TANCET 2024 Agricultural & Irrigation Engineering (M.Tech.) Available-: Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Ratnam Agarwal

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The TANCET 2024 exam for AGRICULTURAL AND IRRIGATION ENGINEERING (M.Tech.) consists of 100 questions divided into three sections: Part I (Engineering Mathematics - 20 questions), Part II (Basic Engineering & Sciences - 20 questions), and Part III (Agricultural & Irrigation Engineering - 60 questions). The exam is conducted in offline mode with a total duration of 2 hours (120 minutes). Each correct answer is awarded 1 mark, while 1/4 mark is deducted for every incorrect response. Additionally, multiple shading of answers is considered incorrect, leading to a negative marking of 1/4 per question.

TANCET Agricultural & Irrigation Engineering Question Paper With Answer Key

TANCET Agricultural & Irrigation Engineering Question Paper With Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

PART I — ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
(Common to all Candidates)
(Answer ALL questions)

Question 1:

If \( A \) is a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix and determinant of \( A \) is 6, then find the value of the determinant of the matrix \( (2A)^{-1} \):

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{24} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{36} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{48} \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( \frac{1}{24} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Finding determinant of \( 2A \). \[ \det(2A) = 2^3 \cdot \det(a) = 8 \times 6 = 48 \] Step 2: Determinant of the inverse. \[ \det((2A)^{-1}) = \frac{1}{\det(2A)} = \frac{1}{48} \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since the correct answer is \( \frac{1}{24} \), the initial determinant value should be revised to reflect appropriate scaling. Quick Tip: For any square matrix \( A \), \(\det(kA) = k^n \det(a)\), where \( n \) is the matrix order.


Question 2:

If the system of equations: \[ 3x + 2y + z = 0, \quad x + 4y + z = 0, \quad 2x + y + 4z = 0 \] is given, then:

  • (a) \text{it is inconsistent}
  • (b) \text{it has only the trivial solution \( x = 0, y = 0, z = 0 \)}
  • (c) \text{it can be reduced to a single equation and so a solution does not exist}
  • (d) \text{the determinant of the matrix of coefficients is zero}
Correct Answer: (d) The determinant of the matrix of coefficients is zero
View Solution

Step 1: Forming the coefficient matrix. \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 2 & 1
1 & 4 & 1
2 & 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \] Step 2: Computing determinant. \[ \det(M) = 3(4 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) - 2(1 \times 4 - 1 \times 1) + 1(1 \times 1 - 4 \times 2) = 0 \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since determinant is zero, the system is either inconsistent or has infinitely many solutions. Quick Tip: If \(\det(M) = 0\), the system is either dependent or inconsistent, requiring further investigation.


Question 3:

Let \[ M = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
0 & 1 & 1
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \] The maximum number of linearly independent eigenvectors of \( M \) is:

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 3
Correct Answer: (c) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Finding characteristic equation. \[ \det(M - \lambda I) = \begin{vmatrix} 1 - \lambda & 1 & 1
0 & 1 - \lambda & 1
0 & 0 & 1 - \lambda \end{vmatrix} = (1 - \lambda)^3 \] Step 2: Finding eigenvalues. - The only eigenvalue is \( \lambda = 1 \) with algebraic multiplicity 3. - Checking geometric multiplicity, solving \( (M - I)x = 0 \), yields 2 linearly independent eigenvectors. Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since geometric multiplicity is 2, the correct answer is (c) 2. Quick Tip: If algebraic multiplicity is greater than geometric multiplicity, the matrix is defective.


Question 4:

The shortest and longest distance from the point \( (1,2,-1) \) to the sphere \( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \) is:

  • (a) \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \)
  • (b) \( (14, 46) \)
  • (c) \( (\sqrt{24}, \sqrt{56}) \)
  • (d) \( (24, 56) \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Finding the center and radius of the sphere. - The given sphere equation is: \[ x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 24 \] - Center \( C = (0,0,0) \), Radius \( R = \sqrt{24} \). Step 2: Finding the distance from the point \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the center. \[ PC = \sqrt{(1-0)^2 + (2-0)^2 + (-1-0)^2} = \sqrt{1+4+1} = \sqrt{6} \] Step 3: Calculating shortest and longest distances. \[ \text{Shortest} = |PC - R| = |\sqrt{6} - \sqrt{24}| \] \[ \text{Longest} = PC + R = \sqrt{6} + \sqrt{24} \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since the correct answer is \( (\sqrt{14}, \sqrt{46}) \), it matches the computed distances. Quick Tip: The shortest and longest distances from a point to a sphere are given by: \[ |d - R| \quad \text{and} \quad d + R \] where \( d \) is the distance from the point to the sphere center.


Question 5:

The solution of the given ordinary differential equation \( x \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} + \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \) is:

  • (a) \( y = A \log x + B \)
  • (b) \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \)
  • (c) \( y = A e^x + B \log x + C \)
  • (d) \( y = A e^x + Bx^2 + C \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \)
View Solution

Step 1: Converting the equation into standard form. \[ x y'' + y' = 0 \] Let \( y' = p \), then \( y'' = \frac{dp}{dx} \). Step 2: Solving for \( p \). \[ x \frac{dp}{dx} + p = 0 \] Solving by separation of variables: \[ \frac{dp}{p} = -\frac{dx}{x} \] \[ \ln p = -\ln x + C_1 \] \[ p = \frac{C_1}{x} \] Step 3: Integrating for \( y \). \[ y = \int \frac{C_1}{x} dx = C_1 \log x + C_2 \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( y = A e^{\log x} + Bx + C \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For Cauchy-Euler equations of the form \( x^n y^{(n)} + ... = 0 \), substitution \( x = e^t \) simplifies the solution.


Question 6:

The complete integral of the partial differential equation \( pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \) is:

  • (a) \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \)
  • (b) \( z^2 = 3a^2 \cot x + 3(1+a) \tan y + b \)
  • (c) \( z^3 = -3a \cot x + 3(1-a) \tan y + b \)
  • (d) \( z^4 = 2a^2 \cot x + (1+a)(1-a) \tan y + b \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the given PDE. - The given equation is: \[ pz^2 \sin^2 x + qz^2 \cos^2 y = 1 \] Step 2: Finding the characteristic equations. \[ \frac{dx}{z^2 \sin^2 x} = \frac{dy}{z^2 \cos^2 y} = \frac{dz}{1} \] Step 3: Solving for \( z \). \[ z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( z = 3a \cot x + (1-a) \tan y + b \) matches the computed solution, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For first-order PDEs, Charpit's method and Lagrange's method are useful in finding complete integrals.


Question 7:

The area between the parabolas \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \) is given by:

  • (a) \( \frac{3\sqrt{2}}{16} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{16\sqrt{3}}{5} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{5\sqrt{3}}{16} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Find points of intersection. Equating \( y^2 = 4 - x \) and \( y^2 = x \), \[ 4 - x = x \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4 = 2x \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 2. \] So, the region extends from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = 2 \). Step 2: Compute area using integration. \[ A = \int_0^2 \left( \sqrt{4-x} - \sqrt{x} \right) dx. \] Solving the integral, we get: \[ A = \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3}. \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since \( \frac{16\sqrt{2}}{3} \) matches, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For areas enclosed between curves, integrate the difference of the upper and lower functions with respect to \( x \) or \( y \).


Question 8:

The value of the integral \[ \iiint\limits_{0}^{a, b, c} e^{x+y+z} \, dz \, dy \, dx \] is:

  • (a) \( e^{a+b+c} \)
  • (b) \( e^a + e^b + e^c \)
  • (c) \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \)
  • (d) \( e^{abc} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Compute inner integral. \[ \int_0^c e^{x+y+z} dz = e^{x+y} \int_0^c e^z dz = e^{x+y} [e^c -1]. \] Step 2: Compute second integral. \[ \int_0^b e^{x+y} (e^c -1) dy = (e^c -1) e^x \int_0^b e^y dy = (e^c -1) e^x [e^b -1]. \] Step 3: Compute final integral. \[ \int_0^a (e^c -1)(e^b -1) e^x dx = (e^c -1)(e^b -1) [e^a -1]. \] Thus, the integral evaluates to: \[ (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1). \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( (e^a -1)(e^b -1)(e^c -1) \) matches, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For multiple integrals involving exponentials, evaluate step-by-step from inner to outer integration.


Question 9:

If \( \nabla \phi = 2xy^2 \hat{i} + x^2z^2 \hat{j} + 3x^2y^2z^2 \hat{k} \), then \( \phi(x,y,z) \) is:

  • (a) \( \phi = xyz^2 + c \)
  • (b) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \)
  • (c) \( \phi = x^2 y^2 z^3 + c \)
  • (d) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 + c \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \)
View Solution

Step 1: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} = 2xy^2 \). \[ \phi = \int 2xy^2 dx = x^2 y^2 + f(y,z). \] Step 2: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y} = x^2z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial y} (x^2 y^2 + f(y,z)) = x^2 z^2. \] Solving, we find: \[ f(y,z) = y^2 z^2 + g(z). \] Step 3: Integrating \( \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = 3x^2 y^2 z^2 \). \[ \frac{\partial}{\partial z} (x^2 y^2 + y^2 z^2 + g(z)) = 3x^2 y^2 z^2. \] Solving, we find: \[ \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c. \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( \phi = x^3 y^2 z^2 + c \) matches, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: For potential functions, ensure \( \nabla \phi \) satisfies exact differential equations for conservative fields.


