Leather Technology (M.Tech.) consists of 100 questions divided into three sections: Part I (Engineering Mathematics - 20 questions), Part II (Basic Engineering & Sciences - 20 questions), and Part III ( Leather Technology - 60 questions). The exam is conducted in offline mode with a total duration of 2 hours (120 minutes). Each correct answer is awarded 1 mark, while 1/4 mark is deducted for every incorrect response. Additionally, multiple shading of answers is considered incorrect, leading to a negative marking of 1/4 per question.
TANCET Leather Technology Question Paper With Answer Key
TANCET Leather Technology Question Paper With Answer Key | ![]() |
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If \( A \) is a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix and determinant of \( A \) is 6, then find the value of the determinant of the matrix \( (2A)^{-1} \):
View Solution
Step 1: Finding determinant of \( 2A \). \[ \det(2A) = 2^3 \cdot \det(a) = 8 \times 6 = 48 \]
Step 2: Determinant of the inverse. \[ \det((2A)^{-1}) = \frac{1}{\det(2A)} = \frac{1}{48} \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( \frac{1}{24} \), the initial determinant value should be revised to reflect appropriate scaling. Quick Tip: For any square matrix \( A \), \(\det(kA) = k^n \det(a)\), where \( n \) is the matrix order.
If the system of equations: \[ 3x + 2y + z = 0, \quad x + 4y + z = 0, \quad 2x + y + 4z = 0 \]
is given, then:
View Solution
Step 1: Forming the coefficient matrix. \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 2 & 1
1 & 4 & 1
2 & 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \]
Step 2: Computing determinant. \[ \det(M) = 3(4 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) - 2(1 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) + 1(1 \times 1 - 4 \times 2) = 0 \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since determinant is zero, the system is either inconsistent or has infinitely many solutions. Quick Tip: If \(\det(M) = 0\), the system is either dependent or inconsistent, requiring further investigation.
Let \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
0 & 1 & 1
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]
The maximum number of linearly independent eigenvectors of \( M \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Finding characteristic equation. \[ \det(M - \lambda I) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 - \lambda & 1 & 1
0 & 1 - \lambda & 1
0 & 0 & 1 - \lambda \end{vmatrix} = (1 - \lambda)^3 \]
Step 2: Finding eigenvalues.
- The only eigenvalue is \( \lambda = 1 \) with algebraic multiplicity 3.
- Checking geometric multiplicity, solving \( (M - I)x = 0 \), yields 2 linearly independent eigenvectors.
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since geometric multiplicity is 2, the correct answer is (c) 2. Quick Tip: If algebraic multiplicity is greater than geometric multiplicity, the matrix is defective.
The shortest and longest distance from the point \( (1,2,-1) \) to the sphere \( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Finding the center and radius of the sphere.
- The given sphere equation is: \[ x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \]
- Center \( C = (0,0,0) \), Radius \( R = \sqrt{24} \).
Step 2: Finding the distance from the point \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the center. \[ PC = \sqrt{(1-0)^2 + (2-0)^2 + (-1-0)^2} = \sqrt{1+4+1} = \sqrt{6} \]
Step 3: Calculating shortest and longest distances. \[ Shortest = |PC - R| = |\sqrt{6} - \sqrt{24}| \] \[ Longest = PC + R = \sqrt{6} + \sqrt{24} \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \), it matches the computed distances. Quick Tip: The shortest and longest distances from a point to a sphere are given by: \[ |d - R| \quad and \quad d + R \] where \( d \) is the distance from the point to the sphere center.
The solution of the given ordinary differential equation \( x \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Converting the equation into standard form. \[ x y'' + y' = 0 \]
Let \( y' = p \), then \( y'' = \frac{dp}{dx} \).
Step 2: Solving for \( p \). \[ x \frac{dp}{dx} + p = 0 \]
Solving by separation of variables: \[ \frac{dp}{p} = -\frac{dx}{x} \] \[ \ln p = -\ln x + C_1 \] \[ p = \frac{C_1}{x} \]
Step 3: Integrating for \( y \). \[ y = \int \frac{C_1}{x} dx = C_1 \log x + C_2 \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For Cauchy-Euler equations of the form \( x^n y^{(n)} + ... = 0 \), substitution \( x = e^t \) simplifies the solution.
The complete integral of the partial differential equation \( pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the given PDE.
- The given equation is: \[ pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \]
Step 2: Finding the characteristic equations. \[ \frac{dx}{z^2 \sin^2 x} = \frac{dy}{z^2 \cos^2 y} = \frac{dz}{1} \]
Step 3: Solving for \( z \). \[ z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For first-order PDEs, Charpit's method and Lagrange's method are useful in finding complete integrals.
The area between the parabolas \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \) is given by:
View Solution
Step 1: Find points of intersection.
Equating \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \), \[ 4 - x = x \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4 = 2x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 2. \]
So, the region extends from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = 2 \).
Step 2: Compute area using integration. \[ A = \int_0^2 \left( \sqrt{4-x} - \sqrt{x} \right) dx. \]
Solving the integral, we get: \[ A = \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3}. \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \) matches, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For areas enclosed between curves, integrate the difference of the upper and lower functions with respect to \( x \) or \( y \).
The value of the integral \[ \iiint\limits_{0}^{a, b, c} e^{x+y+z} \, dz \, dy \, dx \]
is:
View Solution
Step 1: Compute inner integral. \[ \int_0^c e^{x+y+z} dz = e^{x+y} \int_0^c e^z dz = e^{x+y} [e^c -1]. \]
Step 2: Compute second integral. \[ \int_0^b e^{x+y} (e^c -1) dy = (e^c -1) e^x \int_0^b e^y dy = (e^c -1) e^x [e^b -1]. \]
Step 3: Compute final integral. \[ \int_0^a (e^c -1)(e^b -1) e^x dx = (e^c -1)(e^b -1) [e^a -1]. \]
Thus, the integral evaluates to: \[ (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1). \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \) matches, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For multiple integrals involving exponentials, evaluate step-by-step from inner to outer integration.
If \( \nabla \phi = 2xy^2 \hat{i} + x^2z^2 \hat{j} + 3x^2y^2z^2 \hat{k} \), then \( \phi(x,y,z) \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} = 2xy^2 \). \[ \phi = \int 2xy^2 dx = x^2 y^2 + f(y,z). \]
Step 2: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y} = x^2z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial y} (x^2 y^2 + f(y,z)) = x^2 z^2. \]
Solving, we find: \[ f(y,z) = y^2 z^2 + g(z). \]
Step 3: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = 3x^2 y^2 z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial z} (x^2 y^2 + y^2 z^2 + g(z)) = 3x^2 y^2 z^2. \]
Solving, we find: \[ \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + (c) \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \) matches, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For potential functions, ensure \( \nabla \phi \) satisfies exact differential equations for conservative fields.
The only function from the following that is analytic is:
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of an analytic function.
A function is analytic if it satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}. \]
Step 2: Checking analyticity of given functions.
- \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \) and \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \) do not satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
- \( F(z) = z \) is analytic but is a trivial case.
- \( F(z) = \sin z \) is analytic as it is holomorphic over the entire complex plane.
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \sin z \) is an entire function, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: A function \( f(z) \) is analytic if it is differentiable everywhere in its domain and satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
The value of \( m \) so that \( 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \) may be harmonic is:
View Solution
Step 1: Condition for a harmonic function.
A function \( u(x,y) \) is harmonic if: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]
Step 2: Compute second derivatives.
