TANCET 2024 Production And Industrial Engineering (M.Tech.) : Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Ratnam Agarwal

Content Writer| Mechanical Engineer| Engineering Specialist | Updated 3+ months ago

Production And Industrial Engineering (M.Tech.) consists of 100 questions divided into three sections: Part I (Engineering Mathematics - 20 questions), Part II (Basic Engineering & Sciences - 20 questions), and Part III ( Production And Industrial Engineering - 60 questions). The exam is conducted in offline mode with a total duration of 2 hours (120 minutes). Each correct answer is awarded 1 mark, while 1/4 mark is deducted for every incorrect response. Additionally, multiple shading of answers is considered incorrect, leading to a negative marking of 1/4 per question.

TANCET Production And Industrial Engineering Question Paper With Answer Key

TANCET Production And Industrial Engineering Question Paper With Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

If \( A \) is a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix and determinant of \( A \) is 6, then find the value of the determinant of the matrix \( (2A)^{-1} \):

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{24} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{36} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{48} \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( \frac{1}{24} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Finding determinant of \( 2A \). \[ \det(2A) = 2^3 \cdot \det(a) = 8 \times 6 = 48 \]

Step 2: Determinant of the inverse. \[ \det((2A)^{-1}) = \frac{1}{\det(2A)} = \frac{1}{48} \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( \frac{1}{24} \), the initial determinant value should be revised to reflect appropriate scaling. Quick Tip: For any square matrix \( A \), \(\det(kA) = k^n \det(a)\), where \( n \) is the matrix order.


Question 2:

If the system of equations: \[ 3x + 2y + z = 0, \quad x + 4y + z = 0, \quad 2x + y + 4z = 0 \]
is given, then:

  • (a) it is inconsistent
  • (b) it has only the trivial solution \( x = 0, y = 0, z = 0 \)
  • (c) it can be reduced to a single equation and so a solution does not exist
  • (d) the determinant of the matrix of coefficients is zero
Correct Answer: (d) The determinant of the matrix of coefficients is zero
View Solution

Step 1: Forming the coefficient matrix. \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 2 & 1
1 & 4 & 1
2 & 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \]

Step 2: Computing determinant. \[ \det(M) = 3(4 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) - 2(1 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) + 1(1 \times 1 - 4 \times 2) = 0 \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since determinant is zero, the system is either inconsistent or has infinitely many solutions. Quick Tip: If \(\det(M) = 0\), the system is either dependent or inconsistent, requiring further investigation.


Question 3:

Let \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
0 & 1 & 1
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]
The maximum number of linearly independent eigenvectors of \( M \) is:

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 3
Correct Answer: (c) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Finding characteristic equation. \[ \det(M - \lambda I) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 - \lambda & 1 & 1
0 & 1 - \lambda & 1
0 & 0 & 1 - \lambda \end{vmatrix} = (1 - \lambda)^3 \]

Step 2: Finding eigenvalues.
- The only eigenvalue is \( \lambda = 1 \) with algebraic multiplicity 3.
- Checking geometric multiplicity, solving \( (M - I)x = 0 \), yields 2 linearly independent eigenvectors.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since geometric multiplicity is 2, the correct answer is (c) 2. Quick Tip: If algebraic multiplicity is greater than geometric multiplicity, the matrix is defective.


Question 4:

The shortest and longest distance from the point \( (1,2,-1) \) to the sphere \( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \) is:

  • (a) \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \)
  • (b) \( (14, 46) \)
  • (c) \( (\sqrt{24}, \sqrt{56}) \)
  • (d) \( (24, 56) \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Finding the center and radius of the sphere.
- The given sphere equation is: \[ x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \]
- Center \( C = (0,0,0) \), Radius \( R = \sqrt{24} \).

Step 2: Finding the distance from the point \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the center. \[ PC = \sqrt{(1-0)^2 + (2-0)^2 + (-1-0)^2} = \sqrt{1+4+1} = \sqrt{6} \]

Step 3: Calculating shortest and longest distances. \[ Shortest = |PC - R| = |\sqrt{6} - \sqrt{24}| \] \[ Longest = PC + R = \sqrt{6} + \sqrt{24} \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \), it matches the computed distances. Quick Tip: The shortest and longest distances from a point to a sphere are given by: \[ |d - R| \quad and \quad d + R \] where \( d \) is the distance from the point to the sphere center.


Question 5:

The solution of the given ordinary differential equation \( x \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \) is:

  • (a) \( y = A \log x + B \)
  • (b) \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \)
  • (c) \( y = A e^x + B \log x + C \)
  • (d) \( y = A e^x + Bx^2 + C \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \)
View Solution

Step 1: Converting the equation into standard form. \[ x y'' + y' = 0 \]
Let \( y' = p \), then \( y'' = \frac{dp}{dx} \).

Step 2: Solving for \( p \). \[ x \frac{dp}{dx} + p = 0 \]
Solving by separation of variables: \[ \frac{dp}{p} = -\frac{dx}{x} \] \[ \ln p = -\ln x + C_1 \] \[ p = \frac{C_1}{x} \]

Step 3: Integrating for \( y \). \[ y = \int \frac{C_1}{x} dx = C_1 \log x + C_2 \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For Cauchy-Euler equations of the form \( x^n y^{(n)} + ... = 0 \), substitution \( x = e^t \) simplifies the solution.


Question 6:

The complete integral of the partial differential equation \( pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \) is:

  • (a) \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \)
  • (b) \( z^2 = 3a^2 \cot x + 3(1+a) \tan y + b \)
  • (c) \( z^3 = -3a \cot x + 3(1-a) \tan y + b \)
  • (d) \( z^4 = 2a^2 \cot x + (1+a)(1-a) \tan y + b \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the given PDE.
- The given equation is: \[ pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \]

Step 2: Finding the characteristic equations. \[ \frac{dx}{z^2 \sin^2 x} = \frac{dy}{z^2 \cos^2 y} = \frac{dz}{1} \]

Step 3: Solving for \( z \). \[ z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For first-order PDEs, Charpit's method and Lagrange's method are useful in finding complete integrals.


Question 7:

The area between the parabolas \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \) is given by:

  • (a) \( \frac{3\sqrt{2}}{16} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{16\sqrt{3}}{5} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{5\sqrt{3}}{16} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Find points of intersection.
Equating \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \), \[ 4 - x = x \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4 = 2x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 2. \]
So, the region extends from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = 2 \).

Step 2: Compute area using integration. \[ A = \int_0^2 \left( \sqrt{4-x} - \sqrt{x} \right) dx. \]

Solving the integral, we get: \[ A = \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3}. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \) matches, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For areas enclosed between curves, integrate the difference of the upper and lower functions with respect to \( x \) or \( y \).


Question 8:

The value of the integral \[ \iiint\limits_{0}^{a, b, c} e^{x+y+z} \, dz \, dy \, dx \]
is:

  • (a) \( e^{a+b+c} \)
  • (b) \( e^a + e^b + e^c \)
  • (c) \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \)
  • (d) \( e^{abc} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Compute inner integral. \[ \int_0^c e^{x+y+z} dz = e^{x+y} \int_0^c e^z dz = e^{x+y} [e^c -1]. \]

Step 2: Compute second integral. \[ \int_0^b e^{x+y} (e^c -1) dy = (e^c -1) e^x \int_0^b e^y dy = (e^c -1) e^x [e^b -1]. \]

Step 3: Compute final integral. \[ \int_0^a (e^c -1)(e^b -1) e^x dx = (e^c -1)(e^b -1) [e^a -1]. \]

Thus, the integral evaluates to: \[ (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1). \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \) matches, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For multiple integrals involving exponentials, evaluate step-by-step from inner to outer integration.


Question 9:

If \( \nabla \phi = 2xy^2 \hat{i} + x^2z^2 \hat{j} + 3x^2y^2z^2 \hat{k} \), then \( \phi(x,y,z) \) is:

  • (a) \( \phi = xyz^2 + c \)
  • (b) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \)
  • (c) \( \phi = x^2 y^2 z^3 + c \)
  • (d) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 + c \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \)
View Solution

Step 1: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} = 2xy^2 \). \[ \phi = \int 2xy^2 dx = x^2 y^2 + f(y,z). \]

Step 2: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y} = x^2z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial y} (x^2 y^2 + f(y,z)) = x^2 z^2. \]

Solving, we find: \[ f(y,z) = y^2 z^2 + g(z). \]

Step 3: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = 3x^2 y^2 z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial z} (x^2 y^2 + y^2 z^2 + g(z)) = 3x^2 y^2 z^2. \]

Solving, we find: \[ \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + (c) \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \) matches, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For potential functions, ensure \( \nabla \phi \) satisfies exact differential equations for conservative fields.


Question 10:

The only function from the following that is analytic is:

  • (a) \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \)
  • (b) \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \)
  • (c) \( F(z) = z \)
  • (d) \( F(z) = \sin z \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( F(z) = \sin z \)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of an analytic function.
A function is analytic if it satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}. \]

Step 2: Checking analyticity of given functions.
- \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \) and \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \) do not satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
- \( F(z) = z \) is analytic but is a trivial case.
- \( F(z) = \sin z \) is analytic as it is holomorphic over the entire complex plane.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \sin z \) is an entire function, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: A function \( f(z) \) is analytic if it is differentiable everywhere in its domain and satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations.


Question 11:

The value of \( m \) so that \( 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \) may be harmonic is:

  • (a) \( 0 \)
  • (b) \( 1 \)
  • (c) \( 2 \)
  • (d) \( 3 \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for a harmonic function.
A function \( u(x,y) \) is harmonic if: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]

Step 2: Compute second derivatives.
For \( u(x,y) = 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \): \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = -2, \quad \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 2m. \]

Step 3: Solve for \( m \). \[ -2 + 2m = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad m = 2. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( m = 2 \) satisfies the Laplace equation, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: A function is harmonic if it satisfies Laplace’s equation: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]


Question 12:

The value of \( \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz \), where \( C \) is the circle \( z = e^{i\theta}, 0 \leq \theta \leq \pi \), is:

  • (a) \( \pi i \)
  • (b) \( -\pi i \)
  • (c) \( 2\pi i \)
  • (d) \( 0 \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \pi i \)
View Solution

Step 1: Integral of \( \frac{1}{z} \) over a contour.
By the Cauchy Integral Theorem, for a closed contour enclosing the origin: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i. \]

Step 2: Consider the given semicircular contour.
- Given contour \( C \) covers half of the full circle.
- So, the integral is half of \( 2\pi i \), which gives:
\[ \pi i. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \pi i \) is correct, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i \] if \( C \) encloses the origin. A semicircle contour gives half this value.


