CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper (SET A) Available: Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Mayank Chaudhary logo
Updated on, Dec 27, 2024

byMayank Chaudhary

CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper Set A with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was conducted by the Consortium of NLUs on December 1, 2024. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.

CLAT PG 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF Set A

CLAT 2025 PG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set A) download iconDownload Check Solutions

CLAT PG 2025 Set A Questions with Solutions

Question Correct Answer Detailed Solution

Comprehension:
Dominic Ongwen, a former commander of the Lord’s Resistance Army (LRA) in Uganda, was convicted by the International Criminal Court (ICC) in February 2021. The case marked a significant milestone in international criminal law, focusing on issues of child soldiering, forced marriage, and sexual and gender-based violence.

Read More

Ongwen was found guilty of 61 counts of crimes against humanity and war crimes, including murder, torture, enslavement, forced marriage, rape, and conscription of children under the age of 15 into armed groups. The ICC’s judgment emphasized the importance of accountability for leaders who exploit children in conflicts and commit sexual and gender-based crimes. A critical aspect of the judgment was the consideration of Ongwen’s own history as a child soldier. Ongwen was abducted by the LRA at around the age of nine and was forced to commit atrocities as he rose through the ranks. The court balanced this background against the gravity of his crimes, ultimately ruling that his personal history did not absolve him of responsibility for his actions as an adult commander. The judgment is also notable for its comprehensive approach to reparations for victims. The ICC ordered collective reparations, including symbolic measures like memorials, physical and psychological rehabilitation, and financial compensation to support the victims and their communities. This case reinforces the ICC’s commitment to addressing serious international crimes, particularly those involving vulnerable populations such as children and women and underscores the principles of justice and reparation in international criminal law.


1. Which principle of international criminal law ensures that individuals, regardless of their position or rank, can be held accountable for committing serious international crimes?
(A) Sovereign immunity
(B) Command responsibility
(C) Diplomatic immunity
(D) Universal jurisdiction
(B) Command responsibility The principle of “Command responsibility” ensures that leaders can be held accountable for crimes committed by those under their command. This applies regardless of rank, as seen in the case of Dominic Ongwen, where he was held responsible for the actions of his subordinates in the LRA.
 
2. In the context of international criminal law, what does the principle of “individual criminal responsibility” entail?
(A) Only states can be held accountable for international crimes
(B) Individuals can be held personally liable for committing war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide
(C) Individuals are immune from prosecution if they act under state orders
(D) Only military personnel can be held responsible for international crimes
(B) Individuals can be held personally liable for committing war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide The principle of “individual criminal responsibility” establishes that individuals, not just states, can be held criminally liable for committing international crimes such as war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide, as demonstrated in the Ongwen case.
3. The concept of “crimes against humanity” includes which of the following acts, as exemplified in the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case?
(A) Piracy and terrorism
(B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence
(C) Espionage and sabotage
(D) Intellectual property theft
(B) Enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence “Crimes against humanity” encompasses serious offenses like enslavement, forced marriage, and sexual violence, which were key elements in the Ongwen case. These crimes are committed as part of a widespread or systematic attack on civilians.
4. What is the significance of the principle of “complementarity” in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
(A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so
(B) The ICC has primary jurisdiction over all international crimes
(C) The ICC can only prosecute crimes committed within its member states
(D) The ICC shares jurisdiction equally with national courts
(A) The ICC can prosecute cases only when national jurisdictions are unwilling or unable to do so The principle of complementarity states that the International Criminal Court will only intervene when national courts are either unwilling or unable to prosecute cases of international crimes. This principle respects national sovereignty while ensuring justice when domestic legal systems fail.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case in the context of international criminal law?
(A) It was the first case to address environmental crimes in international conflicts
(B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence and the exploitation of children in armed conflicts
(C) It was the first case to involve cybercrimes committed by international armed groups
(D) It primarily focused on the financial aspects of running an armed group
(B) It marked a milestone in addressing sexual and gender-based violence and the exploitation of children in armed conflicts The Prosecutor v. Dominic Ongwen case was significant as it marked a major step forward in addressing sexual and gender-based violence, as well as the exploitation of children in armed conflict. Ongwen’s conviction highlighted the ICC’s focus on crimes such as enslavement, forced marriage, and the recruitment of child soldiers.

Comprehension:
The landmark judgment of Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa & Others, delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1978, significantly influenced the interpretation of the term ‘industry’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The case centered on whether the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board, a statutory body, could be classified as an industry under the Act, thereby making its employees eligible for certain protections and benefits.

Read More

Prior to this case, the definition of ‘industry’ had been subject to varied interpretations, leading to confusion and inconsistency in its application. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, broadly defined ‘industry’ to include any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture, or calling of employers and any calling, service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen. However, this expansive definition left room for ambiguity, especially concerning statutory bodies and non-profit organizations.
In this case, the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board argued that it was not an industry, emphasizing its statutory duties and public welfare objectives. The Board contended that its primary purpose was to provide essential services, not to engage in profit-making activities typical of private enterprises. On the other hand, the respondents, including A. Rajappa, argued that the Board’s activities fell within the scope of an industry as defined by the Act, and thus, its employees should be entitled to the benefits and protections accorded to workers in industries.
The Supreme Court, in its judgment, undertook a comprehensive analysis of the term ‘industry.’ The bench, led by Chief Justice M. Hameedullah Beg, laid down a broad and inclusive definition of ‘industry.’ The Court asserted that what mattered was the nature of the activity and the relationship between the employer and the employees. This interpretation aimed to ensure that a wide range of workers, including those employed in public utility services, statutory bodies, and even some non-profit organizations, would be covered under the protective umbrella of the Industrial Disputes Act.
The decision in Bangalore Water Supply v. A. Rajappa & Others had far-reaching implications. It extended the scope of labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers, ensuring that more employees could benefit from the dispute resolution mechanisms and other safeguards provided under the Industrial Disputes Act. This judgment underscored the judiciary’s role in interpreting labour laws to promote social justice and protect workers’ rights in a rapidly industrializing nation.


6. According to the Supreme Court’s judgment, what is the most important factor in determining whether an activity constitutes an industry?
(A) The profit-making motive of the employer
(B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given
(C) The nature of the activity and the authority of the employer over its employees
(D) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, all the activities must be considered. Even if one activity is commercial, the employees will not get the benefit of workman of an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act
(B) When there are multiple activities carried on by an establishment, its dominant function has to be considered. If the dominant function is not commercial, benefits of a workman of an industry under Industrial Dispute Act may be given The Supreme Court ruled that when an establishment carries out multiple activities, its dominant function determines whether the establishment constitutes an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act. If the dominant function is not commercial, workers can still receive benefits under the Act.
7. Which of the following best describes the broader impact of the judgment?
(A) It reduced labour protections for workers
(B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers
(C) It had no significant impact on labour laws
(D) It only affected private sector workers
(B) It extended labour protections to a broader spectrum of workers The judgment significantly expanded labour protections by broadening the definition of “industry,” allowing more workers, including those in sectors previously excluded, to benefit from the protections provided under the Industrial Disputes Act.
8. Which of the following best describes the term ‘industry’ as defined by the Supreme Court in this judgment?
(A) Any activity involving profit-making
(B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services
(C) Only activities conducted by private enterprises
(D) Activities limited to manufacturing sectors
(B) Any systematic activity organized by cooperation between an employer and employees for producing or distributing goods and services The Supreme Court defined “industry” as any activity that involves systematic cooperation between an employer and employees for the purpose of producing or distributing goods and services, regardless of whether it is profit-oriented or not.
9. In which of the following landmark judgement, the Supreme Court held that when an association or society of apartment owners employs workers for personal services to its members, those workers do not qualify as workmen under the Act and the association is not an “Industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC
(B) Anand Vihar Apartment Owners’ Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2024 SC
(C) Kanchanjunga Building Employees Union v. Kanchanjunga Flat Owners Society & Anr., 2024 SC
(D) None of the above
(A) Som Vihar Apartment Owners’ Housing Maintenance Society Ltd. v. Workmen, 2009 SC In the 2009 case, the Supreme Court ruled that when apartment owners’ societies employ workers for personal services to members, these workers do not qualify as “workmen” under the Industrial Disputes Act, and the society is not considered an “industry.”
10. Under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947, what is the role of the “Works Committee” and which of the following correctly describes its function?
(A) The Works committee is a body formed by the Central government to address wage disputes between employer and employee in public sector industries
(B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee
(C) The Works Committee is responsible for making binding decisions on industrial disputes related to layoffs, retrenchment and closure of industrial units
(D) All of the above
(B) The Works committee is a grievance redressal body constituted by the employer, primarily to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and employee The Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act is a body formed by the employer to address grievances and promote amicable relations between the employer and employees. It plays an important role in creating a cooperative work environment but does not have the authority to make binding decisions on industrial disputes related to layoffs or retrenchment.

