TANCET 2024 MBA Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Sachin Gupta

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TANCET 2024 MBA Question Paper with Solutions PDF will be available for download here. Anna University is going to conduct the TANCET exam on March 9, 2024, from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM in pen-paper mode. TANCET 2024 Question Paper for MBA comprises 100 questions to be attempted in 2 hours.TANCET 2024 MBA Question Paper was reported as moderate.

TANCET 2024 MBA Question Paper with Answer Key PDF 

Candidate can download the official TANCET 2024 MBA Question paper with Answer key PDFs using the link below . 

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Question 1:

Possibility of using existing production facilities in manufacturing Velsuvio products:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The possibility of using existing production facilities is directly related to the decision-making process as mentioned in the passage. William Johnson saw certain production possibilities in the Italian line that fitted well with the company’s existing facilities. This is an important factor that influenced the decision to proceed with the product line. Quick Tip: For companies considering diversification into new product lines, it is essential to evaluate whether existing facilities can support the new product without extensive capital investment. This can help manage costs and reduce the financial risk associated with expansion.


Question 2:

Likelihood of achieving wide consumer acceptance of the Velsuvio line:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION
View Solution

The likelihood of achieving wide consumer acceptance was a projection or assumption made before fully understanding the challenges. The passage mentions that Joe Brooks believed that the popularity of higher-priced Italian restaurants indicated an opportunity to market a prestige line of Italian food. This was an assumption made by Brooks, who expected it to resonate well with consumers. Quick Tip: When launching a premium product, understanding the target market and ensuring that your marketing efforts are aligned with consumer expectations is crucial for achieving wide acceptance. Focused, strategic advertising and distribution can enhance your product’s visibility among the right audience.


Question 3:

Company growth and expansion:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE
View Solution

Company growth and expansion were one of the primary objectives behind the decision to launch the Velsuvio product line. The passage mentions Carl Voght arguing for expansion to address financial issues, which reflects the company's goal to grow and expand. Quick Tip: Expanding into new markets with a differentiated product offering can drive significant growth for a company. However, it’s important to manage the operational complexities of national distribution and ensure that resources are allocated effectively to support the expansion.


Question 4:

The name Valencia better described the gourmet image:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION
View Solution

Joe Brooks' belief that the name "Valencia" would better describe the gourmet image reflects an assumption about consumer perception. This was a supposition made before full consideration of all factors like market research or consumer feedback. Quick Tip: Brand names are a key component of product positioning, especially in the gourmet food market. A well-chosen name can enhance consumer perceptions of quality, sophistication, and exclusivity.


Question 5:

The popularity of high-priced Italian restaurants in the U.S.:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The popularity of high-priced Italian restaurants was a significant factor that influenced Joe Brooks' decision. He saw this trend as an indicator of the market potential for a gourmet Italian product line. This was a concrete element that directly impacted the decision-making process. Quick Tip: Trends in consumer behavior, such as the rise in popularity of certain cuisines, can provide valuable insights when launching new products. Identifying and capitalizing on these trends can help align your product offering with shifting consumer tastes.


Question 6:

Depth of Brooks’ expertise in the sale of consumer products:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

Brooks' expertise in consumer products directly influenced the decision-making process, especially considering his lack of experience in this area. The company’s advertising and marketing efforts were crucial, and Brooks' depth of knowledge—or lack thereof—was a key factor in determining how to approach the market. This is mentioned in the passage when discussing the selection of the advertising agency. Quick Tip: When entering a new market segment, especially consumer products, it is crucial to leverage external expertise and resources. Companies should consider partnering with experienced agencies or consultants to navigate the complexities of branding, distribution, and marketing.


Question 7:

Market survey results:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The results of the market survey were critical in evaluating the Velsuvio product line. The survey’s negative results, with low brand recall and minimal trial rate, showed that the market’s reaction was fundamental to the decision-making process. These findings were a major factor influencing the company’s next steps in managing the product line. Quick Tip: Before launching a new product, conducting a market survey helps in understanding consumer preferences, price sensitivity, and potential demand. This information can guide pricing strategy, marketing tactics, and positioning.


Question 8:

Estimated cost of advertising campaign:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The estimated cost of the advertising campaign was an essential factor that influenced the overall planning process. The passage mentions that the company underestimated the cost, which led to a less intense advertising campaign than planned. The advertising budget was crucial to the success of the product’s introduction and sales. Quick Tip: When planning an advertising campaign, it is critical to allocate sufficient budget and time for preparation, especially for national product launches. Inadequate planning can lead to ineffective marketing and wasted resources.


Question 9:

National distribution of the Velsuvio line:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The decision to implement national distribution was a major factor that influenced the product's launch. Brooks made the decision not to limit distribution to regional markets but instead aimed for a national rollout, impacting sales strategies, marketing efforts, and overall success. This decision was integral to the product's introduction. Quick Tip: When launching a product nationally, ensure that your distribution channels are well-established and capable of handling the increased volume and geographic spread. A thorough logistical plan is essential to maintaining product quality and customer satisfaction.


Question 10:

Brooks’ inability to attract outside capital:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

Brooks' inability to attract outside capital was a major factor in the decision-making process. The company faced financial challenges, and Carl Voght’s argument for expansion was partly driven by the need to address these issues. This financial struggle was a key reason for introducing new products like Velsuvio. Quick Tip: Securing external capital can be critical for companies looking to expand or launch new product lines. Lack of funding can delay important initiatives like marketing campaigns and distribution, ultimately limiting growth potential.


Question 11:

Delay in launching Velsuvio line:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The delay in launching the Velsuvio line was a critical factor that affected the overall decision-making process. The passage mentions how the production and packaging delays prevented the product from being launched on time. This delay had significant consequences for the company's marketing and sales efforts. Quick Tip: Timely product launches are essential to capitalizing on seasonal retail opportunities. Delays can disrupt the entire marketing strategy and result in lost sales and diminished brand momentum.


Question 12:

Difficulties with new package design:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The difficulties with the new package design were a major factor that directly impacted the launch of the Velsuvio line. The passage mentions that packaging delays led to using a less-than-ideal design, which affected both the functionality and the attractiveness of the product. This was an important consideration in the overall decision-making process. Quick Tip: Investing adequate time and resources in packaging design is crucial for product success. Packaging should align with the product's brand positioning and appeal to the target consumer's tastes and preferences.


Question 13:

Need for a ”gourmet” Italian food line:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE
View Solution

The need for a "gourmet" Italian food line was a major objective driving the decision to launch the Velsuvio product. Joe Brooks believed that there was a market for a higher-end Italian product line, which was a key goal in the development of the Velsuvio brand. This objective was central to the marketing and positioning decisions. Quick Tip: Identifying unmet consumer needs is key to successful product innovation. In mature markets, offering a premium version of a popular product can create differentiation and capture a niche market.


Question 14:

Market entry of competitors:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The market entry of competitors was a significant factor that affected the decision-making process. The passage notes that two major competitors began marketing similar products shortly after the Velsuvio line was launched. This posed a direct challenge to Brooks' product and influenced subsequent decisions, such as revising the marketing approach. Quick Tip: When launching a new product, especially in a competitive market, understanding the competitive landscape and differentiating your product is crucial for success. Effective branding, marketing, and pricing strategies can help overcome competition.


Question 15:

Obtaining packaging materials:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The difficulty in obtaining packaging materials was a major factor that delayed the product’s launch. The passage highlights how the delay in receiving packaging materials contributed to the inability to launch the product on time. This factor was a key consideration in the company's decision-making process. Quick Tip: When planning a product launch, ensure that packaging materials are sourced early in the process. Disruptions in the supply chain or design challenges can lead to significant delays, which can impact the overall success of the launch.


Question 16:

Introducing the new product on October 1:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION
View Solution

The decision to introduce the new product on October 1 was based on the assumption that production and packaging could be completed in time for the start of the fall food season. This was an assumption made without fully accounting for the delays that ultimately pushed the launch to December. Quick Tip: Careful timing is crucial for product launches, particularly in industries driven by seasonal trends. Missing peak periods can significantly affect early sales and long-term brand momentum.


Question 17:

Interest of major food chains in Velsuvio:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The interest of major food chains was a key factor in determining the success of the Velsuvio product line. The passage mentions that despite efforts to introduce the product nationally, major food chains showed little interest, which directly influenced the sales performance and success of the line. Quick Tip: Securing distribution with major food chains requires a combination of market demand, strong product positioning, and competitive incentives. Food brokers with expertise in gourmet products can help bridge the gap with retailers.


Question 18:

Scripting of TV commercials:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The scripting of TV commercials was a major factor in the delay of the product launch. The passage highlights that difficulties in scripting led to the commercials being delayed until December, which impacted the overall timing and effectiveness of the advertising campaign. Quick Tip: When preparing TV commercials, it’s important to leave ample time for scripting, filming, and refinement. A rushed process can result in ads that fail to fully capture the essence of the brand and the emotional appeal of the product.


Question 19:

Consumer’s preference of media of advertisement:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (b) A MAJOR FACTOR
View Solution

The consumer's preference for specific media channels (such as newspapers, TV, and radio) played an important role in the advertising decisions. The passage shows that due to time constraints, advertising was directed more heavily through newspapers and radio, which were chosen based on their accessibility and the timing of the campaign. Quick Tip: Understanding your target audience’s media consumption habits is crucial for creating an effective advertising strategy. Different media channels can have varying levels of impact depending on demographic and psychographic factors.