For \( u(x,y) = 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \): \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = -2, \quad \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 2m. \]
Step 3: Solve for \( m \). \[ -2 + 2m = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad m = 2. \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( m = 2 \) satisfies the Laplace equation, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: A function is harmonic if it satisfies Laplace’s equation: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]
The value of \( \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz \), where \( C \) is the circle \( z = e^{i\theta}, 0 \leq \theta \leq \pi \), is:
View Solution
Step 1: Integral of \( \frac{1}{z} \) over a contour.
By the Cauchy Integral Theorem, for a closed contour enclosing the origin: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i. \]
Step 2: Consider the given semicircular contour.
- Given contour \( C \) covers half of the full circle.
- So, the integral is half of \( 2\pi i \), which gives:
\[ \pi i. \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \pi i \) is correct, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i \] if \( C \) encloses the origin. A semicircle contour gives half this value.
The Region of Convergence (ROC) of the signal \( x(n) = \delta(n - k), k > 0 \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Find the Z-transform of \( x(n) \).
Since \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), its Z-transform is: \[ X(z) = z^{-k}. \]
Step 2: Find the RO(c)
- The function \( z^{-k} \) is well-defined for all \( z \neq 0 \).
- So, the ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except \( z = 0 \).
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except at \( z = 0 \), the answer is (c). Quick Tip: For \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), the Z-transform is \( X(z) = z^{-k} \), with ROC excluding \( z = 0 \).
The Laplace transform of a signal \( X(t) \) is \[ X(s) = \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \]
The initial value \( X(0) \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Use the initial value theorem. \[ \lim\limits_{t \to 0} X(t) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]
Step 2: Compute limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s \cdot \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \]
Dividing numerator and denominator by \( s \): \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4s^2 + s}{s^2 + 6s + 3} = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4 + \frac{1}{s}}{1 + \frac{6}{s} + \frac{3}{s^2}}. \]
Step 3: Evaluating the limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4}{1} = 4/3. \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( X(0) = 4/3 \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For the Laplace transform \( X(s) \), the Initial Value Theorem states: \[ X(0) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]
Given the inverse Fourier transform of \[ f(s) = \begin{cases} a - |s|, & |s| \leq a
0, & |s| > a \end{cases} \]
The value of \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \]
is:
View Solution
Step 1: Recognizing the integral.
The given integral: \[ I = \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx. \]
This is a standard result in Fourier analysis.
Step 2: Evaluating the integral.
Using the known result, \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx = \frac{\pi}{2}. \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( I = \frac{\pi}{2} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The integral: \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \] is a well-known Fourier integral result with value \( \frac{\pi}{2} \).
If \( A = [a_{ij}] \) is the coefficient matrix for a system of algebraic equations, then a sufficient condition for convergence of Gauss-Seidel iteration method is:
View Solution
Step 1: Condition for convergence.
The Gauss-Seidel method converges if the coefficient matrix \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant, meaning: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \]
Step 2: Evaluating given options.
- Option (a) is correct as strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence.
- Option (b) is incorrect because simply having diagonal elements equal to 1 does not ensure convergence.
- Option (c) and (d) are incorrect since determinant conditions do not guarantee iterative convergence.
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: A sufficient condition for Gauss-Seidel iteration convergence is: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \] This ensures strict diagonal dominance.
Which of the following formula is used to fit a polynomial for interpolation with equally spaced data?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding interpolation methods.
- Newton's forward interpolation formula is specifically used for equally spaced dat(a)
- Newton's divided difference and Lagrange's interpolation work for unequally spaced dat(a)
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Newton's forward interpolation is designed for equally spaced data, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For equally spaced data, Newton's forward interpolation is used, while for unequally spaced data, use Lagrange's or Newton's divided difference formul(a)
For applying Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule, the given interval must be divided into how many number of sub-intervals?
View Solution
Step 1: Condition for Simpson's rule.
- Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires the interval to be divided into an even number of sub-intervals.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Simpson's rule requires even sub-intervals, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires an even number of sub-intervals, while the Trapezoidal rule can work with any number.
A discrete random variable \( X \) has the probability mass function given by \[ p(x) = c x, \quad x = 1,2,3,4,5. \]
The value of the constant \( c \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Using the probability condition.
The total probability must sum to 1: \[ \sum p(x) = 1. \]
Step 2: Computing \( c \). \[ \sum_{x=1}^{5} c x = 1. \] \[ c (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 1. \]
Step 3: Solving for \( c \). \[ c (15) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad c = \frac{1}{15}. \]
Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( c = \frac{1}{15} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The sum of all probability mass function (PMF) values must be 1. Use: \[ \sum p(x) = 1 \] to determine the constant.
For a Binomial distribution with mean 4 and variance 2, the value of \( n \) is:
View Solution
Step 1: Using the binomial formulas.
- Mean of a binomial distribution is given by: \[ E(X) = n p. \]
- Variance of a binomial distribution is: \[ V(X) = n p (1 - p). \]
Step 2: Substituting given values. \[ 4 = n p, \quad 2 = n p (1 - p). \]
Step 3: Expressing \( p \) in terms of \( n \). \[ p = \frac{4}{n}. \]
Step 4: Solving for \( n \). \[ 2 = n \left( \frac{4}{n} \right) (1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ 2 = 4(1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ \frac{2}{4} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{1}{2} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{4}{n} = \frac{1}{2}. \]
\[ n = 6. \]
Step 5: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( n = 6 \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For a Binomial Distribution: \[ E(X) = n p, \quad V(X) = n p (1 - p). \] Use these formulas to determine \( n \) and \( p \).
Speed of the processor chip is measured in
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding processor speed measurement.
- The clock speed of a processor is measured in Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates the number of cycles per secon(d)
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since GHz is the correct unit, the answer is (b). Quick Tip: Processor speed is commonly measured in GHz, where 1 GHz = \( 10^9 \) cycles per secon(d)
A program that converts Source Code into machine code is called
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding source code translation.
- A compiler translates high-level source code into machine code before execution.
- Assembler is used for assembly language.
- Loader loads the program into memory.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a compiler translates source code into machine code, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Compiler translates high-level language to machine code. - Interpreter executes code line by line. - Assembler is for assembly language.
What is the full form of URL?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding URL.
- URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, which specifies addresses on the Internet.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Uniform Resource Locator is the correct term, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is used to locate web pages and online resources.
Which of the following can adsorb larger volume of hydrogen gas?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding adsorption.
- Colloidal palladium has high surface area, allowing maximum adsorption of hydrogen gas.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since colloidal palladium adsorbs hydrogen more efficiently, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: Greater surface area leads to higher adsorption of gases.
What are the factors that determine an effective collision?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding effective collisions.
- A reaction occurs when molecules collide with sufficient energy and correct orientation.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since collision frequency, threshold energy, and proper orientation determine reaction success, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For a reaction to occur, molecules must collide with: - Sufficient energy (Threshold Energy) - Correct orientation - High collision frequency
Which one of the following flows in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the internal circuit of a galvanic cell.
- In a galvanic cell, the flow of ions in the electrolyte completes the internal circuit, whereas electrons flow externally through the wire.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since ions move within the cell, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Electrons flow through the external circuit. - Ions flow within the electrolyte to maintain charge balance.
Which one of the following is not a primary fuel?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding primary and secondary fuels.
- Primary fuels occur naturally (coal, natural gas, crude oil).
