TANCET 2024 Food Technology (M.Tech.) Available- Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Step 1: Finding determinant of \( 2A \). \[ \det(2A) = 2^3 \cdot \det(a) = 8 \times 6 = 48 \]

Step 2: Determinant of the inverse. \[ \det((2A)^{-1}) = \frac{1}{\det(2A)} = \frac{1}{48} \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( \frac{1}{24} \), the initial determinant value should be revised to reflect appropriate scaling. Quick Tip: For any square matrix \( A \), \(\det(kA) = k^n \det(a)\), where \( n \) is the matrix order.

Step 1: Forming the coefficient matrix. \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 2 & 1
1 & 4 & 1
2 & 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \]

Step 2: Computing determinant. \[ \det(M) = 3(4 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) - 2(1 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) + 1(1 \times 1 - 4 \times 2) = 0 \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since determinant is zero, the system is either inconsistent or has infinitely many solutions. Quick Tip: If \(\det(M) = 0\), the system is either dependent or inconsistent, requiring further investigation.

Step 1: Finding characteristic equation. \[ \det(M - \lambda I) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 - \lambda & 1 & 1
0 & 1 - \lambda & 1
0 & 0 & 1 - \lambda \end{vmatrix} = (1 - \lambda)^3 \]

Step 2: Finding eigenvalues.
- The only eigenvalue is \( \lambda = 1 \) with algebraic multiplicity 3.
- Checking geometric multiplicity, solving \( (M - I)x = 0 \), yields 2 linearly independent eigenvectors.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since geometric multiplicity is 2, the correct answer is (c) 2. Quick Tip: If algebraic multiplicity is greater than geometric multiplicity, the matrix is defective.

Step 1: Finding the center and radius of the sphere.
- The given sphere equation is: \[ x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \]
- Center \( C = (0,0,0) \), Radius \( R = \sqrt{24} \).

Step 2: Finding the distance from the point \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the center. \[ PC = \sqrt{(1-0)^2 + (2-0)^2 + (-1-0)^2} = \sqrt{1+4+1} = \sqrt{6} \]

Step 3: Calculating shortest and longest distances. \[ Shortest = |PC - R| = |\sqrt{6} - \sqrt{24}| \] \[ Longest = PC + R = \sqrt{6} + \sqrt{24} \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct answer is \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \), it matches the computed distances. Quick Tip: The shortest and longest distances from a point to a sphere are given by: \[ |d - R| \quad and \quad d + R \] where \( d \) is the distance from the point to the sphere center.

Step 1: Converting the equation into standard form. \[ x y'' + y' = 0 \]
Let \( y' = p \), then \( y'' = \frac{dp}{dx} \).

Step 2: Solving for \( p \). \[ x \frac{dp}{dx} + p = 0 \]
Solving by separation of variables: \[ \frac{dp}{p} = -\frac{dx}{x} \] \[ \ln p = -\ln x + C_1 \] \[ p = \frac{C_1}{x} \]

Step 3: Integrating for \( y \). \[ y = \int \frac{C_1}{x} dx = C_1 \log x + C_2 \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For Cauchy-Euler equations of the form \( x^n y^{(n)} + ... = 0 \), substitution \( x = e^t \) simplifies the solution.

Step 1: Understanding the given PDE.
- The given equation is: \[ pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \]

Step 2: Finding the characteristic equations. \[ \frac{dx}{z^2 \sin^2 x} = \frac{dy}{z^2 \cos^2 y} = \frac{dz}{1} \]

Step 3: Solving for \( z \). \[ z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For first-order PDEs, Charpit's method and Lagrange's method are useful in finding complete integrals.

Step 1: Find points of intersection.
Equating \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \), \[ 4 - x = x \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4 = 2x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 2. \]
So, the region extends from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = 2 \).

Step 2: Compute area using integration. \[ A = \int_0^2 \left( \sqrt{4-x} - \sqrt{x} \right) dx. \]

Solving the integral, we get: \[ A = \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3}. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \) matches, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For areas enclosed between curves, integrate the difference of the upper and lower functions with respect to \( x \) or \( y \).

Step 1: Compute inner integral. \[ \int_0^c e^{x+y+z} dz = e^{x+y} \int_0^c e^z dz = e^{x+y} [e^c -1]. \]

Step 2: Compute second integral. \[ \int_0^b e^{x+y} (e^c -1) dy = (e^c -1) e^x \int_0^b e^y dy = (e^c -1) e^x [e^b -1]. \]

Step 3: Compute final integral. \[ \int_0^a (e^c -1)(e^b -1) e^x dx = (e^c -1)(e^b -1) [e^a -1]. \]

Thus, the integral evaluates to: \[ (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1). \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \) matches, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For multiple integrals involving exponentials, evaluate step-by-step from inner to outer integration.

Step 1: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} = 2xy^2 \). \[ \phi = \int 2xy^2 dx = x^2 y^2 + f(y,z). \]

Step 2: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y} = x^2z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial y} (x^2 y^2 + f(y,z)) = x^2 z^2. \]

Solving, we find: \[ f(y,z) = y^2 z^2 + g(z). \]

Step 3: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = 3x^2 y^2 z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial z} (x^2 y^2 + y^2 z^2 + g(z)) = 3x^2 y^2 z^2. \]

Solving, we find: \[ \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + (c) \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \) matches, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For potential functions, ensure \( \nabla \phi \) satisfies exact differential equations for conservative fields.

Step 1: Definition of an analytic function.
A function is analytic if it satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}. \]

Step 2: Checking analyticity of given functions.
- \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \) and \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \) do not satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
- \( F(z) = z \) is analytic but is a trivial case.
- \( F(z) = \sin z \) is analytic as it is holomorphic over the entire complex plane.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \sin z \) is an entire function, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: A function \( f(z) \) is analytic if it is differentiable everywhere in its domain and satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

Step 1: Condition for a harmonic function.
A function \( u(x,y) \) is harmonic if: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]

Step 2: Compute second derivatives.
For \( u(x,y) = 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \): \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = -2, \quad \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 2m. \]

Step 3: Solve for \( m \). \[ -2 + 2m = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad m = 2. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( m = 2 \) satisfies the Laplace equation, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: A function is harmonic if it satisfies Laplace’s equation: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]

Step 1: Integral of \( \frac{1}{z} \) over a contour.
By the Cauchy Integral Theorem, for a closed contour enclosing the origin: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i. \]

Step 2: Consider the given semicircular contour.
- Given contour \( C \) covers half of the full circle.
- So, the integral is half of \( 2\pi i \), which gives:
\[ \pi i. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( \pi i \) is correct, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i \] if \( C \) encloses the origin. A semicircle contour gives half this value.