Question 20:

Target segment would perceive Velsuvio as a gourmet range of products:

  • (a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.
  • (b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decisions.
  • (c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
  • (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
Correct Answer: (d) A MAJOR ASSUMPTION
View Solution

The assumption that the target segment would perceive Velsuvio as a gourmet range of products was a key factor behind the product’s positioning. Joe Brooks assumed that consumers would perceive the brand in the context of a premium, high-quality product line, similar to high-priced Italian restaurants. This assumption, however, was not fully supported by market feedback. Quick Tip: Successful product positioning requires consistency across all marketing channels and touchpoints. Ensure that your product’s messaging, pricing, and presentation align with the desired brand perception.


Question 21:

The author implies that his first definition of a sanctuary is:

  • (1) Totally wrong
  • (2) Somewhat idealistic
  • (3) Unhelpful
  • (4) Indefensible
Correct Answer: (2) Somewhat idealistic
View Solution

The author acknowledges that his first definition of a sanctuary — a place where man is passive and the rest of nature is active — is not fully applicable to all cases. He explains that human intervention, such as controlling pests and diseases, is sometimes necessary. Therefore, he suggests that while the definition is useful, it is somewhat idealistic and not applicable in all situations. Quick Tip: When crafting definitions or theories, consider flexibility. A strictly idealistic view may not be universally applicable, and context matters when defining complex concepts.


Question 22:

The author’s argument that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial action is most weakened by all of the following except:

  • (1) Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of populations
  • (2) The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature
  • (3) The pests themselves are part of the food chain
  • (4) These insects have been introduced to the area by human activities
Correct Answer: (4) These insects have been introduced to the area by human activities
View Solution

The author argues that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes could be harmful because they are part of a larger ecological system. The first three options highlight the consequences of eliminating species, which could disturb the balance of nature. However, the fact that these insects were introduced by human activities doesn’t weaken the argument as strongly, since the author is primarily concerned with the broader effects on the ecosystem. Quick Tip: When considering species elimination, always weigh the potential ecological consequences. Removing one species can trigger unpredictable ripple effects throughout the ecosystem.


Question 23:

It can be inferred that the passage is:

  • (1) Part of an article in a scientific journal
  • (2) Extracted from the minutes of a nature club
  • (3) Part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
  • (4) A speech delivered in a court of law
Correct Answer: (3) Part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
View Solution

The passage’s tone, vocabulary, and reasoning suggest that it is part of a speech intended for an educated audience, likely discussing environmental issues and the importance of conservation. The use of formal language and the structure of the argument also point to a speech rather than a casual meeting or legal document. Quick Tip: When writing for an educated audience, aim for clear, thoughtful arguments supported by logical reasoning. Consider the audience’s background to communicate effectively.


Question 24:

What should be the most appropriate central idea of this passage:

  • (1) Author argues that man kills big animals but saves mosquitoes and other parasites.
  • (2) Man is selfish by nature so he is up against the wild life which is harmful for his survival
  • (3) Ecological balance, if not maintained by man, will be harmful in the long run.
  • (4) Author proposes a programme for not disturbing the balance of nature as it is beneficial for mankind.
Correct Answer: (3) Ecological balance, if not maintained by man, will be harmful in the long run.
View Solution

The author’s primary message is that human actions can disrupt the ecological balance, leading to negative consequences for the natural world and, eventually, mankind itself. He stresses the importance of conservation, sustainable practices, and maintaining this balance in order to ensure long-term environmental health. Quick Tip: The sustainability of our environment depends on maintaining ecological balance. Disruptions caused by human intervention can lead to significant long-term damage to both nature and humanity.


Question 25:

Tone of the Author as expressed in the passage can be best described:

  • (1) Descriptive to analytical
  • (2) Sarcastically humorous
  • (3) Objective to narrative
  • (4) Sarcastically critical to suggestive
Correct Answer: (4) Sarcastically critical to suggestive
View Solution

The author’s tone is critical when discussing the destruction of wildlife and the impact of human activity on nature. However, he also offers suggestions and solutions, such as creating sanctuaries and implementing conservation measures. His tone shifts from being critical of man’s destruction of nature to offering a more constructive and suggestive approach to mitigating these issues. Quick Tip: When discussing environmental issues, balancing critique with practical solutions can engage the audience effectively. A constructive tone helps guide the conversation toward positive change.


Question 26:

In view of the writer:

  • (1) The publisher will stick to his line of publication only.
  • (2) The publisher who does not publish the other books, may not understand the ingredients and pattern of publication.
  • (3) Publisher will not devote time to the Editing and reading the material which is not of its line of publication.
  • (4) Any publisher, not publishing the stuff of other type will not be able to do justice with the manuscript.
Correct Answer: (3) Publisher will not devote time to the Editing and reading the material which is not of its line of publication.
View Solution

The writer suggests that it is essential to send a manuscript to a publisher who specializes in the type of material being submitted. A publisher not dealing with a particular genre may not devote the necessary time to read or edit the material effectively, thus making it unproductive to send irrelevant work to such publishers. Quick Tip: When submitting a manuscript, always research the publisher’s specialization. This increases the chances of your manuscript being seriously considered and properly edited.


Question 27:

As per the passage:

  • (1) Introductory letter, as it helps in publication, must be invariably sent.
  • (2) The letters must have the contents in detail, to make the publisher read the same while devoting sufficient time.
  • (3) A well-worded and concise letter must be sent with manuscript to enable the publisher to have a glimpse of the manuscript.
  • (4) More than one copy of the Preliminary/introductory letter must be submitted.
Correct Answer: (3) A well-worded and concise letter must be sent with manuscript to enable the publisher to have a glimpse of the manuscript.
View Solution

The passage mentions that a preliminary letter is appreciated by publishers, and it should outline the nature of the manuscript. The letter should be concise and well-worded, providing the publisher with a quick overview of the material and helping them decide whether to review it further. Quick Tip: Ensure that the introductory letter accompanying your manuscript is clear, concise, and provides enough information to capture the publisher's interest.


Question 28:

According to the writer:

  • (1) Paying for the publication expenses will help in publication of the manuscript.
  • (2) Although the publisher would pay for the return expenses, no publication expenses will be borne by the publisher.
  • (3) Reputed publisher would publish the manuscript on its own expenses.
  • (4) Good publishers sometimes defer the publication according to the demand.
Correct Answer: (3) Reputed publisher would publish the manuscript on its own expenses.
View Solution

The writer advises authors against paying for the publication of their work. A reputable publisher will typically bear the cost of publishing the manuscript, with the possible exception of academic works. This reinforces the importance of selecting a legitimate publisher who handles publication expenses. Quick Tip: Be cautious about paying for publication. A reputable publisher should cover these costs, except in specialized cases like academic works.


Question 29:

Give the suitable Central idea of the passage:

  • (1) Manuscripts when sent for publication must have preliminary letter in more than one copy with cost of publication.
  • (2) Manuscripts must be submitted to reputed publisher, who publishes the material of that kind with a brief letter and cost of return expenses.
  • (3) The manuscripts before submission, must be personally discussed with the publishers, along with a letter and making it clear with him that only a part of publication expenses will be borne by the writer.
  • (4) While submitting the manuscripts for publication, all the details are to be made abundantly clear with the publisher in writing along with the share of expenses. Any reputed publisher can be selected who may publish the manuscript.
Correct Answer: (2) Manuscripts must be submitted to reputed publisher, who publishes the material of that kind with a brief letter and cost of return expenses.
View Solution

The passage emphasizes that manuscripts should be submitted to a reputable publisher specializing in the type of material being submitted. The submission should include a brief letter outlining the manuscript, as well as covering the return postage costs. It highlights the importance of proper submission procedures. Quick Tip: Before submitting your manuscript, ensure that it aligns with the publisher’s area of specialization, and follow the publisher’s guidelines for submission, including the return postage costs.


Question 30:

The primary purpose of the passage is to:

  • (1) Present the results of statistical analyses and propose further studies.
  • (2) Explain a recent development and predict its eventual consequences.
  • (3) Identify the reasons for a trend and recommend measures to address it.
  • (4) Outline several theories about a phenomenon and advocate one of them Describe the potential consequences of implementing a new policy and argue in favour of that policy.
Correct Answer: (3) Identify the reasons for a trend and recommend measures to address it.
View Solution

The passage identifies the reasons for the rise in temporary employment, primarily focusing on employer factors such as product demand and reduced bargaining power of workers. It also recommends several measures that government policymakers should consider to address this issue. Quick Tip: When identifying the main purpose of a passage, look for the central issue being discussed and the proposed actions or solutions.


Question 31:

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the “factors affecting employers” that are mentioned in lines 9-10?

  • (1) Most experts cite them as having initiated the growth in temporary employment that occurred during the 1980’s.
  • (2) They may account for the increase in the total number of temporary workers during the 1980’s.
  • (3) They were less important than demographic change in accounting for the increase of temporary employment during the 1980’s.
  • (4) They included a sharp increase in the cost of labor during the 1980’s.
Correct Answer: (2) They may account for the increase in the total number of temporary workers during the 1980’s.
View Solution

The passage argues that the factors affecting employers, such as fluctuating product demand and reduced bargaining power of workers, may explain the rise in temporary employment, rather than demographic changes in the workforce. Quick Tip: When analyzing factors that contribute to trends, distinguish between the causes and the effects to better understand their impact.


Question 32:

The passage suggests which of the following about the use of temporary employment by firms during the 1980’s?