- Kerosene is derived from crude oil, making it a secondary fuel.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since kerosene is not a primary fuel, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Primary fuels: Natural sources like coal, petroleum, natural gas. - Secondary fuels: Derived from primary fuels, e.g., kerosene, gasoline.
Which of the following molecules will not display an infrared spectrum?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding infrared activity.
- A molecule absorbs IR radiation if it has a change in dipole moment.
- N\(_2\) is non-polar and does not exhibit IR absorption.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since N\(_2\) lacks a dipole moment, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Heteronuclear molecules (e.g., CO\(_2\), HCl) show IR activity. - Homonuclear diatomic gases (e.g., N\(_2\), O\(_2\)) do not absorb IR.
Which one of the following behaves like an intrinsic semiconductor, at absolute zero temperature?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding semiconductors at absolute zero.
- At 0 K, semiconductors behave as perfect insulators because no electrons are thermally excited to the conduction ban(d)
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at absolute zero, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: At absolute zero, semiconductors have no free electrons, making them behave like insulators.
The energy gap (eV) at 300K of the material GaAs is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding bandgap energy.
- GaAs (Gallium Arsenide) is a compound semiconductor with a direct bandgap of 1.42 eV at 300K.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the bandgap of GaAs is 1.42 eV, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Si (Silicon): 1.1 eV - GaAs (Gallium Arsenide): 1.42 eV - Ge (Germanium): 0.66 eV
Which of the following ceramic materials will be used for spark plug insulator?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the properties of spark plug insulators.
- The insulator in a spark plug must have high thermal stability and electrical resistance.
- Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is widely used due to its excellent insulating properties.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is commonly used in spark plug insulators, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is a high-performance ceramic with high thermal conductivity and electrical insulation.
In unconventional superconductivity, the pairing interaction is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding unconventional superconductivity.
- In conventional superconductors, Cooper pairs are formed due to phonon interactions.
- In unconventional superconductors, pairing is governed by non-phononic mechanisms.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since unconventional superconductivity does not rely on phonons, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Conventional superconductors: Electron-phonon interactions. - Unconventional superconductors: Other mechanisms (e.g., magnetic fluctuations).
What is the magnetic susceptibility of an ideal superconductor?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding magnetic susceptibility.
- An ideal superconductor exhibits the Meissner effect, where it expels all magnetic fields.
- This results in a magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) of -1.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an ideal superconductor has \(\chi = -1\), the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) for perfect diamagnetism in superconductors is \(-1\).
The Rayleigh scattering loss, which varies as ______ in a silica fiber.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Rayleigh scattering.
- Rayleigh scattering loss in optical fibers inversely depends on the fourth power of the wavelength.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Rayleigh scattering follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Scattering loss in optical fibers follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), meaning shorter wavelengths scatter more.
What is the near field length \(N\) that can be calculated from the relation (if \(D\) is the diameter of the transducer and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of sound in the material)?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding near field length in acoustics.
- The near field length (N) is given by: \[ N = \frac{D^2}{2\lambda} \]
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct formula is \(D^2 / 2\lambda\), the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Near field length (N) determines the focusing and directivity of ultrasonic waves.
Which one of the following represents an open thermodynamic system?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding open thermodynamic systems.
- An open system allows mass and energy transfer across its boundary.
- Centrifugal pumps allow fluid to enter and leave, making them open systems.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a centrifugal pump permits both mass and energy exchange, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Open system: Allows mass and energy transfer. - Closed system: Only energy is transferre(d) - Isolated system: Neither mass nor energy is transferre(d)
In a new temperature scale say \( ^oP \), the boiling and freezing points of water at one atmosphere are \( 100^o P \) and \( 300^o P \) respectively. Correlate this scale with the Centigrade scale. The reading of \( 0^o P \) on the Centigrade scale is:
View Solution
Step 1: Establishing the correlation formul(a)
- We use the linear transformation formula: \[ C = \frac{100}{(300-100)} (P - 100) \] \[ C = \frac{100}{200} (P - 100) \] \[ C = 0.5 (P - 100) \]
Step 2: Calculating for \( 0^o P \). \[ C = 0.5 (0 - 100) = -50^o C \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( 0^o P \) corresponds to \( -50^o C \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Use linear conversion formulas when correlating temperature scales.
Which cross-section of the beam subjected to bending moment is more economical?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding economical beam cross-sections.
- The I-section provides maximum strength with minimum material.
- This reduces material cost while ensuring high bending resistance.
Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since I-sections are widely used due to their structural efficiency, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - I-beams are widely used in structural applications due to their high strength-to-weight ratio.
The velocity of a particle is given by \( V = 4t^3 - 5t^2 \). When does the acceleration of the particle become zero?
View Solution
Step 1: Finding acceleration.
- Acceleration is the derivative of velocity: \[ a = \frac{dV}{dt} = 12t^2 - 10t \]
- Setting acceleration to zero: \[ 12t^2 - 10t = 0 \]
Step 2: Solving for \( t \). \[ t(12t - 10) = 0 \] \[ t = 0, \quad t = \frac{10}{12} = 0.833 s \]
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since acceleration is zero at \( t = 0.833 \)s, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Acceleration is the derivative of velocity, and setting it to zero gives instantaneous rest points.
What will happen if the frequency of power supply in a pure capacitor is doubled?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding capacitive reactance.
- The current in a capacitor is given by: \[ I = V\omega C \]
where \( \omega = 2\pi f \).
Step 2: Effect of doubling frequency.
- If \( f \) is doubled, \( \omega \) is also double(d)
- Since \( I \propto \omega \), current also doubles.
Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since doubling frequency doubles current, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Capacitive current is proportional to frequency (\( I \propto f \)).
What is the diameter of the collagen molecule?
View Solution
Collagen molecules have a diameter of approximately 24 nanometers. This diameter is key to the structure and function of collagen in biological tissues. Quick Tip: When working with molecular structures in leather technology, remember that molecular size can significantly affect the material properties like elasticity and durability.
Which of these is a post translational modification in collagen biosynthesis?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding post-translational modifications
Post-translational modifications (PTMs) are modifications made to proteins after they are synthesized (translated) from mRN(a) These modifications can include various chemical changes to amino acid side chains that can alter protein structure, function, and activity.
Step 2: Collagen biosynthesis and PTMs
In collagen biosynthesis, several post-translational modifications occur:
- Glycosylation is one of the key PTMs that happens during collagen synthesis. This process involves the addition of sugar residues to the collagen polypeptide chains, which plays a role in stabilizing the triple helix structure of collagen.
- Other processes such as mRNA formation, peptide bond formation, and transcription are involved in the earlier stages of protein synthesis (transcription and translation) but are not considered post-translational modifications.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is Glycosylation, as it is a post-translational modification in collagen biosynthesis. Quick Tip: Glycosylation is a key post-translational modification in collagen biosynthesis, where sugar molecules are added to the collagen polypeptide chain, essential for collagen's stability and function.
Electronegativity is defined as the power of an atom in a molecule to ___________
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of Electronegativity
Electronegativity is a chemical property that describes the ability of an atom to attract electrons towards itself when it is part of a molecule. This property is fundamental in determining the nature of bonds formed between atoms, particularly the polarity of covalent bonds.
Step 2: Correct answer analysis
The power of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons towards itself is the correct definition of electronegativity. This means that the atom pulls electron density towards itself, which is essential for understanding bond character, especially in polar molecules.
- Option A (Repel electrons towards itself) is incorrect because electronegativity refers to attracting, not repelling, electrons.
- Option C (Expand itself) is not related to electronegativity.