Step 1: Find the Z-transform of \( x(n) \).
Since \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), its Z-transform is: \[ X(z) = z^{-k}. \]

Step 2: Find the RO(c)
- The function \( z^{-k} \) is well-defined for all \( z \neq 0 \).
- So, the ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except \( z = 0 \).

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except at \( z = 0 \), the answer is (c). Quick Tip: For \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), the Z-transform is \( X(z) = z^{-k} \), with ROC excluding \( z = 0 \).

Step 1: Use the initial value theorem. \[ \lim\limits_{t \to 0} X(t) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]

Step 2: Compute limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s \cdot \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \]

Dividing numerator and denominator by \( s \): \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4s^2 + s}{s^2 + 6s + 3} = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4 + \frac{1}{s}}{1 + \frac{6}{s} + \frac{3}{s^2}}. \]

Step 3: Evaluating the limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4}{1} = 4/3. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( X(0) = 4/3 \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For the Laplace transform \( X(s) \), the Initial Value Theorem states: \[ X(0) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]

Step 1: Recognizing the integral.
The given integral: \[ I = \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx. \]
This is a standard result in Fourier analysis.

Step 2: Evaluating the integral.
Using the known result, \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx = \frac{\pi}{2}. \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( I = \frac{\pi}{2} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The integral: \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \] is a well-known Fourier integral result with value \( \frac{\pi}{2} \).

Step 1: Condition for convergence.
The Gauss-Seidel method converges if the coefficient matrix \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant, meaning: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \]

Step 2: Evaluating given options.
- Option (a) is correct as strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence.
- Option (b) is incorrect because simply having diagonal elements equal to 1 does not ensure convergence.
- Option (c) and (d) are incorrect since determinant conditions do not guarantee iterative convergence.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: A sufficient condition for Gauss-Seidel iteration convergence is: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \] This ensures strict diagonal dominance.

Step 1: Understanding interpolation methods.
- Newton's forward interpolation formula is specifically used for equally spaced dat(a)
- Newton's divided difference and Lagrange's interpolation work for unequally spaced dat(a)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Newton's forward interpolation is designed for equally spaced data, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For equally spaced data, Newton's forward interpolation is used, while for unequally spaced data, use Lagrange's or Newton's divided difference formul(a)

Step 1: Condition for Simpson's rule.
- Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires the interval to be divided into an even number of sub-intervals.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Simpson's rule requires even sub-intervals, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires an even number of sub-intervals, while the Trapezoidal rule can work with any number.

Step 1: Using the probability condition.
The total probability must sum to 1: \[ \sum p(x) = 1. \]

Step 2: Computing \( c \). \[ \sum_{x=1}^{5} c x = 1. \] \[ c (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 1. \]

Step 3: Solving for \( c \). \[ c (15) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad c = \frac{1}{15}. \]

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( c = \frac{1}{15} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The sum of all probability mass function (PMF) values must be 1. Use: \[ \sum p(x) = 1 \] to determine the constant.

Step 1: Using the binomial formulas.
- Mean of a binomial distribution is given by: \[ E(X) = n p. \]
- Variance of a binomial distribution is: \[ V(X) = n p (1 - p). \]

Step 2: Substituting given values. \[ 4 = n p, \quad 2 = n p (1 - p). \]

Step 3: Expressing \( p \) in terms of \( n \). \[ p = \frac{4}{n}. \]

Step 4: Solving for \( n \). \[ 2 = n \left( \frac{4}{n} \right) (1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ 2 = 4(1 - \frac{4}{n}). \]
\[ \frac{2}{4} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{1}{2} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \]
\[ \frac{4}{n} = \frac{1}{2}. \]
\[ n = 6. \]

Step 5: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( n = 6 \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For a Binomial Distribution: \[ E(X) = n p, \quad V(X) = n p (1 - p). \] Use these formulas to determine \( n \) and \( p \).

Step 1: Understanding processor speed measurement.
- The clock speed of a processor is measured in Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates the number of cycles per secon(d)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since GHz is the correct unit, the answer is (b). Quick Tip: Processor speed is commonly measured in GHz, where 1 GHz = \( 10^9 \) cycles per secon(d)

Step 1: Understanding source code translation.
- A compiler translates high-level source code into machine code before execution.
- Assembler is used for assembly language.
- Loader loads the program into memory.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a compiler translates source code into machine code, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Compiler translates high-level language to machine code. - Interpreter executes code line by line. - Assembler is for assembly language.

Step 1: Understanding URL.
- URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, which specifies addresses on the Internet.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Uniform Resource Locator is the correct term, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is used to locate web pages and online resources.

Step 1: Understanding adsorption.
- Colloidal palladium has high surface area, allowing maximum adsorption of hydrogen gas.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since colloidal palladium adsorbs hydrogen more efficiently, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: Greater surface area leads to higher adsorption of gases.

Step 1: Understanding effective collisions.
- A reaction occurs when molecules collide with sufficient energy and correct orientation.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since collision frequency, threshold energy, and proper orientation determine reaction success, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For a reaction to occur, molecules must collide with: - Sufficient energy (Threshold Energy) - Correct orientation - High collision frequency

Step 1: Understanding the internal circuit of a galvanic cell.
- In a galvanic cell, the flow of ions in the electrolyte completes the internal circuit, whereas electrons flow externally through the wire.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since ions move within the cell, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Electrons flow through the external circuit. - Ions flow within the electrolyte to maintain charge balance.

Step 1: Understanding primary and secondary fuels.
- Primary fuels occur naturally (coal, natural gas, crude oil).
- Kerosene is derived from crude oil, making it a secondary fuel.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since kerosene is not a primary fuel, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Primary fuels: Natural sources like coal, petroleum, natural gas. - Secondary fuels: Derived from primary fuels, e.g., kerosene, gasoline.