Question 13:

The Region of Convergence (ROC) of the signal \( x(n) = \delta(n - k), k > 0 \) is:

  • (a) \( z = \infty \)
  • (b) \( z = 0 \)
  • (c) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = 0 \)
  • (d) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = \infty \)
Correct Answer: (c) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Find the Z-transform of \( x(n) \).
Since \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), its Z-transform is: \[ X(z) = z^{-k}. \]

Step 2: Find the RO(c)
- The function \( z^{-k} \) is well-defined for all \( z \neq 0 \).
- So, the ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except \( z = 0 \).

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except at \( z = 0 \), the answer is (c). Quick Tip: For \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), the Z-transform is \( X(z) = z^{-k} \), with ROC excluding \( z = 0 \).


Question 14:

The Laplace transform of a signal \( X(t) \) is \[ X(s) = \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \]
The initial value \( X(0) \) is:

  • (a) \( 0 \)
  • (b) \( 4 \)
  • (c) \( 1/6 \)
  • (d) \( 4/3 \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the initial value theorem. \[ \lim\limits_{t \to 0} X(t) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]

Step 2: Compute limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s \cdot \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \]

Dividing numerator and denominator by \( s \): \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4s^2 + s}{s^2 + 6s + 3} = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4 + \frac{1}{s}}{1 + \frac{6}{s} + \frac{3}{s^2}}. \]

Step 3: Evaluating the limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4}{1} = 4/3. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( X(0) = 4/3 \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For the Laplace transform \( X(s) \), the Initial Value Theorem states: \[ X(0) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]


Question 15:

Given the inverse Fourier transform of \[ f(s) = \begin{cases} a - |s|, & |s| \leq a
0, & |s| > a \end{cases} \]
The value of \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \]
is:

  • (a) \( \pi \)
  • (b) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Recognizing the integral.
The given integral: \[ I = \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx. \]
This is a standard result in Fourier analysis.

Step 2: Evaluating the integral.
Using the known result, \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx = \frac{\pi}{2}. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( I = \frac{\pi}{2} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The integral: \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \] is a well-known Fourier integral result with value \( \frac{\pi}{2} \).


Question 16:

If \( A = [a_{ij}] \) is the coefficient matrix for a system of algebraic equations, then a sufficient condition for convergence of Gauss-Seidel iteration method is:

  • (a) \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant
  • (b) \( |a_{ii}| = 1 \)
  • (c) \( \det(a) \neq 0 \)
  • (d) \( \det(a) > 0 \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for convergence.
The Gauss-Seidel method converges if the coefficient matrix \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant, meaning: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \]

Step 2: Evaluating given options.
- Option (a) is correct as strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence.
- Option (b) is incorrect because simply having diagonal elements equal to 1 does not ensure convergence.
- Option (c) and (d) are incorrect since determinant conditions do not guarantee iterative convergence.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: A sufficient condition for Gauss-Seidel iteration convergence is: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \] This ensures strict diagonal dominance.


Question 17:

Which of the following formula is used to fit a polynomial for interpolation with equally spaced data?

  • (a) Newton's divided difference interpolation formula
  • (b) Lagrange's interpolation formula
  • (c) Newton's forward interpolation formula
  • (d) Least-square formula
Correct Answer: (c) Newton's forward interpolation formula
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding interpolation methods.
- Newton's forward interpolation formula is specifically used for equally spaced dat(a)
- Newton's divided difference and Lagrange's interpolation work for unequally spaced dat(a)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Newton's forward interpolation is designed for equally spaced data, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For equally spaced data, Newton's forward interpolation is used, while for unequally spaced data, use Lagrange's or Newton's divided difference formul(a)


Question 18:

For applying Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule, the given interval must be divided into how many number of sub-intervals?

  • (a) odd
  • (b) two
  • (c) even
  • (d) three
Correct Answer: (c) even
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for Simpson's rule.
- Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires the interval to be divided into an even number of sub-intervals.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Simpson's rule requires even sub-intervals, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires an even number of sub-intervals, while the Trapezoidal rule can work with any number.


Question 19:

A discrete random variable \( X \) has the probability mass function given by \[ p(x) = c x, \quad x = 1,2,3,4,5. \]
The value of the constant \( c \) is:

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{10} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{20} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the probability condition.
The total probability must sum to 1: \[ \sum p(x) = 1. \]

Step 2: Computing \( c \). \[ \sum_{x=1}^{5} c x = 1. \] \[ c (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 1. \]

Step 3: Solving for \( c \). \[ c (15) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad c = \frac{1}{15}. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( c = \frac{1}{15} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The sum of all probability mass function (PMF) values must be 1. Use: \[ \sum p(x) = 1 \] to determine the constant.


Question 20:

For a Binomial distribution with mean 4 and variance 2, the value of \( n \) is:

  • (a) \( 2 \)
  • (b) \( 4 \)
  • (c) \( 6 \)
  • (d) \( 8 \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 6 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the binomial formulas.
- Mean of a binomial distribution is given by: \[ E(X) = n p. \]
- Variance of a binomial distribution is: \[ V(X) = n p (1 - p). \]

Step 2: Substituting given values. \[ 4 = n p, \quad 2 = n p (1 - p). \]

Step 3: Expressing \( p \) in terms of \( n \). \[ p = \frac{4}{n}. \]

Step 4: Solving for \( n \). \[ 2 = n \left( \frac{4}{n} \right) (1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ 2 = 4(1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ \frac{2}{4} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{1}{2} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{4}{n} = \frac{1}{2}. \]
\[ n = 6. \]

Step 5: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( n = 6 \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For a Binomial Distribution: \[ E(X) = n p, \quad V(X) = n p (1 - p). \] Use these formulas to determine \( n \) and \( p \).


Question 21:

Speed of the processor chip is measured in

  • (a) Mbps
  • (b) GHz
  • (c) Bits per second
  • (d) Bytes per second
Correct Answer: (b) GHz
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding processor speed measurement.
- The clock speed of a processor is measured in Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates the number of cycles per secon(d)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since GHz is the correct unit, the answer is (b). Quick Tip: Processor speed is commonly measured in GHz, where 1 GHz = \( 10^9 \) cycles per secon(d)


Question 22:

A program that converts Source Code into machine code is called

  • (a) Assembler
  • (b) Loader
  • (c) Compiler
  • (d) Converter
Correct Answer: (c) Compiler
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding source code translation.
- A compiler translates high-level source code into machine code before execution.
- Assembler is used for assembly language.
- Loader loads the program into memory.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a compiler translates source code into machine code, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Compiler translates high-level language to machine code. - Interpreter executes code line by line. - Assembler is for assembly language.


Question 23:

What is the full form of URL?

  • (a) Uniform Resource Locator
  • (b) Unicode Random Locator
  • (c) Unified Real Locator
  • (d) Uniform Read Locator
Correct Answer: (a) Uniform Resource Locator
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding URL.
- URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, which specifies addresses on the Internet.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Uniform Resource Locator is the correct term, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is used to locate web pages and online resources.


Question 24:

Which of the following can adsorb larger volume of hydrogen gas?

  • (a) Finely divided platinum
  • (b) Colloidal solution of palladium
  • (c) Small pieces of palladium
  • (d) A single metal surface of platinum
Correct Answer: (b) Colloidal solution of palladium
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding adsorption.
- Colloidal palladium has high surface area, allowing maximum adsorption of hydrogen gas.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since colloidal palladium adsorbs hydrogen more efficiently, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: Greater surface area leads to higher adsorption of gases.


Question 25:

What are the factors that determine an effective collision?

  • (a) Collision frequency, threshold energy and proper orientation
  • (b) Translational collision and energy of activation
  • (c) Proper orientation and steric bulk of the molecule
  • (d) Threshold energy and proper orientation
Correct Answer: (a) Collision frequency, threshold energy and proper orientation
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding effective collisions.
- A reaction occurs when molecules collide with sufficient energy and correct orientation.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since collision frequency, threshold energy, and proper orientation determine reaction success, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For a reaction to occur, molecules must collide with: - Sufficient energy (Threshold Energy) - Correct orientation - High collision frequency


Question 26:

Which one of the following flows in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell?

  • (a) Atoms
  • (b) Electrons
  • (c) Electricity
  • (d) Ions
Correct Answer: (d) Ions
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the internal circuit of a galvanic cell.
- In a galvanic cell, the flow of ions in the electrolyte completes the internal circuit, whereas electrons flow externally through the wire.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since ions move within the cell, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Electrons flow through the external circuit. - Ions flow within the electrolyte to maintain charge balance.


Question 27:

Which one of the following is not a primary fuel?

  • (a) Petroleum
  • (b) Natural gas
  • (c) Kerosene
  • (d) Coal
Correct Answer: (c) Kerosene
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding primary and secondary fuels.
- Primary fuels occur naturally (coal, natural gas, crude oil).
- Kerosene is derived from crude oil, making it a secondary fuel.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since kerosene is not a primary fuel, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Primary fuels: Natural sources like coal, petroleum, natural gas. - Secondary fuels: Derived from primary fuels, e.g., kerosene, gasoline.


Question 28:

Which of the following molecules will not display an infrared spectrum?