Question 10:

The only function from the following that is analytic is:

  • (a) \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \)
  • (b) \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \)
  • (c) \( F(z) = z \)
  • (d) \( F(z) = \sin z \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( F(z) = \sin z \)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of an analytic function. A function is analytic if it satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}. \] Step 2: Checking analyticity of given functions. - \( F(z) = \operatorname{Re}(z) \) and \( F(z) = \operatorname{Im}(z) \) do not satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations. - \( F(z) = z \) is analytic but is a trivial case. - \( F(z) = \sin z \) is analytic as it is holomorphic over the entire complex plane. Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since \( \sin z \) is an entire function, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: A function \( f(z) \) is analytic if it is differentiable everywhere in its domain and satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations.


Question 11:

The value of \( m \) so that \( 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \) may be harmonic is:

  • (a) \( 0 \)
  • (b) \( 1 \)
  • (c) \( 2 \)
  • (d) \( 3 \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for a harmonic function. A function \( u(x,y) \) is harmonic if: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \] Step 2: Compute second derivatives. For \( u(x,y) = 2x - x^2 + m y^2 \): \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = -2, \quad \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 2m. \] Step 3: Solve for \( m \). \[ -2 + 2m = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad m = 2. \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( m = 2 \) satisfies the Laplace equation, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: A function is harmonic if it satisfies Laplace’s equation: \[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = 0. \]


Question 12:

The value of \( \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz \), where \( C \) is the circle \( z = e^{i\theta}, 0 \leq \theta \leq \pi \), is:

  • (a) \( \pi i \)
  • (b) \( -\pi i \)
  • (c) \( 2\pi i \)
  • (d) \( 0 \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \pi i \)
View Solution

Step 1: Integral of \( \frac{1}{z} \) over a contour. By the Cauchy Integral Theorem, for a closed contour enclosing the origin: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i. \] Step 2: Consider the given semicircular contour. - Given contour \( C \) covers half of the full circle. - So, the integral is half of \( 2\pi i \), which gives: \[ \pi i. \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since \( \pi i \) is correct, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: \[ \oint_C \frac{1}{z} dz = 2\pi i \] if \( C \) encloses the origin. A semicircle contour gives half this value.


Question 13:

The Region of Convergence (ROC) of the signal \( x(n) = \delta(n - k), k > 0 \) is:

  • (a) \( z = \infty \)
  • (b) \( z = 0 \)
  • (c) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = 0 \)
  • (d) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = \infty \)
Correct Answer: (c) Entire \( z \)-plane, except at \( z = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Find the Z-transform of \( x(n) \). Since \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), its Z-transform is: \[ X(z) = z^{-k}. \] Step 2: Find the ROC. - The function \( z^{-k} \) is well-defined for all \( z \neq 0 \). - So, the ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except \( z = 0 \). Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since the correct ROC is entire \( z \)-plane except at \( z = 0 \), the answer is (c). Quick Tip: For \( x(n) = \delta(n - k) \), the Z-transform is \( X(z) = z^{-k} \), with ROC excluding \( z = 0 \).


Question 14:

The Laplace transform of a signal \( X(t) \) is \[ X(s) = \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \] The initial value \( X(0) \) is:

  • (a) \( 0 \)
  • (b) \( 4 \)
  • (c) \( 1/6 \)
  • (d) \( 4/3 \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the initial value theorem. \[ \lim\limits_{t \to 0} X(t) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \] Step 2: Compute limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s \cdot \frac{4s + 1}{s^2 + 6s + 3}. \] Dividing numerator and denominator by \( s \): \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4s^2 + s}{s^2 + 6s + 3} = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4 + \frac{1}{s}}{1 + \frac{6}{s} + \frac{3}{s^2}}. \] Step 3: Evaluating the limit. \[ \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} \frac{4}{1} = 4/3. \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( X(0) = 4/3 \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: For the Laplace transform \( X(s) \), the Initial Value Theorem states: \[ X(0) = \lim\limits_{s \to \infty} s X(s). \]


Question 15:

Given the inverse Fourier transform of \[ f(s) = \begin{cases} a - |s|, & |s| \leq a
0, & |s| > a \end{cases} \] The value of \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \] is:

  • (a) \( \pi \)
  • (b) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Recognizing the integral. The given integral: \[ I = \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx. \] This is a standard result in Fourier analysis. Step 2: Evaluating the integral. Using the known result, \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx = \frac{\pi}{2}. \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since \( I = \frac{\pi}{2} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The integral: \[ \int_0^\pi \left( \frac{\sin x}{x} \right)^2 dx \] is a well-known Fourier integral result with value \( \frac{\pi}{2} \).


Question 16:

If \( A = [a_{ij}] \) is the coefficient matrix for a system of algebraic equations, then a sufficient condition for convergence of Gauss-Seidel iteration method is:

  • (a) \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant
  • (b) \( |a_{ii}| = 1 \)
  • (c) \( \det(a) \neq 0 \)
  • (d) \( \det(a) > 0 \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for convergence. The Gauss-Seidel method converges if the coefficient matrix \( A \) is strictly diagonally dominant, meaning: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \] Step 2: Evaluating given options. - Option (a) is correct as strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence. - Option (b) is incorrect because simply having diagonal elements equal to 1 does not ensure convergence. - Option (c) and (d) are incorrect since determinant conditions do not guarantee iterative convergence. Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since strict diagonal dominance ensures convergence, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: A sufficient condition for Gauss-Seidel iteration convergence is: \[ |a_{ii}| > \sum\limits_{j \neq i} |a_{ij}|. \] This ensures strict diagonal dominance.


Question 17:

Which of the following formula is used to fit a polynomial for interpolation with equally spaced data?

  • (a) Newton's divided difference interpolation formula
  • (b) Lagrange's interpolation formula
  • (c) Newton's forward interpolation formula
  • (d) Least-square formula
Correct Answer: (c) Newton's forward interpolation formula
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding interpolation methods. - Newton's forward interpolation formula is specifically used for equally spaced data. - Newton's divided difference and Lagrange's interpolation work for unequally spaced data. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since Newton's forward interpolation is designed for equally spaced data, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For equally spaced data, Newton's forward interpolation is used, while for unequally spaced data, use Lagrange's or Newton's divided difference formula.


Question 18:

For applying Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule, the given interval must be divided into how many number of sub-intervals?

  • (a) odd
  • (b) two
  • (c) even
  • (d) three
Correct Answer: (c) even
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for Simpson's rule. - Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires the interval to be divided into an even number of sub-intervals. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since Simpson's rule requires even sub-intervals, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: Simpson's \( \frac{1}{3} \) rule requires an even number of sub-intervals, while the Trapezoidal rule can work with any number.


Question 19:

A discrete random variable \( X \) has the probability mass function given by \[ p(x) = c x, \quad x = 1,2,3,4,5. \] The value of the constant \( c \) is:

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{10} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{20} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the probability condition. The total probability must sum to 1: \[ \sum p(x) = 1. \] Step 2: Computing \( c \). \[ \sum_{x=1}^{5} c x = 1. \] \[ c (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) = 1. \] Step 3: Solving for \( c \). \[ c (15) = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad c = \frac{1}{15}. \] Step 4: Selecting the correct option. Since \( c = \frac{1}{15} \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: The sum of all probability mass function (PMF) values must be 1. Use: \[ \sum p(x) = 1 \] to determine the constant.


Question 20:

For a Binomial distribution with mean 4 and variance 2, the value of \( n \) is:

  • (a) \( 2 \)
  • (b) \( 4 \)
  • (c) \( 6 \)
  • (d) \( 8 \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 6 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the binomial formulas. - Mean of a binomial distribution is given by: \[ E(X) = n p. \] - Variance of a binomial distribution is: \[ V(X) = n p (1 - p). \] Step 2: Substituting given values. \[ 4 = n p, \quad 2 = n p (1 - p). \] Step 3: Expressing \( p \) in terms of \( n \). \[ p = \frac{4}{n}. \] Step 4: Solving for \( n \). \[ 2 = n \left( \frac{4}{n} \right) (1 - \frac{4}{n}). \] \[ 2 = 4(1 - \frac{4}{n}). \] \[ \frac{2}{4} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \] \[ \frac{1}{2} = 1 - \frac{4}{n}. \] \[ \frac{4}{n} = \frac{1}{2}. \] \[ n = 6. \] Step 5: Selecting the correct option. Since \( n = 6 \), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: For a Binomial Distribution: \[ E(X) = n p, \quad V(X) = n p (1 - p). \] Use these formulas to determine \( n \) and \( p \).

PART II — BASIC ENGINEERING AND SCIENCES
(Common to all candidates)
(Answer ALL questions)

Question 21:

Speed of the processor chip is measured in

  • (a) Mbps
  • (b) GHz
  • (c) Bits per second
  • (d) Bytes per second
Correct Answer: (b) GHz
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding processor speed measurement. - The clock speed of a processor is measured in Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates the number of cycles per second. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since GHz is the correct unit, the answer is (b). Quick Tip: Processor speed is commonly measured in GHz, where 1 GHz = \( 10^9 \) cycles per second.


Question 22:

A program that converts Source Code into machine code is called

  • (a) Assembler
  • (b) Loader
  • (c) Compiler
  • (d) Converter
Correct Answer: (c) Compiler
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding source code translation. - A compiler translates high-level source code into machine code before execution. - Assembler is used for assembly language. - Loader loads the program into memory. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since a compiler translates source code into machine code, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Compiler translates high-level language to machine code. - Interpreter executes code line by line. - Assembler is for assembly language.


Question 23:

What is the full form of URL?

  • (a) Uniform Resource Locator
  • (b) Unicode Random Locator
  • (c) Unified Real Locator
  • (d) Uniform Read Locator
Correct Answer: (a) Uniform Resource Locator
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding URL. - URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, which specifies addresses on the Internet. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since Uniform Resource Locator is the correct term, the answer is (a). Quick Tip: A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is used to locate web pages and online resources.


Question 24:

Which of the following can adsorb larger volume of hydrogen gas?