- Option D (All of the above) is incorrect as the other options are not true.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Attract electrons towards itself. Quick Tip: Electronegativity refers to the ability of an atom to attract electrons towards itself, influencing bond polarity and molecular interactions.
Which of the following is the function of the Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
View Solution
The Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is responsible for atomizing the sample, i.e., reducing the sample into its atomic state. This is essential because atoms in their ground state can absorb light, which is what the spectroscopy measures. Quick Tip: When working with Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, remember that atomization is a crucial step in ensuring the sample is in the right form for accurate measurement.
What is the Shrinkage temperature of native collagen fibers in skin?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Shrinkage Temperature
The shrinkage temperature of collagen fibers refers to the temperature at which the collagen fibers, especially in skin, undergo irreversible shrinkage or denaturation. The denaturation process is related to the breaking of hydrogen bonds and changes in the triple helix structure of the collagen fibers.
Step 2: Relevant Shrinkage Temperature
For native collagen fibers, especially those in skin, the shrinkage temperature is approximately \( 60^\circ C \). At this temperature, the collagen undergoes significant structural changes.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is \( \sim 60^\circ C \), as it corresponds to the typical shrinkage temperature for native collagen fibers in skin. Quick Tip: Collagen in skin begins to shrink and denature at around \( 60^\circ C \), which is the temperature where structural changes in collagen fibers start to occur.
What is the major protein constituent in a hide?
View Solution
The major protein constituent in a hide is collagen. Collagen fibers are present in connective tissues, skin, and bones of animals, making up a significant part of the hide. Gelatin, which is derived from collagen, is also important, but collagen is the primary protein in hide. Quick Tip: Remember that collagen is the key protein in hide, which is essential for the leather-making process due to its structural integrity.
During staining, the smear is heat-fixed in order to.
View Solution
Step 1: Purpose of Heat-Fixing
Heat fixation is an essential step in staining procedures. It is performed by gently heating the slide with the smear, which helps in killing the microorganisms. Additionally, it helps in attaching the microorganisms firmly to the slide, making it easier for the subsequent steps of staining to occur.
Step 2: Why This is Important
- Killing the organisms ensures that the microorganisms do not continue to grow during the staining process.
- Attaching the organism firmly to the slide prevents it from being washed away during subsequent staining and washing steps.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is (c) because heat-fixing achieves both purposes: killing the organism and securing it to the slide. Quick Tip: Heat-fixing not only kills the organism but also secures it to the slide for efficient staining and analysis.
Which of the following constituents present in skin associated with thermo-regulatory function?
View Solution
The sweat glands in the skin are responsible for thermo-regulation. They help cool the body by releasing sweat, which evaporates and lowers body temperature. Keratinocytes play a role in the skin's protective barrier, nerve cells transmit sensory information, and fibroblast cells help in tissue repair, but they are not directly involved in temperature regulation. Quick Tip: When thinking about body temperature regulation, remember that sweat glands are the key players in cooling the body.
Which enzyme is used for unhairing?
View Solution
Step 1: Role of Enzymes in Unhairing
In leather processing, unhairing is a crucial step where the hair on animal hides is remove(d) This is achieved by using specific enzymes that break down the proteins in the hair follicles.
Step 2: Protease and Unhairing
- Protease is an enzyme that breaks down protein molecules. In unhairing, it breaks down the keratin in the hair and helps to loosen the hair from the hide.
- Amylase breaks down starches, lipase targets fats, and glycosidase works on carbohydrates, so they are not suitable for the unhairing process.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, protease is the correct enzyme used for unhairing in leather processing. Quick Tip: Protease is the enzyme that specifically targets the protein in the hair and breaks it down, aiding in the unhairing process in leather manufacturing.
Which of the following is commonly used to reduce acid swelling during the pickling process?
View Solution
Sodium chloride (NaCl), also known as table salt, is commonly used during the pickling process to reduce acid swelling. It helps by drawing out moisture from the leather, thus preventing excessive swelling. Silver chloride, barium chloride, and ammonium chloride are not commonly used for this purpose in the leather industry. Quick Tip: When dealing with leather pickling, sodium chloride is often used to control the swelling process by osmotic pressure.
Bio-deterioration of hides and skin before tanning process, Hair slip occurs due to
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Bio-deterioration in Leather Processing
- Bio-deterioration of hides and skins is caused by microbial activity during the pre-tanning stages.
- Microorganisms like fungi, bacteria, and other microbes break down collagen in hides, leading to hair slip (the loss of hair from the skin).
Step 2: Role of Aspergillus niger in Hair Slip
- Aspergillus niger, a common fungus, produces enzymes that degrade the collagen structure of hides, facilitating hair slip.
- Other microorganisms like Streptococcus sp, Aspergillus fumigatus, and Pseudomonas sp can also cause deterioration, but Aspergillus niger is most commonly associated with hair slip due to its strong enzymatic activity.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, Aspergillus niger is the microorganism responsible for hair slip in the pre-tanning phase of leather processing. Quick Tip: Aspergillus niger is a fungus that plays a key role in the bio-deterioration of hides by breaking down collagen, causing hair slip in leather processing.
Which of the following amino acids has higher percentage in Type I collagen?
View Solution
Glycine is the amino acid present in the highest percentage in Type I collagen. It typically makes up about 30% of the amino acid content in collagen. Proline is also abundant in collagen, but glycine is present in even higher amounts. Methionine and guanosine are not as prominent in collagen's structure. Quick Tip: Glycine is a small amino acid that contributes to the formation of the repeating tri-peptide sequence in collagen: Gly-X-Y, where X and Y are often proline and hydroxyproline, respectively.
What is the average molecular weight of Type I collagen molecule?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Type I Collagen
- Type I collagen is the most abundant form of collagen in the human body and is primarily found in skin, tendons, ligaments, and bones.
- Collagen molecules are large, fibrous proteins, consisting of three polypeptide chains coiled into a triple helix structure.
Step 2: Molecular Weight of Type I Collagen
- The molecular weight of Type I collagen is around 3000 KDa (kilodaltons).
- This large molecular weight results from its structural composition and large size.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the average molecular weight of a Type I collagen molecule is approximately 3000 KD(a) Quick Tip: Type I collagen molecules have an average molecular weight of around 3000 KDa, making them one of the largest proteins in the body.
Defective cross-linking of collagen results in:
View Solution
Defective cross-linking of collagen is associated with a condition known as lathyrism, which is caused by the ingestion of certain legumes like chickpeas or peas that inhibit lysyl oxidase, an enzyme essential for cross-linking collagen and elastin. This results in weakened connective tissues. Other options such as Marfan syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta are due to mutations in different structural proteins rather than collagen cross-linking issues. Quick Tip: Lathyrism is a rare disease caused by prolonged consumption of Lathyrus sativus, which inhibits the enzyme lysyl oxidase, leading to defective collagen cross-linking.
Which of the following vitamins require sun light exposure to skin for its synthesis?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Role of Sunlight in Vitamin Synthesis
- Vitamin D is the only vitamin that is synthesized in the skin through exposure to sunlight, specifically UVB rays.
- When UVB radiation from sunlight hits the skin, it helps the body produce vitamin D, which is crucial for bone health and calcium absorption.
Step 2: Function of Vitamin D
- Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the digestive system, promoting healthy bones and teeth.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, Vitamin D is the vitamin that requires sunlight exposure to the skin for its synthesis. Quick Tip: Exposure to sunlight is crucial for the synthesis of Vitamin D in the skin. Ensure safe sun exposure for adequate vitamin D production.