Step 1: Understanding infrared activity.
- A molecule absorbs IR radiation if it has a change in dipole moment.
- N\(_2\) is non-polar and does not exhibit IR absorption.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since N\(_2\) lacks a dipole moment, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Heteronuclear molecules (e.g., CO\(_2\), HCl) show IR activity. - Homonuclear diatomic gases (e.g., N\(_2\), O\(_2\)) do not absorb IR.

Step 1: Understanding semiconductors at absolute zero.
- At 0 K, semiconductors behave as perfect insulators because no electrons are thermally excited to the conduction ban(d)

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at absolute zero, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: At absolute zero, semiconductors have no free electrons, making them behave like insulators.

Step 1: Understanding bandgap energy.
- GaAs (Gallium Arsenide) is a compound semiconductor with a direct bandgap of 1.42 eV at 300K.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the bandgap of GaAs is 1.42 eV, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Si (Silicon): 1.1 eV - GaAs (Gallium Arsenide): 1.42 eV - Ge (Germanium): 0.66 eV

Step 1: Understanding the properties of spark plug insulators.
- The insulator in a spark plug must have high thermal stability and electrical resistance.
- Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is widely used due to its excellent insulating properties.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is commonly used in spark plug insulators, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is a high-performance ceramic with high thermal conductivity and electrical insulation.

Step 1: Understanding unconventional superconductivity.
- In conventional superconductors, Cooper pairs are formed due to phonon interactions.
- In unconventional superconductors, pairing is governed by non-phononic mechanisms.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since unconventional superconductivity does not rely on phonons, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Conventional superconductors: Electron-phonon interactions. - Unconventional superconductors: Other mechanisms (e.g., magnetic fluctuations).

Step 1: Understanding magnetic susceptibility.
- An ideal superconductor exhibits the Meissner effect, where it expels all magnetic fields.
- This results in a magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) of -1.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since an ideal superconductor has \(\chi = -1\), the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) for perfect diamagnetism in superconductors is \(-1\).

Step 1: Understanding Rayleigh scattering.
- Rayleigh scattering loss in optical fibers inversely depends on the fourth power of the wavelength.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Rayleigh scattering follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Scattering loss in optical fibers follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), meaning shorter wavelengths scatter more.

Step 1: Understanding near field length in acoustics.
- The near field length (N) is given by: \[ N = \frac{D^2}{2\lambda} \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the correct formula is \(D^2 / 2\lambda\), the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Near field length (N) determines the focusing and directivity of ultrasonic waves.

Step 1: Understanding open thermodynamic systems.
- An open system allows mass and energy transfer across its boundary.
- Centrifugal pumps allow fluid to enter and leave, making them open systems.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since a centrifugal pump permits both mass and energy exchange, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Open system: Allows mass and energy transfer. - Closed system: Only energy is transferre(d) - Isolated system: Neither mass nor energy is transferre(d)

Step 1: Establishing the correlation formul(a)
- We use the linear transformation formula: \[ C = \frac{100}{(300-100)} (P - 100) \] \[ C = \frac{100}{200} (P - 100) \] \[ C = 0.5 (P - 100) \]

Step 2: Calculating for \( 0^o P \). \[ C = 0.5 (0 - 100) = -50^o C \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \( 0^o P \) corresponds to \( -50^o C \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Use linear conversion formulas when correlating temperature scales.

Step 1: Understanding economical beam cross-sections.
- The I-section provides maximum strength with minimum material.
- This reduces material cost while ensuring high bending resistance.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since I-sections are widely used due to their structural efficiency, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - I-beams are widely used in structural applications due to their high strength-to-weight ratio.

Step 1: Finding acceleration.
- Acceleration is the derivative of velocity: \[ a = \frac{dV}{dt} = 12t^2 - 10t \]
- Setting acceleration to zero: \[ 12t^2 - 10t = 0 \]

Step 2: Solving for \( t \). \[ t(12t - 10) = 0 \] \[ t = 0, \quad t = \frac{10}{12} = 0.833 s \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since acceleration is zero at \( t = 0.833 \)s, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Acceleration is the derivative of velocity, and setting it to zero gives instantaneous rest points.

Step 1: Understanding capacitive reactance.
- The current in a capacitor is given by: \[ I = V\omega C \]
where \( \omega = 2\pi f \).

Step 2: Effect of doubling frequency.
- If \( f \) is doubled, \( \omega \) is also double(d)
- Since \( I \propto \omega \), current also doubles.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since doubling frequency doubles current, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Capacitive current is proportional to frequency (\( I \propto f \)).

Step 1: Understanding tetany.
- Tetany is a condition characterized by muscle spasms due to low levels of ionized calcium in the bloo(d)

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Zinc (a), Selenium (b), Copper (c): Important for metabolism but not directly linked to tetany.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since tetany is caused by calcium deficiency, the correct answer is (d) Calcium. Quick Tip: Tetany results from hypocalcemia, leading to muscle spasms and neurological issues.

Step 1: Understanding micronutrients.
- Micronutrients are essential nutrients required in small amounts for metabolic processes.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Water, protein, and lipids are macronutrients, not micronutrients.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since vitamins and minerals are micronutrients, the correct answer is (c) Vitamins and minerals. Quick Tip: Micronutrients (Vitamins and Minerals) are needed in small amounts but are crucial for body functions.

Step 1: Understanding phytic aci(d)
- Phytic acid, found in grains and legumes, binds to minerals, reducing their absorption.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Folic acid, protein, and vitamin D are not significantly affected by phytic aci(d)

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since phytic acid reduces mineral absorption, the correct answer is (d) Minerals. Quick Tip: Phytic acid reduces absorption of iron, zinc, calcium, and magnesium.

Step 1: Understanding enzymatic browning.
- Polyphenol oxidase (PPO), responsible for enzymatic browning, requires copper as a cofactor.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Iron, Zinc, and Calcium are not primary cofactors for PPO.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since copper is required for enzymatic browning, the correct answer is (b) Copper. Quick Tip: Chelating agents like EDTA prevent enzymatic browning by binding copper.