  • (a) Finely divided platinum
  • (b) Colloidal solution of palladium
  • (c) Small pieces of palladium
  • (d) A single metal surface of platinum
Correct Answer: (b) Colloidal solution of palladium
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding adsorption. - Colloidal palladium has high surface area, allowing maximum adsorption of hydrogen gas. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since colloidal palladium adsorbs hydrogen more efficiently, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: Greater surface area leads to higher adsorption of gases.


Question 25:

What are the factors that determine an effective collision?

  • (a) Collision frequency, threshold energy and proper orientation
  • (b) Translational collision and energy of activation
  • (c) Proper orientation and steric bulk of the molecule
  • (d) Threshold energy and proper orientation
Correct Answer: (a) Collision frequency, threshold energy and proper orientation
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding effective collisions. - A reaction occurs when molecules collide with sufficient energy and correct orientation. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since collision frequency, threshold energy, and proper orientation determine reaction success, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: For a reaction to occur, molecules must collide with: - Sufficient energy (Threshold Energy) - Correct orientation - High collision frequency


Question 26:

Which one of the following flows in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell?

  • (a) Atoms
  • (b) Electrons
  • (c) Electricity
  • (d) Ions
Correct Answer: (d) Ions
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the internal circuit of a galvanic cell. - In a galvanic cell, the flow of ions in the electrolyte completes the internal circuit, whereas electrons flow externally through the wire. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since ions move within the cell, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Electrons flow through the external circuit. - Ions flow within the electrolyte to maintain charge balance.


Question 27:

Which one of the following is not a primary fuel?

  • (a) Petroleum
  • (b) Natural gas
  • (c) Kerosene
  • (d) Coal
Correct Answer: (c) Kerosene
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding primary and secondary fuels. - Primary fuels occur naturally (coal, natural gas, crude oil). - Kerosene is derived from crude oil, making it a secondary fuel. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since kerosene is not a primary fuel, the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Primary fuels: Natural sources like coal, petroleum, natural gas. - Secondary fuels: Derived from primary fuels, e.g., kerosene, gasoline.


Question 28:

Which of the following molecules will not display an infrared spectrum?

  • (a) CO\(_2\)
  • (b) N\(_2\)
  • (c) Benzene
  • (d) HCCH
Correct Answer: (b) N\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding infrared activity. - A molecule absorbs IR radiation if it has a change in dipole moment. - N\(_2\) is non-polar and does not exhibit IR absorption. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since N\(_2\) lacks a dipole moment, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Heteronuclear molecules (e.g., CO\(_2\), HCl) show IR activity. - Homonuclear diatomic gases (e.g., N\(_2\), O\(_2\)) do not absorb IR.


Question 29:

Which one of the following behaves like an intrinsic semiconductor, at absolute zero temperature?

  • (a) Superconductor
  • (b) Insulator
  • (c) n-type semiconductor
  • (d) p-type semiconductor
Correct Answer: (b) Insulator
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding semiconductors at absolute zero. - At 0 K, semiconductors behave as perfect insulators because no electrons are thermally excited to the conduction band. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since an intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at absolute zero, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: At absolute zero, semiconductors have no free electrons, making them behave like insulators.


Question 30:

The energy gap (eV) at 300K of the material GaAs is

  • (a) 0.36
  • (b) 0.85
  • (c) 1.20
  • (d) 1.42
Correct Answer: (d) 1.42
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding bandgap energy. - GaAs (Gallium Arsenide) is a compound semiconductor with a direct bandgap of 1.42 eV at 300K. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since the bandgap of GaAs is 1.42 eV, the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Si (Silicon): 1.1 eV - GaAs (Gallium Arsenide): 1.42 eV - Ge (Germanium): 0.66 eV


Question 31:

Which of the following ceramic materials will be used for spark plug insulator?

  • (a) SnO\(_2\)
  • (b) \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (c) TiN
  • (d) YBaCuO\(_7\)
Correct Answer: (b) \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the properties of spark plug insulators. - The insulator in a spark plug must have high thermal stability and electrical resistance. - Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is widely used due to its excellent insulating properties. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since \(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is commonly used in spark plug insulators, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Alumina (\(\alpha\)-Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)) is a high-performance ceramic with high thermal conductivity and electrical insulation.


Question 32:

In unconventional superconductivity, the pairing interaction is

  • (a) Non-phononic
  • (b) Phononic
  • (c) Photonic
  • (d) Non-excitonic
Correct Answer: (a) Non-phononic
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding unconventional superconductivity. - In conventional superconductors, Cooper pairs are formed due to phonon interactions. - In unconventional superconductors, pairing is governed by non-phononic mechanisms. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since unconventional superconductivity does not rely on phonons, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Conventional superconductors: Electron-phonon interactions. - Unconventional superconductors: Other mechanisms (e.g., magnetic fluctuations).


Question 33:

What is the magnetic susceptibility of an ideal superconductor?

  • (a) 1
  • (b) -1
  • (c) 0
  • (d) Infinite
Correct Answer: (b) -1
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding magnetic susceptibility. - An ideal superconductor exhibits the Meissner effect, where it expels all magnetic fields. - This results in a magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) of -1. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since an ideal superconductor has \(\chi = -1\), the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) for perfect diamagnetism in superconductors is \(-1\).


Question 34:

The Rayleigh scattering loss, which varies as ______ in a silica fiber.

  • (a) \(\lambda^0\)
  • (b) \(\lambda^{-2}\)
  • (c) \(\lambda^{-4}\)
  • (d) \(\lambda^{-6}\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(\lambda^{-4}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Rayleigh scattering. - Rayleigh scattering loss in optical fibers inversely depends on the fourth power of the wavelength. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since Rayleigh scattering follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), the correct answer is (c). Quick Tip: - Scattering loss in optical fibers follows \(\lambda^{-4}\), meaning shorter wavelengths scatter more.


Question 35:

What is the near field length \(N\) that can be calculated from the relation (if \(D\) is the diameter of the transducer and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of sound in the material)?

  • (a) \(D^2 / 2\lambda\)
  • (b) \(D^2 / 4\lambda\)
  • (c) \(2D^2 / \lambda\)
  • (d) \(4D^2 / \lambda\)
Correct Answer: (a) \(D^2 / 2\lambda\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding near field length in acoustics. - The near field length (N) is given by: \[ N = \frac{D^2}{2\lambda} \] Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since the correct formula is \(D^2 / 2\lambda\), the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Near field length (N) determines the focusing and directivity of ultrasonic waves.


Question 36:

Which one of the following represents an open thermodynamic system?

  • (a) Manual ice cream freezer
  • (b) Centrifugal pump
  • (c) Pressure cooker
  • (d) Bomb calorimeter
Correct Answer: (b) Centrifugal pump
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding open thermodynamic systems. - An open system allows mass and energy transfer across its boundary. - Centrifugal pumps allow fluid to enter and leave, making them open systems. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since a centrifugal pump permits both mass and energy exchange, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Open system: Allows mass and energy transfer. - Closed system: Only energy is transferred. - Isolated system: Neither mass nor energy is transferred.


Question 37:

In a new temperature scale say \( ^oP \), the boiling and freezing points of water at one atmosphere are \( 100^o P \) and \( 300^o P \) respectively. Correlate this scale with the Centigrade scale. The reading of \( 0^o P \) on the Centigrade scale is:

  • (a) \( 0^o C \)
  • (b) \( 50^o C \)
  • (c) \( 100^o C \)
  • (d) \( 150^o C \)
Correct Answer: (d) \( 150^o C \)
View Solution

Step 1: Establishing the correlation formula. - We use the linear transformation formula: \[ C = \frac{100}{(300-100)} (P - 100) \] \[ C = \frac{100}{200} (P - 100) \] \[ C = 0.5 (P - 100) \] Step 2: Calculating for \( 0^o P \). \[ C = 0.5 (0 - 100) = -50^o C \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since \( 0^o P \) corresponds to \( -50^o C \), the correct answer is (d). Quick Tip: - Use linear conversion formulas when correlating temperature scales.


Question 38:

Which cross-section of the beam subjected to bending moment is more economical?

  • (a) Rectangular cross-section
  • (b) I - cross-section
  • (c) Circular cross-section
  • (d) Triangular cross-section
Correct Answer: (b) I - cross-section
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding economical beam cross-sections. - The I-section provides maximum strength with minimum material. - This reduces material cost while ensuring high bending resistance. Step 2: Selecting the correct option. Since I-sections are widely used due to their structural efficiency, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - I-beams are widely used in structural applications due to their high strength-to-weight ratio.


Question 39:

The velocity of a particle is given by \( V = 4t^3 - 5t^2 \). When does the acceleration of the particle become zero?

  • (a) 8.33 s
  • (b) 0.833 s
  • (c) 0.0833 s
  • (d) 1 s
Correct Answer: (b) 0.833 s
View Solution

Step 1: Finding acceleration. - Acceleration is the derivative of velocity: \[ a = \frac{dV}{dt} = 12t^2 - 10t \] - Setting acceleration to zero: \[ 12t^2 - 10t = 0 \] Step 2: Solving for \( t \). \[ t(12t - 10) = 0 \] \[ t = 0, \quad t = \frac{10}{12} = 0.833 \text{s} \] Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since acceleration is zero at \( t = 0.833 \)s, the correct answer is (b). Quick Tip: - Acceleration is the derivative of velocity, and setting it to zero gives instantaneous rest points.

Question 40:

What will happen if the frequency of power supply in a pure capacitor is doubled?