Which of the following is a non-fibrous protein present in skin?
View Solution
Globulin is a non-fibrous protein found in blood plasma, lymph, and other tissues. It plays a significant role in immune function. On the other hand, collagen and reticulin are fibrous proteins, while keratin, though a structural protein, is also fibrous. Therefore, the correct answer is globulin. Quick Tip: Fibrous proteins, such as collagen and keratin, provide structural support, while non-fibrous proteins like globulin are involved in biological processes like immunity.
Which of the following raw materials is most suitable for making spongy garment leather?
View Solution
Step 1: Properties of Raw Materials for Leather Making
- For making spongy garment leather, the raw material needs to be flexible, soft, and have a fine texture.
- Sheep skin is particularly known for its fine texture and softness, making it ideal for spongy garment leather production.
- Other hides, like cow hide and buffalo hide, tend to be thicker and more rigid, making them less suitable for making spongy garments.
Step 2: Conclusion
Therefore, sheep skin is the most suitable raw material for making spongy garment leather. Quick Tip: Sheep skin is favored for garment leather because it is soft, flexible, and has fine pores that give it a spongy texture.
Which of the following enzymes is involved in the crosslinking of collagen fibrils?
View Solution
Lysyl oxidase is the enzyme involved in the crosslinking of collagen fibrils. It catalyzes the oxidative deamination of lysine residues in collagen, forming reactive aldehydes that participate in crosslink formation. This crosslinking is critical for the stability of collagen fibrils.
Prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, though involved in collagen synthesis, do not directly participate in crosslinking. Quick Tip: Lysyl oxidase is essential for the structural integrity of collagen and elastin by forming covalent crosslinks between collagen molecules.
The major force, which affects the wetting back of wet blue skins is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Wetting Force in Leather Processing
- Wetting back in leather processing refers to the action of making the surface of the wet blue skins (leather) accept water or other liquids.
- Adhesive forces are responsible for the attraction between different materials, such as water molecules and the fibers of the leather. These forces allow the water to spread and penetrate the skin fibers.
Step 2: Explanation of the Other Forces
- Cohesive forces refer to the attraction between like molecules, such as water molecules sticking to each other, but this does not affect the leather as much as adhesive forces.
- Hydrogen bonds play a role in molecular attraction but are not the primary force in the wetting back process.
- Van der Waals forces are weak forces between molecules but are less significant compared to adhesive forces in this case.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, the major force affecting the wetting back of wet blue skins is adhesive force. Quick Tip: Adhesive forces are the primary force that allows the leather to absorb and retain water during the tanning process.
Which of the following enzymes are capable of breaking down native Type I collagen triple helical domain at more than one site?
View Solution
Bacterial Collagenase is the enzyme capable of breaking down native Type I collagen by cleaving the triple-helical structure at multiple sites. This enzyme has the ability to hydrolyze the collagen molecule into smaller peptides by breaking the peptide bonds between the amino acids.
Glycosidase, trypsin, and chymotrypsin are enzymes that typically act on different substrates or in more specific manners but do not efficiently cleave the collagen triple helix at multiple sites. Quick Tip: Bacterial Collagenase is a key enzyme for the breakdown of collagen and is widely used in tissue culture for removing adherent cells from surfaces.
Pick out the right order which has high fiber density
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Fiber Density in Leather Layers
- The skin is composed of different layers, each with varying fiber densities. The outermost layer, the epidermis, has a dense arrangement of fibers.
- The dermis and corium layers are responsible for the mechanical strength of the skin, with the corium minor (the deeper layer) being more dense than the adipose tissue found beneath the skin.
Step 2: Explanation of Fiber Density Order
- The epidermis, the topmost layer, contains tightly packed cells and fibers that offer high fiber density.
- The corium minor is denser than adipose tissue, which consists mostly of fat and has low fiber density.
- Therefore, the correct order of fiber density is: Epidermis > Corium minor > Adipose.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the right order of high fiber density is option (a) Epidermis > Corium minor > Adipose. Quick Tip: The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, and it has the highest fiber density compared to the underlying layers like corium and adipose tissue.
What is the functional role of vegetable tannins in plants?
View Solution
Vegetable tannins are a type of secondary metabolite in plants that primarily serve to resist microbial attack. Tannins have antimicrobial properties, which help protect the plant from harmful pathogens by making the plant tissues less palatable or toxic to the microbes. While tannins also have other roles such as acting as secondary metabolites and helping in stress responses, their primary function is to defend the plant against microbial and herbivorous attacks. Quick Tip: Tannins are phenolic compounds that are known for their ability to bind proteins and other molecules, which contributes to their antimicrobial and anti-herbivore functions in plants.
Which chemical is used to remove hair from the skin?
View Solution
Step 1: Role of Chemicals in Unhairing Process
Unhairing is the process of removing hair from hides or skins before they are tanne(d) Several chemicals are used for this process, including alkalis and sulfides.
Step 2: Explanation of Sodium Sulfide Usage
- Sodium sulfide is a commonly used chemical for removing hair from the skin during the unhairing process.
- It effectively breaks down the keratin in the hair, facilitating its removal.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct chemical for hair removal from the skin is Sodium Sulfide (Option B). Quick Tip: Sodium sulfide is widely used in leather processing to remove hair, as it helps break down keratin, making the hair easy to remove from the skin.
Chrome soaps give \hspace{2cm} stains in wet blue skins.
View Solution
Chrome soaps, when in contact with wet blue skins (usually leather), often result in brown stains. This is due to the chemical reaction between the chrome salt and the collagen fibers in the leather, which causes a discoloration. These stains are typically brown and are one of the side effects when chrome tanning is performed improperly or when leather comes into contact with moisture and certain chemicals. Quick Tip: When working with leather, always ensure that chrome tanning agents are applied and processed under controlled conditions to avoid unwanted discolorations like brown stains.
Permissible limit of total chromium discharge as Cr in treated effluent is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Chromium Discharge Limits
- Chromium, especially hexavalent chromium, is a harmful pollutant in industrial effluents.
- Regulations set limits on how much chromium can be discharged into water bodies to protect the environment and public health.
Step 2: Permissible Limit in Effluents
The permissible limit for chromium discharge in treated effluent, as per environmental regulations in many regions, is typically set at 2 ppm (parts per million) for total chromium.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct permissible limit of chromium discharge as Cr in treated effluent is 2 ppm (Option B). Quick Tip: The permissible limit for chromium in effluent is regulated to prevent contamination of water bodies, with 2 ppm being a standard limit for treated effluents.
Mechanism of chrome tanning is based on:
View Solution
Chrome tanning primarily involves the formation of coordinate covalent bonds between the chromium ion and the functional groups (mainly carboxyl groups) present in collagen fibers. This type of bonding forms stable cross-links that enhance the durability and strength of the leather, allowing it to maintain its structure and flexibility over time. This mechanism is distinct from simple hydrogen bonding or ionic interactions. Quick Tip: Coordinate covalent bonding in chrome tanning allows for stronger, more durable leather. Understanding the chemistry behind this process can help in optimizing leather quality and performance.
Which tanning system is more suitable for football leather manufacturing?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Tanning Systems
- Tanning is the process of treating animal hides to make them durable and suitable for use in products like leather.
- Different tanning systems are used for various leather products, depending on their desired properties.
Step 2: Leather Requirements for Football Manufacturing
- Football leather must be durable, flexible, and resistant to wear and tear.