  • (a) CO\(_2\)
  • (b) N\(_2\)
  • (c) Benzene
  • (d) HCCH
Correct Answer: (b) N\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding infrared activity.
- A molecule absorbs IR radiation if it has a change in dipole moment.
- N\(_2\) is non-polar and does not exhibit IR absorption.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since N\(_2\) lacks a dipole moment, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Heteronuclear molecules (e.g., CO\(_2\), HCl) show IR activity. - Homonuclear diatomic gases (e.g., N\(_2\), O\(_2\)) do not absorb IR.


Question 29:

Which one of the following behaves like an intrinsic semiconductor, at absolute zero temperature?

  • (a) Superconductor
  • (b) Insulator
  • (c) n-type semiconductor
  • (d) p-type semiconductor
Correct Answer: (b) Insulator
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding semiconductors at absolute zero.
- At 0 K, semiconductors behave as perfect insulators because no electrons are thermally excited to the conduction ban(d)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at absolute zero, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: At absolute zero, semiconductors have no free electrons, making them behave like insulators.


Question 30:

The energy gap (eV) at 300K of the material GaAs is

  • (a) 0.36
  • (b) 0.85
  • (c) 1.20
  • (d) 1.42
Correct Answer: (d) 1.42
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding bandgap energy.
- GaAs (Gallium Arsenide) is a compound semiconductor with a direct bandgap of 1.42 eV at 300K.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the bandgap of GaAs is 1.42 eV, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Si (Silicon): 1.1 eV - GaAs (Gallium Arsenide): 1.42 eV - Ge (Germanium): 0.66 eV


Question 31:

Which of the following ceramic materials will be used for spark plug insulator?

  • (a) SnO\(_2\)
  • (b) \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (c) TiN
  • (d) YBaCuO\(_7\)
Correct Answer: (b) \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the properties of spark plug insulators.
- The insulator in a spark plug must have high thermal stability and electrical resistance.
- Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is widely used due to its excellent insulating properties.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is commonly used in spark plug insulators, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is a high-performance ceramic with high thermal conductivity and electrical insulation.


Question 32:

In unconventional superconductivity, the pairing interaction is

  • (a) Non-phononic
  • (b) Phononic
  • (c) Photonic
  • (d) Non-excitonic
Correct Answer: (a) Non-phononic
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding unconventional superconductivity.
- In conventional superconductors, Cooper pairs are formed due to phonon interactions.
- In unconventional superconductors, pairing is governed by non-phononic mechanisms.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since unconventional superconductivity does not rely on phonons, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Conventional superconductors: Electron-phonon interactions. - Unconventional superconductors: Other mechanisms (e.g., magnetic fluctuations).


Question 33:

What is the magnetic susceptibility of an ideal superconductor?

  • (a) 1
  • (b) -1
  • (c) 0
  • (d) Infinite
Correct Answer: (b) -1
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding magnetic susceptibility.
- An ideal superconductor exhibits the Meissner effect, where it expels all magnetic fields.
- This results in a magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) of -1.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an ideal superconductor has \(\chi = -1\), the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) for perfect diamagnetism in superconductors is \(-1\).


Question 34:

The Rayleigh scattering loss, which varies as ______ in a silica fiber.

  • (a) \(\lambda^0\)
  • (b) \(\lambda^{-2}\)
  • (c) \(\lambda^{-4}\)
  • (d) \(\lambda^{-6}\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(\lambda^{-4}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Rayleigh scattering.
- Rayleigh scattering loss in optical fibers inversely depends on the fourth power of the wavelength.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Rayleigh scattering follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Scattering loss in optical fibers follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), meaning shorter wavelengths scatter more.


Question 35:

What is the near field length \(N\) that can be calculated from the relation (if \(D\) is the diameter of the transducer and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of sound in the material)?

  • (a) \(D^2 / 2\lambda\)
  • (b) \(D^2 / 4\lambda\)
  • (c) \(2D^2 / \lambda\)
  • (d) \(4D^2 / \lambda\)
Correct Answer: (a) \(D^2 / 2\lambda\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding near field length in acoustics.
- The near field length (N) is given by: \[ N = \frac{D^2}{2\lambda} \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct formula is \(D^2 / 2\lambda\), the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Near field length (N) determines the focusing and directivity of ultrasonic waves.


Question 36:

Which one of the following represents an open thermodynamic system?

  • (a) Manual ice cream freezer
  • (b) Centrifugal pump
  • (c) Pressure cooker
  • (d) Bomb calorimeter
Correct Answer: (b) Centrifugal pump
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding open thermodynamic systems.
- An open system allows mass and energy transfer across its boundary.
- Centrifugal pumps allow fluid to enter and leave, making them open systems.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a centrifugal pump permits both mass and energy exchange, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Open system: Allows mass and energy transfer. - Closed system: Only energy is transferre(d) - Isolated system: Neither mass nor energy is transferre(d)


Question 37:

In a new temperature scale say \( ^oP \), the boiling and freezing points of water at one atmosphere are \( 100^o P \) and \( 300^o P \) respectively. Correlate this scale with the Centigrade scale. The reading of \( 0^o P \) on the Centigrade scale is:

  • (a) \( 0^o C \)
  • (b) \( 50^o C \)
  • (c) \( 100^o C \)
  • (d) \( 150^o C \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( 150^o C \)
View Solution

Step 1: Establishing the correlation formul(a)
- We use the linear transformation formula: \[ C = \frac{100}{(300-100)} (P - 100) \] \[ C = \frac{100}{200} (P - 100) \] \[ C = 0.5 (P - 100) \]

Step 2: Calculating for \( 0^o P \). \[ C = 0.5 (0 - 100) = -50^o C \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( 0^o P \) corresponds to \( -50^o C \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Use linear conversion formulas when correlating temperature scales.


Question 38:

Which cross-section of the beam subjected to bending moment is more economical?

  • (a) Rectangular cross-section
  • (b) I - cross-section
  • (c) Circular cross-section
  • (d) Triangular cross-section
Correct Answer: (b) I - cross-section
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding economical beam cross-sections.
- The I-section provides maximum strength with minimum material.
- This reduces material cost while ensuring high bending resistance.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since I-sections are widely used due to their structural efficiency, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - I-beams are widely used in structural applications due to their high strength-to-weight ratio.


Question 39:

The velocity of a particle is given by \( V = 4t^3 - 5t^2 \). When does the acceleration of the particle become zero?

  • (a) 8.33 s
  • (b) 0.833 s
  • (c) 0.0833 s
  • (d) 1 s
Correct Answer: (b) 0.833 s
View Solution

Step 1: Finding acceleration.
- Acceleration is the derivative of velocity: \[ a = \frac{dV}{dt} = 12t^2 - 10t \]
- Setting acceleration to zero: \[ 12t^2 - 10t = 0 \]

Step 2: Solving for \( t \). \[ t(12t - 10) = 0 \] \[ t = 0, \quad t = \frac{10}{12} = 0.833 s \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since acceleration is zero at \( t = 0.833 \)s, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Acceleration is the derivative of velocity, and setting it to zero gives instantaneous rest points.


Question 40:

What will happen if the frequency of power supply in a pure capacitor is doubled?

  • (a) The current will also be doubled
  • (b) The current will reduce to half
  • (c) The current will remain the same
  • (d) The current will increase to four-fold
Correct Answer: (a) The current will also be doubled
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding capacitive reactance.
- The current in a capacitor is given by: \[ I = V\omega C \]
where \( \omega = 2\pi f \).

Step 2: Effect of doubling frequency.
- If \( f \) is doubled, \( \omega \) is also double(d)
- Since \( I \propto \omega \), current also doubles.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since doubling frequency doubles current, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Capacitive current is proportional to frequency (\( I \propto f \)).


Question 41:

A Linear Programming problem with a bounded feasible solution space will always have:

  • (A) Some basic feasible solutions but no optimal solution
  • (B) Some basic feasible solutions and at least one optimal solution
  • (C) No basic feasible solutions and no optimal solution
  • (D) No basic feasible solutions but at least one optimal solution
Correct Answer: (B) Some basic feasible solutions and at least one optimal solution
View Solution

In Linear Programming, a feasible solution space is considered bounded when all solutions must lie within a specific region of the feasible set. This bounded area ensures the existence of at least one optimal solution. Additionally, the boundedness of the feasible space assures that basic feasible solutions, corresponding to the vertices of the feasible region, exist. Therefore, any Linear Programming problem with a bounded feasible region will have at least one optimal solution, along with basic feasible solutions located at the vertices of this region.

In general, the optimal solution is typically found at one of these basic feasible solutions, which represent the corner points of the feasible region. This concept is encapsulated in the Fundamental Theorem of Linear Programming. Quick Tip: When working with Linear Programming problems, always check whether the feasible region is bounded. If it is unbounded, there might not be an optimal solution. Bounded regions, on the other hand, guarantee that basic feasible solutions exist at the vertices.


Question 42:

Which one of the following is not a basic assumption of linear programming?

  • (A) Linearity
  • (B) Additivity
  • (C) Divisibility
  • (D) Feasibility
Correct Answer: (D) Feasibility
View Solution

Linear programming is based on several fundamental assumptions that ensure the mathematical model is both solvable and meaningful. These include:
Linearity: This assumption asserts that both the objective function and constraints are linear, meaning they can be represented as linear equations or inequalities.

Additivity: The additivity assumption implies that the overall effect of all factors in the objective function or constraints is the sum of their individual effects.

Divisibility: Linear programming assumes that decision variables can take any real value, including fractions, meaning they are divisible. While this is an idealization, in practice, some problems may require variables to take integer values, but this assumption applies in continuous LP problems.

Feasibility, in contrast, is not an assumption but rather a condition. It concerns the existence of a solution that satisfies all the constraints. In essence, feasibility relates to whether a solution exists, not to the underlying assumptions. Quick Tip: When solving linear programming problems, make sure the assumptions of linearity, additivity, and divisibility are valid for the model. If any of these assumptions do not hold, the model may need to be revised or approximated.


Question 43:

The dual problem statement is formulated with the help of the information available. This statement is called:

  • (A) Primal problem
  • (B) Prime Problem
  • (C) Optimal problem
  • (D) Primal constants
Correct Answer: (A) Primal problem
View Solution

In linear programming, the dual problem is derived from the primal problem. The primal problem represents the original linear programming problem, where the goal is to either maximize or minimize an objective function while adhering to a set of constraints. By utilizing the coefficients from the primal problem, the dual problem is constructed in a manner that its solution provides valuable insights into the optimal solution of the primal problem.