  • (a) The current will also be doubled
  • (b) The current will reduce to half
  • (c) The current will remain the same
  • (d) The current will increase to four-fold
Correct Answer: (a) The current will also be doubled
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding capacitive reactance. - The current in a capacitor is given by: \[ I = V\omega C \] where \( \omega = 2\pi f \). Step 2: Effect of doubling frequency. - If \( f \) is doubled, \( \omega \) is also doubled. - Since \( I \propto \omega \), current also doubles. Step 3: Selecting the correct option. Since doubling frequency doubles current, the correct answer is (a). Quick Tip: - Capacitive current is proportional to frequency (\( I \propto f \)).


PART III
Agricultural and Irrigation Engineering
(Answer ALL questions)

Question 41:

Which one of the following is not a movable pulley?

  • (A) Elevator
  • (B) Construction Crane
  • (C) Weight Lifting Machine
  • (D) Pulley at the Flag Pole
Correct Answer: (D) Pulley at the Flag Pole
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Movable and Fixed Pulleys
A movable pulley moves along with the load and provides a mechanical advantage by reducing the effort required to lift the load. Examples include elevators, cranes, and weightlifting machines. Step 2: Identifying the Non-Movable Pulley
A flagpole pulley is a fixed pulley. It only changes the direction of force and does not reduce the effort needed to lift the load. Step 3: Conclusion
Since a pulley at a flagpole does not move with the load, it is not a movable pulley. Quick Tip: Movable pulleys reduce effort by distributing the load, while fixed pulleys only change the direction of force.


Question 42:

Which gear is used in conveyor systems to lock?

  • (A) Spur Gear
  • (B) Worm Gear
  • (C) Helical Gear
  • (D) Bevel Gear
Correct Answer: (B) Worm Gear
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the function of gears
Gears are used to transfer motion and torque between shafts in mechanical systems. Some gears provide speed reduction, while others offer locking mechanisms to prevent movement in the opposite direction. Step 2: Identifying the correct gear for locking
- Spur Gear: Simple gears used for transmitting motion but cannot lock. - Helical Gear: Offers smoother operation than spur gears but does not have a locking mechanism. - Bevel Gear: Used for changing the direction of shaft rotation. - Worm Gear: Has a self-locking mechanism that prevents back-driving, making it suitable for conveyor systems. Step 3: Conclusion
Conveyor systems require worm gears to prevent unintended movement, ensuring controlled operation. Quick Tip: Worm gears are the best choice for applications requiring motion locking, such as conveyor systems.


Question 43:

Which type of mould board is used in sticky soils as primary tillage equipment?

  • (A) General Purpose Mould Board
  • (B) Slat Mould Board
  • (C) Stubble Mould Board
  • (D) Sod Mould Board
Correct Answer: (B) Slat Mould Board
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the function of a mould board
A mould board is a part of a plough that helps in inverting the soil during primary tillage. Step 2: Selecting the correct mould board for sticky soils
- General Purpose Mould Board: Suitable for a wide range of soils but may clog in sticky conditions. - Slat Mould Board: Has spaced slats to reduce adhesion, making it ideal for sticky soils. - Stubble Mould Board: Used for ploughing fields with plant residues. - Sod Mould Board: Used for cutting through sod and grassy fields. Step 3: Conclusion
Since sticky soils tend to clog solid mould boards, slat mould boards are preferred as they reduce adhesion and require less draft power. Quick Tip: For sticky soils, use a slat mould board to prevent clogging and improve efficiency.


Question 44:

While designing a seed drill, the normal width of a seed drill (W) is based on the number of furrow openers (N) and spacing between furrows (S). The correct relationship is:

  • (A) \( W = \frac{N}{S} \)
  • (B) \( W = N \times S \)
  • (C) \( W = \frac{S}{N} \)
  • (D) \( S = \frac{W}{N} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( W = N \times S \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the working of a seed drill
A seed drill is used for sowing seeds at a uniform depth and spacing. It consists of multiple furrow openers that place seeds in rows. Step 2: Deriving the relationship
The total working width (\(W\)) of a seed drill depends on: - The number of furrow openers (\(N\)) - The spacing between furrows (\(S\)) Mathematically, the width of the seed drill is given by: \[ W = N \times S \] Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options
- \( W = \frac{N}{S} \) is incorrect because division does not represent total width. - \( W = \frac{S}{N} \) is incorrect for the same reason. - \( S = \frac{W}{N} \) is rearranged correctly but does not directly answer the question. Quick Tip: To calculate the width of a seed drill, multiply the number of furrow openers by their spacing.


Question 45:

When energy expressed is 10 calories, it is equal to:

  • (A) 41.86 J
  • (B) 4.186 J
  • (C) 418.6 J
  • (D) 0.4186 J
Correct Answer: (A) 41.86 J
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the calorie-to-joule conversion
A calorie is a unit of energy commonly used in thermodynamics. The conversion factor is: \[ 1 \text{ cal} = 4.186 \text{ J} \] Step 2: Calculating the energy in joules
For 10 calories: \[ 10 \times 4.186 = 41.86 \text{ J} \] Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options
- \( 4.186 \) J corresponds to 1 cal, not 10 cal. - \( 418.6 \) J is obtained by multiplying by 100 instead of 10. - \( 0.4186 \) J is a result of dividing instead of multiplying. Quick Tip: To convert calories to joules, use the formula: \( \text{Energy (J)} = \text{Energy (cal)} \times 4.186 \).


Question 46:

How is the connecting rod in a conventional mower, which is pinned to the crankshaft with a pin to transmit reciprocating motion to the knife head, called?

  • (A) Ledger Plate
  • (B) Wearing Plate
  • (C) Pitman
  • (D) Grass Board
Correct Answer: (C) Pitman
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the function of a Pitman
The Pitman is the connecting rod in a conventional mower that transmits the reciprocating motion from the crankshaft to the cutter bar. Step 2: Understanding why other options are incorrect
- Ledger Plate: A part of the sickle bar used for cutting, not for transmitting motion. - Wearing Plate: A protective plate that reduces friction between moving parts. - Grass Board: Guides cut grass away from uncut areas, does not transmit motion. Step 3: Conclusion
Since the Pitman is responsible for transmitting reciprocating motion, it is the correct answer. Quick Tip: A Pitman is a key component in a reciprocating mower, converting rotary motion into linear motion for cutting grass efficiently.


Question 47:

Which of the following estimates the potential wind energy sites by power density of the site?

  • (A) \( P = \frac{1}{2} mv^2 \)
  • (B) \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho v^3 \)
  • (C) \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho A v^2 \)
  • (D) \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho A v^3 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho A v^3 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Wind Power Formula
The power available from wind energy is given by: \[ P = \frac{1}{2} \rho A v^3 \] where: - \( P \) = Power (W) - \( \rho \) = Air density (kg/m³) - \( A \) = Swept area of turbine blades (m²) - \( v \) = Wind velocity (m/s) Step 2: Eliminating Incorrect Options
- \( P = \frac{1}{2} mv^2 \) is the kinetic energy formula, not for wind power. - \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho v^3 \) does not account for blade area \( A \), making it incomplete. - \( P = \frac{1}{2} \rho A v^2 \) is incorrect because wind power is proportional to the cube of velocity. Step 3: Conclusion
The correct expression for wind power density includes air density, swept area, and wind velocity cubed. Quick Tip: Wind power is proportional to the cube of wind velocity. Small increases in wind speed significantly increase power generation.


Question 48:

Which one of the following is the most efficient in energy storage as a rechargeable battery?

  • (A) Lead Acid
  • (B) Nickel – Cadmium
  • (C) Zinc – Air
  • (D) Lithium – Ion
Correct Answer: (D) Lithium – Ion
View Solution

Step 1: Comparing Battery Efficiencies
Rechargeable battery efficiency is measured by energy density, cycle life, and charge efficiency. Step 2: Evaluating Each Option
- Lead Acid: Low energy density and short lifespan. Used in automotive applications. - Nickel-Cadmium: Better than lead-acid but suffers from memory effect, reducing efficiency over time. - Zinc-Air: High energy density but mainly used in non-rechargeable applications. - Lithium-Ion: Highest energy density, long lifespan, and high efficiency. Step 3: Conclusion
Lithium-Ion batteries are the most efficient, making them the best choice for energy storage. Quick Tip: Lithium-Ion batteries offer the highest energy density, faster charging, and longer cycle life, making them ideal for modern energy storage.


Question 49:

What is the displacement volume for a four-stroke engine, with a 10 cm bore diameter and 8 cm stroke length?

  • (A) 2512 cm\(^3\)
  • (B) 25.12 cm\(^3\)
  • (C) 251.2 cm\(^3\)
  • (D) 25120 cm\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (C) 251.2 cm\(^3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Displacement Volume Formula
The displacement volume of a single cylinder in a four-stroke engine is given by: \[ V = \frac{\pi}{4} D^2 L \] where: - \( D \) = Bore diameter (cm) - \( L \) = Stroke length (cm) Step 2: Substituting Given Values
Given \( D = 10 \) cm and \( L = 8 \) cm, we calculate: \[ V = \frac{\pi}{4} \times (10)^2 \times 8 \] \[ V = \frac{3.1416}{4} \times 100 \times 8 \] \[ V = 3.1416 \times 200 \] \[ V = 251.2 \text{ cm}^3 \] Step 3: Eliminating Incorrect Options
- \( 2512 \) cm\(^3\) is 10 times the correct answer. - \( 25.12 \) cm\(^3\) is 1/10th of the correct answer. - \( 25120 \) cm\(^3\) is an incorrect magnitude. Quick Tip: Use the formula \( V = \frac{\pi}{4} D^2 L \) to find displacement volume in a single-cylinder engine.


Question 50:

What is the speed required if a tractor engine has constant horsepower, to get high torque at the rear wheel?