Comprehension:
For a principle to be acceptable as a law, Lon Fuller states that it must be measured in terms of eight standards. These include general applicability, communication of mandates, prospective application, and clarity in legal standards.

Read More

(1) The principle must be expounded so that it can be generally applied, ensuring the "internal morality" of legal principles. This reflects the idea of a government of laws rather than individuals.
(2) Mandates of the law must be communicated to the people affected by them.
(3) Newly announced laws should generally be applied prospectively, avoiding retroactive changes unless compelling circumstances exist.
(4) Legal standards should be clearly stated, though absolute clarity may not always be possible. Enforcement bodies may clarify laws as needed.
(5) Fuller argues for consistency in the body of law, minimizing contradictions.
(6) Laws must avoid imposing impossible or absurd demands, as these violate the internal morality of law.
(7) Consistency with prior norms (stare decisis) is desirable to prevent frequent, disruptive changes in legal requirements.
(8) As Andrew Jackson highlighted, laws must include means for implementation to ensure their practical enforceability.


11. What does Fuller refer to with the term “promulgation”?
(A) The retroactive application of laws
(B) The consistent application of laws
(C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect
(D) The economic impact of laws
(C) The clear communication of laws to those they affect Fuller uses the term “promulgation” to emphasize the need for laws to be clearly communicated to the people they affect. Laws that are not properly communicated cannot be effectively followed or enforced.
12. Which of the following best describes the central issue in the Hart-Fuller debate?
(A) The influence of morality on state
(B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected
(C) The role of judges in interpreting morality
(D) The influence of religious values on the legal system
(B) Whether law and morality are inherently connected The central issue in the Hart-Fuller debate concerns whether law and morality are inherently connected. Hart, representing legal positivism, argued that law is separate from morality, while Fuller believed that laws must align with moral standards to be valid.
13. What was Lon Fuller’s main criticism of Hart’s legal positivism?
(A) It ignores moral obligations of a judge to make decisions on ethics
(B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication
(C) It ignores the role of international law in shaping domestic legal systems
(D) All of the above
(B) It places too much emphasis on legal rules without considering their moral implication Fuller’s main criticism of Hart’s legal positivism is that it focuses too much on the structure of legal rules without addressing their moral implications. Fuller argues that law must be intertwined with morality to ensure justice.
14. Why does Fuller argue that legal standards should be free from contradictions?
(A) To allow for greater judicial discretion
(B) To ensure laws are adaptable to different situations
(C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency
(D) To simplify legal education
(C) To maintain respect for the law and ensure consistency Fuller argues that legal standards should be free from contradictions to maintain respect for the law. Contradictory laws undermine the rule of law and create confusion, making it difficult for individuals to comply with legal norms.
15. Which of the following best describes the concept of “internal morality” in law according to Lon Fuller?
(A) Law should be flexible and adaptive to individual circumstances
(B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision
(C) Law should prioritize economic efficiency
(D) Law should be created by popular vote
(B) Law should be explained with clarity and precision Fuller’s concept of “internal morality” in law emphasizes that laws should be clear, precise, and understandable, ensuring that individuals can comply with them effectively.

Comprehension:
SEBI was established as India’s principal capital markets regulator to protect investors’ interests and regulate the securities market under the SEBI Act, 1992, the SCRA, and the Depositories Act, 1996.

Read More

SEBI’s powers to regulate the securities market include delegated legislative, administrative, and adjudicatory powers to enforce its regulations. SEBI exercises its legislative powers by framing regulations and updating them to adapt to the dynamic securities market. Numerous SEBI regulations form the backbone of India’s securities framework.

Section 11 of the SEBI Act states that SEBI’s duty is to protect investors’ interests, promote the development of the securities market, and regulate it through measures deemed fit. Section 30 empowers SEBI to make regulations consistent with the Act. During the regulation-framing process, SEBI consults advisory committees comprising domain experts, market players, legal experts, technologists, retired judges, academicians, and industry representatives. Public comments are invited and considered during this consultative process. SEBI adopts similar consultative processes for reviewing and amending regulations, ensuring a participatory approach to securities market governance.


16. Which of the following is not a committee set up by SEBI?
(A) Technical Advisory Committee
(B) Competition Advisory Committee
(C) Intermediary Advisory Committee
(D) Market Data Advisory Committee
(B) Competition Advisory Committee SEBI has established various advisory committees to help in formulating regulations and policies. However, the "Competition Advisory Committee" is not one of them. SEBI focuses on committees like the Technical Advisory Committee, Intermediary Advisory Committee, and Market Data Advisory Committee to regulate the market and its participants.
17. Which among the following is not a function of SEBI?
(A) Regulating substantial acquisition of shares and takeover of companies
(B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations
(C) Prohibiting insider trading in securities
(D) Promoting investors’ education and training of intermediaries of securities markets
(B) Prohibiting and regulating self-regulatory organisations While SEBI is responsible for regulating various aspects of the securities market, including acquisitions, insider trading, and investor education, it does not regulate self-regulatory organizations. The function mentioned in option (B) is generally handled by the self-regulatory organizations themselves, under SEBI’s oversight.
18. Match List I with List II.
List I (Section of Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992)
A. Section 6 I. Offences by companies
B. Section 11 II. Power to make regulations
C. Section 27 III. Removal of member from office
D. Section 30 IV. Functions of Board

Choose the correct answer:
(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - Section 6 deals with the removal of a member from office, which corresponds to III.
- Section 11 outlines the functions of the SEBI Board, which corresponds to IV.
- Section 27 refers to offences by companies, which corresponds to I.
- Section 30 grants the SEBI Board the power to make regulations, which corresponds to II.

Thus, the correct matching is: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
19. The process by which an organisation thinks about and evolves its relationships with stakeholders for the common good, and demonstrates its commitment in this regard by adoption of appropriate business processes and strategies is called
(A) Annual general meeting
(B) Corporate social responsibility
(C) Issuing Shelf prospectus
(D) Incorporation of a company
(B) Corporate social responsibility The process described in the question is called Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which involves a company’s efforts to assess and take responsibility for its effects on environmental and social well-being. This process helps businesses adopt strategies that promote social good.
20. In which of the following cases did the court strike down the attempt of the government to nationalise banks and pay minimal compensation to the shareholders?
(A) Shri Sunil Siddharthbhai Etc v. Union of India
(B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
(C) United Bank of India v. Satyawati Tondon Ors
(D) Punjab National Bank v. Union of India
(B) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India In the case of R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India struck down the attempt by the government to nationalize banks and pay minimal compensation to the shareholders, ruling that such an action was unconstitutional.

Comprehension:
Section 106 of the Evidence Act is intended to address exceptional cases where it is disproportionately difficult for the prosecution to prove facts within the accused's exclusive knowledge, as explained in Shambu Nath Mehra vs. The State of Ajmer (1956 SCR 199).

Read More

Justice Vivian Bose observed that Section 106 is not meant to shift the burden of proof in criminal cases entirely onto the accused but addresses specific scenarios where the prosecution cannot reasonably prove facts uniquely within the accused's knowledge. In Shambu Nath Mehra vs. The State of Ajmer, the court clarified that the section does not imply that the accused must prove their innocence, as this would contradict foundational legal principles.

The term "especially" in Section 106 highlights facts exclusively within the accused's knowledge. Misinterpreting this section to shift the general burden of proof would lead to startling legal conclusions, such as requiring the accused to prove they did not commit a crime. Privy Council cases, including Attygalle v. The King (1936) and Seneviratne v. R (1936), reinforce this interpretation. In circumstantial evidence cases, an accused's failure to provide a reasonable explanation under Section 106 may serve as an additional link in establishing guilt.


21. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, in cases where the burden of proof lies on the prosecution, which of the following accurately reflects the relationship between Section 101 and 106 of IEA, 1872?
(A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101
(B) Section 106 is intended to relieve the prosecution of their duty to prove the case beyond reasonable doubt under Section 101
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B
(A) Section 106 is an exception to Section 101 Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides that the burden of proof lies on the prosecution. However, Section 106 provides an exception, shifting the burden of proof to the accused in certain cases where the facts are within his special knowledge.
22. ‘Any person’ in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to:
(A) A party to the suit/proceeding
(B) A stranger to the suit/proceeding
(C) A witness
(D) None of the above
(A) A party to the suit/proceeding The term “any person” in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to a party to the suit or proceeding, and not necessarily a stranger or witness. This person is expected to provide evidence related to facts within their knowledge.
23. In which of the recent following cases, Supreme Court expounded the principles relating to the applicability of S. 106 of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC
(B) Anita v. NCT of Delhi, 2024 SC
(C) Abhay v. Union of India, 2024 SC
(D) Anish v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC
(A) Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC In the case of Anees v. The State Govt. of NCT, 2024 SC, the Supreme Court expounded on the applicability of Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act. The section deals with the burden of proof where a party has special knowledge regarding a fact.
24. What is the phrase “Presumptions are like bats, flitting in the twilight but disappearing in the sunshine of facts” indicate?
(A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented
(B) Presumption is a substantive piece of evidence and it completely relieves the prosecution of its burden of proof, as long as the presumption is established in the beginning of the trial
(C) There are different categories of presumptions and the highest degree of presumption shifts the burden of proof permanently to the accused, who must disprove the presumption beyond reasonable doubt
(D) Presumptions are irrefutable facts that, once established, cannot be negated by evidence brought forth in the case
(A) Presumption shifts the burden of proof to the party against whom the presumption operates, but the burden shifts back to the original party once rebutting facts are presented The phrase illustrates that presumptions are not irrefutable. They can be rebutted if evidence disproving them is presented, thus shifting the burden of proof back to the original party.
25. Which of the theories emanate from Section 106 of Indian Evidence Act?
1. Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor
2. Theory of reverse burden of proof
3. Doctrine of last seen together
4. Presumption of innocence

Select the correct option:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3 Section 106 is linked to the theory of reverse burden of proof (where the accused must disprove certain facts) and the doctrine of last seen together (relevant in criminal cases involving circumstantial evidence).

Comprehension:
In Kapilaben v. Ashok Kumar Jayantilal Sheth (2020), the Supreme Court discussed that the assignment of a contract involves transferring either rights or obligations, with the transfer of obligations requiring the other party's consent.

Read More

The Court clarified that rights under a contract can generally be assigned unless the contract is personal in nature or assignment is restricted by law or agreement. Conversely, obligations cannot be assigned without the consent of the promisee. Such consent leads to novation, effectively substituting liabilities.

This principle was emphasized in Khardah Co. Ltd. v. Raymon & Co. (India) (P) Ltd. (1962), where the Supreme Court drew a distinction between the assignment of rights and obligations. It observed that rights under a contract are typically assignable, provided the contract's nature or explicit terms do not prohibit it. Obligations, however, require the promisee's approval for reassignment, highlighting the collaborative aspect of contractual obligations.

These principles underscore the balance between the assignability of rights and the sanctity of mutual consent in obligations, ensuring that contracts remain fair and equitable.


26. ‘A’, the absolute owner, with the consent of his family members, executed a conditional sale deed in favour of his tenant. The conditional sale deed contained a clause empowering the vendors to repurchase the property within seven years on repayment of the sale consideration. Which of the following statements regarding the agreement is true?
(A) The agreement is invalid
(B) The agreement is not valid because a conditional sale deed containing a clause for repurchase cannot be executed
(C) The agreement is not valid because the time period provided for repurchase by the vendor is very long, i.e., seven years
(D) The agreement is valid
(D) The agreement is valid A conditional sale deed that includes a clause for repurchase within a reasonable period, even if it extends to seven years, is valid under the Indian Contract Act, as long as it is agreed upon by both parties and does not contravene any statutory provisions.
27. Which of the following is correct regarding the assignability of the contract?
(A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
(B) A party to a contract can transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party
(C) A party to a contract cannot transfer his liabilities under the contract without the consent of the other party
(D) Transfer of obligation can be made to anyone without permission of anyone
(A) The assignment of contracts is expressly governed by the provisions outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 The provisions governing the assignment of contracts are outlined in Sections 130 to 137 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. A party cannot transfer their liabilities without the consent of the other party unless explicitly allowed by the contract. Transfer of obligations typically requires the consent of the other party.
28. Who among the following is not ‘representative-in-interest’ for the purpose of obtaining specific performance?
(A) The person to whom the interest in the contract is transferred for a valuable consideration
(B) The person to whom the interest in the contract devolves by succession
(C) The person to whom the interest in contract is gifted by a gift deed
(D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler
(D) Rank trespasser, as an intermeddler A “rank trespasser” or intermeddler has no legal standing to enforce specific performance of a contract, as they have no legitimate interest or title in the contract.
29. Consider the following statements:
I. The benefit of a contract is assignable in ‘cases where it can make no difference to the person on whom the obligation lies to which of two persons, he is to discharge it’.
II. A contract which is such that the promisor must perform it in person, viz. involving personal considerations or personal skill or qualifications (such as his credit), are by their nature not assignable.
III. The contractual rights for the payment of money or to building work do not involve personal considerations and are not contracts of a personal nature.
Choose the correct answer:

(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) Only III is correct
(D) I, II and III are correct
(C) Only III is correct The rights for payment of money or building work do not involve personal considerations and are not personal contracts. Contracts involving personal skills or qualifications are generally not assignable, and benefits can be assigned only if they do not affect the obligation of the other party.
30. Consider the following statements:
I. Where a party to the contract has obtained substituted performance of the contract as per law, such contract is not specifically enforceable.
II. A contract, the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise, is not specifically enforceable.
III. After the Amendment Act of 2018, a contract for non-performance for which compensation is an adequate relief is not specifically enforceable.
Choose the correct answer:

(A) All are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) Only II is correct
(C) II and III are correct Contracts requiring ongoing duties that cannot be supervised by the court are not specifically enforceable. The 2018 Amendment clarifies that contracts where compensation is an adequate relief are also not specifically enforceable.

Comprehension:
In Mohit Minerals v. Union of India (2022), the imposition of IGST on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism was challenged as double taxation since the service's value is already included in the imported goods' transaction value.

Read More

The concept of double taxation means taxing the same subject matter twice when it should only be taxed once. GST law does not support such an imposition, and the importer, deemed a recipient under the reverse charge mechanism, cannot be held liable for tax on a service they have not directly availed.

The reverse charge mechanism is intended to simplify tax collection by shifting the liability from the service provider to the recipient, especially when the provider is located outside India. Extending its scope to include importers in this case stretches its purpose and lacks legislative backing.

Additionally, the constitutional framework mandates that taxes be levied with proper legislative competence without infringing on fundamental rights. The imposition of IGST on ocean freight without appropriate legislative support undermines key taxation principles enshrined in the Constitution.


31. According to the Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India judgment, what constitutes double taxation in the context of GST on ocean freight?
(A) Taxing both the importer and the exporter for the same service
(B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports
(C) Taxing the service provider and the service recipient for the same service
(D) Taxing the importer for both the goods and the services separately
(B) Tax not payable on ocean freight under the RCM for CIF imports The Mohit Minerals case ruled that under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM), tax should not be paid on ocean freight for CIF imports, as it leads to double taxation. Other options do not directly address this issue.
32. Assertion (A): The importer should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight under the reverse charge mechanism if they are not the direct recipient of the service.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A The importer is not the direct recipient of ocean freight services but is still made liable to pay GST under the reverse charge mechanism to shift the tax burden within India. This justifies the rationale behind the assertion and reason.
33. Consider the following statements regarding the Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India judgment:
1. The Supreme Court ruled that imposing GST on ocean freight charges under the reverse charge mechanism leads to double taxation
2. The importer, not being the direct recipient of the service, should not be liable to pay GST on ocean freight
3. The judgment emphasized that tax laws must have proper legislative backing to prevent contravention of fundamental rights

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 All three statements are correct. The Supreme Court ruled that double taxation arises under RCM, the importer is not liable for GST since they aren’t the direct recipient, and emphasized that tax laws should adhere to legislative norms to protect fundamental rights.
34. Consider the following statements:
1. The reverse charge mechanism shifts the tax liability from the service provider to the service recipient.
2. The principle of single taxation was violated by imposing GST on ocean freight charges already included in the cost of imported goods.
3. The judgment clarified that importers can be liable for GST on services directly availed by them.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 All statements are correct. The reverse charge mechanism shifts tax liability, GST on ocean freight charges violates the principle of single taxation, and the judgment clarifies the liability of importers for services directly availed.
35. According to the judgment, what is the constitutional requirement for levying a tax?
(A) The tax should be easy to administer
(B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights
(C) The tax should be progressive in nature
(D) The tax should only apply to domestic transactions
(B) The tax should have legislative competence and not contravene fundamental rights The Constitution mandates that a tax must be within the legislative competence of the concerned authority and should not violate fundamental rights. Options like ease of administration, progressiveness, or application to domestic transactions are secondary considerations.