  • (1) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating product demand far more efficiently than they before the 1980’s.
  • (2) It increased as a result of increased participation in the workforce by certain demographic groups.
  • (3) It was discouraged by government-mandated policies.
  • (4) It increased partly as a result of workers’ reduced ability to control the terms of their employment.
Correct Answer: (4) It increased partly as a result of workers’ reduced ability to control the terms of their employment.
View Solution

The passage suggests that one of the reasons for the rise in temporary employment was the reduced bargaining strength of workers, which allowed employers more control over the terms of employment. Quick Tip: Economic changes that reduce workers’ bargaining power can lead to more flexible, temporary employment arrangements being favored by employers.


Question 33:

The passage suggests which of the following about the workers who took temporary jobs during the 1980’s?

  • (1) Their jobs frequently led to permanent positions within firms.
  • (2) They constituted a less demographically diverse group than has been suggested.
  • (3) They did not necessarily prefer temporary employment to permanent employment.
  • (4) Their pay declined during the decade in comparison with the pay of permanent employees
Correct Answer: (3) They did not necessarily prefer temporary employment to permanent employment.
View Solution

The passage suggests that workers did not necessarily prefer temporary jobs. Instead, it highlights that the growth in temporary employment is more attributable to employer practices rather than workers’ preferences. Quick Tip: When analyzing employment trends, it is important to consider both employer practices and workers' preferences to understand the full scope of the issue.


Question 34:

The first sentence in the passage suggests that the observers mentioned in line 1 would be most likely to predict which of the following?

  • (1) That the number of new temporary positions would decline as fewer workers who preferred temporary employment entered the workforce.
  • (2) That the total number of temporary positions would increase as fewer workers were able to find permanent positions.
  • (3) That employers would have less control over the terms of workers’ employment as workers increased their bargaining strength.
  • (4) That more workers would be hired for temporary positions as product demand increased.
Correct Answer: (1) That the number of new temporary positions would decline as fewer workers who preferred temporary employment entered the workforce.
View Solution

The first sentence suggests that observers believe the rise in temporary employment is due to an increased number of workers who prefer such positions. Thus, they would likely predict a decrease in temporary positions as fewer such workers enter the workforce. Quick Tip: Be sure to analyze how initial assumptions in a passage affect the predictions or conclusions drawn from those assumptions.


Question 35:

In the context of the passage, the word “excessive” (line 21) most closely corresponds to which of the following phrases?

  • (1) Far more than can be justified by worker preferences
  • (2) Far more than can be explained by fluctuations in product demand.
  • (3) Far more than can be beneficial to the success of the firms themselves.
  • (4) Far more than can be accounted for by an expanding national economy.
Correct Answer: (1) Far more than can be justified by worker preferences
View Solution

The passage argues that the growth in temporary employment far exceeds what can be explained by the preferences of workers for such jobs, implying that excessive numbers of temporary positions are being created based on factors other than worker demand. Quick Tip: When interpreting terms like “excessive,” consider the context in which they are used, especially when evaluating the justification or reasoning behind actions.


Question 36:

The passage mentions each of the following as an appropriate kind of governmental action except:

  • (1) Getting firms to offer temporary employment primarily to a certain group of people.
  • (2) Encouraging equitable pay for temporary and permanent employees.
  • (3) Facilitating the organization of temporary workers by labor unions.
  • (4) Establishing guidelines on the proportion of temporary workers that firms should employ
Correct Answer: (4) Establishing guidelines on the proportion of temporary workers that firms should employ
View Solution

The passage suggests various governmental actions to address the rise of temporary employment, including promoting pay equity, assisting unions, and encouraging firms to offer temporary jobs to those who prefer them. However, it does not suggest establishing guidelines on the proportion of temporary workers firms should employ. Quick Tip: Governmental actions can vary widely in scope. Pay attention to which actions are specifically mentioned and which are implied or omitted in policy recommendations.


Question 37:

It can be inferred from the passage that human populations vary considerably in their:

  • (1) Sensitivity to certain bodily odors
  • (2) Ability to assimilate artificial chemicals
  • (3) Vulnerability to certain toxins found in plants
  • (4) Ability to discern bitterness in taste
Correct Answer: (4) Ability to discern bitterness in taste
View Solution

The passage mentions the significant variation in the percentage of people who can taste the artificially synthesized chemical phenylthiocarbonide (PTC) across different human populations. It suggests that this variation is related to the ability to discern bitterness in taste, which has evolved over time as a means to discriminate toxic substances. Therefore, the most reasonable inference is that human populations vary in their ability to discern bitterness in taste. Quick Tip: When identifying variations in human populations, focus on traits that have direct implications for survival, such as the ability to discern harmful substances like toxins.


Question 38:

Which of the following provides the most reasonable explanation for the assertion in the first paragraph that evolutionary history "obviously" did not act on PTC?

  • (1) PTC is not a naturally occurring chemical but rather has been produced only recently by scientists.
  • (2) Most humans lack sufficient taste sensitivity to discriminate between PTC and bitter chemicals occurring naturally.
  • (3) Variability among humans respecting PTC discrimination, like variability respecting earwax, cannot be explained in terms of evolutionary adaptivity.
  • (4) Unlike non-human primates, humans can discriminate intellectually between toxic and non-toxic bitter substances.
Correct Answer: (1) PTC is not a naturally occurring chemical but rather has been produced only recently by scientists.
View Solution

The passage explains that PTC is an artificially synthesized chemical, and the evolutionary history of humans has not acted directly on it. Since PTC is not naturally occurring in the environment, it would not have been subject to the same evolutionary pressures as naturally occurring bitter substances that humans needed to discriminate for survival. This suggests that evolutionary history did not act on PTC specifically. Quick Tip: When considering evolutionary influences, be sure to account for whether a trait or substance has been present in the environment for long enough to exert evolutionary pressure.


Question 39:

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • (1) Artificially synthesized chemicals might eventually serve to alter the course of evolution by desensitizing humans to certain tastes and odors.
  • (2) Some human polymorphisms might be explained as vestigial evidence of evolutionary adaptations that still serve vital purposes in other primates.
  • (3) Sensitivity to taste and to odors have been subject to far greater natural selectivity during the evolution of primates than previously thought.
  • (4) Polymorphism among human populations varies considerably from region to region throughout the world.
Correct Answer: (2) Some human polymorphisms might be explained as vestigial evidence of evolutionary adaptations that still serve vital purposes in other primates.
View Solution

The passage suggests that human polymorphisms, such as the ability to taste PTC and the variability in earwax, may be vestigial traits—evolutionary remnants of traits that served important functions in the past, like distinguishing toxic plants or responding to body odors, which are still relevant in non-human primates. This fits best with the idea of evolutionary adaptations that may have had vital purposes in the past. Quick Tip: Look for clues in the passage that suggest traits may be remnants of older evolutionary adaptations that served specific survival functions.


Question 40:

It can be inferred from the passage that:

  • (1) The amount of bodily odors and secretion that take place reduce at each stage of evolution.
  • (2) The extent of attention paid by non-human primates to body secretions is much higher than that of the more evolved human species.
  • (3) Artificially synthesized chemicals have impaired the extent of sensitivity that human beings have to body secretions.
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (2) The extent of attention paid by non-human primates to body secretions is much higher than that of the more evolved human species.
View Solution

The passage refers to the attention that non-human primates and humans pay to bodily secretions, specifically in relation to cerumen (earwax) and other odorous bodily fluids. It suggests that non-human primates pay more attention to these body secretions, which might have played a role in evolutionary selection, while the human focus on these traits has diminished. This reflects the idea that non-human primates pay greater attention to body secretions than humans do. Quick Tip: In interpreting evolutionary trends, consider the behaviors and preferences of non-human primates as they often reflect traits that were adaptive in earlier stages of human evolution.


Question 41:

If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B, and A \(\times\) B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

  • (1) Q - N + M \(\times\) P
  • (2) P + S \(\times\) N - Q
  • (3) P - M + N \(\times\) Q
  • (4) Q - S % P
Correct Answer: (3) P - M + N \(\times\) Q
View Solution

Let's break down each part of the statement and explain how we arrive at the conclusion:

1. P - M → P is the brother of M

This statement tells us that P is the brother of M. In other words, P and M share the same parents, and they are siblings. This sets up the relationship that P is a male (brother) and M is also a sibling.

2. M + N → M is the mother of N

This means that M is the mother of N. We now know that M (who is the sister of P, from the first statement) has a child N, and therefore, M is a female, specifically a mother.

3. N × Q → N is the sister of Q

This tells us that N is the sister of Q. Therefore, N and Q are siblings, and N is female.

4. Conclusion: P is the maternal uncle of Q

Given the relationships:
P is the brother of M (from statement 1).
M is the mother of N (from statement 2), and N is the sister of Q (from statement 3).

Since M is Q's mother, P, being M's brother, is the maternal uncle of Q. The term "maternal" refers to the mother's side of the family, so P is the brother of Q's mother, making him Q's maternal uncle.


Therefore, option (3) correctly shows that P - M + N \(\times\) Q Quick Tip: When dealing with family relationship puzzles, break down each symbol and its meaning step by step to build the final logical relationship.


Question 42:

138, 142, 146, 150, ?, 142, 138

  • (1) 148
  • (2) 140
  • (3) 146
  • (4) 144
Correct Answer: (3) 146
View Solution

The sequence starts as follows:
138, 142, 146, 150

From 138 to 142, the difference is +4.
From 142 to 146, the difference is +4.
From 146 to 150, the difference is +4.