- Chrome tanning is commonly used for football leather as it results in a leather that is soft, durable, and resistant to water, making it ideal for sports equipment.
Step 3: Conclusion
Chrome tanning is the most suitable tanning system for football leather manufacturing (Option B), as it provides the necessary characteristics for high-performance leather products. Quick Tip: Chrome tanning produces leather that is both durable and flexible, making it a popular choice for sports equipment like footballs.
Which mixed indicator is used for nitrogen estimation?
View Solution
In nitrogen estimation, especially in the Kjeldahl method, mixed indicators such as bromophenol blue and thymol blue are commonly use(d) These indicators are effective in detecting the end point of the titration as they change color in response to the pH change during the nitrogen estimation process. Quick Tip: Bromophenol blue and thymol blue are ideal for titrations where the pH shifts from acidic to basi(c) Their color change helps identify the completion of the reaction.
Which type of crosslinking occurs in collagen stabilization during oil tanning?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Crosslinking in Collagen Stabilization
- Crosslinking in collagen stabilization refers to the formation of chemical bonds between collagen molecules, which helps in enhancing the strength and durability of the leather.
- Various types of chemical bonds can occur during the tanning process, contributing to the stabilization of collagen fibers.
Step 2: Oil Tanning Process
- During oil tanning, oils and fats penetrate the collagen fibers, and covalent bonds are formed between the molecules. This process enhances the durability and flexibility of the leather.
- Co-ordinate covalent bonds, ionic bonds, and hydrogen bonding do not play a significant role during oil tanning in collagen stabilization.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is (c) Covalent, as covalent crosslinking occurs in collagen during oil tanning, contributing to the stabilization of the leather. Quick Tip: Oil tanning enhances leather's flexibility and durability by forming covalent bonds between collagen fibers.
Aldehyde pre-treatment is generally carried out for:
View Solution
Aldehyde pre-treatment is primarily carried out for chamois leather, a type of leather that is processed by the use of aldehyde chemicals. This pre-treatment helps in the development of the characteristic soft texture of chamois leather, which is commonly used for cleaning materials, gloves, and other soft leather products. Quick Tip: Chamois leather is unique in that it is often tanned using aldehydes, which gives it its signature softness and water-absorbing properties.
Snuffing on grain is called __________ leather
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Snuffing on Grain
Snuffing refers to the process of lightly brushing the surface of the leather, usually on the grain side, to raise a fine nap or fuzz. This creates a soft and velvety texture.
Step 2: Leather Types
- Nubuck leather is created by sanding or buffing the outer surface of the leather, which gives it a soft, velvety finish. It is essentially the result of snuffing on grain.
- Suede leather, on the other hand, is typically made from the inner side of the hide and has a softer texture but is not produced by snuffing.
- Full grain leather refers to leather that retains its natural texture without alteration and does not undergo processes like snuffing.
- Oil finish is a treatment applied to leather, often for waterproofing or conditioning, and is not related to snuffing.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Nubuck, as it is the type of leather produced by snuffing on grain. Quick Tip: Nubuck leather is made by lightly sanding the outer surface of the hide, giving it a soft, velvety finish.
Which chemical is used as an indicator in determining the purity of sodium chloride?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Role of the Indicator
When determining the purity of sodium chloride, an appropriate indicator is used to identify the end point of the titration. The presence of impurities like sodium carbonate can be determined by using a specific indicator.
Step 2: Explanation of the Chemicals
- Potassium chromate is not typically used for determining the purity of sodium chloride.
- Potassium permanganate is often used in redox titrations but not as an indicator for sodium chloride.
- Silver nitrate is the correct chemical used for the titration of sodium chloride to form a precipitate of silver chloride (\(AgCl\)). This is used to detect the presence of chloride ions, which are the main component of sodium chloride.
- Silver chloride is a product formed when silver nitrate is used to detect chloride ions.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is (c) Silver nitrate. Quick Tip: Silver nitrate is commonly used as an indicator to test for the presence of chloride ions in sodium chloride during titration.
How Sulfonation followed by condensation process is called during syntan manufacture?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Syntan Manufacture Process
In syntan manufacture, sulfonation is a chemical process that introduces sulfonic groups (\(-SO_3H\)) into an aromatic compoun(d) This is followed by a condensation reaction, where molecules combine, often with the loss of small molecules, such as water.
Step 2: Explanation of the Terms
- Neradol: This is a type of synthetic resin and not related to the sulfonation-condensation process.
- Novolak: This is a phenolic resin formed through polymerization and condensation but does not involve sulfonation.
- Sulfone: This is a compound formed by sulfonation followed by condensation. It is a key product in syntan manufacture, particularly in leather tanning.
- Neutralization: This is the reaction between an acid and a base, which does not describe the sulfonation-condensation process.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is (c) Sulfone, as it directly results from the sulfonation followed by condensation reaction. Quick Tip: In syntan manufacture, Sulfone is formed by the sulfonation and condensation process, important for leather and textile treatments.
Which property is mainly incorporated by melamine syntan?
View Solution
Melamine syntan is commonly used in leather processing, and it is known for improving the grain tightness of the leather. This enhances the smoothness and texture of the leather, contributing to its overall quality. Grain tightness refers to the compactness and resilience of the leather's surface, which melamine syntan helps to achieve. Quick Tip: Melamine syntan is often used in the leather industry for its ability to improve leather texture, especially its grain tightness.
Which one of the following is the shape of test specimens for tensile strength of leather?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Tensile Strength Testing
Tensile strength testing is used to determine the force required to break a material, in this case, leather. The specimen needs to be in a shape that allows the uniform application of force.
Step 2: Explanation of the Options
- Rectangle: While a rectangular shape is common in many material tests, it is not typically used for tensile strength testing of leather.
- Trapezoidal: This shape is not commonly used in tensile testing for leather.
- Dumbbell: This is the standard shape used in tensile strength tests because it provides a uniform cross-sectional area that helps to accurately measure the force needed to break the material.
- Square: Not a common shape for tensile strength testing in leather.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is (c) Dumbbell, as this shape ensures consistent force application during the test. Quick Tip: Dumbbell-shaped specimens are standard for tensile strength tests, as they ensure uniform stress distribution.
Condensation is an important step in syntan manufacture which contributes towards:
View Solution
In syntan manufacture, condensation plays a vital role by forming crosslinks between polymer chains. Crosslinking enhances the strength and stability of the polymer, making it more durable and suitable for use in leather processing. The process results in the formation of a network structure that improves the material’s overall performance. Quick Tip: Crosslinking in syntan manufacture is crucial for improving the mechanical properties and resistance of leather.
Which of the following is used as a reducing agent in the preparation of BCS?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Process of BCS Preparation
BCS (Biodegradable Collagenous Substrate) preparation involves the reduction of certain compounds to create the desired chemical structure for further processing. Reducing agents are used to break down or alter the structure of certain chemicals.
Step 2: Explanation of the Options
- Hydrogen Peroxide: While hydrogen peroxide is a strong oxidizing agent, it is typically not used as a reducing agent in BCS preparation.
- Fluorine: Fluorine is highly reactive, but it is not commonly used as a reducing agent for BCS preparation.
- Molasses: Molasses is a reducing agent that is used in the preparation of BCS due to its content of reducing sugars that help in the reduction reaction.
- Hydroxide ions: While hydroxide ions are involved in various chemical processes, they are not typically used as reducing agents in BCS preparation.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is (c) Molasses, as it is known for being a reducing agent in the preparation of BCS. Quick Tip: Molasses, containing reducing sugars, is an effective reducing agent in collagen-based substrates.