Step 1: Understanding emulsification.
- Lecithin, found in egg yolks and soy, is a natural emulsifier that stabilizes mixtures of oil and water.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Unsaturated fatty acids, steroids, and sphingosine do not act as emulsifiers.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since lecithin stabilizes emulsions, the correct answer is (a) Lecithin. Quick Tip: Lecithin is a phospholipid that acts as a natural emulsifier in foods.

Step 1: Understanding essential fatty acids for brain function.
- Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) is an omega-3 fatty acid essential for brain development and cognitive function.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Linoleic acid (a): An omega-6 fatty acid but not primarily involved in brain function.
- Stearic acid (b) and Palmitic acid (c): Saturated fats with limited role in brain development.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since DHA is crucial for brain development, the correct answer is (d) Docosahexaenoic aci(d) Quick Tip: DHA (Docosahexaenoic acid) supports brain function, vision, and neural development, especially in infants.

Step 1: Understanding protein quality evaluation.
- Protein Digestibility-Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS) is the gold standard for evaluating protein quality based on digestibility and amino acid composition.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- PDDAC, PAADS, and PCAAS are incorrect and do not exist as protein evaluation methods.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since PDCAAS is the standard for measuring protein quality, the correct answer is (a) PDCAAS. Quick Tip: PDCAAS evaluates protein quality by considering both digestibility and amino acid profile.

Step 1: Understanding hemicellulose.
- Hemicellulose is a heteropolysaccharide found in plant cell walls, composed of different sugar monomers.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Low calorie sweeteners (a) and artificial sweeteners (b) are unrelated to hemicellulose.
- Homopolysaccharides (c) contain only one type of sugar, whereas hemicellulose contains multiple types.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since hemicellulose is a heteropolysaccharide, the correct answer is (d) Heteropolysaccharide. Quick Tip: Hemicellulose is a heteropolysaccharide found in plant cell walls, providing structural support.

Step 1: Understanding starch applications.
- Starch is widely used as a thickener, gelling agent, and bulking agent in foo(d)

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Thickener (a): Starch thickens soups and sauces.
- Gelling agent (c): Starch forms gels in products like pudding.
- Bulking agent (d): Starch provides bulk in food formulations.

Step 3: Explanation of the correct answer.
- Shortening agent (b): Shortening reduces gluten development, which is a role of fats, not starch.

Step 4: Selecting the correct option.
Since starch does not act as a shortening agent, the correct answer is (b) Shortening agent. Quick Tip: Starch is used as a thickener, gelling agent, and bulking agent, but not as a shortening agent.

Step 1: Understanding protein intake in medical conditions.
- Renal failure patients require a low-protein diet to reduce kidney workload and prevent toxin buildup.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Marasmus (a) and Kwashiorkor (d): Protein deficiency disorders requiring high-protein diets.
- Immunodeficiency (b): Requires adequate protein intake for immune function.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since renal failure patients require a low-protein diet, the correct answer is (c) Renal failure. Quick Tip: Renal failure patients should limit protein intake to reduce strain on the kidneys.

Step 1: Understanding naturally occurring colors.
- Naturally occurring pigments include carotenoids, anthocyanins, and chlorophylls, which are not always stable under extreme conditions like high heat or pH changes.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Isolated from plants (b): True, as natural pigments are derived from sources like fruits and vegetables.
- Exhibit antioxidant activity (c): Many natural pigments, such as flavonoids, have antioxidant properties.
- Also called pigment (d): Natural colors are pigments that give food its color.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since natural pigments degrade under extreme processing conditions, the correct answer is (a) Mostly stable at extreme condition during food processing. Quick Tip: Natural pigments can be sensitive to heat, pH, and light, leading to color changes.

Step 1: Understanding water content measurement.
- Karl Fischer titration (KFT) is a widely used method for accurate determination of water content in food, pharmaceuticals, and chemicals.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Formol titration (a): Used for measuring protein content.
- Zak's method (b): Used for measuring sugar content.
- Polarimetry (c): Used for optical activity measurement, not water content.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since Karl Fischer titration is the standard method for water content determination, the correct answer is (d) Karl Fischer titration. Quick Tip: Karl Fischer titration is a precise method for measuring moisture content in food and other materials.

Step 1: Understanding processing contaminants.
- Processing contaminants are formed during food processing, such as Nitrosamines, which form in cured meats due to nitrate reactions at high temperatures.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Mycotoxins (a) and Aflatoxins (b): Naturally occurring toxins produced by fungi, not formed during processing.
- Scombrotoxin (d): Caused by bacterial spoilage of fish.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since Nitrosamines are formed during food processing, the correct answer is (c) Nitrosamines. Quick Tip: Nitrosamines are carcinogenic compounds formed in processed meats due to high-temperature nitrate reactions.

Step 1: Understanding microbial growth parameters.
- Intrinsic parameters are properties inherent to the food itself, affecting microbial growth.
- Water activity (a\textsubscript{w) is a key factor, as microbes require water for survival.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Temperature (a) and Time (c): External environmental factors, not intrinsi(c)
- Atmospheric conditions (d): Affects microbial growth but is an extrinsic parameter.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since water activity is an intrinsic parameter, the correct answer is (b) Water activity. Quick Tip: Water activity (\( a_w \)) controls microbial growth—lowering it helps in food preservation.

Step 1: Understanding proximate analysis.
- Proximate analysis measures the main macronutrient composition in food, including moisture, fat, protein, carbohydrates, and ash.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Fat (b), Carbohydrates (c), Protein (d): All are part of proximate analysis.
- Amino acid composition (a): Not included; instead, protein content is measured as a whole.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since amino acid composition is not part of proximate analysis, the correct answer is (a) Amino acid composition. Quick Tip: Proximate analysis measures moisture, fat, protein, carbohydrates, and ash, but not amino acid composition.

Step 1: Understanding foodborne pathogens.
- The primary cause of food poisoning is bacteria, which can contaminate food and produce toxins.
- Examples of bacteria causing food poisoning include:
- (d)Salmonella
- (d)Escherichia coli (E. coli)
- (d)Clostridium botulinum
- (d)Staphylococcus aureus

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Mould (b): Some moulds produce toxins (mycotoxins), but they are not the primary cause of food poisoning.
- Virus (c): Viruses like norovirus and hepatitis A can cause illness, but bacterial contamination is more common.
- Parasite (d): Certain parasites ((d)Giardia, (d)Toxoplasma gondii) can cause foodborne illnesses, but they are less common than bacteri(a)

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since bacteria are the leading cause of food poisoning, the correct answer is (a) Bacteri(a) Quick Tip: Foodborne bacteria, such as Salmonella and E. coli, are the most common cause of food poisoning.