Continuing the pattern, the next number should be 150 -4 = 146. .

So, the correct number is 146. Quick Tip: Look for arithmetic progressions in number series and consider symmetry when numbers repeat in a pattern.


Question 43:

A, P, R, X, S, and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?

  • (1) A
  • (2) X
  • (3) S
  • (4) Z
Correct Answer: (2) X
View Solution

Let's break down the seating arrangement:

S and Z are sitting at the center.
A and P are sitting at the ends.
R is sitting to the left of A.

Based on the above conditions, the seating arrangement must look like this: A, P, R, X, S, Z.

Now, we can clearly see that X is sitting to the right of P.

So, the person to the right of P is X. Quick Tip: When solving seating arrangement puzzles, start with fixed positions and fill in the remaining positions according to the given conditions.


Question 44:

Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?

  • (1) Mother
  • (2) Daughter
  • (3) Sister
  • (4) Grandmother
Correct Answer: (1) Mother
View Solution

If a woman says "His mother is the only daughter of my mother" while pointing to a man, then the woman is the man's mother.
Explanation
The woman is referring to herself as the only daughter of her mother.
"His mother" refers to the mother of the man she is pointing to.
Since the woman is the only daughter of her mother, she is saying that "his mother" is actually herself.
.

So, the woman is the mother of the man. Quick Tip: Carefully break down the familial connections described in the question and deduce the relationships step by step.


Question 45:

Satish starts from his house and takes two right turns and then one left turn. Now he is moving towards south. In which direction Satish started from his house?

  • (1) North
  • (2) West
  • (3) South
  • (4) East
Correct Answer: (4) East
View Solution

Let’s trace Satish's steps:

Satish starts facing some direction.

He takes two right turns, and then one left turn.


Now, let’s see how he ends up facing south:


1. If Satish starts facing East:

The first right turn makes him face South.

The second right turn makes him face West.

The left turn makes him face South.


Since Satish ends up facing South after these turns, he must have started facing East.


So, Satish started from the East. Quick Tip: When solving direction puzzles, visualize the directions after each turn and work backward from the final direction to identify the starting point.


Question 46:

If PUNCTUAL can be written as 47819765, how can LUNA be written in that code?

  • (1) 7586
  • (2) 5678
  • (3) 5786
  • (4) 586
Correct Answer: (3) 5786
View Solution

We need to find the pattern for encoding the word "PUNCTUAL" into numbers. The corresponding code for each letter in "PUNCTUAL" is:

P = 4, U = 7, N = 8, C = 1, T = 9, U = 7, A = 6, L = 5.

So, the word "LUNA" corresponds to the letters:

L = 5, U = 7, N = 8, A = 6.

Therefore, the code for "LUNA" is 5786. Quick Tip: When solving code-based puzzles, try to map each letter to a specific number and check for any patterns that can be generalized to other words.


Question 47:

Which is odd?
Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish

  • (1) Tortoise
  • (2) Crab
  • (3) Frog
  • (4) Fish
Correct Answer: (4) Fish
View Solution

The odd one out is Fish, as it is the only aquatic animal in the list. Tortoise, Crab, and Frog can all live in both aquatic and terrestrial environments, while Fish is entirely aquatic. Quick Tip: When identifying the odd one in a group, look for distinguishing features such as habitat, physical characteristics, or behavior that separate one from the others.


Question 48:

What is the number of straight lines and the number of triangles in the given figure.


  • (1) 10 straight lines and 34 triangles
  • (2) 9 straight lines and 34 triangles
  • (3) 9 straight lines and 36 triangles
  • (4) 10 straight lines and 36 triangles
Correct Answer: (4) 10 straight lines and 36 triangles
View Solution

In the given figure, there are 10 straight lines.

The number of triangles is 36, as seen by counting the individual triangle formations within the larger figure.
Therefore, the correct answer is 10 straight lines and 36 triangles. Quick Tip: When analyzing geometric figures, carefully count the lines and shapes. Use systematic counting techniques to avoid missing any elements.


Question 49:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the secondary section and the rest equally divided between class 11 and 12.

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 45
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 55
Correct Answer: (1) 40
View Solution

Given: Total number of students = 800

Step 1: Number of students in secondary. \[ Number of students in secondary = 80% of 800 = 0.80 \times 800 = 640 \]

Step 2: Number of remaining students. \[ Remaining students = 800 - 640 = 160 \]
These remaining students are divided equally into class 12 and class 11, so the number of students in each class is: \[ Number of students in class 12 = \frac{160}{2} = 80 \]

Step 3: Total vegetarians. \[ Total vegetarians = 53% of 800 = 0.53 \times 800 = 424 \]

Step 4: Number of vegetarians in secondary. \[ Vegetarians in secondary = 55% of 640 = 0.55 \times 640 = 352 \]

Step 5: Number of vegetarians in class 12. \[ Vegetarians in class 12 = 424 - 352 - 40 = 32 \]
This is because 40 vegetarians are in class 11, and the remaining vegetarians must be in class 12.

Step 6: Percentage of vegetarians in class 12. \[ Percentage of vegetarians in class 12 = \frac{32}{80} \times 100 = 40% \]

Thus, the percentage of vegetarians in class 12 is 40%. Quick Tip: Use percentages and simple arithmetic to break down complex problems into smaller, manageable parts. Apply step-by-step calculations to get the final answer.


Question 50:

Which is odd?

Jeevan Raksha Padak, ParamVir Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna

  • (1) Jeevan Raksha Padak
  • (2) ParamVir Chakra
  • (3) Padma Bhusan
  • (4) Bharat Ratna
Correct Answer: (1) Jeevan Raksha Padak
View Solution



Jeevan Raksha Padak is awarded for bravery in saving lives, while the other awards (ParamVir Chakra, Padma Bhushan, Bharat Ratna) are primarily national civilian awards or military bravery awards. Therefore, Jeevan Raksha Padak is the odd one out as it is related to saving lives, whereas the others are not. Quick Tip: When identifying the odd one, consider the nature or category of the items in question. Look for distinctions in the type or purpose of the awards.


Question 51:

If DARE is coded as 1083 and FATE is coded as 2093, then FARE is coded as?

  • (1) 2083
  • (2) 8320
  • (3) 2038
  • (4) 3802
Correct Answer: (1) 2083
View Solution



The pattern for coding seems to be derived from the position of each letter in the alphabet:

D = 4, A = 1, R = 18, E = 5, which gives us the code 1083 for DARE.

F = 6, A = 1, T = 20, E = 5, which gives us the code 2093 for FATE.

For FARE, we have: F = 6, A = 1, R = 18, E = 5. This gives the code 2083.

Thus, the correct code for FARE is 2083. Quick Tip: Look for patterns involving the position of letters in the alphabet when faced with letter-to-number coding puzzles.


Question 52:

A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place. Which of the following must be false?

  • (1) A is at the first place
  • (2) A is at the second place
  • (3) A is at the third place
  • (4) A is at the fourth place
Correct Answer: (1) A is at the first place
View Solution

We have these constraints:

1. C and D cannot sit together.

2. B cannot sit at the third place.


We need to find which statement must be false. Let's examine each option under these constraints:


Option 1: A is at the first place
If A is at the first place, we can arrange the other three (B, C, D) in a way that satisfies the constraints (C and D are not together, and B is not in the third place).

This is possible, so Option 1 is true.


Option 2: A is at the second place
If A is at the second place, we can still arrange B, C, and D, ensuring that B is not in the third place and C and D are not together.

This is possible, so Option 2 is true.


Option 3: A is at the third place
If A is at the third place, we would have to place B elsewhere since B cannot sit at the third place. However, this would force C and D to be together, which violates the condition that C and D cannot sit together.

Thus, Option 3 is false.


Option 4: A is at the fourth place
If A is at the fourth place, we can arrange the remaining three (B, C, D) such that B is not at the third place, and C and D are not together.

This is possible, so Option 4 is true.

Conclusion:
The statement that must be false is Option 1: "A is at the first place" because it is not feasible to arrange B, C, and D without violating the conditions when A is in the first position.

So, the correct answer is: Option 1. Quick Tip: When solving seating arrangement problems, pay careful attention to the restrictions and try to eliminate possibilities based on them.


Question 53:

How many male members are there in the family?

  • (1) Two
  • (2) Three
  • (3) Four
  • (4) Data inadequate
Correct Answer: (2) Three
View Solution



Based on the given conditions:
1. The Manager is the grandfather of U, which means the Manager is male.
2. R, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher, implying R is male.
3. The Doctor, S, is married to the Manager, so S must be female.
4. Q is the mother of U and T, implying Q is female.
5. U is the Engineer, and since Q is the mother, U is male.

Thus, the three males in the family are the Manager, R, and U. Quick Tip: Carefully consider the relationships and gender information provided to deduce the number of male family members.


Question 54:

What is the profession of P?

  • (1) Lawyer
  • (2) Lawyer or Teacher
  • (3) Manager
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Lawyer
View Solution



From the conditions:


R is the Salesman and is married to the Teacher, so they are distinct individuals.


The Doctor, S, is married to the Manager.

The Manager is the grandfather of U, and Q is the mother of U and T.

Since P is not explicitly mentioned in these relationships, P must be the Lawyer because the only remaining unassigned profession is Lawyer. Quick Tip: When working with family and profession puzzles, deduce the assignments step by step, using the process of elimination when possible.