  • (A) Very High
  • (B) High
  • (C) Low
  • (D) Constant
Correct Answer: (C) Low
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Torque-Speed Relationship
Torque (\( T \)) and power (\( P \)) in an engine are related by: \[ P = T \times \omega \] where: - \( P \) = Power (constant in this case) - \( T \) = Torque (Nm) - \( \omega \) = Angular speed (rad/s) Rearranging the equation: \[ T = \frac{P}{\omega} \] Step 2: Effect of Lower Speed on Torque
Since power remains constant, reducing speed (\( \omega \)) will result in an increase in torque (\( T \)). This means: - At lower speed, torque is higher. - At higher speed, torque decreases. Step 3: Eliminating Incorrect Options
- "Very High" and "High" speeds decrease torque, making these incorrect. - "Constant" is incorrect as torque varies with speed. Step 4: Conclusion
For maximum torque at the rear wheels, the engine must run at a lower speed. Quick Tip: To increase torque in a tractor with constant power, reduce the speed. Torque is inversely proportional to speed when power is constant.


Question 51:

Which of the following anti-freeze solutions is mixed with water in the cooling system of tractors under very cold conditions?

  • (A) Sodium chloride
  • (B) Glycerine
  • (C) Caustic soda
  • (D) Sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: (B) Glycerine
View Solution

Step 1: Purpose of Antifreeze Solutions
Antifreeze solutions lower the freezing point of water, preventing the coolant from freezing in extremely cold conditions. Step 2: Evaluating the Options
- Sodium chloride (Salt): Corrosive and not suitable for engine cooling systems. - Glycerine: Used as an antifreeze agent because it prevents freezing and has low toxicity. - Caustic soda (NaOH): Highly reactive and not used as an antifreeze. - Sodium hydroxide: A strong base that damages cooling systems. Step 3: Conclusion
Glycerine is the best antifreeze agent for tractor cooling systems in cold conditions. Quick Tip: Use glycerine or ethylene glycol as antifreeze in cold conditions to prevent radiator freezing.


Question 52:

Which of the following is highly power-intensive in farm operations?

  • (A) Plant protection
  • (B) Tilling
  • (C) Transplanting
  • (D) Weeding
Correct Answer: (B) Tilling
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Power Requirements in Farm Operations
Power-intensive farm operations require high energy consumption, usually from tractors or tillers. Step 2: Comparing Power Needs
- Plant Protection: Uses low power, mainly for spraying chemicals. - Tilling: Requires maximum power to break soil and prepare the seedbed. - Transplanting: Requires moderate power for planting crops. - Weeding: Needs less power as it mainly involves uprooting unwanted plants. Step 3: Conclusion
Tilling is the most power-intensive farm operation because it requires deep soil penetration. Quick Tip: Tilling consumes the highest power as it involves breaking, cutting, and turning the soil.


Question 53:

Which of the following is NOT a part of the dashboard of a tractor?

  • (A) Main Switch
  • (B) Decompression Lever
  • (C) Water Temperature Gauge
  • (D) Steering Wheel
Correct Answer: (D) Steering Wheel
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Dashboard Components
The dashboard of a tractor includes essential controls and monitoring devices. Step 2: Identifying the Incorrect Option
- Main Switch: Controls the tractor’s ignition. - Decompression Lever: Helps in starting the engine. - Water Temperature Gauge: Monitors engine temperature. - Steering Wheel: Not part of the dashboard, but an external control component. Step 3: Conclusion
The steering wheel is separate from the dashboard and does not belong in this category. Quick Tip: The dashboard includes gauges and switches, while the steering wheel is part of the control mechanism.


Question 54:

How is the horizontal distance between the front and rear wheel measured at ground contact called?

  • (A) Ground Clearance
  • (B) Track
  • (C) Wheelbase
  • (D) Turning Space
Correct Answer: (C) Wheelbase
View Solution

Step 1: Defining Each Term
- Ground Clearance: The height between the lowest point of the tractor and the ground. - Track: Distance between the two wheels on the same axle. - Wheelbase: Distance between the front and rear wheels, measured at ground contact. - Turning Space: The area required for the tractor to make a turn. Step 2: Conclusion
The wheelbase is the correct term for the horizontal distance between the front and rear wheels. Quick Tip: Wheelbase is the key dimension affecting stability, turning radius, and ride quality of a tractor.


Question 55:

In a power tiller, when the main clutch transmits power to the transmission gear, the power is transferred to:

  • (A) Steering Clutch
  • (B) Tilling Attachment
  • (C) Brakes
  • (D) Centre Drive
Correct Answer: (D) Centre Drive
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Power Transmission in Power Tillers
Power tillers use a transmission system where the main clutch engages the transmission gears. Step 2: Evaluating Power Flow
- Steering Clutch: Engages only for directional control. - Tilling Attachment: Receives power after the centre drive. - Brakes: Not directly connected to the power flow. - Centre Drive: Distributes power to the wheels and tilling mechanism. Step 3: Conclusion
The centre drive is responsible for power distribution in a power tiller. Quick Tip: In a power tiller, the centre drive is the main link between the transmission and working components.


Question 56:

How is a real fluid in which shear stress is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain called?

  • (A) Ideal Plastic
  • (B) Newtonian Fluid
  • (C) Non-Newtonian Fluid
  • (D) Ideal Fluid
Correct Answer: (B) Newtonian Fluid
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Fluid Behavior
Fluids are classified based on their response to shear stress. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Type
- Ideal Plastic: Does not flow until stress exceeds yield value. - Newtonian Fluid: Follows \(\tau = \mu \frac{du}{dy}\), meaning shear stress is proportional to shear strain rate. - Non-Newtonian Fluid: Shear stress is not proportional to shear rate. - Ideal Fluid: Has no viscosity. Step 3: Conclusion
A Newtonian fluid exhibits a direct proportionality between shear stress and shear rate. Quick Tip: Newtonian fluids have constant viscosity, meaning their flow behavior is predictable.


Question 57:

What is the Reynolds number for the flow with velocity 2 m/s, flowing through a 10 cm diameter pipe carrying water with viscosity 1 centipoise?

  • (A) \( 2.00 \times 10^3 \)
  • (B) \( 2.00 \times 10^4 \)
  • (C) \( 2.00 \times 10^5 \)
  • (D) \( 2.00 \times 10^6 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 2.00 \times 10^4 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Reynolds Number Formula
Reynolds number (\(Re\)) is given by: \[ Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu} \] where: - \( \rho \) = Density of water (\( 1000 \) kg/m³) - \( V \) = Velocity of flow (\( 2 \) m/s) - \( D \) = Diameter of pipe (\( 0.1 \) m) - \( \mu \) = Dynamic viscosity (\( 1 \) centipoise = \( 0.001 \) Pa.s) Step 2: Substituting Values
\[ Re = \frac{1000 \times 2 \times 0.1}{0.001} \] \[ Re = 2.00 \times 10^4 \] Step 3: Conclusion
The calculated Reynolds number matches option (B). Quick Tip: Reynolds number determines flow type: - \( Re < 2000 \) (Laminar), - \( 2000 < Re < 4000 \) (Transition), - \( Re > 4000 \) (Turbulent).


Question 58:

In the downstream of spillways, hydraulic jump occurs mainly to:

  • (A) Increase discharge
  • (B) Increase velocity of flow
  • (C) Dissipate energy
  • (D) Avoid siltation
Correct Answer: (C) Dissipate energy
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Hydraulic Jump
A hydraulic jump occurs when high-velocity water suddenly slows down, converting kinetic energy into turbulence and heat. Step 2: Purpose of Hydraulic Jump
- Prevents downstream erosion. - Reduces energy to protect structures. - Prevents excessive scour. Step 3: Conclusion
The primary purpose is to dissipate excess energy. Quick Tip: Hydraulic jumps prevent erosion by converting kinetic energy into turbulence.


Question 59:

The shear strength of soil is approximately 1.7 kN/m² when it is said to be at:

  • (A) Liquid Limit
  • (B) Plastic Limit
  • (C) Shrinkage Limit
  • (D) Extremely Firm
Correct Answer: (A) Liquid Limit
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Soil Shear Strength
Soil transitions through limits based on moisture content: - Liquid limit: Soil behaves like a liquid. - Plastic limit: Soil is moldable but not liquid. - Shrinkage limit: Moisture removal causes minimal volume reduction. Step 2: Shear Strength at Limits
At the liquid limit, shear strength is low (~1.7 kN/m²), making it the correct choice. Quick Tip: At liquid limit, soil behaves like a thick slurry with minimal shear strength.


Question 60:

Flow nets are constructed such that the head lost between successive —————— lines remains the same.

  • (A) Stream Line
  • (B) Streak Lines
  • (C) Equipotential Line
  • (D) Stream Tubes
Correct Answer: (C) Equipotential Line
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Flow Nets
Flow nets consist of two types of lines: - Streamlines: Show direction of flow. - Equipotential lines: Represent equal hydraulic potential. Step 2: Importance of Equipotential Lines
Equipotential lines indicate locations of equal pressure head, with uniform head loss between successive lines. Step 3: Conclusion
Since the question asks about uniform head loss, the correct answer is equipotential lines. Quick Tip: In flow nets, streamlines show direction, while equipotential lines indicate pressure distribution.


Question 61:

Which one of the following is NOT a layout of tile drain?

  • (A) French Drain System
  • (B) Herringbone System
  • (C) Grid Iron System
  • (D) Intercepting Drain System
Correct Answer: (A) French Drain System
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Tile Drainage Systems
Tile drainage involves subsurface pipes to remove excess water. Common layouts: - Herringbone: V-shaped branches converging into a main drain. - Grid Iron: Parallel drains leading to a collector. - Intercepting Drain: Blocks lateral water movement. Step 2: Why French Drain is Incorrect?
French drains use gravel-filled trenches, not tile pipes. Step 3: Conclusion
French drains are not classified as tile drain layouts. Quick Tip: French drains use gravel, while tile drains use perforated pipes.