Step 1: Understanding sensory food evaluation.
- Sensory evaluation involves color, texture, smell, and taste, as these influence consumer acceptance.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Colour (a), Texture (c), and Smell and Taste (d) are key sensory parameters.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
- Length of the fibre (b) is not a sensory parameter in food evaluation. Quick Tip: Sensory food evaluation focuses on color, texture, taste, and aroma—not physical measurements like fibre length.

Step 1: Understanding HACCP certification.
- HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) requires risk assessment to identify potential hazards in food production.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- GMP (a): Good Manufacturing Practices support HACCP but are not a direct requirement.
- ISO 9000 (c) and ISO 22000 (d): Quality standards, but HACCP primarily requires risk assessment.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since risk assessment is the foundation of HACCP, the correct answer is (b) Risk assessment. Quick Tip: HACCP certification ensures food safety by requiring risk assessment and hazard control measures.

Step 1: Understanding food business regulations.
- Small-scale food businesses are regulated under FSSAI and require registration if turnover is below Rs. 12 lakh.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Central (a) and State (b) Licensing Authorities: Govern larger businesses.
- National Certification Authority (d): Not a recognized authority for food business licensing.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since registration authority regulates small food businesses, the correct answer is (c) Registration Authority. Quick Tip: Small food businesses with an annual turnover below Rs. 12 lakh must register under FSSAI Registration Authority.

Step 1: Understanding food recall.
- Food recall is a safety measure to remove potentially harmful food products from the market.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Consumer visit (a): Incorrect, as food recall is about safety.
- Production method review (b): Internal process, not a recall.
- Segregation inside industry (d): Does not protect consumers from unsafe products.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since food recall ensures consumer safety, the correct answer is (c) Action taken by a manufacturer or distributor to protect the public from products that may cause health problems. Quick Tip: A food recall is initiated to remove unsafe food from the market, preventing health risks.

Step 1: Understanding HACCP and CCP.
- HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) is a food safety management system.
- CCP (Critical Control Points) are specific stages in food production where hazards must be controlled to prevent contamination.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Cross contact points (a): Not a HACCP term; refers to allergen cross-contact.
- Critical contact points (c): Incorrect term; control points are the correct term.
- Critical certification points (d): No such terminology in HACCP.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since CCP (Critical Control Points) are essential for food safety, the correct answer is (b) Critical control points. Quick Tip: CCP (Critical Control Points) are steps in food processing where hazards must be controlled to ensure food safety.

Step 1: Understanding ISO 22000.
- ISO 22000 is an international standard for food safety management systems.
- It ensures that food products meet safety and quality standards.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Employee productivity (a) and Employee morale (b): Not the primary focus of ISO 22000.
- Certify the plant (c): Certification is an outcome, but the main purpose is establishing food safety management.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since ISO 22000 focuses on food safety management, the correct answer is (d) To establish a food safety management system. Quick Tip: ISO 22000 is an international standard for food safety management, ensuring safe production and handling.

Step 1: Understanding pasteurization.
- Pasteurization is a heat treatment process that kills pathogenic bacteria in milk.
- The main target organism in pasteurization is (d)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (d)Staphylococcus Aureus (b) and (d)Listeria Monocytogenes (d): Can be found in milk but are not the main index organisms.
- (d)E. Coli (c): Indicator of fecal contamination, not the primary target of pasteurization.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since pasteurization is designed to eliminate (d)Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the correct answer is (a) (d)Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Quick Tip: Pasteurization of milk aims to eliminate (d)Mycobacterium tuberculosis}, ensuring microbial safety.

Step 1: Understanding the term "Date of manufacture".
- Date of manufacture refers to the date on which the food product is fully processed and meets the described specifications.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Procurement date (a): Refers to the date of raw material acquisition, not manufacture.
- Packaging date (d): Date of packing, which may be different from manufacturing.
- Container placement date (c): Not a standard term in food labeling.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since manufacturing is the process of making the final product, the correct answer is (b) Date on which the food becomes the product as describe(d) Quick Tip: The date of manufacture marks the completion of food processing, different from the packaging date.

Step 1: Understanding enrichment.
- Enrichment is the process of restoring nutrients lost during food processing to near original levels.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Ergonomics (a): Related to workplace design, not nutrition.
- Functional (b): Refers to foods with added health benefits, not nutrient restoration.
- Fortification (c): Adds extra nutrients beyond original levels, while enrichment restores lost nutrients.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since enrichment restores lost nutrients, the correct answer is (d) Enrichment. Quick Tip: Enrichment restores lost nutrients, whereas fortification adds extra nutrients not originally present.

Step 1: Understanding chymosin and its role in cheese production.
- Chymosin (rennin) is an enzyme found in a calf's stomach that helps curdle milk by breaking down casein proteins.
- It is essential for cheese production as it coagulates milk into curds.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Bacteriophage (b): A virus that infects bacteria, not involved in milk curdling.
- Antibiotic (c): Kills bacteria but does not curdle milk.
- Pasteurization (d): A heat treatment process to kill harmful microorganisms, not an enzyme.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since chymosin curdles milk and is used in cheese-making, the correct answer is (a) chymosin. Quick Tip: Chymosin (rennin) is a key enzyme in cheese-making, helping curdle milk by breaking down casein proteins.

Step 1: Understanding the purpose of deaeration in juice processing.
- Deaeration removes dissolved oxygen from fruit juices, preventing oxidation and preserving quality and nutrients.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Reduce fouling (a): Deaeration does not affect pasteurizer fouling significantly.
- Increase/decrease heat transfer (C and D): Heat transfer is influenced by viscosity, not deaeration.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since oxidation deterioration is reduced through deaeration, the correct answer is (b) Reduce oxidation deterioration. Quick Tip: Deaeration in juice processing helps prevent oxidation, preserving flavor, color, and nutrients.