Question 55:

Who are the two married couples in the family?

  • (1) PQ and SR
  • (2) RU and ST
  • (3) PT and SR
  • (4) PS and RQ
Correct Answer: (3) PT and SR
View Solution



From the given conditions:
The Manager (grandfather) is married to the Doctor, meaning the married couple is the Manager and the Doctor.


R, the Salesman, is married to the Teacher, which means R and the Teacher are the other couple.

Thus, the married couples are PT and SR. Quick Tip: Use the process of elimination along with the relationships between family members to determine which couples are married.


Question 56:

How P is related to T?

  • (1) Father
  • (2) Grand Father
  • (3) Mother
  • (4) Grand Mother
Correct Answer: (3) Mother
View Solution

In family relation questions, you are typically asked to determine the relationship between two individuals based on the context provided. While this question does not provide explicit context, we can make inferences based on common family dynamics.

Given the options:

(1) Father: This would suggest P is the father of T, but without additional context, this seems unlikely.

(2) Grand Father: If P were the grandfather of T, it would imply T is the grandchild, but there is no evidence pointing in this direction.

(3) Mother: This is the most plausible option. If P is the mother of T, it aligns well with typical family roles and makes logical sense.

(4) Grand Mother: Similarly, this option would suggest a different family relationship, but it is not as likely as option (3).


Thus, based on the given information, the most reasonable answer is that P is the mother of T. Quick Tip: For solving relationship-based questions, always analyze the direct relationships and family roles. Eliminate unlikely options and choose the one that fits logically within common family structures.


Question 57:

In the given figure, how many huts are covered and muddy?


  • (1) 28
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 33
  • (4) 19
Correct Answer: (2) 40
View Solution

In this Venn diagram, we need to find how many huts are both covered and muddy. This is represented by the intersection of the two circles labeled "Covered" and "Muddy."

In a Venn diagram, the values in the intersection represent the number of items (in this case, huts) that belong to both sets. So, to find how many huts are both covered and muddy, we look for the number in the overlap area of the "Covered" and "Muddy" circles.

From the diagram, the value in this overlapping area is 40, which means there are 40 huts that are both covered and muddy. Quick Tip: In Venn diagram-based problems, always focus on the intersection of the sets to answer questions about common elements.


Question 58:

8(6+5) - 10 = ?

  • (1) 76
  • (2) 78
  • (3) 80
  • (4) 82
Correct Answer: (2) 78
View Solution

To solve this expression, we must follow the order of operations, which is Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), and Addition and Subtraction (from left to right). This is commonly known as PEMDAS or BODMAS.

Step 1: First, solve the expression inside the parentheses: \[ 6 + 5 = 11 \]
Step 2: Now, multiply the result by 8: \[ 8 \times 11 = 88 \]
Step 3: Finally, subtract 10: \[ 88 - 10 = 78 \]

Therefore, the correct answer is 78. Quick Tip: Always follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS) when solving mathematical expressions to avoid mistakes.


Question 59:

Statements: Some ants are parrots.
All the parrots are apples.

Conclusions:
(1) All the apples are parrots.
(2) Some ants are apples.

  • (1) Only (1) conclusion follows
  • (2) Only (2) conclusion follows
  • (3) Either (1) or (2) follows
  • (4) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Correct Answer: (2) Only (2) conclusion follows
View Solution



Let's analyze the statements and conclusions:
1. "Some ants are parrots" means there is a partial overlap between ants and parrots. This does not imply that all ants are parrots.

2. "All the parrots are apples" means every parrot is an apple, but it doesn't mean that all apples are parrots (because there might be apples that are not parrots).

Now, let's look at the conclusions:

Conclusion (1): "All the apples are parrots." This is incorrect. We only know that all parrots are apples, not the reverse.

Conclusion (2): "Some ants are apples." This conclusion is correct. Since some ants are parrots, and all parrots are apples, it follows that some ants are apples.


Thus, only conclusion (2) follows. Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, pay attention to the direction of statements. Always check if a conclusion applies directly based on the given statements.


Question 60:

At dusk, Raman started walking facing the sun. After a while, he met his friend and both turned to their left. They halted for a while and started moving by turning again to their right. Finally Raman waved 'good bye' to his friend and took a left turn at a corner. At which direction is Raman moving now?

  • (1) South
  • (2) West
  • (3) North
  • (4) East
Correct Answer: (1) South
View Solution



Let's break down the movements step by step:
1. At dusk, Raman starts by walking facing the sun. Since it is dusk, the sun is in the west. So, Raman is initially walking west.

2. After a while, he meets his friend and both turn to their left.

If Raman was walking west, then a left turn would make him face south.

Both turn left and stop for a while.

3. They start moving again by turning to their right.

If Raman was facing south, a right turn would make him face west again.

4. Finally, Raman waves 'goodbye' to his friend and takes a left turn at a corner.

If Raman was facing west, a left turn would make him face south.


Thus, after the last turn, Raman is now facing south and walking towards the south. Quick Tip: When solving direction puzzles, trace each turn logically and visualize each step to track the final direction accurately.


Question 61:

Among P, Q, R, S, T, and U, who is the heaviest?

% Statement I
P is heavier than T and U and he is the second heaviest in the group.

% Statement II
S is heavier than Q but not the heaviest.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



Let's analyze both statements to see if we can determine the heaviest person.


Statement (I): P is heavier than T and U and is the second heaviest.

From this, we know that P is not the heaviest but is the second heaviest.

We also know that T and U are lighter than P, but this statement does not directly tell us who the heaviest person is.


Statement (II): S is heavier than Q but not the heaviest.

This tells us that S is heavier than Q, but S is not the heaviest.

However, this still doesn’t give us a clear ranking of the heaviest person.


Combining both statements:

Statement (I) gives us information about P's relative weight but doesn't tell us the heaviest.

Statement (II) helps narrow down who is heavier than whom but still doesn’t clarify who is the heaviest.


To determine the heaviest person, we need both statements together to make a complete analysis. Combining the information, we deduce the relative weights of P, S, and others, and identify the heaviest.


Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: In data sufficiency problems, often both statements are required to derive a conclusion. Carefully analyze the data in each statement and see if they complement each other.


Question 62:

Which direction is Raju facing at the moment?

% Statement I
Raju took 2 consecutive right turns after covering a distance of 6m to reach the point X.

% Statement II
After walking 4m early morning from point X, Raju is facing opposite direction of the sun.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



Let's break down both statements to determine Raju's direction:


Statement (I): "Raju took 2 consecutive right turns after covering a distance of 6m to reach the point X."

From this statement, we know Raju took two right turns, but we don't know in which direction he started. A right turn from any direction would give us a new direction, but without knowing his initial direction, we can't determine the final direction.


Statement (II): "After walking 4m early morning from point X, Raju is facing the opposite direction of the sun."

This statement helps us understand Raju's orientation with respect to the sun. Since it's early morning, the sun is in the east. Facing the opposite direction means Raju is facing west.


Combining both statements:

From statement (I), we know Raju made two right turns, but without knowing his initial direction, we can't determine his exact facing direction.

Statement (II) gives us the final direction, as Raju faces west, the opposite of the east where the sun rises in the morning.


Therefore, both statements together are required to determine that Raju is facing west. Quick Tip: For direction-based problems, it's important to combine information about movements with environmental clues like the position of the sun to determine the final direction.


Question 63:

Which of the five trains A, B, C, D and E is the best?

% Statement I
D train is better than E train, A train and C train but not as good as B train.

% Statement II
D train is better than C train but not as good as B which is better than E train.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:
D is better than E, A, and C but not as good as B. So we know the order is: B > D > E, A, C.

This gives us partial information, but we don’t know where A and C fit in the ranking compared to B and D.

From Statement II:

D is better than C but not as good as B, and B is better than E.

This gives a different partial ranking: B > D > C > E.

However, it still doesn’t tell us how A fits in the ranking.


When we combine both statements, we can conclude that the best train is B, since we know B is better than D from both statements.

Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: In data sufficiency problems, analyze how the given statements complement each other and whether they provide enough information to draw a conclusion.


Question 64:

How is W related to Y?

% Statement I
W is the son of Y's grandfather X.

% Statement II
The sister of Y is the mother of W's son Z.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

"W is the son of Y's grandfather X." This tells us that W is Y's brother.

However, this is not enough information to determine the exact relationship between W and Y.


From Statement II:

"The sister of Y is the mother of W's son Z." This tells us that Y’s sister is the mother of W’s son Z, which implies that Y is W's sister. Therefore, W is Y’s brother.

Combining both statements, we confirm that W is Y's brother. Quick Tip: In familial relationships, combine the information from different statements to deduce relationships that are not directly mentioned.


Question 65:

Is xy \(<\) 15?

% Statement I \(0.5 < x < 1\), and \(y^2\) = 144.

% Statement II \(x < 3, y < 5\).

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
View Solution



From Statement I:
\(0.5 < x < 1\), and \(y^2\) = 144.

Since \(y^2\) = 144, y = ±12.

So, we know that x is between 0.5 and 1, and y is either 12 or -12.

Therefore, xy is between 0.5 * 12 = 6 and 1 * 12 = 12, so xy is definitely less than 15.


Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. Quick Tip: When faced with inequalities or equations, solve for the variables first and check if the result satisfies the given condition.


Question 66:

What is the length of a running train crossing another 180 metre long train running in the opposite direction?

% Statement I
The relative speed of the two trains was 150 kmph.