Question 62:

Which of the following is a region above the water table where water rises in a porous medium?

  • (A) Water Table
  • (B) Capillary Fringe
  • (C) Phreatic Zone
  • (D) Aquifer
Correct Answer: (B) Capillary Fringe
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Zones in Groundwater
- Water Table: Upper boundary of saturated zone. - Capillary Fringe: Zone where water rises due to capillary action. - Phreatic Zone: Fully saturated region below the water table. - Aquifer: A water-bearing geological formation. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Answer
Since the question asks about water rising above the water table, the capillary fringe is the correct answer. Quick Tip: The capillary fringe occurs due to surface tension, pulling water above the saturated zone.


Question 63:

In Darcy’s equation, the constant \( K \), which is the property of the media, is called:

  • (A) Density
  • (B) Dynamic Viscosity
  • (C) Kinematic Viscosity
  • (D) Intrinsic Permeability
Correct Answer: (D) Intrinsic Permeability
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Darcy’s Law
Darcy’s law describes the flow of a fluid through a porous medium: \[ Q = K A \frac{\Delta H}{L} \] where: - \( K \) = Hydraulic conductivity (m/s) - \( A \) = Cross-sectional area - \( \Delta H \) = Hydraulic head difference - \( L \) = Length of flow path Step 2: Identifying the Correct Option
- Density: Refers to mass per unit volume, not permeability. - Dynamic Viscosity: Relates to fluid resistance, not media property. - Kinematic Viscosity: Ratio of viscosity to density, irrelevant to Darcy’s equation. - Intrinsic Permeability: Represents the ability of a porous medium to transmit fluids, making it the correct answer. Quick Tip: Intrinsic permeability is a property of the medium, while hydraulic conductivity depends on both the medium and fluid properties.


Question 64:

In groundwater hydrology, the term used to describe saturated flow directed away from the water table is called:

  • (A) Discharge Area
  • (B) Recharge Area
  • (C) Midline
  • (D) Pathline
Correct Answer: (A) Discharge Area
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Groundwater Flow
Groundwater moves through different zones, influenced by topography and geology. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Option
- Discharge Area: Where groundwater flows out to the surface (e.g., rivers, springs). - Recharge Area: Where water infiltrates into the groundwater. - Midline: Not a standard groundwater term. - Pathline: Describes the trajectory of a single water particle, not the overall flow. Step 3: Conclusion
Water moving away from the water table flows towards the discharge area. Quick Tip: A discharge area is where groundwater naturally emerges, such as springs, rivers, or wetlands.


Question 65:

Which of the following occurs when the land surface dips to intersect the water table?

  • (A) Fault Spring
  • (B) Sinkhole Spring
  • (C) Fracture Spring
  • (D) Depression Spring
Correct Answer: (D) Depression Spring
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Spring Formation
Springs form when groundwater naturally flows to the surface due to geological conditions. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Option
- Fault Spring: Occurs along fault lines. - Sinkhole Spring: Forms in collapsed limestone areas. - Fracture Spring: Occurs due to rock fractures. - Depression Spring: Forms when land dips below the water table, making it the correct answer. Quick Tip: Depression springs occur naturally in low-lying areas where the land surface meets the water table.


Question 66:

If \( i \) is the intensity of rain (cm/hr), \( f \) is the rate of infiltration (cm/hr), and \( f_c \) is infiltration capacity (cm/hr), then the maximum rate at which soil can absorb water is:

  • (A) \( f = i \) when \( i < f_c \)
  • (B) \( f \leq i \) when \( i > f_c \)
  • (C) \( f < i \) when \( i > f_c \)
  • (D) \( f \geq f_c \) when \( i = f_c \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( f \leq i \) when \( i > f_c \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Infiltration
Infiltration is the process by which water enters the soil. Step 2: Evaluating the Given Conditions
- If \( i < f_c \), the soil absorbs all rainwater. - If \( i > f_c \), infiltration is limited to \( f_c \), meaning \( f \leq i \). Quick Tip: When rainfall exceeds infiltration capacity, runoff occurs.


Question 67:

How is lumped hydrologic flow routing of a flood, where flow is calculated as a function of time alone, called?

  • (A) Distributed Routing
  • (B) Lumped Routing
  • (C) Hydraulic Routing
  • (D) Dynamic Wave Routing
Correct Answer: (B) Lumped Routing
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Flow Routing Methods
- Lumped routing considers only time variations. - Distributed routing accounts for spatial variations. - Hydraulic routing includes fluid mechanics principles. - Dynamic wave routing considers unsteady flow effects. Step 2: Conclusion
Lumped routing is correct because it calculates flow as a function of time only. Quick Tip: Lumped routing is simple and used when spatial variations are negligible.


Question 68:

Which of the following is NOT a recording rain gauge?

  • (A) Tipping Bucket Type
  • (B) Weighing Bucket Type
  • (C) Symon’s Gauge
  • (D) Natural Siphon Type
Correct Answer: (C) Symon’s Gauge
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Recording vs. Non-Recording Gauges
- Recording Gauges: Automatically record rainfall over time. - Non-Recording Gauges: Require manual measurement. Step 2: Identifying the Incorrect Option
- Tipping Bucket: Records rainfall electronically. - Weighing Bucket: Measures weight over time. - Natural Siphon: Uses a siphon mechanism to record rainfall. - Symon’s Gauge: A non-recording gauge, requiring manual reading. Quick Tip: Recording rain gauges automatically track rainfall, while non-recording gauges require manual measurement.


Question 69:

Wells that are excavated pits through the geological formation, requiring lining only for a couple of meters from the top, are usually found in:

  • (A) Alluvial Formation
  • (B) Rocky Formation
  • (C) Fracture Zones
  • (D) Fault Zones
Correct Answer: (B) Rocky Formation
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Well Construction
Wells are classified based on the geological formation in which they are constructed. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Alluvial Formation: Requires full lining due to unstable loose sediments. - Rocky Formation: Stable, requiring lining only at the top, making it the correct answer. - Fracture Zones: Require complete reinforcement. - Fault Zones: Prone to collapse, requiring full lining. Quick Tip: Wells in rocky formations require minimal lining as the rock structure itself supports the excavation.


Question 70:

Aquifer testing conducted to determine hydraulic parameters is:

  • (A) Time Drawdown Test
  • (B) Step–Drawdown Test
  • (C) Step–Injection Test
  • (D) Time–Groundwater Level Rise Test
Correct Answer: (A) Time Drawdown Test
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Aquifer Testing
Aquifer tests determine hydraulic conductivity, transmissivity, and storage coefficient. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Time Drawdown Test: Measures water level changes over time, determining aquifer properties. - Step–Drawdown Test: Determines well performance, not aquifer properties. - Step–Injection Test: Used in artificial recharge studies. - Time–Groundwater Level Rise Test: Used in monitoring recharge, not hydraulic parameters. Quick Tip: Time drawdown tests measure aquifer characteristics by analyzing water level decrease over time.


Question 71:

An agricultural pump lifts water from a well with a discharge of 1,00,000 liters/hour against a head of 20 m. What is the water power in watts?

  • (A) 5.4936
  • (B) 54.936
  • (C) 549.36
  • (D) 5493.6
Correct Answer: (D) 5493.6
View Solution

Step 1: Water Power Formula
Water power (\( P \)) is given by: \[ P = \frac{\rho g Q H}{3600} \] where: - \( \rho \) = Density of water (1000 kg/m³) - \( g \) = Acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²) - \( Q \) = Discharge in m³/s - \( H \) = Head in meters Step 2: Converting Given Data
\[ Q = \frac{100000}{3600} = 27.78 \text{ l/s} = 0.02778 \text{ m³/s} \] Step 3: Substituting Values
\[ P = 1000 \times 9.81 \times 0.02778 \times 20 \] \[ P = 5493.6 \text{ W} \] Quick Tip: Convert discharge to m³/s and use \( P = \rho g Q H \) to calculate water power.


Question 72:

The branch of surveying which takes into consideration the true shape of the earth is called:

  • (A) Plane Surveying
  • (B) Compass Surveying
  • (C) Topographic Surveying
  • (D) Geodetic Surveying
Correct Answer: (D) Geodetic Surveying
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Surveying Types
- Plane Surveying: Assumes the earth is flat, used for small areas. - Compass Surveying: Measures bearings using a compass. - Topographic Surveying: Maps land features. - Geodetic Surveying: Accounts for the curvature of the earth, making it correct. Quick Tip: Geodetic surveying considers the earth’s curvature and is used for large-scale mapping.


Question 73:

Lines are first run around the perimeter of a plot, then details are fixed in relation to established lines. This process in surveying is called:

  • (A) Transverse Survey
  • (B) Plane Table Survey
  • (C) Theodolite Survey
  • (D) Triangulation Survey
Correct Answer: (A) Transverse Survey
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Survey Methods
- Traverse Surveying: Establishes perimeter lines first. - Plane Table Surveying: Uses direct plotting. - Theodolite Surveying: Measures angles. - Triangulation Surveying: Uses interconnected triangles. Step 2: Conclusion
Traverse surveying is the correct method for plotting details from established perimeter lines. Quick Tip: Traverse surveying is useful for defining boundaries before plotting internal details.


Question 74:

In surveying using a compass, —————— is the operation in which the compass is kept exactly over the station from where the bearing is to be determined.

  • (A) Levelling
  • (B) Focussing
  • (C) Centering
  • (D) Bearing
Correct Answer: (C) Centering
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Compass Surveying
- Levelling: Ensures the compass is horizontal. - Focusing: Adjusts telescope clarity. - Centering: Places the compass directly over the station point. - Bearing: Measures direction. Step 2: Conclusion
Centering ensures accurate measurement by aligning the compass with the station. Quick Tip: Centering ensures the compass is positioned exactly over the survey station for accurate readings.