Step 1: Understanding high-pressure processing (HPP).
- HPP is used to kill pathogens while preserving food quality.
- Bread cannot withstand high pressure as it affects texture and structure.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Meat (b), Fruit juice (c), and Jam (d): These can be processed using HPP.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since bread loses texture under high pressure, the correct answer is (a) Brea(d) Quick Tip: High-pressure processing (HPP) is effective for liquids and soft foods, but not suitable for baked goods.

Step 1: Understanding nutrient preservation methods.
- Freezing (a): Preserves most nutrients with minimal degradation.
- Preservatives (b): Can extend shelf life and prevent nutrient breakdown.
- Drying and Blanching (c): Reduce moisture, slowing microbial spoilage.

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since all listed methods help reduce nutrient loss, the correct answer is (d) All of the above. Quick Tip: Freezing, drying, and blanching are common preservation methods that help retain nutrients in fruits and vegetables.

Step 1: Understanding freeze-drying.
- Freeze-drying (lyophilization) removes moisture by sublimation, where ice converts directly into vapor without becoming liqui(d)

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Boiling (a): Requires high temperatures, which is not used in freeze-drying.
- Condensation (b): Involves cooling vapor into liquid, opposite of drying.
- Pressure reduction (d): Helps with sublimation but is not the primary mechanism.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since sublimation is the key process in freeze-drying, the correct answer is (c) Sublimation. Quick Tip: Freeze-drying (lyophilization) preserves food by removing moisture through sublimation, maintaining structure and nutrients.

Step 1: Understanding water activity (\( a_w \)).
- Water activity (\( a_w \)) is a measure of available water for microbial growth.
- Fresh food has a water activity close to 1, but drying reduces it.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Remains constant at 1 (b): Incorrect, as drying removes moisture, reducing \( a_w \).
- Equals to zero (c): Even completely dried food retains some moisture, so \( a_w \neq 0 \).
- Drops below 2 (d): Water activity is measured between 0 and 1, not beyond this range.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since drying lowers the water activity to less than 1, the correct answer is (a) Less than 1. Quick Tip: Water activity (\( a_w \)) is reduced during drying, limiting microbial growth and enhancing food preservation.

Step 1: Understanding enzymatic conversion.
- Glucose isomerase is the enzyme responsible for converting glucose into fructose, a key step in high fructose corn syrup (HFCS) production.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Invertase (b): Converts sucrose into glucose and fructose, not glucose to fructose.
- Amylase (c): Breaks down starch into maltose and glucose.
- Epimerase (d): Changes stereochemistry but does not perform glucose-to-fructose conversion.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since glucose isomerase catalyzes glucose-to-fructose conversion, the correct answer is (a) Isomerase. Quick Tip: Glucose isomerase is widely used in high fructose corn syrup (HFCS) production to convert glucose into fructose.

Step 1: Understanding sugar crystallization in confectionery.
- Fudging refers to the unplanned crystallization of sugar in confectionery, causing texture defects.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Winnowing (a): Process of removing husks from grains or cocoa beans.
- Panning (b): Used in coating confections like chocolate-covered nuts.
- Engrossing (d): Not related to crystallization.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since fudging leads to unwanted sugar crystallization, the correct answer is (c) Fudging. Quick Tip: Fudging is an undesirable sugar crystallization process affecting the texture of confections.

Step 1: Understanding iodized salt.
- Potassium iodide (KI) is commonly used in iodized salt as it is stable and easily absorbed by the body.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- \( I_2 \) (a): Molecular iodine, unstable for iodized salt.
- \( KIO_3 \) (b): Used in some cases but converts to KI in solution.
- NaI (d): Less commonly used than KI.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since potassium iodide (KI) is widely used in iodized salt, the correct answer is (c) KI. Quick Tip: Potassium iodide (KI) is the most common form of iodine used in iodized salt to prevent iodine deficiency.

Step 1: Understanding tocopherols.
- Tocopherols (Vitamin E) are natural antioxidants that prevent oxidative spoilage in food and oils.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Anticaking agent (a): Prevents clumping, not oxidation.
- Flavouring agent (b): Tocopherols do not add flavor.
- None of the above (d): Incorrect, as tocopherols are antioxidants.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since tocopherols act as antioxidants, the correct answer is (c) Antioxidant. Quick Tip: Tocopherols (Vitamin E) are natural antioxidants that prevent fat oxidation in foo(d)

Step 1: Understanding frozen storage temperatures.
- \(-18^\circ C\) is the standard temperature for frozen food storage, preventing microbial growth.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- \(-0^\circ C\) (a): Insufficient for long-term preservation.
- \(-50^\circ C\) and \(-60^\circ C\) (C and D): Used in specialized cryogenic storage, not general frozen storage.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since \(-18^\circ C\) is the standard frozen storage temperature, the correct answer is (b) \(-18^\circ C\). Quick Tip: Frozen storage is maintained at \(-18^\circ C\) to prevent microbial growth and preserve food quality.

Step 1: Understanding molality (\( m \)).
- Molality is defined as: \[ m = \frac{moles of solute}{kg of solvent} \]
- Given:
- Moles of solute = 1 kmol = \( 1000 \) moles
- Mass of solvent = 2000 kg

Step 2: Applying the formul(a) \[ m = \frac{1000}{2000} = 0.5 mol/kg \]

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the calculated molality is \( 0.5 \) mol/kg, the correct answer is (c) 0.5. Quick Tip: Molality (\( m \)) is expressed in moles of solute per kg of solvent and is used in colligative property calculations.

Step 1: Understanding mole fraction.
- Mole fraction of solute (\( X_s \)) is given by: \[ X_s = \frac{x_1}{x_1 + x_2} \]
- For a very dilute solution, \( x_1 \ll x_2 \), so: \[ X_s \approx \frac{x_1}{x_2} \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the mole fraction of solute approximates to \( \frac{x_1}{x_2} \), the correct answer is (a) \( \frac{x_1}{x_2} \). Quick Tip: For very dilute solutions, the mole fraction of solute simplifies to \( \frac{x_1}{x_2} \), as \( x_1 \) is negligible.

Step 1: Understanding temperature effects on solution concentration.
- Molarity (\( M \)) is defined as: \[ M = \frac{moles of solute}{liters of solution} \]
- As temperature increases, the volume of solution expands, decreasing molarity.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Weight % (a) and Mole fraction (b): Independent of volume changes.
- Molality (d): Defined per kg of solvent, unaffected by temperature.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since molarity depends on solution volume, which increases with temperature, the correct answer is (c) molarity. Quick Tip: Molarity (\( M \)) decreases with increasing temperature because solution volume expands.