Comprehension:
Whether an agreement qualifies as a mortgage by conditional sale or a sale with an option to repurchase depends on various factors, as outlined in Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act.

Read More

For an agreement to qualify as a mortgage by conditional sale, it must include an ostensible sale with transfer of possession and ownership, along with a clause for reconveyance as per Section 58(c). The court clarified that a sale with a condition of retransfer is not a mortgage and is evidenced by separate documents.

Key factors include the existence of a debtor-creditor relationship, property valuation, transaction value, and stipulated time for reconveyance. The execution of a separate agreement for reconveyance militates against the agreement being a mortgage by conditional sale.

The judgment in Prakash (Dead) By LR v. G. Aradhya Ors (2023 SC) emphasizes that determining the nature of an agreement requires cumulative consideration of the agreement's language, the parties' intentions, and other attendant circumstances. These factors must be analyzed holistically, as the language in the agreement alone may not be conclusive.


36. The proper remedy for the mortgagee in a mortgage by conditional sale is:
(A) to institute a suit for sale
(B) to suit for recovery of money
(C) to institute a suit for foreclosure
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B) In a mortgage by conditional sale, the mortgagee can file a suit for sale if the mortgagor defaults or sue for recovery of money if the mortgagor fails to repay as per the agreement. Thus, both remedies are valid.
37. One of the conditions of mortgage by conditional sale is that:
(A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable
(B) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall become void
(C) the mortgagee shall receive the rent and profits and will appropriate the same towards the dues
(D) All of the above
(A) on payment of mortgage money, the sale shall be voidable In a mortgage by conditional sale, the sale becomes voidable upon repayment of the mortgage money. Option (C) is true for a mortgage by possession, not a conditional sale.
38. What is the common clause between mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage?
(A) Transfer of ownership of mortgaged property
(B) Transfer of possession of mortgaged property
(C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property
(D) Delivery of documents of title
(C) The right of mortgagee to sell the property Both mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage allow the mortgagee to sell the mortgaged property in case of default, making this a common feature.
39. What is the limitation period in case of mortgage by conditional sale?
(A) 3 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 30 years
(D) No time limit
(B) 12 years The limitation period for the redemption of a mortgage by conditional sale is 12 years, within which the mortgagor can reclaim the property after repayment of the mortgage debt.
40. Which of the following expresses the distinction between a mortgage by conditional sale and a sale with a condition of repurchase?
(A) In a mortgage the debt subsists and a right to redeem remains with the debtor, but a sale with a condition of repurchase is not a lending and borrowing arrangement
(B) In a mortgage by conditional sale, generally the amount of consideration is far below the value of the property in the market, but in a sale with a condition of repurchase, the amount of consideration is generally equal to or close to the value of the property
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) In a mortgage by conditional sale, the debt remains, and the mortgagor retains a right to redeem. Additionally, the consideration amount is often less than the property value, unlike in a sale with a condition of repurchase.

Comprehension:
The power to pardon, under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution, allows the President to scrutinize the evidence of a criminal case and reach conclusions independent of judicial decisions, acting on executive advice.

Read More

In *Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989)*, the Supreme Court emphasized that the President's power under Article 72 operates on a different plane from judicial power. While judicial records remain intact, the President can decide whether to grant relief, such as pardoning or remitting a sentence, based on the case's merits.

This power, exercised in consultation with the Executive under Article 74(1), allows the President to scrutinize evidence and offer relief even after judicial adjudication. However, the reasons for granting such relief are not required to be disclosed to the affected party. Nonetheless, the absence of an obligation to disclose reasons does not exempt the order from being grounded in legitimate or relevant considerations.

The court in *Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014)* reiterated that while the President's act might practically remove the stigma of guilt or remit the sentence, it is a constitutional responsibility distinct from judicial review, upholding the principles of justice and mercy.


41. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the granting of pardon by the President?
(A) The power to grant pardon is a constitutional duty. Hence, judicial review is available, just as any executive action
(B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon
(C) The constitution expressly conferred the power to grant pardon to the President hence, the President is not bound to rely on the aid advice of the executive
(D) The President’s power to grant pardon can be reviewed on the grounds of non-application of mind
(B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon The President’s power to grant pardon is a discretionary power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India. Judicial review is generally not available unless there is an issue of non-application of mind or mala fide intentions.
42. In the above case, the Supreme Court held that a minimum period of days be stipulated between the receipt of communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution.
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 14
(D) No such time was fixed
(B) 30 In Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that there should be a minimum period of 30 days between the communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution.
43. What is not true about Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence
(B) Right to life of a person continues till his last breath and that Court will protect that right even if the noose is being tied on the condemned person’s neck
(C) The anguish of alternating hope and despair, the agony of uncertainty and the consequence of such suffering on the mental, emotional and physical integrity and health violates Art. 21 of the prisoners
(D) Art. 21 is a substantive right and not merely procedural
(A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence Article 21 protects the right to life and personal liberty. Insanity is a valid factor for commutation of a death sentence. The Supreme Court has held that mental agony caused by prolonged uncertainty violates the right to life.
44. In which case, the Supreme Court held that if the crime is brutal and heinous and involves the killing of a large number of innocent people without any reason, delay cannot be the sole factor for the commutation of the death sentence to life imprisonment?
(A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi
(B) V. Sriharan Murugan v. Union of India
(C) Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
(A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that even if there is a delay in execution, if the crime is heinous and brutal, involving large-scale loss of innocent lives, delay alone cannot justify commutation to life imprisonment.
45. The President’s power to grant a pardon
(A) Can be delegated to the Council of Ministers
(B) Cannot be delegated as it is an essential legislative function
(C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President
(D) Can be delegated to the Vice-president in the absence of the President
(C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President The power to grant a pardon is explicitly conferred on the President by Article 72 of the Constitution of India. This power cannot be delegated to any other body, including the Council of Ministers or the Vice President.

Comprehension:
The Indian Contract Act governs contracts, including the Contract of Bailment, which involves the delivery of goods for a specific purpose. Section 171 recognizes the general right of lien for bankers, attorneys, and others.

Read More

The right to lien is a possessory right under Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, allowing bankers and others to retain possession of goods as security for outstanding debts. This right permits banks to act as custodians of the property, provided they do not sell it without prior notice to the borrower.

In *Syndicate Bank v. Vijay Kumar and Others*, the court affirmed that a banker's general lien is a legal right and not merely a contractual provision. The judgment emphasized that the lien and the associated rights stem from established legal principles, as recognized in *Halsbury’s Laws of England*. It confirmed that a banker’s right to lien serves as a safeguard for securing repayment without requiring a specific agreement, reinforcing its customary and legal status.

This legal framework ensures fairness in financial transactions, granting protection to both lenders and borrowers under the law.