Question 75:

Which of the following soil structures impedes downward movement of water?

  • (A) Granular
  • (B) Columnar
  • (C) Platy
  • (D) Prismoidal
Correct Answer: (C) Platy
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Soil Structure and Water Movement
- Granular: Allows good infiltration. - Columnar: Somewhat restrictive but allows vertical movement. - Platy: Forms horizontal layers, restricting downward water movement. - Prismoidal: Allows moderate water movement. Step 2: Conclusion
Platy structure restricts vertical movement due to its horizontal arrangement. Quick Tip: Platy soil structure impedes water infiltration, leading to waterlogging issues.


Question 76:

A soil sample has a mass of 20 g and the volume of the soil sample is 15 cm³. The bulk density of soil is:

  • (A) 1.1 g/cm³
  • (B) 1.2 g/cm³
  • (C) 1.3 g/cm³
  • (D) 1.4 g/cm³
Correct Answer: (B) 1.2 g/cm³
View Solution

Step 1: Bulk Density Formula
\[ \text{Bulk Density} = \frac{\text{Mass of Soil}}{\text{Volume of Soil}} \] Step 2: Substituting Values
\[ \text{Bulk Density} = \frac{20}{15} = 1.2 \text{ g/cm}^3 \] Quick Tip: Bulk density helps assess soil compaction, affecting root penetration and water movement.


Question 77:

At a given matric potential, —————— retains more water.

  • (A) Clay Soil
  • (B) Loam Soil
  • (C) Silty Soil
  • (D) Sandy Soil
Correct Answer: (A) Clay Soil
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Matric Potential
Matric potential measures soil moisture retention. Step 2: Evaluating Soil Water Retention
- Clay soil: Retains maximum water due to fine particles. - Loam soil: Holds moderate water. - Silty soil: Holds more than sand but less than clay. - Sandy soil: Holds the least due to large pores. Step 3: Conclusion
Clay has the highest water retention due to small particle size. Quick Tip: Fine-textured soils like clay retain the most water due to their high surface area.


Question 78:

One of the erosion control measures for slope management is:

  • (A) Conservation Tillage
  • (B) Vegetative Hedge
  • (C) Check Dam
  • (D) Terraces
Correct Answer: (D) Terraces
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Erosion Control
Slopes cause excessive runoff and soil erosion. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Conservation tillage: Reduces soil disturbance but does not shape slopes. - Vegetative hedge: Slows runoff but does not stop erosion completely. - Check dam: Used in streams, not for slope management. - Terraces: Modify slope geometry to reduce erosion. Step 3: Conclusion
Terraces are the best method for managing slopes and reducing erosion. Quick Tip: Terracing slows down water movement, reducing soil erosion on slopes.


Question 79:

Tree windbreaks protect soil-carrying capacity of wind for approximately —————— times the height of the tall tree on the windward side.

  • (A) 3-4
  • (B) 15-20
  • (C) 5-10
  • (D) 11-15
Correct Answer: (C) 5-10
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Windbreak Effectiveness
Windbreaks reduce wind speed and prevent soil erosion. Step 2: Evaluating Distance Protected
Windbreaks protect an area about 5-10 times their height. Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is 5-10 times tree height. Quick Tip: Windbreaks reduce wind speed over an area 5-10 times their height.


Question 80:

The design velocity of flow in a grassed waterway is 2.0 m/s, then the cover condition should be:

  • (A) Good Grass Cover
  • (B) Sod of Excellent Cover
  • (C) Sparse Grass Cover
  • (D) No Vegetation
Correct Answer: (B) Sod of Excellent Cover
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Grassed Waterways
Grassed waterways prevent soil erosion by slowing down runoff. Step 2: Evaluating Cover Conditions
- Good grass cover: Supports moderate flow. - Sod of excellent cover: Supports high-velocity flow (2.0 m/s). - Sparse grass cover: Unsuitable for high velocity. - No vegetation: Leads to erosion. Step 3: Conclusion
For 2.0 m/s flow, sod of excellent cover is needed. Quick Tip: Dense vegetation stabilizes grassed waterways, preventing erosion at high velocities.


Question 81:

If rice requires 10 cm depth of water at an average interval of about 10 days and if the crop period of rice is 120 days, the delta for rice is:

  • (A) 10 cm
  • (B) 12 cm
  • (C) 100 cm
  • (D) 120 cm
Correct Answer: (D) 120 cm
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Delta
Delta (\(\Delta\)) is the total depth of water required by a crop during its entire growing period: \[ \Delta = \text{Water applied per irrigation} \times \frac{\text{Total Crop Period}}{\text{Irrigation Interval}} \] Step 2: Substituting Values
\[ \Delta = 10 \times \frac{120}{10} = 120 \text{ cm} \] Quick Tip: Delta (\(\Delta\)) is calculated by multiplying the irrigation depth by the number of irrigations.


Question 82:

For which of the following crops is furrow irrigation NOT suited?

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Rice
  • (C) Sugarcane
  • (D) Potato
Correct Answer: (B) Rice
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Furrow Irrigation
Furrow irrigation is effective for row crops but unsuitable for crops that require standing water. Step 2: Evaluating Crops
- Cotton: Suitable for furrow irrigation. - Rice: Requires flooded conditions, making furrow irrigation ineffective. - Sugarcane: Suitable due to its row planting. - Potato: Grown in ridges, making furrow irrigation suitable. Quick Tip: Furrow irrigation is not suitable for rice because it requires continuous standing water.


Question 83:

Which one of the following is NOT suitable for fertigation under drip irrigation because of its slow solubility in water?

  • (A) Urea
  • (B) Super Phosphate
  • (C) Gypsum
  • (D) Muriate of Potash
Correct Answer: (B) Super Phosphate
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Fertigation
Fertigation requires water-soluble fertilizers to be delivered efficiently through a drip system. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Urea: Highly soluble, making it suitable. - Super Phosphate: Poor solubility, leading to clogging, making it unsuitable. - Gypsum: Moderately soluble but usable in small quantities. - Muriate of Potash: Highly soluble, making it suitable. Quick Tip: Use only highly water-soluble fertilizers in drip irrigation to avoid clogging.


Question 84:

When the soil concentration in water extracted from saturated soil is found to be greater than 18 mmhos/cm, then the soil is said to be:

  • (A) Highly saline
  • (B) Medium saline
  • (C) Slightly saline
  • (D) Non-saline
Correct Answer: (A) Highly saline
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Soil Salinity
Soil salinity is measured in terms of electrical conductivity (\(EC\)). Step 2: Evaluating Salinity Levels
- Slightly saline: \(EC < 4\) mmhos/cm - Medium saline: \(4 < EC < 8\) mmhos/cm - Highly saline: \(EC > 18\) mmhos/cm Step 3: Conclusion
Since the given soil has \(EC > 18\) mmhos/cm, it is classified as highly saline. Quick Tip: Soils with \( EC > 18 \) mmhos/cm are considered highly saline and require special irrigation management.


Question 85:

What is the drainage coefficient in an agricultural watershed of 1500 ha discharging through a drain at an average rate of 2.5 m³/s?

  • (A) 1.22 cm/day
  • (B) 1.44 cm/day
  • (C) 1.66 cm/day
  • (D) 1.88 cm/day
Correct Answer: (B) 1.44 cm/day
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Drainage Coefficient
\[ \text{Drainage Coefficient} = \frac{\text{Discharge (m}^3\text{/s) } \times 86400}{\text{Area (ha) } \times 10000} \] Step 2: Substituting Values
\[ = \frac{2.5 \times 86400}{1500 \times 10000} = 1.44 \text{ cm/day} \] Quick Tip: Drainage coefficient is the volume of water drained per unit area per day, expressed in cm/day.


Question 86:

In a subsurface drainage network of an agricultural watershed with 10 lateral drains laid at 40 m spacing, each 150 m long, joining a collector drain with an average discharge of 10 L/s, and the water table dropping 40 cm below the ground in 3 days, the average drainable porosity of soil is:

  • (A) 5.8%
  • (B) 7.8%
  • (C) 10.8%
  • (D) 15.8%
Correct Answer: (B) 7.8%
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Drainable Porosity Formula
\[ n_d = \frac{\text{Total Water Discharge} \times \text{Time}}{\text{Total Area} \times \text{Water Table Drop}} \] Step 2: Substituting Values
\[ n_d = \frac{10 \times 86400 \times 3}{10 \times 40 \times 150 \times 0.4 \times 10000} = 7.8% \] Quick Tip: Drainable porosity represents the percentage of soil volume that can be drained under gravity.


Question 87:

For which of the following is magnetic separator equipment used?

  • (A) Sorting
  • (B) Cleaning
  • (C) Grading
  • (D) Milling
Correct Answer: (B) Cleaning
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Magnetic Separators
Magnetic separators are used to remove ferrous metal contaminants from grains, seeds, and food products. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Sorting: Separates materials based on size or weight. - Cleaning: Removes unwanted particles, making it the correct choice. - Grading: Classifies based on quality. - Milling: Involves grinding or processing grains. Step 3: Conclusion
Magnetic separators remove metal contaminants, making them useful for cleaning. Quick Tip: Magnetic separators ensure food safety by removing ferrous metal impurities during processing.


Question 88:

Which component of rice is rich in dietary fiber, essential fatty acids, starch, protein, and vitamins?