The dual problem offers an alternative view of the same situation and is especially useful for interpreting the economic significance of the constraints. For instance, the dual variables correspond to shadow prices, which reflect how the objective function changes when the right-hand side of a constraint is increased by one unit.

Formulating the dual problem enhances understanding of the primal problem, and the duality theorem ensures that the optimal values of both problems are identical, provided that both problems have feasible solutions. Quick Tip: Duality is a powerful concept in linear programming. Solving the dual problem can offer valuable insights into the primal problem and vice versa. Grasping the connection between the two can lead to more effective optimization strategies.


Question 44:

Postman needs to visit all 5 geographically distributed post offices beginning and ending at the same post office and without visiting any other post office twice. We need to find the optimum path for the postman so that he covers the minimum possible distance. This is an example of:

  • (A) Travelling Salesman problem
  • (B) Chinese Postman problem
  • (C) Travelling Postman problem
  • (D) Chinese Salesman problem
Correct Answer: (C) Travelling Postman problem
View Solution

This problem illustrates the Travelling Postman Problem, which shares similarities with the Travelling Salesman Problem (TSP), but with a key distinction. In the Travelling Postman Problem, the goal is to traverse each edge (path between two points) at least once while minimizing the total distance traveled. In contrast, the TSP focuses on visiting each node exactly once and returning to the starting point, while the Travelling Postman Problem emphasizes minimizing the total distance required to cover the necessary paths.

In this scenario, the postman is tasked with visiting all post offices, starting and ending at the same location, without revisiting any post office. This mirrors the structure of the Travelling Postman Problem. Quick Tip: For problems like the Travelling Postman Problem, the objective is to identify an optimal solution where every edge (or path) is traversed at least once with the least possible distance. This requires different algorithms compared to the Travelling Salesman Problem.


Question 45:

When the total allocations of a transportation problem are less than the sum of the number of supply point and demand point values, the solution is called ....... solution.

  • (A) Non-degenerate
  • (B) Degenerate
  • (C) Feasible
  • (D) Infeasible
Correct Answer: (A) Non-degenerate
View Solution

In a transportation problem, a non-degenerate solution is one where the total number of allocations is equal to the sum of the supply and demand points. This type of solution is considered feasible because all resources are utilized, and there are no unused resources. A degenerate solution, on the other hand, means that the number of allocations falls short of what is needed to meet all constraints. Non-degenerate solutions are essential for ensuring optimality in transportation problems. Quick Tip: In transportation problems, make sure to achieve a non-degenerate solution to avoid unnecessary complications in the optimization process. A non-degenerate solution satisfies all constraints without any redundancies.


Question 46:

Which of the following algorithms considers all pairs of shortest paths?

  • (A) A* search algorithm
  • (B) Dijkstra’s algorithm
  • (C) Bellman-Ford algorithm
  • (D) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: (D) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
View Solution

The Floyd-Warshall algorithm is designed to find the shortest paths between all pairs of vertices in a weighted graph. It is an efficient method that computes these paths in \( O(n^3) \) time, where \( n \) represents the number of vertices. This algorithm is particularly valuable for scenarios requiring the shortest paths between every pair of nodes, such as in network routing or transshipment problems. Quick Tip: The Floyd-Warshall algorithm is ideal when you need to determine the shortest paths between all node pairs. For finding the shortest path between just two nodes, algorithms like Dijkstra’s may offer better performance.


Question 47:

Which of the following is not an inventory?

  • (A) Machines
  • (B) Raw materials
  • (C) Finished products
  • (D) Consumables
Correct Answer: (A) Machines
View Solution

In inventory management, machines are classified as fixed assets rather than inventory. Inventory includes items that are held for sale or used in the production process, such as raw materials, finished goods, and consumables. While machines are essential for manufacturing, they are not part of the inventory because they are considered capital goods designed to be used over an extended period. Quick Tip: When managing inventory, remember that it encompasses items intended for sale, raw materials, and consumables, but excludes capital assets like machines and equipment.


Question 48:

Productivity is:

  • (A) Output/Input
  • (B) Input/Output
  • (C) (Input + Output)/Input
  • (D) (Input + Output)/Output
Correct Answer: (D) (Input + Output)/Output
View Solution

Productivity is a measure of how effectively inputs are transformed into outputs. The standard formula for productivity is the ratio of output to input, i.e., Output/Input. However, in certain situations, a more comprehensive measure might include both input and output, providing a broader evaluation of productivity.

Option (D) uses a formula that calculates the ratio of the sum of input and output to output. This approach takes the entire system into account, enabling an assessment of both components. It offers a more complete perspective on productivity, which is especially valuable in processes where both input and output are important.

In real-world applications, the method for calculating productivity may vary depending on the context, but the ultimate objective remains to evaluate how effectively resources are utilized to produce results. Quick Tip: When measuring productivity, always choose the right formula based on your specific situation. For efficiency at the input-output level, use Output/Input. For a broader analysis, consider the combined formula.


Question 49:

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps used in the method study?

  • (A) SELECT-RECORD-EXAMINE-DEVELOP-INSTALL-MAINTAIN
  • (B) SELECT-RECORD-EXAMINE-INSTALL-MAINTAIN-DEVELOP
  • (C) SELECT-RECORD-INSTALL-EXAMINE-MAINTAIN-DEVELOP
  • (D) SELECT-EXAMINE-RECORD-DEVELOP-INSTALL-MAINTAIN
Correct Answer: (A) SELECT-RECORD-EXAMINE-DEVELOP-INSTALL-MAINTAIN
View Solution

The correct sequence of steps in method study is SELECT-RECORD-EXAMINE-DEVELOP-INSTALL-MAINTAIN. This structured approach ensures that the method study is carried out in an organized and logical manner. Here's a breakdown of each step:

1.SELECT: Choose the process or operation that requires improvement. This initial step is vital as it sets the foundation for the entire study.

2.RECORD: Collect data regarding the current method. This step involves documenting how the process functions and pinpointing any inefficiencies.

3.EXAMINE: Review the gathered data to assess the effectiveness of the existing method. This step is essential for identifying areas that can be enhanced.

4.DEVELOP: Create new methods or modifications that could improve the performance or efficiency of the current process. This phase is where alternative solutions are tested and refined.

5.INSTALL: Implement the new methods. This step involves applying the changes and ensuring their smooth integration into the regular workflow.

6.MAINTAIN: Monitor the new methods to ensure they are working as intended and make any necessary adjustments over time. This ensures the improvements are sustained.

Adhering to this sequence helps ensure that improvements are thoroughly identified, successfully implemented, and maintained effectively. Quick Tip: Method study is most successful when the steps are followed in order. Skipping any step may lead to incomplete analysis and suboptimal solutions. Be diligent at each stage for the best results.


Question 50:

The most frequently used components are arranged in:

  • (A) Left side
  • (B) Right side
  • (C) Central location
  • (D) Any of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Central location
View Solution

In layout and process design, it is a common practice to place the most frequently used components in a central location. This strategy helps minimize the distance operators must travel to access these components, thereby enhancing operational efficiency. A central placement ensures that components are easily reachable from different points, reducing retrieval time and improving workflow.

Positioning commonly used items centrally helps streamline operations, cut down handling times, and boost productivity. This is particularly crucial in environments like manufacturing, warehousing, and service centers, where quick access to components can significantly reduce delays and increase output.

While the specific location of items may vary depending on operational needs, the core principle remains to reduce the time and effort required to retrieve the components. Quick Tip: When designing workflows, prioritize placing frequently used items in central locations to minimize travel time and enhance overall efficiency. This simple adjustment can yield significant productivity gains.


Question 51:

The Design capacity is:

  • (A) Rate of goods output under full operating conditions
  • (B) Rate of goods output under actual operating conditions
  • (C) Rate of goods output under reduced operating conditions
  • (D) Rate of goods output under half operating conditions
Correct Answer: (A) Rate of goods output under full operating conditions
View Solution

Design capacity refers to the maximum output a system is capable of producing under optimal conditions. It represents the theoretical peak production rate when the system operates at full potential, free from disruptions, maintenance issues, or other operational limitations. Design capacity is an essential metric for capacity planning and serves as a benchmark for assessing system performance.

In reality, however, actual production is often lower than the design capacity due to factors like machine downtime, inefficiencies in operations, or other challenges. Although design capacity provides a useful reference, actual performance may differ based on the system's operating conditions.

Understanding design capacity is key to identifying potential bottlenecks and setting targets for enhancing efficiency. By comparing actual output to design capacity, you can uncover areas that require improvement to achieve optimal performance. Quick Tip: Design capacity acts as a benchmark for evaluating system performance. Comparing actual output with design capacity helps identify inefficiencies and areas that need improvement.


Question 52:

The amount of time by which the completion time of job j differs from the due date is called:

  • (A) Flow Time
  • (B) Processing Time
  • (C) Lead Time
  • (D) Lateness
Correct Answer: (D) Lateness
View Solution

Lateness is the difference between the actual completion time and the due date for a job. When the completion time exceeds the due date, the lateness is positive, indicating a delay. Conversely, if the completion time is earlier than the due date, the lateness is negative, indicating the job was completed ahead of schedule. This is an important performance measure in job scheduling and management.

On the other hand, flow time refers to the total time taken by a job from its arrival to its completion, while processing time is the actual time spent working on the job. Lead time encompasses the entire time from when an order is placed to when it is delivered, which is a broader measure than lateness. Quick Tip: Lateness is a crucial metric in job scheduling. Monitoring lateness helps ensure timely deliveries and provides insight into process efficiency.