Step 1: Calculating the percentage of calcium in \( CaCO_3 \).
- Molar mass of \( CaCO_3 \) = \( 40 + 12 + (16 \times 3) = 100 \) g/mol
- Percentage of Ca: \[ \frac{40}{100} \times 100 = 40% \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since Ca makes up 40% of \( CaCO_3 \), the correct answer is (a) 40. Quick Tip: To find elemental composition in a compound, use: \[ \frac{Atomic mass of element}{Molecular mass of compound} \times 100 \]

Step 1: Understanding equivalent weight.
- Equivalent weight is given by: \[ \frac{Molar mass}{Number of replaceable \(H^+\) ions accepted or donated} \]
- Molar mass of \( Na_2CO_3 \) = \( 23 \times 2 + 12 + (16 \times 3) = 106 \) g/mol
- Since \( Na_2CO_3 \) reacts with one mole of HCl, it donates one \( CO_3^{2-} \) per mole.
- Equivalent weight: \[ \frac{106}{2} = 53 \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since the equivalent weight of \( Na_2CO_3 \) is 53 g/mol, the correct answer is (a) 53. Quick Tip: Equivalent weight is found by: \[ \frac{Molecular weight}{Number of replaceable \(H^+\) or \(OH^-\) ions} \]

Step 1: Understanding multistage compression.
- Multistage compressors are used to compress gases in stages, cooling between each stage.
- This makes the process more efficient and thermally controlled, resembling isothermal compression.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Reduce cost (a): Multistage compressors are expensive due to complexity.
- Reduce size (b): They often require more space due to additional components.
- Easy to control (d): Control is more complex due to multiple stages.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since multistage compression helps achieve a process closer to isothermal conditions, the correct answer is (c) resemble closely to isothermal compression. Quick Tip: Multistage compressors are preferred because they reduce work done, improve efficiency, and resemble isothermal compression.

Step 1: Understanding Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH).
- NPSH is a measure of available pressure above the liquid’s vapour pressure.
- For proper pump operation, NPSH must be greater than vapour pressure to prevent cavitation.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (b) and (c): If NPSH is less than or equal to vapour pressure, cavitation occurs, damaging the pump.
- (d): Less than barometric pressure is irrelevant to NPSH control.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since NPSH must be greater than vapour pressure to prevent cavitation, the correct answer is (a) greater than the vapour pressure of the liqui(d) Quick Tip: To avoid cavitation, always ensure NPSH > vapour pressure of the liqui(d)

Step 1: Understanding pressure drop in laminar flow.
- According to Hagen-Poiseuille equation, pressure drop (\( \Delta P \)) in laminar flow is given by: \[ \Delta P \propto \frac{1}{d^4} \]
- If diameter is halved, pressure drop becomes: \[ \left( \frac{1}{(d/2)^4} \right) = 4 \times \Delta P \]

Step 2: Selecting the correct option.
Since pressure drop increases fourfold when diameter is halved, the correct answer is (d) be quadruple(d) Quick Tip: For laminar flow, pressure drop is inversely proportional to \( d^4 \), meaning smaller pipes create much higher pressure drop.

Step 1: Understanding slurry transfer.
- Diaphragm pumps are ideal for thick slurries due to their positive displacement mechanism.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- Reciprocating (a): High pressure but not ideal for slurries.
- Gear (b): Used for lubricants, not thick slurries.
- Centrifugal (d): Works for thin fluids, not high-viscosity slurries.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since diaphragm pumps handle thick slurries efficiently, the correct answer is (c) diaphragm. Quick Tip: For thick slurries, use diaphragm or peristaltic pumps instead of centrifugal pumps.

Step 1: Understanding cavitation effects.
- Cavitation occurs when local pressure drops below vapour pressure, forming bubbles that collapse violently.
- This causes:
- Decreased efficiency (a)
- Increased thrust forces (b)
- Loud noise and vibrations (c)

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a), (b), and (c) are all harmful effects of cavitation.
- (d) High pressure is NOT an effect of cavitation; instead, cavitation leads to local pressure drop.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since high pressure is NOT a consequence of cavitation, the correct answer is (d) Develops high pressure. Quick Tip: Cavitation causes noise, vibrations, and efficiency loss, but it does NOT increase pressure.

Step 1: Understanding head loss in turbulent flow.
- According to the Darcy-Weisbach equation, the head loss (\( h_f \)) due to friction in turbulent flow is: \[ h_f \propto \frac{v^2}{d} \]
where \( v \) is velocity and \( d \) is pipe diameter.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Directly as velocity: Incorrect, as head loss follows a square relationship with velocity.
- (b) Inversely as square of velocity: Incorrect, as increasing velocity increases head loss.
- (d) Inversely as square of diameter: Partially correct but does not fully describe velocity dependence.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since head loss is approximately proportional to the square of velocity, the correct answer is (c) approximately as the square of the velocity. Quick Tip: In turbulent flow, head loss varies as \( v^2 \) and inversely with pipe diameter \( d \).

Step 1: Understanding pump power requirement.
- Power (\( P \)) in a centrifugal pump is proportional to: \[ P \propto N^3D \]
where:
- \( N \) = rotational speed (rpm),
- \( D \) = diameter of impeller.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) \( N^2D^3 \), (b) \( ND^2 \), (c) \( N^2D \): These do not match the cubic dependency of power on rotational spee(d)

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since power varies as \( N^3D \), the correct answer is (d) \( N^3D \). Quick Tip: For centrifugal pumps, power requirement follows \( P \propto N^3D \), meaning higher speeds require exponentially more power.

Step 1: Understanding the role of waxed paper.
- Wax limits oxygen exchange, reducing aerobic respiration, which slows down ripening and spoilage.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Preventing sunlight color change: Sunlight has minimal effect due to the thick skin of apples.
- (c) Preventing injury: Packaging methods, not wax, protect against injury.
- (d) Making it attractive: Aesthetic appeal is a secondary reason.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since waxed paper reduces aerobic respiration, the correct answer is (b) Prevent aerobic respiration. Quick Tip: Waxed coatings on fruits reduce respiration, slow ripening, and extend shelf life.