46. Who among the following can exercise right to General Lien in the absence of any provision in the contract?
(i) Factors
(ii) Brokers
(iii) Wharfingers
(iv) Attorneys

(A) iv
(B) iv and ii
(C) i and iii
(D) All of them
(D) All of them In the absence of any contract provision, the general lien can be exercised by factors, brokers, wharfingers, and attorneys. These individuals have the right to retain goods until dues are settled.
47. The Bailee’s right to retain the goods until he receives due remuneration for the services, he has rendered in respect of them is known as:
(A) Particular Lien
(B) General Lien
(C) Particular Retention
(D) General Retention
(B) General Lien A general lien refers to the bailee's right to retain possession of goods until payment for services is made, even if the goods are unrelated to the specific service.
48. With respect to bailment, a Banker:
(A) Has a right to a particular lien on fixed deposits
(B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits
(C) Has a right to a general lien on savings account
(D) Has no right to a lien on a savings account or fixed deposits
(B) Has a right to a general lien on fixed deposits A banker has a general lien over deposits like fixed deposits and securities held by them to cover any dues owed by the depositor.
49. Which one of the following is not an essential characteristic of Bailment?
(A) Physical delivery of goods
(B) Delivery of goods for some purpose
(C) After the purpose is accomplished, the goods must be returned
(D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them
(D) Goods may be returned to the owner or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them Bailment involves the delivery of goods for a specific purpose with an agreement to return them. Disposing of goods according to the deliverer’s directions is not an essential characteristic.
50. Which one of the following are bailments?
(i) Hiring a Locker facility in a Bank
(ii) Taking a Gold loan from the Bank
(iii) Hypothecation of the vehicle for loan to the Bank
(iv) Giving car for valet parking

(A) iv
(B) iv and ii
(C) i and iii
(D) All of them
(A) iv Bailment occurs when goods are delivered for a specific purpose with an agreement to return them. Giving a car for valet parking is a classic example of bailment, while the other scenarios involve different legal arrangements.

Comprehension:
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees protection of liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law. The balance between personal liberty and rule of law is central to its interpretation.

Read More

In *Bilkis Yakoob Rasul v. Union of India (2024)*, Justice Nagarathna emphasized that liberty must align with the rule of law. Liberty cannot prevail if granted in violation of legal principles. She invoked Plato's curative theory of punishment, highlighting that penalties should aim at reformation and prevention, not vengeance. This perspective underscores that a criminal, if curable, should be rehabilitated and reintegrated into society as a better citizen.

The judgment also addressed competing interests, balancing the victim's right to justice against the convict’s right to remission or reduction of sentence. Justice Nagarathna poignantly questioned whether heinous crimes against women should allow remission, stating that women deserve respect irrespective of their societal standing, faith, or creed.

The judgment reiterated that rule of law is paramount to uphold fundamental rights, including equality under Article 14, ensuring justice and fairness in the justice system.


51. On which grounds remission can be denied?
(A) On the discretion of the appropriate government
(B) On the central government’s discretion
(C) On the state government’s discretion
(D) None of the above
(A) On the discretion of the appropriate government Remission refers to the reduction or suspension of a sentence, and it is generally granted at the discretion of the appropriate government under whose jurisdiction the offense was committed and the convict was sentenced.
52. Which of the following is not related to remission?
(A) State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi) v. Prem Raj, 2003 7 SCC
(B) Sarat Chandra Rabha v. Khagendranath, AIR 1961 SC 334
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) Both cases mentioned are not directly related to the legal principles of remission as defined under the Cr.P.C. and related case law.
53. Which of the following needs to be considered while entertaining an application for remission under the provisions of Cr.P.C., 1973?
(A) The application for remission under Section 432 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 could be only before the Government of the State within whose territorial jurisdiction the applicant was convicted.
(B) A consideration for remission must be by way of an application under Section 432 of the Cr.P.C., 1973, noting compliance with Section 433A.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (A)
(C) Both (A) and (B) Applications must meet jurisdictional requirements under Section 432 and fulfill conditions of Section 433A, requiring the convict to have completed 14 years of imprisonment before applying for remission.
54. According to Section 432 (2) of Cr.P.C., how did the court interpret the expression “may” in the Bilkis Bano Case?
(A) The expression “may” indicates it is optional for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge.
(B) The expression “may” means that the government can seek the opinion of any judge.
(C) The expression “may” must be interpreted as “shall,” making it mandatory for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge.
(D) The expression “may” allows the presiding judge to refuse to provide an opinion.
(C) The expression “may” must be interpreted as “shall,” making it mandatory for the government to seek the opinion of the presiding judge. In the Bilkis Bano case, the Supreme Court interpreted the word "may" in Section 432(2) as "shall," requiring the government to seek the presiding judge's opinion before granting remission.
55. In Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision for commutation of a sentence of imprisonment of life replaced “not exceeding fourteen years or of fine” with:
(A) not less than seven years
(B) not less than ten years
(C) not more than twenty years
(D) seven years
(B) not less than ten years The Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, introduced a provision that requires a minimum of ten years for life sentence commutation, replacing the earlier provision of “not exceeding fourteen years or fine.”

Comprehension:
The Supreme Court recently analyzed the interplay between Section 47 of the Registration Act, 1908, and Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, regarding the transfer of immovable property.

Read More

Section 47 of the Registration Act stipulates that a registered document operates retroactively from the date it would have been effective had registration not been required. Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act mandates that the transfer of immovable property worth over Rs. 100 must be executed through a registered instrument.

The Court emphasized that a sale of immovable property requires a duly stamped and registered deed of conveyance to transfer any right, title, or interest. Referring to *Ram Saran Lall v. Domini Kuer*, the Court upheld the balance between Section 54's mandatory requirements and Section 47's deeming fiction. It also noted the distinction under Section 54 between the transfer of property valued above and below Rs. 100. Transfers over Rs. 100 necessitate a registered instrument, while transfers below Rs. 100 may occur through a registered instrument or delivery of property.

The judgment in *Kanwar Raj Singh v. Gejo (2024)* reinforces the procedural and substantive requirements for the lawful transfer of immovable property, ensuring compliance with statutory mandates.


56. Which of the following is the effect of non-registration of a compulsorily registrable document?
(A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property
(B) As long as the terms, grant or disposition is in writing and fulfills the criteria of S. 91 of the Indian Evidence Act, it will be admitted as evidence
(C) Procedure is a handmaid of justice and registration is merely a procedural requirement. Non-registration does not make the document less admissible in court
(D) The unregistered document can be adduced in evidence if the party adducing it is able to prove its bonafide
(A) The unregistered document cannot be adduced in evidence of any transaction affecting such property Section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908 lays down that an unregistered document which is required to be registered by law cannot be used as evidence in court to prove the transaction affecting immovable property.
57. A property from one person to the other can be transferred by way of:
(A) Court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment
(B) Dedication, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment
(C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication
(D) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance
(C) Private or court sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, dedication Transfer of property can happen through several methods including court sale, private sale, gift, will, inheritance, relinquishment, and dedication.
58. Where the member of the family agrees to divide the property amongst themselves, not necessarily in accordance with the quantum as specified in law or according to their entitlement. It can take into its fold non-family members as well. Once effected, it is binding on all the members who were parties to it and is enforceable? This division is called:
(A) Transfer of property under the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Partition of joint Hindu Family
(C) Family Arrangement
(D) Partition in Interested parties
(C) Family Arrangement A Family Arrangement is an informal agreement between family members, often to settle disputes or divide property among them, which is binding once agreed upon, even if it does not strictly adhere to the legal entitlements.
59. Property and interest in the property as a general rule are transferable. This rule of transferability is based on the maxim:
(A) Alienation rei praefertur juri accrescendi
(B) Cuius est solum eius est usque ad coelum et usque ad infernos
(C) Res nullius
(D) Nemo dat quod non habet
(D) Nemo dat quod non habet The maxim "Nemo dat quod non habet" means "No one can give what they do not have." This maxim establishes the principle that property rights are transferable only if the person transferring the property has those rights.
60. In a given case where a sale deed is executed and the entire agreed consideration is paid on or before execution of the sale deed, after it is registered, it will operate from:
(A) Date of registration of the sale deed
(B) Date of execution of the sale deed
(C) Date on which communication of proposal was complete
(D) None of the above
(B) Date of execution of the sale deed A sale deed operates from the date of execution, even though it is registered at a later date, as long as the agreed consideration is paid and the deed is executed.

Comprehension:
The Supreme Court addressed the urgent need to protect the Great Indian Bustard and the Lesser Florican, linking the right to a healthy environment with sustainable development and renewable energy promotion.

Read More

India faces significant environmental challenges that impact vulnerable communities, including forest dwellers. A reliable electricity supply, particularly from renewable sources, is essential for alleviating poverty, improving quality of life, and fostering inclusive growth, especially in rural and underserved areas. The transition to renewable energy is a strategic investment in India’s sustainable future.

The right to a healthy environment, integral to Articles 14 (equality) and 21 (life) of the Constitution, ensures clean and safe living conditions. The Court emphasized that prioritizing environmental protection and renewable energy aligns with scientific consensus on climate change, national and international commitments, and the welfare of current and future generations.