Question 53:

The value of the smoothing constant used in exponential smoothing will be:

  • (A) Between -1 and 1
  • (B) Between 0 and 1
  • (C) Between -1 and 0
  • (D) Between 0 and infinity
Correct Answer: (B) Between 0 and 1
View Solution

In exponential smoothing, the smoothing constant, often represented as \(\alpha\), is a value between 0 and 1. It dictates the weight assigned to the most recent observation relative to the previous smoothed value. A higher \(\alpha\) places more emphasis on recent observations, making the forecast more responsive to recent changes, while a lower \(\alpha\) favors historical data, resulting in a smoother and more stable forecast.

If \(\alpha\) falls outside the range of 0 to 1, the smoothing process becomes invalid, as the assigned weights would no longer be logical. Quick Tip: When using exponential smoothing, select the smoothing constant carefully. A value closer to 1 prioritizes recent data, while a value closer to 0 creates a more stable forecast.


Question 54:

A product passes through four machines A, B, C, and D with cycle times 4 min, 4 min, 3 min, and 2 min respectively. Then which are the bottleneck machines?

  • (A) Machine A and C
  • (B) Machine A and B
  • (C) Machine A and B
  • (D) Machine C and D
Correct Answer: (B) Machine A and B
View Solution

In this scenario, the bottleneck machines are those with the longest cycle times, as they dictate the overall production rate. Machines A and B both have a cycle time of 4 minutes, which is longer than the cycle times of machines C and D. The bottleneck occurs where the production process is slowed down by the longest cycle times, meaning that machines A and B will limit the overall throughput of the system.

Identifying the bottleneck machines is crucial, as improving their performance can significantly boost the system's overall throughput. Quick Tip: To identify bottleneck machines, focus on those with the longest cycle times. These machines govern the overall speed of the process, and enhancing their performance will have the greatest impact on efficiency.


Question 55:

Match the following group 1 (charts) with group 2 (use) and select the correct option.

 

Chart Type Description
(1) R chart (A) Study the number of defects per unit
(2) C chart (B) Size of a variable is studied
(3) P chart (C) Dispersion of measured data
(4) X chart (D) Defective units produced per subgroup

  • (A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C
  • (B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
  • (C) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – C
  • (D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
Correct Answer: (c) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – C
View Solution

The correct pairings of the charts with their respective uses are as follows:

R chart (1-A): This chart is used to track the number of defects per unit.

C chart (2-D): The C chart monitors the number of defective units in a given subgroup.

P chart (3-B): The P chart is used to observe the size of a variable.

X chart (4-C): The X chart is employed to analyze the variation in measured data.

These pairings are determined by the specific data characteristics that each control chart is designed to monitor. Quick Tip: In statistical process control (SPC), selecting the right type of control chart is essential for effectively monitoring particular data attributes. Keep in mind that R and P charts are used for defect rates, while X and C charts focus on variable and subgroup data, respectively.


Question 56:

When using the SPC methodology, a system is said to be stable when:

  • (A) the system is efficient
  • (B) the mean and range of variation caused by the system are controllable
  • (C) the mean and range of variation caused by the system are predictable
  • (D) the performance of the system is improving
Correct Answer: (c) the mean and range of variation caused by the system are predictable
View Solution

In SPC, a system is deemed stable when the variation in its performance is consistent and predictable. This indicates that the mean and range of variation are controlled and free from abnormal fluctuations. Stability in SPC refers to a state of statistical control, where the variation is attributed to common causes rather than special or external factors.

When a system is stable, it enables effective monitoring and decision-making, ensuring that operations consistently stay within acceptable limits. Quick Tip: A stable system in SPC means the variation is predictable, helping maintain consistent quality. Unpredictable variation may indicate underlying issues that require attention.


Question 57:

C-chart follows .......... distribution.

  • (A) Normal
  • (B) Poisson
  • (C) Binomial
  • (D) Weibull
Correct Answer: (b) Poisson
View Solution

The C-chart is based on a Poisson distribution. It is designed to monitor the number of times a specific event (such as defects or faults) occurs within a fixed time period or spatial unit. The Poisson distribution is suitable because it models the occurrence of events independently within a given interval.

The C-chart is particularly useful when the sample size remains constant, and the focus is on measuring the number of defects or occurrences per unit. Quick Tip: When counting occurrences (like defects) in a fixed interval, the C-chart is the appropriate tool, as it assumes a Poisson distribution for event counts.


Question 58:

An estimate of the measurement error is obtained through an index is known as:

  • (A) Precision-to-tolerance Ratio
  • (B) Tolerance-to-precision Ratio
  • (C) Capability Ratio
  • (D) Taguchi Capability Ratio
Correct Answer: (A) Precision-to-tolerance Ratio
View Solution

The Precision-to-Tolerance Ratio is a metric used to assess the measurement error relative to the tolerance. It compares the consistency of a measurement system (precision) with the allowable tolerance (the acceptable variation in measurements). A smaller ratio indicates greater precision, making it an important factor in quality control and process enhancement.

The other options are related concepts but serve different purposes:

The tolerance-to-precision ratio is not commonly used for error estimation.

The capability ratio measures how well a process can meet specification limits.

The Taguchi capability ratio is employed in the Taguchi method for quality improvement, but it is not specifically used for estimating measurement error. Quick Tip: In quality control, minimizing measurement error is essential. The Precision-to-Tolerance ratio is a valuable tool to determine if your measurement system meets the required precision for your specifications.


Question 59:

Total productive maintenance strives to produce overall equipment effectiveness, through a combination of availability, performance efficiency and:

  • (A) Rate of quantity of products
  • (B) Rate of quality products
  • (C) Rate of Quantity process
  • (D) Rate of Performance products
Correct Answer: (B) Rate of quality products
View Solution

Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) focuses on enhancing overall equipment effectiveness (OEE) by ensuring that equipment is available when needed, operates at optimal efficiency, and produces high-quality products. The key elements of availability, performance efficiency, and product quality are essential to maximizing productivity and minimizing waste.

In this context, the rate of quality products refers to the equipment's ability to produce defect-free, high-quality items. This ensures that the output meets customer requirements and minimizes rework and scrap, which is critical for sustaining high efficiency and productivity. Quick Tip: In TPM, emphasizing the rate of quality products ensures that equipment is not only available and efficient but also capable of producing outputs that adhere to quality standards. This approach is vital for reducing operational costs and improving overall effectiveness.


Question 60:

The term availability is used to indicate the probability of a system or equipment being in operating condition at any time t, given that it was in operating condition at:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \(\alpha\)
  • (D) constant
Correct Answer: (C) \(\alpha\)
View Solution

Availability is a metric that reflects the likelihood that a system or piece of equipment is operational at any given time, assuming it was working previously. The symbol \(\alpha\) denotes the probability that the equipment remains in working order after a specified period, taking both repair time and downtime into account.

In the contexts of reliability and maintenance, availability is typically expressed as the ratio of the time the system is operational to the total elapsed time. The parameter \(\alpha\) represents this probability measure. Quick Tip: Availability is an essential measure in maintenance and reliability. To enhance availability, focus on minimizing downtime and improving the reliability of equipment.


Question 61:

Blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in one stroke of the ram is:

  • (A) Progressive die
  • (B) Simple die
  • (C) Combination die
  • (D) Compound die
Correct Answer: (D) Compound die
View Solution

A compound die enables multiple operations, such as blanking and piercing, to be performed in a single ram stroke. By integrating several functions into one tool, it helps reduce cycle time and improve the overall efficiency of the process.

In contrast, a simple die performs only one operation, a progressive die completes multiple operations in sequence, and a combination die involves different processes but not all within a single stroke. Quick Tip: Compound dies are ideal for combining several operations into a single press stroke. This significantly accelerates the production process and enhances efficiency.


Question 62:

In metal cutting operations, continuous chips are produced while machining:

  • (A) Brittle material
  • (B) Ductile material
  • (C) Hard material
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Ductile material
View Solution

In metal cutting processes, continuous chips are typically generated when machining ductile materials. Materials like aluminum or mild steel, which are ductile, form long, continuous chips because they can easily deform under cutting forces, facilitating smooth material removal.

On the other hand, brittle materials tend to break into smaller, fragmented chips during cutting due to their limited plasticity. Hard materials also tend to produce fragmented chips but are usually more challenging to machine. Quick Tip: For continuous chip formation, focus on machining ductile materials, which are more easily deformed. When working with brittle or hard materials, adjust cutting parameters to reduce chip fragmentation.


Question 63:

Tool life is mostly affected by:

  • (A) Tool geometry
  • (B) Cutting speed
  • (C) Feed and depth
  • (D) Microstructure of material
Correct Answer: (B) Cutting speed
View Solution

Tool life is primarily influenced by cutting speed. Higher cutting speeds generally lead to increased tool wear, as the cutting process generates more heat, causing the tool to degrade more rapidly. This results in a shorter tool life. While factors like tool geometry, feed rate, and depth of cut also affect tool life, cutting speed remains the most significant factor.

To maximize tool life, it is important to adjust the cutting speed based on the material being machined and the type of tool used, striking a balance between efficiency and longevity. Quick Tip: To extend tool life, manage the cutting speed to prevent excessive heat buildup. Finding the right balance between cutting speed and feed rate will optimize both tool longevity and productivity.


Question 64:

Steel wire is manufactured by ......... process.

  • (A) Deep drawing
  • (B) Forging
  • (C) Drawing
  • (D) Extrusion
Correct Answer: (C) Drawing
View Solution

Steel wire is primarily produced through the **drawing** process. During wire drawing, a steel rod is pulled through a die, which reduces its diameter and elongates the wire. This process enhances the material's properties and provides the wire with the desired length and diameter for various uses.

Other methods, such as deep drawing and forging, are used for shaping materials differently, while extrusion is commonly employed for creating profiles rather than wire. Quick Tip: Wire drawing is an essential process in steel wire production. It enables precise control over the wire's diameter and mechanical properties, making it ideal for a wide range of engineering and construction applications.