  • (A) Whole Kernel
  • (B) Husk
  • (C) Bran
  • (D) Oil
Correct Answer: (C) Bran
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Rice Components
- Husk: Outer protective layer, removed during milling. - Bran: Nutrient-rich layer containing fiber, fatty acids, proteins, and vitamins. - Whole kernel: Retains bran but not as nutrient-dense. - Oil: Extracted from bran but lacks fiber. Step 2: Conclusion
Bran contains the highest concentration of nutrients. Quick Tip: Rice bran is the most nutritious part, containing fiber, essential fats, and vitamins.


Question 89:

What is the main purpose of blanching vegetables before freezing?

  • (A) To soften cellulose
  • (B) To deactivate enzymes
  • (C) To increase color
  • (D) To prevent loss of vitamin C
Correct Answer: (B) To deactivate enzymes
View Solution

Step 1: Purpose of Blanching
Blanching involves briefly boiling vegetables before freezing to deactivate spoilage-causing enzymes. Step 2: Evaluating Other Options
- Softening cellulose: Happens but is not the main reason. - Increasing color: Retains color but not primary purpose. - Preventing vitamin C loss: May slow degradation but is not its main function. Step 3: Conclusion
Blanching prevents spoilage by deactivating enzymes. Quick Tip: Blanching stops enzymatic activity, preserving flavor, texture, and color in frozen vegetables.


Question 90:

Pantnagar process of milling is designed for:

  • (A) Black Gram
  • (B) Green Gram
  • (C) Green Pea
  • (D) Pigeon Pea
Correct Answer: (D) Pigeon Pea
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Pantnagar Process
A specialized milling method developed for pigeon pea (\textit{Cajanus cajan) to enhance dal recovery. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Black gram, green gram, and green pea are processed differently. - The Pantnagar process was developed to improve milling efficiency of pigeon pea. Quick Tip: The Pantnagar process enhances pigeon pea milling efficiency, reducing processing losses.


Question 91:

Where is compression force used as a means of size reduction?

  • (A) In Hammer Mill
  • (B) In Disc Attrition Mill
  • (C) In Roller Mill
  • (D) In Knife Cutter
Correct Answer: (C) In Roller Mill
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Size Reduction Methods
- Hammer mill: Uses impact force. - Disc attrition mill: Uses shear force. - Roller mill: Uses compression force, making it the correct answer. - Knife cutter: Uses cutting force. Step 2: Conclusion
Compression force is applied in roller mills. Quick Tip: Roller mills reduce particle size by applying compression between rollers.


Question 92:

For transporting grains, the recommended bed speed in a belt conveyor is:

  • (A) \( \leq 1 \) m/s
  • (B) 2.5 to 2.8 m/s
  • (C) 3.5 to 3.8 m/s
  • (D) \( \geq 5 \) m/s
Correct Answer: (B) 2.5 to 2.8 m/s
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Belt Conveyor Speed
Too slow a speed leads to inefficiency, while too high a speed may cause grain damage. Step 2: Conclusion
2.5-2.8 m/s provides an optimal balance. Quick Tip: For grain transport, 2.5-2.8 m/s prevents damage while maintaining efficiency.


Question 93:

The portal for farmers to get information services/advisories by SMS is:

  • (A) Pusa Krishi
  • (B) mKisan
  • (C) Farm Opera
  • (D) Kisan Suvidha
Correct Answer: (B) mKisan
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding mKisan Portal
mKisan provides SMS-based advisory services to farmers. Step 2: Evaluating Options
- Pusa Krishi: Provides research updates. - mKisan: Correct answer, used for SMS advisories. - Farm Opera: Not a known government initiative. - Kisan Suvidha: Provides weather and market information. Step 3: Conclusion
mKisan is the correct choice for SMS-based advisories. Quick Tip: mKisan enables farmers to receive agricultural advisories via SMS in multiple languages.


Question 94:

FAO has used Google’s Earth Engine to forecast and control the occurrence of:

  • (A) H5 Ni Virus
  • (B) Avian Influenza
  • (C) Locust
  • (D) Corona Virus
Correct Answer: (C) Locust
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding FAO's Role
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) collaborates with Google Earth Engine to monitor environmental changes affecting agriculture. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Option
- FAO uses satellite imagery to track locust movements, predicting outbreaks. - H5 Ni Virus and Avian Influenza relate to poultry health, not environmental tracking. - Corona Virus is unrelated to FAO’s work in environmental monitoring. Step 3: Conclusion
Locust control requires large-scale forecasting, making it the correct answer. Quick Tip: FAO uses satellite technology to predict and control locust outbreaks to protect crops.


Question 95:

How is crop growth monitoring and management possible?

  • (A) By Remote Sensing
  • (B) By GIS
  • (C) By Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
  • (D) By Modelling
Correct Answer: (A) By Remote Sensing
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Crop Growth Monitoring
Remote sensing involves satellite and aerial imagery to assess crop health, moisture levels, and growth patterns. Step 2: Evaluating Other Methods
- GIS: Useful for mapping but does not directly monitor crop growth. - UAVs: Useful but limited in scale compared to satellites. - Modelling: Used for prediction but requires input from remote sensing. Step 3: Conclusion
Remote sensing provides real-time data for large-scale crop monitoring. Quick Tip: Remote sensing allows large-scale, real-time monitoring of crop growth and stress conditions.


Question 96:

Who developed Linear Programming?

  • (A) George B. Dantzig
  • (B) Richard Bellman
  • (C) Narendra Karmarkar
  • (D) Bolton
Correct Answer: (A) George B. Dantzig
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Linear Programming
Linear programming is an optimization technique used in resource allocation. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Answer
- George B. Dantzig formulated the simplex method, making him the founder of linear programming. - Richard Bellman is known for dynamic programming. - Narendra Karmarkar developed Karmarkar’s algorithm for optimization. - Bolton is not related to linear programming. Step 3: Conclusion
George B. Dantzig is the correct answer. Quick Tip: Linear programming, developed by Dantzig, optimizes resource allocation in agriculture and industries.


Question 97:

OFD works are part of:

  • (A) CADP
  • (B) HADP
  • (C) DPAP
  • (D) RVP
Correct Answer: (A) CADP
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding OFD
On-Farm Development (OFD) works include land leveling, drainage, and irrigation infrastructure. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Answer
- CADP (Command Area Development Program) supports OFD work. - HADP, DPAP, and RVP focus on hilly and arid regions. Quick Tip: OFD works under CADP improve irrigation efficiency and agricultural productivity.


Question 98:

Neerkatti is a water management institution of Tamil Nadu which is:

  • (A) Formal
  • (B) Traditional
  • (C) Informal
  • (D) Official
Correct Answer: (B) Traditional
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Neerkatti
Neerkatti is a traditional water management system where a village official oversees water distribution. Step 2: Identifying the Correct Answer
Since it is a locally managed practice passed through generations, it is classified as traditional. Quick Tip: Neerkatti is a community-managed water distribution system in Tamil Nadu.


Question 99:

How is voluntary contribution in the rehabilitation of tanks in Tamil Nadu called?

  • (A) Erivariam
  • (B) Kudimaramathu
  • (C) Toorvaruthal
  • (D) Ayacutudar Kuzhu
Correct Answer: (B) Kudimaramathu
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Kudimaramathu
Kudimaramathu is a traditional system where local communities contribute labor and resources for water body maintenance. Step 2: Conclusion
Kudimaramathu is the correct answer. Quick Tip: Kudimaramathu is a traditional system of community participation in tank rehabilitation.


Question 100:

Shejpali system of irrigation is a water system practiced in the state of:

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Maharashtra
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Shejpali System
The Shejpali system is a rotational irrigation method used in Maharashtra. Step 2: Evaluating Other States
- Bihar, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh have different irrigation systems. Quick Tip: The Shejpali system in Maharashtra regulates water supply through rotational irrigation.



TANCET Questions

  • 1.

    A closed-loop system has the characteristic equation given by: $ s^3 + k s^2 + (k+2) s + 3 = 0 $. 
    For the system to be stable, the value of $ k $ is:

      • \( k>1 \)
      • \( 0.5<k<1 \)
      • \( 0<k<1 \)
      • \( 0<k<0.5 \)

    • 2.
      If the hinged end of a propped cantilever of span \( L \) settles by an amount \( \delta \), then the rotation of the hinged end will be

        • \( \frac{\delta}{L} \)
        • \( \frac{1.5 \delta}{L} \)
        • \( \frac{2 \delta}{L} \)
        • Zero

      • 3.
        An intermediate shaft of a gearbox, supporting two spur gears A and B and mounted between two bearings C1 and C2, is shown in the below figure. The pitch circle diameters of gears A and B are 500 and 250 mm respectively. The shaft is made of alloy steel 20MnCr5. (\( S_{ut} = 620 \) and \( S_{yt} = 480 \) N/mm\(^2\)). The factors \( k_b \) and \( k_t \) of the ASME code are 2 and 1.5 respectively. The gears are keyed to the shaft. Determine the shaft diameter using the ASME code. 
        Intermediate shaft of a gearbox

          • 44.52 mm
          • 59.36 mm
          • 27.15 mm
          • 38.87 mm

        • 4.

          Choose the minimum number of op-amps required to implement the given expression. $ V_o = \left[ 1 + \frac{R_2}{R_1} \right] V_1 - \frac{R_2}{R_1} V_2 $

            • Two
            • Four
            • Three
            • One

          • 5.
            The number of multipliers and delay elements required in the direct form II realization of $$ H(z) = \frac{1 + 0.5z^{-1} - 2z^{-2}}{1 + z^{-1} - 2z^{-2}} $$ 

              • 5, 2
              • 3, 4
              • 6, 4
              • 3, 2

            • 6.

              A digital filter with impulse response $ h[n] = 2^n u[n] $ will have a transfer function with a region of convergence.

                • includes unit circle
                • excludes unit circle
                • bounded by rings with circles of radius 0.5 and 2
                • entire z-plane excluding origin and infinity

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