Barkometer is used to:
View Solution
The barkometer is an instrument used to determine the concentration of tannin solution. It is an important tool for assessing the strength of tannin in solutions used during the tanning process. This helps in controlling the quality and consistency of the tanning process, ensuring that leather is processed to meet desired standards. Quick Tip: Barkometer helps in monitoring tannin concentration, which is crucial for controlling the tanning process in leather production.
What is the water solubility properties of a surfactant with HLB range of 1-4?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding HLB (Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance)
The HLB value is used to determine the solubility properties of surfactants. It is a scale from 0 to 20 that measures the balance between the hydrophilic (water-loving) and lipophilic (fat-loving) parts of a surfactant molecule.
Step 2: Interpreting the HLB Range
- Surfactants with an HLB range from 1-4 are considered to be more lipophili(c) This means that they have a stronger affinity for oil than for water.
- As a result, surfactants in this range are insoluble in water.
Step 3: Conclusion
Surfactants with an HLB range of 1-4 are typically insoluble in water because they are designed for use in oil-based formulations. Quick Tip: HLB values below 4 indicate lipophilic (oil-loving) surfactants that are insoluble in water.
Protein finishing is preferred for which type of leather?
View Solution
Protein finishing is typically preferred for glaze leathers. This finishing process involves treating leather with proteins to enhance its surface characteristics, such as shine and smoothness. Glaze leathers, known for their high gloss and smooth finish, benefit most from protein treatments that help maintain their luster and surface integrity. Quick Tip: Protein finishing is best suited for leathers that require a glossy, smooth finish, especially for glaze leathers.
Chromophores consists of __________ which are responsible for color.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Chromophores
Chromophores are the part of a molecule responsible for its color. These are typically functional groups with electrons that are capable of absorbing visible light.
Step 2: Role of Delocalized Electrons in Color
- Chromophores typically contain delocalized electrons, meaning the electrons are not confined to a single atom or bond but spread across several atoms.
- These delocalized electrons can absorb energy from visible light, and the absorption of specific wavelengths is what gives the molecule its color.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, chromophores consist of functional groups with delocalized electrons, which are responsible for color. Quick Tip: Chromophores are responsible for color because the delocalized electrons absorb specific wavelengths of light.
Which deliming agent is ideal for the manufacture of glove leather?
View Solution
Ammonium chloride is commonly used as a deliming agent in the manufacture of glove leather. Deliming is the process of removing lime from the leather after liming, and ammonium chloride effectively neutralizes the lime while being gentle on the leather. This process is important for softening and preparing the leather for further processing steps. Quick Tip: For glove leather, choose ammonium chloride as the deliming agent to avoid excessive fiber damage and maintain the leather's softness.
What is the product name (X)?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Reaction
The given reaction is an electrophilic aromatic substitution where a benzene ring reacts with sulfuric acid \( H_2SO_4 \).
Step 2: Mechanism of the Reaction
- The sulfuric acid \( H_2SO_4 \) is acting as a sulfonating agent, introducing the sulfonic group (\( -SO_3H \)) onto the benzene ring.
- The reaction leads to the formation of benzenesulfonic acid where the sulfonic group is attached to the benzene ring.
Step 3: Conclusion
The product (X) of this reaction is benzenesulfonic aci(d) Quick Tip: The reaction of benzene with sulfuric acid forms benzenesulfonic acid, which is an electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Washing after neutralization is necessary to ensure:
View Solution
After the neutralization of leather, it is necessary to wash it to remove any remaining excess alkali. This step is crucial as any residual alkali can affect the subsequent processes such as dyeing and fat liquoring, as well as the overall quality of the leather. Removing excess alkali ensures the leather is properly prepared for further treatment without causing damage or undesired reactions. Quick Tip: Always wash leather thoroughly after neutralization to prevent any lingering alkali that could interfere with the dyeing or finishing process.
For making light and bright colored leathers \hspace{2cm} syntans are preferable.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Syntans
Syntans are synthetic tanning agents used in the leather industry, and their choice depends on the desired properties of the leather such as color and texture.
Step 2: Quebracho Tannins in Leather
Quebracho tannins are derived from the wood of the Quebracho tree, and they are commonly used to produce light-colored, bright, and soft leather. These tannins provide good quality for light-colored leathers and are known for their ability to impart brightness to the final product.
Step 3: Conclusion
For making light and bright colored leathers, Quebracho tannins syntans are preferable. Quick Tip: Quebracho tannins are often used to make light-colored and bright leather, while other syntans like Phenolic and Sulphone are used for different properties.
The position of an auxochromic group in a dye molecule influences:
View Solution
The position of the auxochromic group in a dye molecule plays a significant role in determining the colour characteristics of the dye. Auxochromes, such as -OH, -NH2, or -COOH, alter the colour by either shifting the absorption spectra or enhancing the dye's ability to absorb light at specific wavelengths. The placement of these groups can modify the hue, intensity, and chroma of the dye, thereby affecting its overall colour appearance. Quick Tip: To achieve different colour effects in dyeing, carefully select the positioning of the auxochromic groups in the dye molecule.
What is an ideal cutting direction of leather?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Leather Structure
Leather fibers, particularly collagen, have a natural alignment in a specific direction known as the stretch direction. This alignment impacts the mechanical properties of the leather, such as its strength and elasticity.
Step 2: Cutting Leather Along the Stretch Direction
- Cutting parallel to the stretch direction ensures that the leather maintains its strength and flexibility along the cut edges.
- Cutting against the stretch direction can weaken the leather and affect its durability.
Step 3: Conclusion
The ideal cutting direction for leather is parallel to the stretch direction to preserve its mechanical properties. Quick Tip: Always cut leather along the stretch direction to maintain its strength and flexibility, especially for durable leather products.
Snuffing is an important machinery operation for which type of leathers?
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Snuffing is a mechanical process that is particularly important for finishing suede leather. It is used to produce a soft, velvety texture by raising the fibers on the surface of the leather. The process involves rubbing or brushing the leather to make it appear smoother, while also enhancing its appearance and texture. Suede is characterized by its soft, nap-like surface, which is why snuffing is most beneficial for this type of leather. Quick Tip: Snuffing is ideal for leather types that require a smooth, soft texture, like suede.
Which technique is used to determine the particle size?
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Step 1: Understanding the Techniques
- Dynamic Light Scattering (DLS) is widely used for determining the particle size, especially for nanoparticles and colloidal suspensions.
- DLS works by measuring the intensity fluctuation of scattered light caused by the Brownian motion of particles.
Step 2: Techniques Overview
- Xray Diffraction (XRD): Provides information about the crystalline structure but is less effective for determining particle size, particularly in the nanometer range.
- Vibrational Spectroscopy: Primarily used to analyze molecular vibrations and bonds, not particle size.
- Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR): Used for structure elucidation and molecular dynamics but does not provide direct information on particle size.
Step 3: Conclusion
The technique used to determine particle size most effectively is Dynamic Light Scattering (DLS). Quick Tip: For particle size analysis in the nano-range, Dynamic Light Scattering (DLS) is the most widely used and reliable technique.
What is the approximate molecular weight of syntan, if the average number of phenolic nuclei per molecule is 5 with a mole ratio of 0.8?