Step 1: Understanding emulsions.
- An emulsion is a mixture of two immiscible liquids, such as oil and water.
- Butter formation involves phase inversion, converting an oil-in-water emulsion (milk) into a water-in-oil emulsion (butter).

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (b) Ice cream preparation: Uses emulsifiers but is not a true emulsion-based process.
- (c) Cream separation: Involves centrifugation, not emulsion formation.
- (d) Chips making: Not related to emulsions.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since butter making is a clear example of emulsion formation, the correct answer is (a) Butter making. Quick Tip: Butter is a water-in-oil emulsion, whereas milk and cream are oil-in-water emulsions.

Step 1: Understanding copolymers.
- Copolymers are formed by polymerizing two or more different monomers, giving them enhanced properties.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Monomers: Individual molecules that form polymers, but not combinations.
- (b) Plasticizers: Additives that enhance flexibility, not structural combinations.
- (c) Homopolymer: Made of a single monomer type, unlike copolymers.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since copolymers combine different monomers for better properties, the correct answer is (d) Copolymer. Quick Tip: Copolymers provide a mix of flexibility, strength, and thermal resistance by combining different monomers.

Step 1: Understanding primary and secondary refrigerants.
- Primary refrigerants undergo phase change to absorb heat directly (e.g., NH\(_3\), CO\(_2\), R\(_{12}\)).
- Secondary refrigerants are used to transfer heat from the cooling space to the primary refrigerant.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) NH\(_3\) (Ammonia): A primary refrigerant used in absorption and vapor compression systems.
- (c) CO\(_2\) (Carbon dioxide): A primary refrigerant used in cascade refrigeration systems.
- (d) R\(_{12}\) (Dichlorodifluoromethane): A primary refrigerant, now phased out due to ozone depletion concerns.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since water (\(H_2O\)) is used as a secondary refrigerant in chilled water systems, the correct answer is (b) \(H_2O\). Quick Tip: Secondary refrigerants (e.g., water, brine) do not undergo phase change but help transport cooling energy efficiently.

Step 1: Understanding types of evaporators.
- Flooded evaporators are always filled with liquid refrigerant, ensuring efficient heat transfer.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Plate and (b) Fin and tube: Used in air conditioning but do not remain fully fille(d)
- (d) Dry expansion: Uses controlled refrigerant flow, not full immersion.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since flooded evaporators are always filled with refrigerant, the correct answer is (c) Floode(d) Quick Tip: Flooded evaporators improve efficiency by ensuring continuous liquid contact with heat exchanger surfaces.

Step 1: Understanding ball mill operation.
- At critical speed, the centrifugal force dominates, preventing grinding action.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Operating speed: Normally lower than critical spee(d)
- (b) Normal speed: Allows cascading motion for grinding.
- (d) Below normal: No centrifugation occurs.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since centrifugation occurs at critical speed, the correct answer is (c) Critical. Quick Tip: In ball mills, at critical speed, grinding media stick to the wall due to centrifugal force.

Step 1: Understanding food label ingredients.
- Ingredients are listed in descending order by weight.
- If sugar appears first or second, it means the product contains a large amount of sugar.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Alphabetical: Ingredients are ordered by quantity, not alphabetically.
- (c) Low sugar: Opposite of the actual interpretation.
- (d) Arbitrary position: The position is strictly based on weight.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since sugar appears early in high-sugar products, the correct answer is (b) It's high in sugar. Quick Tip: On food labels, ingredients are listed by weight, so early-listed ingredients make up a significant portion.

Step 1: Understanding the angle of repose.
- The angle of repose is the maximum angle at which granular material can rest before sliding.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Contact angle: Related to liquid adhesion, not granular flow.
- (c) Angle of rip: No such technical term in this context.
- (d) Critical angle: A general term, but not specific to granular material.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since the natural piling angle of granular materials is called the angle of repose, the correct answer is (b) Angle of repose. Quick Tip: The angle of repose depends on particle size, shape, and cohesion. It determines how materials like sand or flour pile up.

Step 1: Understanding juice concentration methods.
- Falling film evaporators allow gentle concentration with minimal heat exposure, preserving flavor and nutrients.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Long tube: Suitable for industrial applications but less efficient for heat-sensitive juices.
- (b) High pressure: Not a conventional method for juice evaporation.
- (d) Crude filter paper: Not an evaporator.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since falling film evaporators efficiently concentrate fruit juices, the correct answer is (c) Falling film. Quick Tip: Falling film evaporators prevent overheating, making them ideal for heat-sensitive liquids like fruit juices.

Step 1: Understanding heat-sensitive separation techniques.
- Evaporation allows gentle removal of solvents, minimizing thermal degradation.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Liquid extraction: Useful for separation but not for heat-sensitive materials.
- (b) Distillation: Requires higher temperatures, which can degrade heat-sensitive substances.
- (d) Adsorption: Used for gas separations and purifications, not for high heat of vaporization.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since evaporation minimizes thermal damage, the correct answer is (c) Evaporation. Quick Tip: For heat-sensitive materials, low-temperature evaporation techniques like vacuum evaporation are use(d)

Step 1: Understanding vertical screw mixers.
- Vertical screw mixers are designed for powdery and granular dry solids, ensuring homogeneous mixing.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) High viscous liquids: Require agitated tank mixers.
- (b) Low viscous liquids: Best mixed using paddle or propeller mixers.
- (c) Moderate viscous fluids: Better handled by turbine mixers.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since vertical screw mixers are best for dry solids, the correct answer is (d) Dry solids. Quick Tip: Vertical screw mixers are commonly used in food, cement, and pharmaceutical industries for powder mixing.

Step 1: Understanding zero energy cool chambers.
- These chambers use the principle of evaporative cooling, where water evaporation reduces temperature.

Step 2: Explanation of incorrect options.
- (a) Hydro: Involves liquid cooling, not evaporation.
- (c) Vacuum: Used in advanced cooling methods, not traditional chambers.
- (d) Room: Not a cooling mechanism.

Step 3: Selecting the correct option.
Since zero energy cool chambers use evaporative cooling, the correct answer is (b) Evaporative. Quick Tip: Evaporative cooling is an eco-friendly and cost-effective method for storing perishable goods.