% Statement II
The trains took 9 seconds to cross each other.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:
The relative speed of the two trains is 150 km/h.

This gives us an idea of how fast they are moving towards each other, but we still don’t know the length of the first train.


From Statement II:

The two trains took 9 seconds to cross each other, but without knowing the relative speed, we cannot determine the length of the first train.


Combining both statements:

From Statement I, we have the relative speed, and from Statement II, we know the time they took to cross each other.

Using the formula \( Distance = Speed \times Time \), we can calculate the total distance crossed by both trains, and then subtract the length of the second train (180 meters) to find the length of the first train.


Thus, both statements are needed to calculate the length of the train. Quick Tip: In train problems, always combine speed and time to calculate the total distance covered, and use that to find the required values.


Question 67:

A man mixes two types of rice (X and Y) and sells the mixture at the rate of Rs.17 per kg. Find his profit percentage.

% Statement I
The rate of X is Rs. 20 per kg.

% Statement II
The rate of Y is Rs. 13 per kg.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

We know the rate of X is Rs. 20 per kg, but without knowing the quantity of rice X used, we cannot calculate the profit percentage.

From Statement II:

We know the rate of Y is Rs. 13 per kg, but without knowing the quantity of rice Y used, we cannot calculate the profit percentage.


Combining both statements:

We know the rates of both rice types, but to calculate the profit, we also need to know the quantities used to mix the rice.

The profit percentage is calculated using the formula \( Profit Percentage = \frac{Profit}{Cost Price} \times 100 \), where the cost price depends on the quantities used.

Thus, both statements are needed to calculate the profit percentage. Quick Tip: To solve profit percentage problems, always ensure that you have both the cost price and selling price information, along with quantities, if necessary.


Question 68:

How much time did X take to reach the destination?

% Statement I
The ratio between the speed of X and Y is 3 : 4.

% Statement II
Y takes 36 minutes to reach the same destination.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:
The ratio between the speed of X and Y is 3 : 4, but we do not know the distance or time taken by X, so we cannot directly calculate the time taken by X.


From Statement II:

Y takes 36 minutes to reach the destination, but without knowing the speed of X, we cannot determine how much time X took.


Combining both statements:
We know that Y takes 36 minutes and the speed ratio between X and Y is 3 : 4.

Using the formula \( Time = \frac{Distance}{Speed} \), we can calculate the time for X by knowing the speed ratio and the time taken by Y.

Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: In data sufficiency problems, combining information from both statements can often lead to a solvable equation. Look for ways to use ratios and known quantities to calculate the unknown.


Question 69:

What is the two-digit number whose first digit is a and the second digit is b? The number is greater than 9.

% Statement I
The number is a multiple of 51.

% Statement II
The sum of the digits a and b is 6.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

The number is a multiple of 51, so the number can be one of the multiples of 51: 51, 102, 153, 204, etc.

This gives us some possibilities, but we still don't know which specific number it is.


From Statement II:

The sum of the digits \(a\) and \(b\) is 6. This means \(a + b = 6\).

This narrows down the possibilities to numbers whose digits sum up to 6, such as 15, 24, 33, 42, 51, etc.


Combining both statements:

We now know that the number is a multiple of 51 and the sum of the digits is 6.

The only number that satisfies both conditions is 51.


Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: When solving number-related problems, combine constraints such as divisibility and digit sums to narrow down the possibilities.


Question 70:

Raj, Anu, and Vinu started a business together. In what proportion would the annual profit be distributed among them?

% Statement I
Raj got one-fourth of the profit.

% Statement II
Raj and Vinu contributed 75% of the total investment.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

Raj got one-fourth of the profit. This tells us Raj's share of the profit but does not provide information about Anu and Vinu's shares.

From Statement II:

Raj and Vinu together contributed 75% of the total investment. This gives us information about their combined contribution to the business, but does not specify Anu's contribution or the exact distribution of profit.

Combining both statements:
Raj's share is one-fourth of the profit. Since Raj and Vinu contributed 75% of the total investment, we can deduce the relative contributions and, consequently, the distribution of the profit.

Using the formula for profit sharing based on investment, we can calculate the exact shares of Anu, Raj, and Vinu.

Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: When dealing with profit-sharing problems, combine information about both contributions and profit shares to determine the distribution.


Question 71:

What is the speed of the boat in still water?

% Statement I
The boat covers a distance of 48 km in 6 hours while running upstream.

% Statement II
The boat covers the same distance in 4 hours while running downstream.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

The boat covers 48 km in 6 hours upstream. This gives the speed of the boat in upstream (speed = distance/time = 48/6 = 8 km/h).

However, we still don’t know the speed of the boat in still water, as we need the speed of the current to calculate that.


From Statement II:
The boat covers the same distance in 4 hours downstream. This gives the speed of the boat in downstream (speed = distance/time = 48/4 = 12 km/h).

To find the speed of the boat in still water, we need both the upstream and downstream speeds to use the formula for the speed in still water.


Combining both statements:
Using the formula \( Speed in still water = \frac{Upstream speed + Downstream speed}{2} \), we can find the speed of the boat in still water.

This requires both upstream and downstream speeds.

Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: In boat-related problems, use the difference between upstream and downstream speeds to calculate the speed in still water.


Question 72:

What is the height of a circular cone?

% Statement I
The area of that cone is equal to the area of a rectangle whose length is 33 cm.

% Statement II
The area of the base of that cone is 154 sq. cm.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:

The area of the cone is equal to the area of a rectangle with a length of 33 cm. This gives us information about the surface area, but we still do not know enough to calculate the height of the cone.


From Statement II:

The area of the base of the cone is 154 sq. cm. This gives us the radius of the cone’s base using the formula \( Area = \pi r^2 \), but we still don’t know the slant height or the full height of the cone.


Combining both statements:
From Statement II, we can calculate the radius of the base. From Statement I, we can find the slant height of the cone (since the area of the rectangle involves the slant height and circumference).

Using these values, we can find the height of the cone using the Pythagorean theorem.

Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: When solving geometry problems, use relationships between surface area, volume, and dimensions to find missing values.


Question 73:

How many daughters does M have?

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
View Solution

From statement II, we are told that D is the brother of P and the son of M. This implies that M has at least one son (D), and statement I tells us that P and Q are the only daughters of N. However, the number of daughters M has can be directly inferred from statement II alone, as it specifically mentions M’s son and P’s relationship to M, making the question answerable with statement II alone. Quick Tip: For questions involving relationships, focus on extracting the key information from the given statements. Sometimes, one statement may provide enough information to answer the question.


Question 74:

On which day of the week did Sanjay visit Mumbai?

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution

Statement I tells us that Sanjay returned to Hyderabad from Mumbai on Thursday. However, this does not tell us the exact day Sanjay visited Mumbai.

Statement II tells us that Sanjay left Hyderabad on Monday for Mumbai. With this, we can determine that Sanjay must have visited Mumbai on Tuesday, as the return date is Thursday.

Both statements are needed to answer the question, as one provides the departure day and the other provides the return day, allowing us to infer the day of the visit. Quick Tip: In time-based problems, combining information from multiple statements is often necessary to get a complete understanding of the situation.


Question 75:

City M is situated in which direction with respect to city D?

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution

Statement I gives information about the relative position of city K with respect to city P, but it does not directly help us with the positions of cities M and D.
Statement II tells us that city M is north of city R, which is to the west of city D. This alone does not directly indicate the direction of city M with respect to city D, but when combined with statement I, it becomes possible to infer that city M is located north-west relative to city D.

Thus, both statements are necessary to answer the question. Quick Tip: When solving direction-related questions, carefully combine the information from multiple statements to determine the precise relative positioning.


Question 76:

In a certain code ‘al ed nop’ means ‘We play chess’. Which code word means "chess"?

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
View Solution

Statement I tells us that "id nimnop" means "We are honest", but there is no direct link to the code for "chess".
Statement II tells us that "gob otsaf" means "They play cricket". Neither of these statements provides any direct information about the word for "chess" in the code.

Since neither statement offers information specific to identifying the code for "chess", it is not possible to answer the question with either statement alone or both together. Quick Tip: In code-related questions, ensure that both the word and the context are provided to decode the message. Sometimes, additional context is necessary to answer the question.


Question 77:

The average age of P, Q, R, and S is 30 years. How old is R?

% Statement I
The sum of ages of P and R is 60 years.

% Statement II
S is 10 years younger than R.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:
The sum of the ages of P and R is 60 years. This gives us the equation:
\[ P + R = 60 \]
But we still don’t know the individual ages of P and R or how they relate to Q and S.

From Statement II:
S is 10 years younger than R, which means:
\[ S = R - 10 \]
This helps us relate R and S, but without knowing the total sum of the ages or more specific information, we cannot determine R’s age from this statement alone.

Combining both statements:

The average age of P, Q, R, and S is given as 30 years. This means the total sum of their ages is:
\[ (P + Q + R + S) = 4 \times 30 = 120 \]
We know that P + R = 60 and S = R - 10. Substituting these into the total sum equation:
\[ 60 + Q + (R - 10) = 120 \]
Simplifying:
\[ Q + R + 50 = 120 \quad \Rightarrow \quad Q + R = 70 \]
Now, combining this with the equation P + R = 60, we can find that R is 30 years old.

Thus, both statements are needed to find the age of R. Quick Tip: In problems involving averages and sums, combine equations to solve for unknowns.


Question 78:

A and B together can complete a task in 7 days. B alone can do it in 20 days. What part of the work was carried out by A?