Question 65:

Lewis equation in spur gear is applied:

  • (A) Only to the pinion
  • (B) Only to the gear
  • (C) To weaker of pinion or gear
  • (D) To stronger of pinion or gear
Correct Answer: (C) To weaker of pinion or gear
View Solution

The Lewis equation for spur gears is used to calculate the strength of the gear teeth, focusing on the weaker component, either the pinion or the gear. This is because the weaker component (typically with fewer teeth or a smaller diameter) is more likely to fail under load. The equation is essential for determining bending stress and ensuring that the gears are designed with adequate strength to endure the applied forces. Quick Tip: In gear design, always use the Lewis equation on the weaker component, either the pinion or the gear, to ensure it has sufficient strength to withstand the load.


Question 66:

The friction torque for square thread at mean radius while raising load is given by (\(\omega\) = load, \(R_o\) = mean radius, \(\phi\) = angle of friction, \(\alpha\) = lead angle):

  • (A) \( \omega R_o \tan (\phi - \alpha) \)
  • (B) \( \omega R_o \tan (\phi + \alpha) \)
  • (C) \( \omega R_o \tan \alpha \)
  • (D) \( \omega R_o \tan \phi \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \omega R_o \tan (\phi - \alpha) \)
View Solution

The friction torque for a square thread at the mean radius when raising a load is given by the formula \( \omega R_0 \tan (\phi - \alpha) \). In this equation, \( \omega \) represents the load, \( R_0 \) is the mean radius, \( \phi \) is the angle of friction, and \( \alpha \) is the lead angle. The torque is influenced by the friction between the threads and the angle at which the load is applied.

This formula takes into account the reduction in frictional torque due to the lead angle, which is essential for understanding the efficiency of threaded mechanisms. Quick Tip: In thread design, friction torque plays a critical role in determining load transmission efficiency. Keep in mind that the lead angle significantly affects the frictional force.


Question 67:

The size of a cam depends upon:

  • (A) Base circle
  • (B) Pitch circle
  • (C) Pitch curve
  • (D) Prime circle
Correct Answer: (A) Base circle
View Solution

The size of a cam is defined by the base circle. The base circle is the smallest circle from which the cam profile is derived, and it plays a vital role in determining the cam's overall size and shape. While other elements like the pitch circle and prime circle are related to the cam, they do not directly influence its size. The base circle sets the boundaries for the cam profile, making it the most critical factor in determining the cam's size. Quick Tip: In cam design, the base circle is essential as it establishes the geometry for the cam profile. Make sure it is accurately defined to achieve the intended motion.


Question 68:

The equation \( 3 \frac{d^2 x}{dt^2} + 6 \frac{dx}{dt} + 15x = 20 \cos 4t \) shows a vibrations system. The maximum amplitude of the system will be:

  • (A) 50 cm
  • (B) 51 cm
  • (C) 49 cm
  • (D) 52 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 51 cm
View Solution

This equation represents a second-order linear differential equation describing a damped harmonic oscillator. Solving this system generally involves determining the resonance condition and calculating the steady-state amplitude.

To find the maximum amplitude of the system, we use the formula for forced vibrations: \[ X_{max} = \frac{F_0}{\sqrt{(k - m\omega^2)^2 + (c\omega)^2}} \]
where \( F_0 \) is the amplitude of the forcing function, \( k \) is the spring constant, \( m \) is the mass, \( c \) is the damping coefficient, and \( \omega \) is the frequency.

By analyzing the equation, the system's damping coefficient and frequency are determined by the constants in the formula. Solving for the maximum amplitude yields approximately 51 cm. Quick Tip: In oscillating systems, the maximum amplitude can be calculated using resonance and damping principles. Make sure to correctly input the values for mass, damping coefficient, and frequency.


Question 69:

In Opitz system, 2nd digit indicates:

  • (A) Type and shape
  • (B) External shape and external shape elements
  • (C) External plane surface finishing
  • (D) Auxiliary hole and gear teeth
Correct Answer: (B) External shape and external shape elements
View Solution

In the Opitz classification system, the second digit is used to describe the external shape and features of a part or component. This system helps categorize and define the geometric characteristics based on their form and structural elements, which is essential in manufacturing and mechanical engineering.

The first digit in the Opitz system represents the basic classification of the part, while the second digit provides additional information about its shape and external elements, which is crucial for determining the appropriate manufacturing processes and tools needed. Quick Tip: In the Opitz system, the second digit is key to offering further details about a component’s external features, such as its shape and structure, which are vital for accurate manufacturing and design.


Question 70:

Which of the following is not a layout configuration used in FMS?

  • (A) In-line
  • (B) Loop
  • (C) Ladder
  • (D) Circle
Correct Answer: (D) Circle
View Solution

Flexible Manufacturing Systems (FMS) are designed to enhance both the efficiency and flexibility of production systems. The most common layout types in FMS are in-line, loop, and ladder configurations. Each of these layouts is aimed at optimizing material flow and minimizing downtime.

The "Circle" layout is generally not employed in FMS because it does not offer the same level of efficiency in material handling and production flow. Instead, in-line, loop, and ladder configurations are preferred for ensuring a continuous flow of materials in FMS. Quick Tip: In FMS, selecting the right layout configuration is crucial for ensuring efficient production. Choose the layout that best fits the product flow and material handling needs.


Question 71:

The pattern used for mass production is:

  • (A) Match plate pattern
  • (B) Skeleton pattern
  • (C) Split pattern
  • (D) Single plate pattern
Correct Answer: (A) Match plate pattern
View Solution

The match plate pattern is widely used in mass production. This pattern features two halves of a mold mounted on a single plate, making it well-suited for high-volume production. It provides excellent accuracy, and the use of a single plate ensures efficient molding and easy handling of the patterns.

Other patterns, such as skeleton, split, and single plate patterns, are typically used for lower-volume or more complex casting processes. Quick Tip: For mass production, the match plate pattern is ideal due to its efficiency and precision in molding. It is well-suited for high-volume and repetitive casting operations.


Question 72:

In slush casting, .......... is used.

  • (A) Metallic core
  • (B) Sand core
  • (C) Wooden core
  • (D) No core
Correct Answer: (A) Metallic core
View Solution

In slush casting, a metallic core is utilized to produce hollow castings. The process involves pouring molten metal into a mold, followed by "slushing" or rotating the mold to form a thin layer of metal. The metallic core facilitates the formation of the hollow interior and provides structural support to the casting.

Using a sand, wooden, or no core would not offer the necessary structural strength or hollow feature required for slush casting. Quick Tip: Slush casting is ideal for producing hollow castings. Ensure the correct use of metallic cores to achieve precise and high-quality results.


Question 73:

Thermit welding is a form of:

  • (A) Resistance welding
  • (B) Gas welding
  • (C) Fusion welding
  • (D) Forge welding
Correct Answer: (C) Fusion welding
View Solution

Thermit welding is a fusion welding process that utilizes a chemical reaction between aluminum powder and iron oxide to generate molten metal. This reaction produces extremely high temperatures, enabling the welding of metals through fusion. Thermit welding is commonly used for tasks like repairing rail tracks or other applications that require high-temperature welding.

In contrast to resistance, gas, or forge welding, thermit welding generates the necessary heat for fusion through the exothermic reaction between metals. Quick Tip: Thermit welding is well-suited for high-temperature tasks, such as welding steel and repairing rail tracks. Keep in mind that it is a fusion welding process, distinct from resistance or gas welding methods.


Question 74:

Seam-welding is:

  • (A) Multi-spot welding process
  • (B) Continuous spot welding process
  • (C) Used to form mesh
  • (D) Used for welding cylindrical objects
Correct Answer: (B) Continuous spot welding process
View Solution

Seam welding is a continuous form of spot welding, where two metal sheets are joined along a seam by applying heat and pressure through rotating wheel electrodes. This method is particularly useful for applications requiring a continuous, leak-proof joint. Unlike multi-spot welding, which creates individual weld points, seam welding forms an unbroken bond along the entire seam.

This technique is widely used in manufacturing processes such as the production of gas tanks, heat exchangers, and various cylindrical objects. Quick Tip: Seam welding is ideal for applications that need continuous welding along seams, ensuring strong and consistent joints.


Question 75:

Last constituent to fail in fiber reinforced composites is:

  • (A) Matrix
  • (B) Fiber
  • (C) Both fail at the same time
  • (D) Can’t define
Correct Answer: (A) Matrix
View Solution

In fiber reinforced composites, the matrix is typically the last component to fail. The matrix binds the fibers together and facilitates load transfer. While the fibers are usually stronger and stiffer, they can still fracture under certain stress conditions. However, the matrix is more likely to experience plastic deformation or fracture first, particularly under high stress or temperature conditions, as it is generally weaker than the fibers.

Although the fibers generally fail after the matrix, the overall failure behavior of the composite is influenced by the properties of both the fiber and matrix. Quick Tip: In fiber reinforced composites, the matrix often fails before the fibers, but the overall failure depends on the properties of both materials. Ensure both matrix and fiber properties are optimized for optimal performance.


Question 76:

Longitudinal strength of fiber reinforced composite is mainly influenced by:

  • (A) Fiber strength
  • (B) Fiber orientation
  • (C) Fiber volume fraction
  • (D) Fiber length
Correct Answer: (C) Fiber volume fraction
View Solution

The longitudinal strength of a fiber reinforced composite is primarily determined by the fiber volume fraction. This fraction represents the percentage of the composite material made up of fibers, and it directly influences the mechanical properties of the composite. A higher fiber volume fraction generally improves strength, as the fibers act as the main load-bearing elements in the material.

Although factors such as fiber strength, orientation, and length also affect the material, the fiber volume fraction has the greatest influence on longitudinal strength. Quick Tip: To enhance the strength properties of fiber reinforced composites, it is crucial to maximize the fiber volume fraction, as more fibers contribute to a higher load-bearing capacity.


Question 77:

The solidification of an alloy from one phase to another phase without changes in chemical composition is called:

  • (A) Eutectic reaction
  • (B) Allotropy
  • (C) Congruent transformation
  • (D) Homogenization
Correct Answer: (C) Congruent transformation
View Solution

Congruent transformation refers to the process where an alloy transitions from one phase to another without altering its chemical composition. During this transformation, the phase change occurs at a consistent composition and temperature, maintaining the same chemical structure. This differs from other phase transformations, such as eutectic reactions, where two phases form from a single phase, and the composition changes.

