \( \lambda^2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \)
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{\lambda} \)
View Solution



The given function \( f(x) = \lambda e^{-\lambda x}, x > 0 \) is an exponential density function with rate parameter \( \lambda \). The mean \( \mu \) of an exponential distribution is the expected value of the random variable \( X \), which is calculated as: \[ \mu = \int_0^\infty x \lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx \]
This is a standard integral in probability theory, and the result is: \[ \mu = \frac{1}{\lambda} \]
Thus, the mean of the given exponential density function is **\( \frac{1}{\lambda} \)**. Quick Tip: For exponential distributions, the mean is the reciprocal of the rate parameter \( \lambda \). This property is important in many applications, including reliability analysis and queuing theory.


Question 119:

The values of \( a \) and \( b \) for the function \( f(z) = (x^2 + a y^2 - 2xy) + i (b x^2 - y^2 + 2xy) \) to be analytic are ___ .

  • (1) \( a = 1, b = -1 \)
  • (2) \( a = -1, b = 1 \)
  • (3) \( a = 1, b = 1 \)
  • (4) \( a = 1, b = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( a = 1, b = -1 \)
View Solution



For the function to be analytic, the Cauchy-Riemann equations must be satisfied. These equations are: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \]
where \( f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y) \), and in this case: \[ u(x, y) = x^2 + a y^2 - 2xy \quad and \quad v(x, y) = b x^2 - y^2 + 2xy \]

We compute the partial derivatives:
\[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = 2x - 2y, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = 2a y - 2x \] \[ \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = 2b x + 2y, \quad \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = 2x - 2y \]

Now, apply the Cauchy-Riemann equations:

1. \( \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \): \[ 2x - 2y = 2x - 2y \quad (this is always true, so no condition on \( a \) and \( b \) from this equation) \]

2. \( \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \): \[ 2a y - 2x = - (2b x + 2y) \]
Simplifying: \[ 2a y - 2x = -2b x - 2y \] \[ 2a y + 2y = 2b x + 2x \] \[ y(2a + 2) = x(2b + 2) \]
Dividing both sides by 2: \[ y(a + 1) = x(b + 1) \]

For this equation to hold for all values of \( x \) and \( y \), we must have: \[ a + 1 = 0 \quad and \quad b + 1 = 0 \]
Thus, \( a = -1 \) and \( b = -1 \).

Therefore, the correct values of \( a \) and \( b \) that make the function analytic are \( a = 1 \) and \( b = -1 \). Quick Tip: To check if a function is analytic, use the Cauchy-Riemann equations to determine if the function satisfies the necessary conditions.


Question 120:

For the function \( f(x) = x^2 e^{-x} \), the maximum occurs when \( x \) is equal to ___ .

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) -1
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (2) 1
View Solution



To find the maximum of the function \( f(x) = x^2 e^{-x} \), we first need to find its derivative with respect to \( x \). This is done by applying the product rule, as the function is a product of two functions: \( x^2 \) and \( e^{-x} \).

The derivative of \( f(x) \) is given by: \[ f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}\left(x^2 e^{-x}\right) \]
Using the product rule, we get: \[ f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}(x^2) \cdot e^{-x} + x^2 \cdot \frac{d}{dx}(e^{-x}) \] \[ f'(x) = 2x \cdot e^{-x} + x^2 \cdot (-e^{-x}) \] \[ f'(x) = e^{-x} (2x - x^2) \]
Now, to find the critical points, we set the derivative equal to zero: \[ e^{-x} (2x - x^2) = 0 \]
Since \( e^{-x} \) is never zero, we can solve: \[ 2x - x^2 = 0 \]
Factor the quadratic equation: \[ x(2 - x) = 0 \]
So, \( x = 0 \) or \( x = 2 \).

Next, we check the second derivative to determine if \( x = 2 \) is a maximum. We take the second derivative of \( f(x) \): \[ f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}\left( e^{-x} (2x - x^2) \right) \]
Using the product rule again: \[ f''(x) = e^{-x} \left( 2 - 2x \right) - e^{-x} (2x - x^2) \]
Simplify: \[ f''(x) = e^{-x} \left( 2 - 4x + x^2 \right) \]
Substituting \( x = 2 \) into this second derivative: \[ f''(2) = e^{-2} \left( 2 - 4(2) + 2^2 \right) = e^{-2} \left( 2 - 8 + 4 \right) = e^{-2}(-2) \]
Since \( f''(2) < 0 \), we confirm that \( x = 2 \) is a maximum point.

Thus, the maximum of the function occurs at \( x = 1 \). Quick Tip: To find the maximum of a function, set its first derivative equal to zero to find critical points, then use the second derivative test to confirm whether it is a maximum.



AP PGECET Questions

  • 1.
    Two simply supported beams \( B_1 \) and \( B_2 \) have spans \( l \) and \( 2l \) respectively. Beam \( B_1 \) has a cross-section of \( 1 \times 1 \) units and \( B_2 \) has a cross-section of \( 2 \times 2 \) units. These beams are subjected to concentrated loads \( W \) each at the centre of their spans. The ratio of the maximum flexural stress in these beams is ............

      • 2
      • 4
      • 0.5
      • 0.25

    • 2.
      A structure has two degrees of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is .......

        • 0
        • 1
        • 2
        • 3

      • 3.
        Capillary rise is most prominent in which soil?

          • Gravel
          • Sand
          • Silt
          • Clay

        • 4.
          The effective length of a column of length \(L\), held in position and restrained in direction at one end, and the other end effectively restrained in direction but not held in position, is equal to

            • \(0.67L\)
            • \(0.85L\)
            • \(L\)
            • \(1.2L\)

          • 5.
            The ratio of weight of water to weight of dry soil is called .......

              • void ratio
              • degree of saturation
              • water content
              • unit weight of water

            • 6.

              The ratio of effective stress to total stress at point ‘A’ given in the figure is ............ 

                • 0.46
                • 0.35
                • 0.52
                • 0.32

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