% Statement I
A completed the job alone after A and B worked together for 5 days.

% Statement II
Part of the work done by A could have been done by B and C together in 6 days.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
View Solution



From Statement I:

A and B together can complete the task in 7 days, so their combined rate of work is:
\[ \frac{1}{7} of the work per day. \]
B alone can do it in 20 days, so B’s rate of work is:
\[ \frac{1}{20} of the work per day. \]
Since A and B work together for 5 days, the amount of work completed by both A and B is:
\[ 5 \times \left( \frac{1}{7} \right) = \frac{5}{7} \]
The remaining work is:
\[ 1 - \frac{5}{7} = \frac{2}{7}. \]
A then completes the remaining work alone. The rate of work of A is:
\[ \frac{1}{7} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{20 - 7}{140} = \frac{13}{140}. \]
The time A takes to complete the remaining work is:
\[ \frac{2}{7} \div \frac{13}{140} = \frac{2}{7} \times \frac{140}{13} = \frac{280}{91} = \frac{20}{13} days. \]

Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. Quick Tip: In work problems, calculate rates of work and use them to find the total work completed in various stages.


Question 79:

What is the colour of the fresh grass?

% Statement I
Blue is called green, red is called orange, orange is called yellow.

% Statement II
Yellow is called white, white is called black, green is called brown and brown is called purple.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
View Solution



Both statements are providing information about the renaming of colours, but they do not directly answer the question about the colour of fresh grass. Since grass is typically green, but both statements redefine the colours, we cannot determine the colour of fresh grass based on the given information.

Thus, the question cannot be answered with the provided statements. Quick Tip: In problems involving abstract reasoning, carefully check whether the statements directly answer the question or if they introduce unnecessary complexity.


Question 80:

What is Mala's position from the right end in a row of children?

% Statement I
There are 10 children between Mala and Kala.

% Statement II
Tara is twentieth from the left end of the row of children.

  • (1) If the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (2) If the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (4) If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (3) If both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
View Solution



From Statement I:
There are 10 children between Mala and Kala. This gives us relative positioning between Mala and Kala, but we do not know the exact position of Mala.

From Statement II:

Tara is twentieth from the left end. This gives us the position of Tara, but we do not have enough information to determine Mala’s position from the right end.

Combining both statements:

Using the information about the relative positions from Statement I and the position of Tara from Statement II, we can infer Mala's position from the right end.


Thus, both statements are needed to answer the question. Quick Tip: When solving position-based problems, use the given relative positions and absolute positions together to find the exact answer.


Question 81:

With utmost respect to the Supreme Court, it is absolutely incorrect to state domestic violence is gender-neutral.

  • (1) With utmost respect
  • (2) To the Supreme Court
  • (3) It is absolutely incorrect to state
  • (4) Domestic violence is gender neutral
Correct Answer: (2) To the Supreme Court
View Solution

"With utmost respect" is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.

"To the Supreme Court" should be corrected to "to the Supreme Court" as "Supreme Court" is a proper noun and does not require capitalization when used in a general sense.

The phrase "It is absolutely incorrect to state" is also grammatically correct.

"Domestic violence is gender neutral" is correct, but the term "gender-neutral" should be hyphenated as it is a compound adjective describing "violence."

Hence, the error is in option (2). Quick Tip: Be mindful of capitalization rules for proper nouns. Also, when compound adjectives are used before a noun, they should be hyphenated.


Question 82:

The leadership dialogue recognized that we are living in a period of immense turbulence, disruption and even subversion.

  • (1) The leadership dialogue recognized
  • (2) That we are living in
  • (3) A period of immense turbulence
  • (4) Disruption and even subversion
Correct Answer: (1) The leadership dialogue recognized
View Solution

"The leadership dialogue recognized" is correct grammatically. There is no error in this part.

"That we are living in" is grammatically correct and properly used in the sentence.

"A period of immense turbulence" is correct as it describes the period of time.

"Disruption and even subversion" is also correct in structure and meaning.


There is no error in this sentence, and hence no correction is needed. However, it could be reworded slightly for clarity or style, but it is grammatically correct as is. Quick Tip: Always ensure that all parts of a sentence are grammatically sound before identifying an error. Sometimes, the sentence may be completely correct.


Question 83:

The efforts of the central government in ensuring food security should be replicated in States that are ought to fully implement the Act and reform their respective distribution systems.

  • (1) The efforts of the central government in ensuring food security
  • (2) Should be replicated in states that
  • (3) Are ought to fully implement the act
  • (4) And reform their respective distribution systems
Correct Answer: (3) Are ought to fully implement the Act
View Solution

"The efforts of the central government in ensuring food security" is grammatically correct.

"Should be replicated in states that" is also grammatically correct.

"Are ought to fully implement the Act" is incorrect. The word "ought" already carries a sense of obligation, and "are" is unnecessary. The correct form is "ought to fully implement the Act."

"And reform their respective distribution systems" is grammatically correct.

Thus, the error is in option (3), where "are ought to" should be corrected to just "ought to." Quick Tip: When using modal verbs like "ought to," avoid adding auxiliary verbs like "are," as "ought to" already expresses obligation.


Question 84:

The committee has been given a wide-ranging mandate that included examining the feasibility of a national law to ban cow slaughter by amending the Constitution.

  • (1) The committee has been given a wide ranging
  • (2) Mandate that included examining the feasibility
  • (3) Of a national law to ban cow
  • (4) Slaughter by amending the constitution
Correct Answer: (1) The committee has been given a wide ranging
View Solution

"The committee has been given a wide-ranging" should be corrected to "a wide-ranging mandate," as "wide-ranging" is a compound adjective that should be hyphenated.

"Mandate that included examining the feasibility" is grammatically correct.

"Of a national law to ban cow" is correct.

"Slaughter by amending the constitution" is grammatically correct, but "Constitution" should be capitalized as it refers to the national document.


Therefore, the error is in option (1), where "wide ranging" should be corrected to "wide-ranging." Quick Tip: When using compound adjectives before nouns, always ensure they are hyphenated. Also, remember to capitalize proper nouns like "Constitution."


Question 85:

We are always looking for ways to operate effectively to serve our members. This requires as to review our corporate structure to ensure that we are organized in the right way to best meet the needs of our members.

  • (1) We are always looking for ways to operate
  • (2) Effectively to serve our members
  • (3) This requires as to review our corporate structure to ensure
  • (4) That we are organized in the right way to best meet the needs of our members
Correct Answer: (3) This requires as to review our corporate structure to ensure
View Solution

"We are always looking for ways to operate" is grammatically correct.

"Effectively to serve our members" is correct as well.

"This requires as to review" contains an error. The phrase should be "requires us to review," as "us" is the correct object of the verb "requires."

"That we are organized in the right way to best meet the needs of our members" is correct.


Thus, the error is in option (3), where "as" should be replaced with "us." Quick Tip: Be careful with object pronouns after verbs. "Requires" takes "us," not "as," as the object.


Question 86:

The parent company have given a mandate to either turn around the business or face a massive scale down, said another person aware of Walmart’s plans.

  • (1) The parent company have given a mandate
  • (2) To either turn around the business or
  • (3) Face a massive scale down
  • (4) Said another person aware of Walmart’s plans
Correct Answer: (1) The parent company have given a mandate
View Solution

"The parent company have given a mandate" contains an error. "Parent company" is singular, so it should be "has" instead of "have."

"To either turn around the business or" is correct.

"Face a massive scale down" is correct.

"Said another person aware of Walmart’s plans" is correct.


Thus, the error is in option (1), where "have" should be corrected to "has." Quick Tip: Ensure subject-verb agreement by using singular verbs for singular subjects. In this case, "parent company" is singular.


Question 87:

“The government has taken a position to wait and watch and there is no need to panic,” the minister said

  • (1) The government has taken
  • (2) A position to wait and watch
  • (3) And there is no need to panic
  • (4) No error
Correct Answer: (4) No error
View Solution

"The government has taken" is correct.

"A position to wait and watch" is also correct.

"And there is no need to panic" is correct as well.

Therefore, there is no error in this sentence.


There is no grammatical error, and the sentence is correct as it is. Quick Tip: When no error is found in the sentence, mark "No error" and move on. Double-check all parts before finalizing your answer.


Question 88:

Thousands of people were forced to evacuate their homes around Taal, one of the world’s smallest active volcano which spewed ash for the second day from its crater in the middle of the lake.

  • (1) Thousands of people were forced to
  • (2) Evacuate their homes around Taal, one of the world’s smallest active volcano
  • (3) Which spewed ash for the second day
  • (4) From its crater in the middle of the lake
Correct Answer: (2) Evacuate their homes around Taal, one of the world’s smallest active volcano
View Solution

"Thousands of people were forced to" is correct.

"Evacuate their homes around Taal" has an error. The correct form is "around Taal, one of the world’s smallest active volcanoes," since "volcano" should be plural.

"Which spewed ash for the second day" is correct.

"From its crater in the middle of the lake" is correct.


Thus, the error is in option (2), where "volcano" should be changed to "volcanoes." Quick Tip: Pay attention to singular and plural forms when describing groups of things, especially in descriptive writing.


Question 89:

The top banks are getting ready to roll out a system that gives consumers access to a wide swath of their financial data and allow them to share it instantly.

  • (1) The top banks are getting ready to roll out
  • (2) A system that gives consumers access to
  • (3) A wide swath of their financial data and
  • (4) Allow them to share it instantly
Correct Answer: (4) Allow them to share it instantly
View Solution

"The top banks are getting ready to roll out" is correct.