Congruent transformation plays a vital role in processes like the solidification of specific alloys, ensuring the stability of phase structures. Quick Tip: In metallurgy, congruent transformation ensures no chemical composition change during a phase transition. Understanding this concept is essential for controlling alloy properties during processing.


Question 78:

A heat treatment process which will improve the machinability of hypereutectoid steel is:

  • (A) Austempering
  • (B) Spheroidizing
  • (C) Bainitic transformation
  • (D) Process annealing
Correct Answer: (B) Spheroidizing
View Solution

Spheroidizing is a heat treatment process designed to enhance the machinability of hypereutectoid steel. It involves heating the steel to a temperature just below its eutectoid point and maintaining it there for an extended period. This process leads to the formation of small, rounded carbides (spheroids), which softens the steel and makes it easier to machine.

Other heat treatments, such as austempering, bainitic transformation, and process annealing, affect the steel's properties differently and are not specifically focused on improving machinability in hypereutectoid steels. Quick Tip: Spheroidizing is a beneficial heat treatment for improving the machinability of hypereutectoid steels, making the material softer and reducing tool wear.


Question 79:

Which of the following elements strongly promote graphitization in Cast Iron?

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Manganese
  • (C) Silicon
  • (D) Vanadium
Correct Answer: (C) Silicon
View Solution

Silicon is a key element that significantly encourages graphitization in cast iron. Graphitization is the process where carbon forms graphite flakes in cast iron, enhancing its machinability and making it more suitable for a wide range of applications. Silicon is essential in controlling the carbon content and facilitating the formation of graphite structures within the iron.

While other elements such as manganese, sulfur, and vanadium also influence the properties of cast iron, they do not have the same strong effect on promoting graphitization as silicon. Quick Tip: When producing cast iron, adding silicon can promote graphitization, improving both machinability and the overall properties of the material.


Question 80:

Monel metal is an alloy of:

  • (A) Nickel- Copper
  • (B) Chromium- Aluminum
  • (C) Silicon - Beryllium
  • (D) Tin - Lead
Correct Answer: (A) Nickel- Copper
View Solution

Monel metal refers to a group of alloys that are primarily composed of nickel and copper. These alloys are known for their outstanding corrosion resistance, particularly in marine environments, and also possess strong mechanical properties. The high nickel content imparts corrosion resistance, while copper enhances the metal's strength and ductility.

Monel metal does not contain significant amounts of chromium, aluminum, silicon, beryllium, or tin in its main composition. Quick Tip: Monel alloys are well-suited for environments that require strong corrosion resistance, particularly in marine or acidic conditions, due to their elevated nickel content.


Question 81:

The energy per unit volume that can be absorbed by a material up to the point of fracture is known as:

  • (A) Resilience
  • (B) Endurance limit
  • (C) Toughness
  • (D) Modulus of rigidity
Correct Answer: (C) Toughness
View Solution

Toughness is defined as the amount of energy per unit volume a material can absorb before breaking. It measures a material's ability to endure impact and stress without failing. Toughness is a combination of both strength and ductility, making it a crucial property for materials used in structural applications.

Resilience refers to a material's ability to absorb energy without experiencing permanent deformation, while the endurance limit is the maximum stress a material can endure indefinitely under repeated loading cycles without failure. Quick Tip: When assessing materials for impact resistance, focus on their toughness. Tough materials can absorb substantial energy before they fail.


Question 82:

The cost towards machining of special jigs or fixtures, pattern, tooling made for the job is:

  • (A) Direct expense
  • (B) Administrative expense
  • (C) Indirect material cost
  • (D) Overhead cost
Correct Answer: (A) Direct expense
View Solution

The cost incurred from machining special jigs, fixtures, patterns, or tooling specifically designed for a job is classified as a direct expense. These costs are directly linked to the production of a particular product or job and can be traced back to the cost object without any need for allocation.

In contrast, indirect material costs and overhead costs are not directly assignable to a single product, and administrative expenses pertain to the overall operations of the business. Quick Tip: When calculating production costs, keep in mind that direct expenses can be directly attributed to the product, while overhead costs are distributed among various products.


Question 83:

Tong hold loss is a:

  • (A) Welding loss
  • (B) Forging loss
  • (C) Machining loss
  • (D) Casting loss
Correct Answer: (B) Forging loss
View Solution

Tong hold loss refers to a type of loss that occurs during the forging process, primarily due to the inefficiency of holding the workpiece with tongs. This can result in material deformation, wastage, or a decrease in the final product's quality. As a result, it is considered a form of forging loss.

Losses in welding, machining, and casting are associated with different forms of material waste or inefficiency during their respective processes. Quick Tip: In forging operations, minimizing tong hold loss is crucial for improving material efficiency and reducing waste. Always consider the optimal method for holding and securing the workpiece.


Question 84:

The time wasted by the operator due to breakdown, non-availability or supply of tool and material is:

  • (A) Down time
  • (B) Setup time
  • (C) Unit operation time
  • (D) Allowance
Correct Answer: (A) Down time
View Solution

Down time refers to the period when an operator is unable to perform productive work due to factors like equipment malfunctions, lack of tools, or material shortages. This unproductive time leads to inefficiencies in the production process.

Setup time is the time spent preparing machines or tools before starting production, while unit operation time is the actual time taken to produce one unit. Allowance is additional time allocated for personal breaks or unforeseen delays. Quick Tip: To improve production efficiency, minimize down time by ensuring timely maintenance and a consistent supply of tools and materials to avoid unnecessary interruptions.


Question 85:

An instrument which is designed to eliminate the personal element of feel when setting a measuring equipment for measurement is known as:

  • (A) Fiducial indicator
  • (B) Standard
  • (C) Scale
  • (D) Device
Correct Answer: (A) Fiducial indicator
View Solution

A fiducial indicator is used to remove the personal element of feel when setting up measuring equipment for precise measurements. It acts as a reference point or marker that ensures correct settings and alignment, minimizing human error and subjectivity in the measurement process.

Other terms like standard, scale, and device are associated with measurements but do not specifically address the removal of personal feel during the measurement process. Quick Tip: To enhance measurement precision, fiducial indicators help standardize the setup process, eliminating subjective judgment.


Question 86:

Which type of tolerance does a slip gauge have?

  • (A) Unilateral tolerance
  • (B) Bilateral tolerance
  • (C) Universal tolerance
  • (D) Zero tolerance
Correct Answer: (B) Bilateral tolerance
View Solution

A slip gauge typically has bilateral tolerance, meaning the part can vary in both directions from the nominal size, providing flexibility while ensuring accurate measurements. Slip gauges are manufactured with this tolerance to ensure they can be used to measure and calibrate other instruments with high precision.

Unilateral tolerance refers to variation in only one direction, while universal tolerance and zero tolerance are not generally associated with slip gauges. Quick Tip: When using slip gauges, remember they have bilateral tolerance, allowing for minor variations in both directions from the nominal size.


Question 87:

In surface photography of measuring surface finish of machined surfaces using vertical illumination, which portion appears as bright area?

  • (A) Hills
  • (B) Scratch
  • (C) Valleys
  • (D) Flat portion
Correct Answer: (A) Hills
View Solution

In surface photography, especially when using vertical illumination, the raised areas (hills) of a machined surface will appear bright. This occurs because the light reflects more intensely from the higher regions. Conversely, the valleys or lower areas absorb more light, resulting in darker regions in the image.

This method is useful for visually evaluating the surface roughness and texture of a material. Quick Tip: When assessing surface finishes with vertical illumination, observe the bright areas (hills) to identify the high points and the darker areas (valleys) to locate the low points.


Question 88:

Which of the following is a reason for pitch errors observed in threads?

  • (A) Lack of inspection
  • (B) Incorrect ratio of tool work velocity
  • (C) Interference between mating parts
  • (D) Less skilled operator
Correct Answer: (B) Incorrect ratio of tool work velocity
View Solution

Pitch errors in threads usually occur when the tool-work velocity ratio is incorrect during the manufacturing process. This imbalance can lead to inaccuracies in the spacing between threads, causing pitch variations. Although factors such as lack of inspection, interference between mating parts, and operator skill can affect thread quality, the primary cause of pitch errors is often the improper setting of cutting speeds and tool-workpiece engagement. Quick Tip: To reduce pitch errors in threaded components, ensure the correct tool-work velocity ratio is maintained during the manufacturing process.


Question 89:

Which of the following is used for rolling tests?

  • (A) Tooth caliper
  • (B) Parkinson gear tester
  • (C) Base pitch measuring instrument
  • (D) Involute profile testing machine
Correct Answer: (C) Base pitch measuring instrument
View Solution

The base pitch measuring instrument is specifically designed for rolling tests to measure the pitch of gear teeth. It ensures that the gear teeth are properly aligned and mesh correctly during testing, which is essential for evaluating the precision of gear manufacturing.

Other tools, such as tooth calipers, Parkinson gear testers, and involute profile testing machines, are used for different gear testing and measurement purposes but are not specifically intended for rolling tests. Quick Tip: In rolling tests, the base pitch measuring instrument is crucial for confirming that gears have the correct pitch for proper engagement and smooth operation.


Question 90:

Which of the following is an application of machine vision system?

  • (A) Assembly verification
  • (B) Image processing
  • (C) Reliability testing
  • (D) Cause and effect analysis
Correct Answer: (A) Assembly verification
View Solution

Machine vision systems are mainly used in applications that require automation, precision, and fast processing. One of the key uses of machine vision is assembly verification, where the system checks whether components are correctly assembled, ensuring product quality. By using cameras and image processing software, the system inspects parts during assembly and can detect defects or missing components.

Other applications, such as image processing, reliability testing, and cause-and-effect analysis, are not typically associated with machine vision systems in industrial environments. Quick Tip: Machine vision systems are highly effective for quality control on assembly lines, where they can quickly identify defects or verify proper component placement.


Question 91:

Which of the following techniques is not suitable to measure large diameter parts or large gaps?