The judgment in *MK Ranjitsinh and Ors v. Union of India (2024)* reinforces the state’s obligation to address climate change, promote sustainability, and uphold the right to a healthy environment as a cornerstone of human well-being and equitable development.


61. What is the objective of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?
(A) To enforce international environmental treaties on climate change at national level
(B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change
(C) To stabilize carbon footprints and oversee global diversity protection efforts
(D) All of the above
(B) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with climate change The main objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human-induced interference with the climate system. This goal is outlined in Article 2 of the Convention, emphasizing the need for international cooperation in combating climate change.
62. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) specifically addresses climate change?
(A) SDG 31
(B) SDG 13
(C) SDG 12
(D) SDG 15
(B) SDG 13 SDG 13 aims to take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts. It specifically targets the climate crisis and addresses measures to reduce its adverse effects on ecosystems and communities globally.
63. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that any disturbance of the basic environment elements namely air, water, and soil, which are necessary for life, would be hazardous to ‘life’ within the meaning of Article 21 of the Constitution of India and Art. 48A and 51A(g) must be interpreted in the light of Article 21?
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 2000 SC
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 2000 SC
(C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Union Carbide Commission, 1991 SC
(C) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 SC In the case of Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996 SC), the Supreme Court held that any disturbance of the environment—air, water, and soil—which are necessary for life, is a violation of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. This ruling expanded the interpretation of the fundamental right to include the right to a healthy environment.
64. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The people of India do not have a right against the adverse effects of climate change as previous interpretations of Article 21 solely focused on individual freedoms and the right to a clean and pollution-free environment.
(B) The Supreme Court for the first time recognized the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change in its recent judgment MK Ranjitsinh and Ors v. Union of India, 2024 SC.
(C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’.
(D) None of the Above
(C) There is no separate recognition given by the Supreme Court for the ‘right to be free from adverse effects of climate change’ as it was already recognized under ‘right to a clean environment’. The Supreme Court has recognized the ’right to a clean and healthy environment’ as part of the right to life under Article 21. While the Supreme Court did not create a separate right specifically for the adverse effects of climate change in MK Ranjitsinh and Ors v. Union of India (2024 SC), it affirmed that the right to a clean environment inherently includes protection from climate change effects.
65. Which of the following protocols focuses on limiting global temperature rise by reducing carbon emissions and combating climate change?
(A) The Montreal Protocol
(B) The Kyoto Protocol
(C) The Paris Agreement
(D) The Rio Declaration
(C) The Paris Agreement The Paris Agreement (2015) focuses on limiting global temperature rise to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and strives to limit it to 1.5°C. The agreement specifically aims at reducing carbon emissions and mitigating the effects of climate change through international cooperation and nationally determined contributions.

Comprehension:
The law must evolve to address new challenges in a changing socio-economic environment. The Supreme Court emphasized the need for developing independent jurisprudence and adopting principles like strict and absolute liability.

Read More

In *M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987)*, the Court highlighted that the law must remain dynamic and adapt to industrialized society's challenges. Relying on foreign legal precedents is not mandatory, as India must develop its jurisprudence tailored to its needs. The Court dismissed the notion that the absence of strict and absolute liability in foreign laws should restrict Indian law from embracing these principles.

Enterprises engaging in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities must adhere to the highest safety standards, ensuring accountability for any harm caused. The Court also reiterated the importance of Epistolary jurisdiction, stating that procedural technicalities must not hinder access to justice. Justice should be accessible to all, and the law should serve as an enabler rather than a barrier.

This case underscores the judiciary's role in shaping laws to ensure safety, justice, and fairness in rapidly changing socio-economic conditions.

66. In which of the following cases, the term “Epistolary Jurisdiction” was first used in India?
(A) Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC
(B) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai, 1976 SC
(C) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, 1976 SC
(D) Amba Devi v. Union of India, 1984 SC
(A) Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC The term “Epistolary Jurisdiction” was first used in India in the case of Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union v. Union of India, 1981 SC. The Supreme Court allowed letters to be treated as writ petitions, using epistolary jurisdiction to address grievances without requiring a formal petition.
67. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) has a strict liability connotation?
(A) Theft under Section 378 IPC
(B) Defamation under Section 499 IPC
(C) Bigamy under Section 494 IPC
(D) Selling adulterated food or drink under Section 272 IPC
(D) Selling adulterated food or drink under Section 272 IPC Section 272 of the IPC, dealing with the sale of adulterated food or drink, imposes strict liability. The seller is liable irrespective of intent or knowledge of adulteration, focusing solely on the act of selling adulterated products.
68. “The Rule of Law is that the person who, for his own purpose, brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril: and if he does not do so is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.” Above rule has been evolved by the:
(A) Lord Burrough
(B) Justice Blackburn
(C) Lord Baron Diplock
(D) None of the above
(B) Justice Blackburn The rule is from the case of Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) and was articulated by Justice Blackburn. It established the principle of strict liability for damage caused by the escape of hazardous materials from one’s land.
69. The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable:
(A) When the escape is due to vis major or act of God
(B) When the damage is due to the wrongful or malicious act of a stranger
(C) When the escape is due to the plaintiff’s own fault
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above The rule of Rylands v. Fletcher does not apply in cases where the escape is due to vis major (act of God), the wrongful or malicious acts of a stranger, or the plaintiff’s own fault. These are exceptions to strict liability.
70. In India, the ‘Absolute Liability’ theory on the basis of injuries caused by hazardous industries was propounded by:
(A) V.R. Krishna Iyer, J.
(B) P.N. Bhagwati, C.J.
(C) Kuldip Singh, J.
(D) M.N. Venkatachaliah, C.J.
(B) P.N. Bhagwati, C.J. The concept of ‘Absolute Liability’ was propounded by Chief Justice P.N. Bhagwati in the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1987 SC. This theory holds industries absolutely liable for harm caused by hazardous or dangerous activities, irrespective of intent or fault.

Comprehension:
International organisations have significantly influenced the evolution of international law, contributing to the establishment of a global constitutional framework. The United Nations (UN) exemplifies this impact through its extensive role in maintaining peace and security.

Read More

Henkin described international organisations as "new laws at its birth," emphasizing their role in shaping international legal systems. The UN Charter and its specialised agencies, such as the World Health Organisation (WHO), Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), and International Labour Organisation (ILO), have transformed the sources, actors, and processes of international law over the past century.

Since its inception with 51 member states, the UN has grown to include 193 nations, evolving into a diverse global institution committed to upholding world order. Many experts regard the UN as a cornerstone of international law, particularly for its contributions to peace and security. The organisation exemplifies how international bodies act as both creators and custodians of international law, guiding global constitutional principles.

This assessment highlights the pivotal role of international organisations in shaping a cooperative and legally structured global community.

71. The Convention on International Civil Aviation is applicable only on:
(A) State Aircraft
(B) Civil Aircraft
(C) War Aircraft
(D) All of the above
(B) Civil Aircraft The Convention on International Civil Aviation applies exclusively to Civil Aircraft. It sets out the rules and standards for international air travel and aviation safety, excluding military, state, or war aircraft.
72. Meaning of the Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ as in legal term, is:
(A) According to the equitable and good
(B) On the basis of equity and fairness
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) The Latin phrase ‘ex aequo et bono’ means to decide a case based on equity, fairness, and justice rather than strict legal rules. It is commonly used in arbitration and international law when legal rules may not adequately resolve the dispute.
73. The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly distributed as:
(A) African States and Asia Pacific States
(B) Eastern European, Western European and other States
(C) Latin American and Caribbean States
(D) All of the Above
(D) All of the Above The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) consists of 54 members, with representation from all global regions: African States, Asia-Pacific States, Eastern European States, Western European States, and Latin American and Caribbean States.
74. Under which Art. of UN Charter General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions?
(A) Art. 19 of UN Charter
(B) Art. 20 of UN Charter
(C) Art. 21 of UN Charter
(D) Art. 22 of UN Charter
(D) Art. 22 of UN Charter Article 22 of the UN Charter grants the General Assembly the power to establish subsidiary organs as necessary to perform its functions. This enables the Assembly to create specialized agencies and committees.
75. Article 21 of the Constitution of WHO, each Member has undertaken the obligation to take action acceptance on Conventions adopted by:
(A) One third votes of the Health Assembly
(B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly
(C) Special Majority means Three-Fourth votes of the Health Assembly
(D) All of the above
(B) Two-third votes of the Health Assembly Article 21 of the WHO Constitution states that Member States are obliged to accept the Conventions adopted by the Health Assembly with a two-thirds majority vote. This ensures broad consensus among members on important health conventions.