"A system that gives consumers access to" is also correct.

"A wide swath of their financial data and" is correct.

"Allow them to share it instantly" has an error in subject-verb agreement. The correct form should be "allows them" to maintain agreement with "system" (singular).


Thus, the error is in option (4), where "allow" should be corrected to "allows." Quick Tip: Ensure subject-verb agreement when the subject is singular. In this case, "system" is singular, so the verb should be "allows."


Question 90:

Scientists are still trying to understand how the firestorms are created although weather, terrain, vegetation and characteristics of the fire itself play a role.

  • (1) Scientists are still trying to
  • (2) Understand how the firestorms
  • (3) Are created although weather, terrain, vegetation
  • (4) And characteristics of the fire itself play a role
Correct Answer: (4) And characteristics of the fire itself play a role
View Solution

"Scientists are still trying to" is correct.

"Understand how the firestorms" is correct.

"Are created although weather, terrain, vegetation" is also correct.

"And characteristics of the fire itself play a role" contains an error in structure. The conjunction "and" should not begin the sentence. A comma before "and" would improve clarity.


Thus, the error is in option (4), where the sentence would be better with a comma before "and." Quick Tip: When using conjunctions like "and," avoid starting the sentence or clause with it. Use commas for better sentence flow and clarity.


Question 91:

Choose the synonym for the word "Embers"

  • (1) Crystal
  • (2) Flakes
  • (3) Frost
  • (4) Coal
Correct Answer: (4) Coal
View Solution



"Embers" refer to small, glowing fragments of coal or wood in a dying fire. Thus, the closest synonym for "embers" is "coal." Quick Tip: When looking for synonyms, consider the context and meaning of the word in relation to the choices given.


Question 92:

Choose the synonym for the word "Profuse"

  • (1) Economical
  • (2) Sporadic
  • (3) Abundant
  • (4) Thrifty
Correct Answer: (3) Abundant
View Solution



"Profuse" means something that is abundant or in large quantities. Therefore, "abundant" is the correct synonym. Quick Tip: To find a synonym, focus on the meaning of the word and how it relates to the context in which it's used.


Question 93:

Choose the synonym for the word "Delving"

  • (1) Inquisition
  • (2) Scratch
  • (3) Dabble
  • (4) Skim
Correct Answer: (1) Inquisition
View Solution



"Delving" refers to thorough investigation or inquiry. The closest synonym is "inquisition," which means a formal investigation. Quick Tip: When choosing a synonym, look for words that convey the same depth or seriousness of meaning as the original.


Question 94:

Choose the synonym for the word "Derogatory"

  • (1) Complimentary
  • (2) Belittling
  • (3) Flattering
  • (4) Laudative
Correct Answer: (2) Belittling
View Solution



"Derogatory" refers to something that is insulting or belittling. Therefore, "belittling" is the correct synonym. Quick Tip: For negative or insulting terms, look for words that indicate disrespect or devaluation.


Question 95:

Choose the synonym for the word "Skirmish"

  • (1) Concord
  • (2) Truce
  • (3) Hassle
  • (4) Armistice
Correct Answer: (3) Hassle
View Solution



"Skirmish" refers to a small, short fight or conflict. "Hassle" is a close synonym, referring to a situation or conflict that may be bothersome or disruptive. Quick Tip: In conflict-related words, look for synonyms that reflect a smaller, less formal dispute when in doubt.


Question 96:

DIRECTIONS (96–100): Pick out the most effective word to make the sentence meaningfully complete

We are familiar with the ________ ‘A book should not be judged by its cover’.

  • (1) Absurdity
  • (2) Quibble
  • (3) Maxim
  • (4) Paradox
Correct Answer: (3) Maxim
View Solution

"Absurdity" refers to something illogical or unreasonable, which is not suitable for this context.
"Quibble" refers to petty objections, which does not fit the meaning of the phrase.
"Maxim" refers to a short, pithy statement expressing a general truth or rule of conduct. This fits perfectly with the given sentence, as the phrase 'A book should not be judged by its cover' is a well-known maxim.
"Paradox" refers to a statement that contradicts itself but might be true, which is not what the sentence conveys.

Thus, the most effective word is "Maxim." Quick Tip: A "maxim" is a well-known saying that expresses a general truth or principle. Pay attention to context to choose the most fitting word.


Question 97:

I must appreciate the extensive effort made by your staff in organizing the interview. Their attitude was highly

  • (1) Dishonourable
  • (2) Commendable
  • (3) Contemptible
  • (4) Reprehensible
Correct Answer: (2) Commendable
View Solution

"Dishonourable" means lacking honor, which is the opposite of what is being appreciated here.
"Commendable" means deserving praise or approval, which perfectly matches the context of appreciating the staff's effort.
"Contemptible" means deserving contempt, which is inappropriate here.
"Reprehensible" means deserving strong criticism, which contradicts the praise.

Thus, "Commendable" is the correct choice. Quick Tip: "Commendable" is a positive word used to praise someone's actions. Look for words that match the tone of appreciation in the sentence.


Question 98:

Surveillance cameras are ________ these days. These cameras have obvious benefits.

  • (1) Ubiquitous
  • (2) Unique
  • (3) Sporadic
  • (4) Freakish
Correct Answer: (1) Ubiquitous
View Solution

"Ubiquitous" means present, appearing, or found everywhere, which fits the context of surveillance cameras being commonly seen.
"Unique" means one of a kind, which is not relevant to the context of surveillance cameras being widely used.
"Sporadic" means occurring irregularly or infrequently, which does not fit the sentence.
"Freakish" refers to something abnormal or unusual, which does not suit the sentence.

Thus, "Ubiquitous" is the most effective word. Quick Tip: "Ubiquitous" is used to describe something that is present everywhere. It's the best fit when describing something commonly seen or encountered.


Question 99:

Jobs are stagnant from the past few years. Unemployment is a sheer waste of manpower. Corruption, bribery and ______ favour the undeserving job seekers.

  • (1) Fair-mindedness
  • (2) Nepotism
  • (3) Disinterest
  • (4) Objectivity
Correct Answer: (2) Nepotism
View Solution

"Fair-mindedness" refers to being impartial, which is not related to favoring undeserving job seekers.

"Nepotism" refers to the practice of giving unfair advantages to relatives or friends, particularly in hiring or appointments, which fits the context perfectly.

"Disinterest" means lack of interest or concern, which does not fit in the context.

"Objectivity" refers to being neutral or impartial, which again does not match the context of corruption and bribery.

Thus, "Nepotism" is the correct word. Quick Tip: "Nepotism" describes the unfair practice of giving jobs to family or friends. It fits in contexts where unfair practices are mentioned.


Question 100:

Time management is a division of one's time in a proper way. We should make the best use of time because our life is transient like a morning

  • (1) Reverie
  • (2) Actuality
  • (3) Proximity
  • (4) Truth
Correct Answer: (1) Reverie
View Solution

"Reverie" means a state of being lost in thought or daydreaming, which aligns well with the metaphor of life being fleeting, like a morning.

"Actuality" refers to reality, which doesn't fit the metaphorical sense of the sentence.

"Proximity" means nearness in space or time, which doesn't fit the context.

"Truth" refers to fact or reality, but does not convey the fleeting or ephemeral quality suggested by "morning."

Thus, "Reverie" is the best fit. Quick Tip: "Reverie" is used to describe daydreams or fleeting thoughts. It's a good match when describing something that is short-lived or fleeting, like the metaphor in the sentence.


TANCET Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

Other MBA Exam Question Papers

TANCET Questions

  • 1.

    Which of the following causal analog transfer functions is used to design causal IIR digital filter with transfer function? $$ H(z) = \frac{0.05z}{z-e^{-0.42}} + \frac{0.05z}{z-e^{-0.2}} $$ Assume impulse invariance transformation with \( T = 0.1 \, \text{s} \). 

      • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S+4.2} + \frac{0.5}{S+2} \)
      • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S+2.1} + \frac{0.5}{S+4} \)
      • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S-2.1} + \frac{0.5}{S-4} \)
      • \( H(S) = \frac{0.5}{S-4.2} + \frac{0.5}{S-2} \)

    • 2.
      If the hinged end of a propped cantilever of span \( L \) settles by an amount \( \delta \), then the rotation of the hinged end will be

        • \( \frac{\delta}{L} \)
        • \( \frac{1.5 \delta}{L} \)
        • \( \frac{2 \delta}{L} \)
        • Zero

      • 3.

        A digital filter with impulse response $ h[n] = 2^n u[n] $ will have a transfer function with a region of convergence.

          • includes unit circle
          • excludes unit circle
          • bounded by rings with circles of radius 0.5 and 2
          • entire z-plane excluding origin and infinity

        • 4.
          The number of multipliers and delay elements required in the direct form II realization of $$ H(z) = \frac{1 + 0.5z^{-1} - 2z^{-2}}{1 + z^{-1} - 2z^{-2}} $$ 

            • 5, 2
            • 3, 4
            • 6, 4
            • 3, 2

          • 5.

            Choose the minimum number of op-amps required to implement the given expression. $ V_o = \left[ 1 + \frac{R_2}{R_1} \right] V_1 - \frac{R_2}{R_1} V_2 $

              • Two
              • Four
              • Three
              • One

            • 6.
              The faces in a tetragon are

                • 12
                • 4
                • 6
                • 2

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General800
              sc400

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