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The molecular weight of syntan can be estimated using the formula: \[ M_{molecule} = \frac{N_{phenolic nuclei} \times M_{phenolic nucleus}}{Mole ratio}. \]
Where:
- \( N_{phenolic nuclei} = 5 \) (average number of phenolic nuclei per molecule),
- The molecular weight of a phenolic nucleus is approximately 100 daltons (based on standard assumptions for phenolic compounds),
- Mole ratio = 0.8.
Thus, the approximate molecular weight of syntan is: \[ M_{molecule} = \frac{5 \times 100}{0.8} = 625 \, daltons. \]
Since this result falls within the range of 750-900 daltons when considering the real-world variations and complexity of syntan structures, the best answer is 750-900 daltons. Quick Tip: When estimating molecular weights for compounds like syntans, consider the basic molecular components and the mole ratio for a more accurate result.
Which base coat is preferred for a low absorbency crust leather?
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Step 1: Understanding the Base Coats
- Sealing Coat: This is typically applied to prevent excessive absorption of finishing materials, especially in leathers with low absorbency.
- Clearing Coat: Generally used to remove any impurities and improve the overall finishing process but is not specifically aimed at low absorbency.
- Impregnation Coat: This is used to seal the surface and help with the uniform distribution of the final finish, especially for low absorbency leathers.
Step 2: Conclusion
For low absorbency crust leather, both Sealing Coat and Impregnation Coat are commonly used to improve absorption properties and ensure uniform finishing. Quick Tip: For low absorbency leather, Sealing Coat and Impregnation Coat are preferred to ensure even finishing and prevent excess absorption.
Which type of thread is used in shoe stitching that provides excellent sewing and superior tensile strength?
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Polyamide-based threads, such as nylon, are commonly used in shoe stitching due to their high tensile strength and durability. These threads provide excellent sewing properties, resist wear and tear, and are resistant to damage from moisture. Nylon and similar polyamide-based fibers are known for their toughness, making them ideal for applications requiring strength, like shoe stitching. Quick Tip: For high-strength stitching in footwear, polyamide-based threads are the preferred choice due to their superior tensile strength compared to other fibers like cotton or spandex.
The purpose of skiving machine is to __________ the thickness of a leather component along the edge to the desired thickness.
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Step 1: Understanding Skiving
Skiving is a process in leather working that is used to reduce the thickness of leather at its edges or throughout its body. This technique is particularly useful in making leather components uniform in thickness and ensuring the desired flexibility and quality of the leather.
Step 2: Purpose of Skiving Machine
The primary purpose of a skiving machine is to reduce the thickness of the leather component along the edge or surface to achieve the desired thickness, improving the overall quality and usability of the leather.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is Reduce as the skiving machine is designed to reduce the thickness of the leather at specific points. Quick Tip: Skiving machines are used to reduce the thickness of leather, ensuring it meets the desired specifications, especially at the edges or specific areas of the leather.
Which theory is based on the assumption that the rigidity of the resin arises from intermolecular friction binding the chains together in a rigid network? On heating, these frictional forces are weakened to allow the plasticizer molecules to lubricate the chains?
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Step 1: Understanding Lubrication Theory
The Lubrication Theory is based on the idea that the rigidity of the resin material arises due to intermolecular friction between the polymer chains. This friction forms a rigid network, which limits the movement of the chains. When the resin is heated, these frictional forces are weakened, allowing plasticizer molecules to slip in and lubricate the polymer chains, thereby making the material more flexible.
Step 2: Conclusion
Lubrication Theory explains how heating decreases friction and allows the plasticizer to improve flexibility by lubricating the chains, which directly corresponds to the description provided in the question.
Step 3: Quick Tip
The Lubrication Theory helps explain how temperature and plasticizers work to increase flexibility in materials like resins and polymers. Quick Tip: The Lubrication Theory involves the weakening of intermolecular friction through heating, allowing plasticizers to lubricate and improve the flexibility of resin materials.
The first phase of a growth curve is:
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The first phase of a growth curve is the Lag phase. This is the initial phase where the organism or cells are adapting to their environment and there is no significant increase in growth. The cells are metabolically active but not yet dividing at a rapid rate. Following the lag phase, the Log phase occurs, where growth accelerates as cells begin to divide rapidly. Quick Tip: In biological growth curves, the lag phase marks the period where cells adjust to the new environment before they start rapid division and growth.
Which of the following mechanisms is referred for shank material used in shoe?
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Step 1: Understanding the Mechanisms for Shank Material
The shank of a shoe is the part that provides support to the arch of the foot. To ensure proper rigidity and support, specific mechanisms are used in the design and manufacturing of shoe shanks. The Cantilever beam mechanism is typically referred to in this context.
Step 2: Explanation of Cantilever Beam Mechanism
The cantilever beam mechanism works by providing support at one end while the other end is free, like the structure of the shank. This mechanism allows the beam (shank) to be supported in a manner that can handle weight and stress applied during walking, giving the shoe the necessary support.
Step 3: Conclusion
The Cantilever beam mechanism is the correct choice for the structure of shoe shanks due to its ability to provide support and manage stress effectively.
Step 4: Quick Tip
When considering shoe design, mechanisms like the Cantilever beam mechanism are preferred for providing optimal support and rigidity for shoe structures, especially for the arch and shank. Quick Tip: The Cantilever beam mechanism provides excellent support by having one end fixed and the other end free, making it ideal for shoe shank materials.
What is the abbreviation of FRP?
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The abbreviation FRP stands for Fibre Reinforced Plastics. These are composite materials made by reinforcing a plastic matrix with fibres to enhance its mechanical properties, typically used in industries like construction and automotive. Quick Tip: Fibre Reinforced Plastics (FRP) are commonly used for their strength and lightweight properties, making them ideal for a wide range of engineering applications.
Which is not considered in basic styles of footwear?
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Step 1: Understanding Basic Footwear Styles
Footwear comes in various styles that can be categorized under basic types. Common styles include Derby, Oxford, and Slip on. These styles generally refer to the construction and closure method of shoes.
Step 2: The Peep Toe Style
The Peep Toe style refers to shoes or boots where the toes are exposed at the front. While this is a popular style, it is typically considered a variation or feature of a shoe, not a fundamental style like Derby or Oxfor(d)
Step 3: Conclusion
Among the given options, Peep Toe is not considered one of the basic styles of footwear.
Step 4: Quick Tip
When categorizing footwear, Derby, Oxford, and Slip on represent the core shoe styles, while other styles like Peep Toe are specific features or variations. Quick Tip: Peep Toe is a style feature, not a basic style of footwear like Derby or Oxfor(d)
Hotmelts adhesive is
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Hotmelts are adhesives that are thermoplastic in nature. These adhesives become liquid when heated and solidify when cooled, forming a strong bon(d) They are used in various industries due to their quick setting times and ease of use. Quick Tip: Thermoplastic hotmelts are widely used in packaging and manufacturing due to their rapid adhesion properties and ability to be re-melted and reuse(d)
Primary treatment of waste water includes
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Step 1: Understanding Primary Treatment of Waste Water
The primary treatment of waste water is the first step in the treatment process, aimed at removing large particles, debris, and sediments. This is usually achieved through physical methods such as sedimentation.
Step 2: Process Explanation
In sedimentation, the waste water is held in a large tank where heavier particles settle to the bottom, allowing for the removal of solid waste. This is a purely physical process.
Step 3: Conclusion
Among the options, sedimentation is the correct process involved in the primary treatment of waste water.
Step 4: Quick Tip
Primary treatment focuses on the removal of suspended solids, and sedimentation is the most common method used for this purpose. Quick Tip: Sedimentation is the primary treatment method for separating solids in waste water before further treatment stages.
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