Comprehension:
The Supreme Court reaffirmed that an adjudicatory body cannot base its decision on material not disclosed to the affected party. This principle is fundamental to natural justice and the right to defend oneself.

Read More

In *Deepak Ananda Patil v. State of Maharashtra (2023)*, the Court emphasized that any material, evidence, or document relied upon in a decision must be disclosed to the party against whom it is used, giving them an opportunity to respond. This principle ensures that no material is relied upon without affording the affected party a fair chance to rebut it.

The Court cited *MP Jain and SN Jain's Principles of Administrative Law*, affirming that undisclosed evidence leads to denial of a real and effective opportunity to defend oneself, vitiating the decision. A quasi-judicial authority must disclose relevant material at the adjudication stage, ensuring compliance with natural justice.

The aggrieved party must also demonstrate prejudice caused by non-disclosure, showing that the outcome or punishment might have been different if the material had been disclosed. This judgment reinforces procedural fairness and transparency in administrative decisions.

76. Which principle is applied in the judgment?
(A) Nemo judex in causa sua
(B) Audi alteram partem
(C) Ignorantia juris non excusat
(D) Jus necessitatis
(B) Audi alteram partem The principle applied in this judgment is “Audi alteram partem,” which means “hear the other side.” This principle ensures that both parties in a dispute are given an equal opportunity to present their case.
77. Non-Disclosure of material invalidates the order if:
(A) The authority has not relied on the material
(B) No prejudice is caused to the party
(C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication
(D) The outcome would not have been any different if it was disclosed
(C) The material was relevant for the purpose of adjudication Non-disclosure of material will invalidate an order if the material was relevant for the adjudication process. The material must be crucial to the case, and its omission can lead to an unfair decision.
78. ‘Real and effective opportunity’ in the context of this judgment refers to:
(A) Personal hearing
(B) Right to rebut the evidence supplied to the party
(C) Right to adduce evidence
(D) Right to know the evidence against oneself
(D) Right to know the evidence against oneself The term “real and effective opportunity” refers to the right to know the evidence against oneself, ensuring the party has an adequate chance to respond to the allegations or evidence presented.
79. Which of the following requires compliance with the rule of fair hearing?
(A) A notification bringing an Act into operation
(B) Price Control Order under Essential Commodities Act
(C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority
(D) Reasoned Decision by competent authority
(C) Notice issued by a Disciplinary Authority The rule of fair hearing is required in cases where a person is entitled to a hearing, like a notice issued by a disciplinary authority. Fair hearing ensures that the affected individual can present their case before a decision is made.
80. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Proving prejudice to the party concerned is necessary to quash a quasi-judicial order on the ground of non-disclosure of evidence
(B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions
(C) Speaking order is a third principle of natural justice
(D) Legal representation can be validly disallowed before a quasi-judicial proceeding
(B) Principles of natural justice do not have exceptions Statement (B) is false. The principles of natural justice can have exceptions, especially in certain statutory or emergency situations. The principle of natural justice must be balanced with practical limitations in certain cases.

Comprehension:
Jurisprudence evolves over time, with notable advancements like Hohfeld's analysis of rights, and regressions, such as Hobbes's definition of rights as liberties devoid of duties.

Read More

The concept of "rights" can be traced back to Aquinas, who linked *ius* (right) with justice and recognized both subjective and objective rights. Subjective rights pertain to an individual's entitlements, while objective rights relate to moral or legal correctness in interpersonal actions.

Hobbes, influenced by positivism, deviated from this tradition by equating rights to liberties in the absence of duties, leading to the notion that individuals possess maximum rights in the state of nature. However, this approach contradicts the interdependence of rights and duties. Without duties, rights lose coherence, as individuals could be subjected to unchecked abuse or destruction without recourse.

Hohfeld’s framework clarifies that rights must correspond to duties. These include claim-rights (correlating with another’s duty), liberties (protected by non-interference), powers (enabled by official recognition of acts), and immunities (shielded from the legal actions of others). This framework reinforces the interconnectedness of rights and duties in a coherent legal and moral order.

81. The Jural Correlative of Privilege is:
(A) Duty
(B) Liability
(C) No right
(D) Disability
(C) No right The Jural Correlative of Privilege is “No right.” Privilege refers to the freedom to act without interference, and the jural correlative for such freedom is the absence of a corresponding duty or right on the part of others.
82. Which of the following statements is not true about Treatise on Law by St. Thomas Aquinas?
(A) He classified law into eternal law, natural law, human law, and divine law
(B) He belonged to the Historical School of Jurisprudence
(C) According to him, human nature is perfected or fully realised by harmonious and habitual excellence in the exercise of its intrinsic capacities and powers
(D) The first primary precept is that good is to be pursued and done and evil avoided
(B) He belonged to the Historical School of Jurisprudence St. Thomas Aquinas did not belong to the Historical School of Jurisprudence. Instead, his philosophy was grounded in natural law, and he classified laws into eternal, natural, human, and divine. His approach focused on moral theology and ethics.
83. Who said, “Right is an interest which is to be recognised, protected and enforced by law”?
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Salmond
(C) Holland
(D) Bentham
(A) Roscoe Pound Roscoe Pound defined a right as an interest that is to be recognized, protected, and enforced by law. Pound’s theory emphasizes the role of law in recognizing and securing individual interests.
84. Which of the following theories can be identified as a theory of right?
(A) Bracket theory
(B) Fiction theory
(C) Will theory
(D) Concession theory
(C) Will theory The Will Theory identifies rights as the power of an individual to exercise their will. It emphasizes individual autonomy and the ability of a person to decide for themselves within the legal framework.
85. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: Rights in Rem are the rights in the things of others, also called encumbrances.
Statement II: Rights in Re propria means the right available against the whole world.
Statement III: Rights in Personam mean the rights in one’s own things.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is correct
(B) Statements I & II are correct
(C) Statements I, II & III are correct
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above Statement I is incorrect because Rights in Rem are rights against the world at large, not just encumbrances. Statement II is incorrect, as "Rights in Re propria" refers to rights over one’s own property, not against the world. Statement III is also incorrect; Rights in Personam are rights against specific individuals, not related to one’s own things.

Comprehension:
The environmental rule of law, as a facet of the broader rule of law, integrates legal, scientific, and policy perspectives to address environmental challenges and ensure sustainable development.

Read More

In *Pragnesh Shah v. Arunkumar Sharma (2022)*, the Supreme Court recognized that the environmental rule of law provides essential tools to structure environmental governance. It encompasses multi-disciplinary analyses of environmental issues, bridging gaps between science, regulation, and policy to address challenges like carbon footprints, climate change, and habitat destruction.

Unlike traditional legal principles, the environmental rule of law involves all stakeholders—lawyers, judges, policymakers, and scientists—in formulating strategies to combat environmental degradation. It links concepts such as sustainable development and the polluter-pays principle to promote an integrated understanding of the environment’s symbiotic relationships. The interconnectedness of global ecosystems means that environmental changes in one region affect other parts of the world.

The judgment highlights that environmental rule of law seeks to unify responses to global challenges, emphasizing the consequences of actions that transcend local and national boundaries, such as rising sea levels, glacial melting, and desertification. This framework fosters a holistic approach to ensuring the survival of ecosystems and humanity as a whole.