  • (A) Diffraction pattern technique
  • (B) Scanning laser technique
  • (C) Photodiode array imaging
  • (D) Laser triangulation sensor
Correct Answer: (A) Diffraction pattern technique
View Solution

The diffraction pattern technique is generally not suitable for measuring large diameter parts or wide gaps because it is more effective for smaller-scale measurements that require high precision, especially within the micro to millimeter range. This technique uses light diffraction patterns to measure small features, making it less effective for large parts or gaps.

In contrast, scanning laser techniques, photodiode array imaging, and laser triangulation sensors are ideal for measuring large diameter parts or wide gaps, as they can handle larger ranges and deliver accurate measurements over greater distances. Quick Tip: For large diameter parts or wide gaps, laser-based methods such as scanning lasers and triangulation sensors are the best options to ensure precise measurements.


Question 92:

In Ultrasonic Machining, the material is removed by:

  • (A) Anodic dissolution
  • (B) Thermal melting
  • (C) Abrasive action
  • (D) Electrochemical oxidation
Correct Answer: (C) Abrasive action
View Solution

In ultrasonic machining, material is removed through abrasive action facilitated by high-frequency ultrasonic vibrations. These vibrations propel abrasive particles against the workpiece, resulting in micro-cutting or erosion on the surface. This method is especially effective for machining brittle materials that are difficult to work with using conventional cutting techniques.

Processes such as anodic dissolution, thermal melting, and electrochemical oxidation are associated with techniques like electrochemical machining (ECM) or thermal machining, not ultrasonic machining. Quick Tip: Ultrasonic machining is ideal for hard or brittle materials, as it uses abrasive action instead of traditional cutting methods.


Question 93:

Which of the following statements are true for Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)?

1. ECM is capable of machining metals and alloys irrespective of their strength and hardness
2. No cutting forces are involved in ECM process
3. Erosion of metal takes place as a reverse process of electroplating
4. Dielectric is used in Electro-Chemical Machining

  • (A) (1), (2) and (3)
  • (B) (2), (3) and (4)
  • (C) (1), (3) and (4)
  • (D) (1), (2) and (4)
Correct Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (4)
View Solution

Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM) is capable of machining metals and alloys regardless of their strength or hardness, which is one of its primary advantages. Additionally, ECM does not involve cutting forces; instead, material removal occurs through electrochemical erosion rather than mechanical cutting. Dielectric fluid is also employed in ECM to aid in material removal and provide cooling.

The idea that erosion in ECM occurs as the reverse process of electroplating is incorrect, as ECM involves the anodic dissolution of material, not the opposite of electroplating. Quick Tip: ECM is a non-traditional machining technique that is particularly effective for hard materials, as it eliminates the need for mechanical cutting forces.


Question 94:

What is the value of gap maintained between the electrodes while machining with Electro Discharge Machining?

  • (A) 10 – 100 µm
  • (B) 100 – 200 µm
  • (C) 200 – 500 µm
  • (D) 500 – 1000 µm
Correct Answer: (B) 100 – 200 µm
View Solution

In Electro Discharge Machining (EDM), the gap between the electrodes plays a crucial role in the machining process. Typically, this gap is maintained between 100 and 200 µm. This range ensures efficient spark discharge while minimizing excessive electrode wear and allowing for precise material removal.

A smaller gap provides higher precision, while a larger gap may compromise both machining accuracy and efficiency. Quick Tip: To optimize machining accuracy and efficiency in EDM, it is essential to maintain the gap size between 100 and 200 µm. This balance ensures optimal results.


Question 95:

The range of diameters obtained using Laser drilling process is:

  • (A) 0.0001 – 0.001 mm
  • (B) 0.001 – 0.01 mm
  • (C) 0.005 – 1.25 mm
  • (D) 1.5 – 10.5 mm
Correct Answer: (C) 0.005 – 1.25 mm
View Solution

Laser drilling is a high-precision technique used to create small holes in materials. The typical range of hole diameters achieved through laser drilling is between 0.005 mm and 1.25 mm. This makes it ideal for applications that require exact, small holes, such as in the electronics and aerospace industries.

The other options do not fall within the usual diameter range for laser drilling, which is why option (C) is the correct choice. Quick Tip: Laser drilling provides outstanding precision for small holes, especially in materials that need minimal thermal impact around the drilled area.


Question 96:

Which of the following codes is used to rotate the spindle of the CNC machine tool in clockwise direction?

  • (A) M04
  • (B) G03
  • (C) G04
  • (D) M03
Correct Answer: (A) M04
View Solution

In CNC programming, the code M04 is used to rotate the spindle in a clockwise direction. M codes are primarily used to control auxiliary functions of the machine, such as spindle rotation, activating coolant, and managing tool changes.

G codes like G03 and G04 serve different purposes in CNC programming, with G03 specifically controlling counterclockwise circular motion. Quick Tip: Always verify the correct M-code for spindle rotation direction in CNC programming to ensure proper tool operation.


Question 97:

How many degrees of freedom is exhibited by the robot wrist?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 3
View Solution

The robot wrist typically provides 3 degrees of freedom, allowing rotation along three axes: pitch, yaw, and roll. These rotations enable the wrist to orient the end effector or tool in different directions, providing the robotic arm with the flexibility to perform a variety of tasks.

This differs from other joints in the robot, such as those in the arm itself, which may offer additional degrees of freedom based on the design. Quick Tip: In robotics, the degrees of freedom determine the range of motion for joints and end effectors. To ensure precise motion control, verify that the robot wrist has an adequate number of degrees of freedom.


Question 98:

The positioning accuracy of a robotic arm is the highest in the following type configuration of a robot:

  • (A) Cartesian Robot
  • (B) Cylindrical Robot
  • (C) Articulated jointed arm robot
  • (D) Spherical co-ordinate robot
Correct Answer: (A) Cartesian Robot
View Solution

The Cartesian robot configuration provides the highest positioning accuracy, as it moves along three mutually perpendicular axes (X, Y, and Z), which are straightforward to control and calibrate for precise movements. This configuration is commonly used in tasks that demand high accuracy, such as assembly and inspection.

Other robotic configurations, like cylindrical and spherical, tend to be more flexible but may not achieve the same level of positioning precision due to their design. Quick Tip: For tasks requiring high precision, Cartesian robots are ideal due to their predictable, linear motion along the X, Y, and Z axes.


Question 99:

Which one of the following rapid prototyping processes uses a photosensitive liquid polymer as the starting material?

  • (A) Fused deposition modeling
  • (B) Laminated-object manufacturing
  • (C) Selective laser melting
  • (D) Stereolithography
Correct Answer: (D) Stereolithography
View Solution

Stereolithography is a rapid prototyping technique that uses a photosensitive liquid polymer as the base material. A UV laser cures the material, solidifying it layer by layer to create a 3D object. This process is widely employed in 3D printing to produce prototypes with high accuracy and fine resolution.

Other methods like fused deposition modeling (FDM) and laminated-object manufacturing use different materials and processes, while selective laser melting uses powder as its starting material. Quick Tip: Stereolithography is an excellent option for applications requiring high resolution and precision in 3D printed prototypes, particularly when working with photosensitive liquid polymers.


Question 100:

Direct Energy Deposition is:

  • (A) A process in which a droplet of build material is selectively deposited
  • (B) A process in which thermal energy selectively fuses regions of a powder bed
  • (C) A process in which focused thermal energy is used to fuse materials by melting as the material is being deposited
  • (D) A process in which a material is selectively dispensed through an orifice
Correct Answer: (C) A process in which focused thermal energy is used to fuse materials by melting as the material is being deposited
View Solution

Direct Energy Deposition (DED) is a 3D printing process where focused thermal energy, typically from a laser or electron beam, melts the material, which is then deposited layer by layer to form a part. This method is commonly used for repairing or adding material to existing components.

Option (A) describes a different technique, droplet deposition, used in other 3D printing processes. Option (B) refers to selective laser sintering (SLS), while option (D) does not correctly describe DED. Quick Tip: In Direct Energy Deposition, focused thermal energy plays a crucial role in fusing materials during deposition, making it ideal for both additive manufacturing and part repair.

TANCET Questions

  • 1.
    An intermediate shaft of a gearbox, supporting two spur gears A and B and mounted between two bearings C1 and C2, is shown in the below figure. The pitch circle diameters of gears A and B are 500 and 250 mm respectively. The shaft is made of alloy steel 20MnCr5. (\( S_{ut} = 620 \) and \( S_{yt} = 480 \) N/mm\(^2\)). The factors \( k_b \) and \( k_t \) of the ASME code are 2 and 1.5 respectively. The gears are keyed to the shaft. Determine the shaft diameter using the ASME code. 
    Intermediate shaft of a gearbox

      • 44.52 mm
      • 59.36 mm
      • 27.15 mm
      • 38.87 mm

    • 2.
      The Laplace transform of a signal $X(t)$ is $$ X(s) = \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. $$ The initial value $X(0)$ is:

        • \( 0 \)
        • \( 4 \)
        • \( 1/6 \)
        • \( 4/3 \)

      • 3.
        What letter replaces the question mark?
        letter replaces the question mark

          • G
          • E
          • L
          • I

        • 4.

          Which of the following causal analog transfer functions is used to design causal IIR digital filter with transfer function? $$ H(z) = \frac{0.05z}{z-e^{-0.42}} + \frac{0.05z}{z-e^{-0.2}} $$ Assume impulse invariance transformation with \( T = 0.1 \, \text{s} \). 

            • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S+4.2} + \frac{0.5}{S+2} \)
            • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S+2.1} + \frac{0.5}{S+4} \)
            • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S-2.1} + \frac{0.5}{S-4} \)
            • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S-4.2} + \frac{0.5}{S-2} \)

          • 5.
            What is in this sequence? Y, V, S, P, ___

              • N
              • M
              • Q
              • L

            • 6.

              A digital filter with impulse response $ h[n] = 2^n u[n] $ will have a transfer function with a region of convergence.

                • includes unit circle
                • excludes unit circle
                • bounded by rings with circles of radius 0.5 and 2
                • entire z-plane excluding origin and infinity

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