86. What distinguishes the environmental rule of law from the broader concept of the rule of law?
(A) Its exclusive focus on legal principles
(B) Its emphasis on environmental governance
(C) Its reliance on judicial decisions
(D) Its alignment with international treaties
(B) Its emphasis on environmental governance The environmental rule of law primarily focuses on environmental governance, which includes principles, regulations, and frameworks dedicated to addressing environmental protection, unlike the broader rule of law that encompasses a variety of legal domains.
87. What is the primary objective of the environmental rule of law?
(A) To protect wildlife habitats
(B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges
(C) To promote economic development
(D) To enforce local environmental regulations
(B) To enhance understanding of environmental challenges The primary objective of the environmental rule of law is to enhance understanding of environmental challenges and ensure that legal frameworks effectively address issues related to environmental protection and governance at all levels.
88. Environmental Protection and Improvement were incorporated into the Constitution of India by inserting Articles 48-A and 51-A (g) by virtue of which of the following amendments?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(C) 45th Amendment Act, 1980
(D) 35th Amendment Act, 1974
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, incorporated environmental protection into the Indian Constitution by adding Articles 48-A (to direct the state to protect and improve the environment) and 51-A(g) (to make it a fundamental duty of citizens).
89. In which international forum did the ‘Environmental rule of Law’ find recognition for the first time?
(A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970
(B) Rio Declaration on Environment, 1992
(C) Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development, 2002
(D) UNEP’s Governing Council Decision 279, 2013
(A) Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1970 The concept of the ’Environmental Rule of Law’ was first recognized at the Stockholm Conference on Human Environment in 1970, which laid the groundwork for the international environmental governance framework.
90. What does the environmental rule of law seek to achieve beyond local and national boundaries?
(A) Economic growth
(B) Environmental justice
(C) Political stability
(D) Cultural preservation
(B) Environmental justice The environmental rule of law seeks to achieve environmental justice on a global scale by ensuring that environmental laws and regulations are applied consistently and equitably across borders, contributing to sustainable development.

Comprehension:
Live-in relationships are not widely accepted in India, but legal frameworks like the DV Act recognize "relationships in the nature of marriage" to provide protection and remedies for women in vulnerable situations.

Read More

In *Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma (2013)*, the Supreme Court discussed the recognition of live-in relationships and the legal provisions addressing women's rights. The *Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (DV Act)* was the first legislation in India to cover relationships in the nature of marriage, providing civil remedies to prevent domestic violence.

Other legislations, such as Section 125 Cr.P.C. (maintenance of destitute wives), Section 498-A IPC (mental cruelty), and Section 304-B IPC (dowry death), alongside the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, and the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, address specific challenges faced by women. These laws aim to protect women's rights within formal marriages and vulnerable situations.

The Court emphasized that determining whether a relationship qualifies as "in the nature of marriage" under Section 2(f) of the DV Act requires a detailed analysis of the relationship's facts and circumstances. Factors like mutual commitment, cohabitation, and shared responsibilities play a critical role in this judicial assessment.

91. What is the scope of analysis required to determine if a relationship falls within the expression “relationship in the nature of marriage” under Section 2(f) of the DV Act?
(A) Considering the number of children born in a live-in relationship
(B) Considering only the cohabitation period of the relationship and their emotional connectivity
(C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets
(D) Evaluating only the financial aspects and mutual agreements of the relationship, and if there is any written agreement between the partner
(C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets The relationship in the nature of marriage under Section 2(f) of the Domestic Violence Act involves a comprehensive analysis of the relationship. It includes not only cohabitation and emotional connectivity but also factors such as financial support, mutual agreements, and shared responsibilities.
92. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court read down the word “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(A) Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma
(B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora
(C) Uma Narayan v. Priya Krishna Prasad
(D) All of the above
(B) Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora In the case of Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora, the Supreme Court read down the term “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, to include women in relationships of domestic violence.
93. As per Section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, while disposing of an application under Section 12(1), the Magistrate may direct the respondent to pay monetary relief to the aggrieved person so that the aggrieved person can:
(A) Live a life that meets at least the bare minimum needs for survival and basic well-being
(B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed
(C) Live a life that is consistent with her parent’s standard of living
(D) Live a life which can cover her medical expenses and expenses incurred due to litigation of domestic violence
(B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed Section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act allows the magistrate to provide monetary relief so that the aggrieved person can continue to live a life consistent with her standard of living, as she was accustomed before the domestic violence.
94. In which case, the three-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court has recently interpreted the term “shared household” and has held that “... lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship...” have to be given its normal and purposeful meaning. The living of woman in a household has to refer to a living which has some permanency. Mere fleeting or casual living at different places shall not make a shared household?
(A) Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja
(B) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
(C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra
(D) B.R. Mehta v. Atma Devi
(C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra In the case of S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra, the Supreme Court clarified that the term “shared household” should have a normal, purposeful meaning and cannot apply to a casual or fleeting living arrangement. The woman’s living in a household must have some permanency.
95. Under Indian Law, can a woman in a live in relationship claim maintenance under S. 125, Cr.P.C. despite not being a legally wedded wife?
(A) No, as per the interpretation of statute ‘wife’ means legally wedded wife and includes who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from her husband
(B) Yes, a woman in a live in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation
(C) A woman in live in relationship can only claim maintenance if she has been cohabiting for more than five years and dependent children from the relationship
(D) A woman in live in relationship can claim maintenance only through a civil suit as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA) does not apply to live in relationships
(B) Yes, a woman in a live in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, Cr.P.C. as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation Under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C., a woman in a live-in relationship can claim maintenance even without being legally married, as long as there is proof of cohabitation. The requirement of strict marriage proof is not necessary.

Comprehension:
Articles 14, 15, and 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantee equality before the law, non-discrimination, and equal opportunity in public employment while allowing for reservations under specific conditions.

Read More

Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) enable the State to make provisions for socially and educationally backward classes or Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Sub-classification within a class must be reasonable and ensure opportunities for all categories while adhering to the principle of substantive equality.

In *The State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024)*, Justice Bela Trivedi dissented, emphasizing that sub-classification of SCs under the Presidential List (Article 341) by States is impermissible. She argued that the list can only be amended by Parliament, and sub-classification by States would violate the object of Article 341, risking political influence and unequal treatment.

Justice Trivedi upheld the decision in *E.V. Chinnaiah*, reiterating that affirmative action must respect constitutional boundaries. Preferential treatment for a sub-class within the Presidential List would deprive other SCs of their benefits, amounting to a colorable exercise of power. The decision reinforces the importance of adhering to plain and literal interpretation of constitutional provisions, ensuring fairness and consistency in affirmative action policies.

96. The issue of whether the State can further sub-classify within a class for the purpose of reservation first arose in:
(A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore
(B) T. Devadasan v. Union of India
(C) Akhil Bharatiya Soshit Karamchari Sangh (Railway) v. Union of India
(D) The State of Punjab & Ors. v. Davinder Singh & Ors. 2020
(A) MR Balaji v. State of Mysore The issue of sub-classification within a class for reservation first arose in the case of MR Balaji v. State of Mysore, where the Supreme Court discussed whether the State could further sub-classify backward classes for the purpose of reservations.
97. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, while proposing the inclusion of Articles 300A and 300B of the Draft Constitution (which correspond to Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution), indicated that once notified, any elimination from the list or an addition to the list was to be made by Parliament and not by the President. This limitation was imposed to:
(A) Protect the rights of the SCs and STs class people
(B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive having a play in the matter of the disturbance in the Schedule so published by the President
(C) To remove the discretion in the hands of Executive to save the interest of the SCs and STs people
(D) To eliminate “political factors” from disturbing the list
(B) To exclude the further interference of the Executive having a play in the matter of the disturbance in the Schedule so published by the President Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s intent in making Parliament the authority to modify the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was to remove executive discretion and political interference, ensuring stability and fairness in the inclusion and exclusion process.
98. The trinity of Articles 14, 15, and 16 has provided a tool to march towards social and economic equality. Emphasis has been given to affirmative action so as to give a special treatment to the underprivileged so that they can march forward. Reservations in the matters of education and in public employment have been used to provide a special treatment to the backward classes. What are the other articles of the Constitution along with, the objective of the Constitution to achieve social economic equality may be achieved?
(A) Arts. 46, 335 and 338
(B) Arts. 335, 341 and 342
(C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342
(D) Arts. 46, 335 and 342
(C) Arts. 46, 335, 338, 341 and 342 In addition to Articles 14, 15, and 16, Articles 46, 335, 338, 341, and 342 also contribute to achieving social and economic equality through affirmative actions, reservations, and protection for underprivileged classes.
99. Hon’ble Justice B.R. Gavai, in the above-mentioned judgment held that, “sub-classification amongst the Scheduled Castes for giving more beneficial treatment is permissible in law”. He also gave some criteria on which the sub-classification may be implemented by the State. Which of the following is that criteria?
(A) The criteria for exclusion of the creamy layer from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for the purpose of affirmative action could be different from the criteria as applicable to the Other Backward Classes
(B) Sub-classification would be permissible only if there is a reservation for a sub-class as well as the larger class
(C) That while doing so, the State will have to justify the same on the basis of empirical data that a sub-class in whose favour such more beneficial treatment is provided is not adequately represented
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above Justice B.R. Gavai’s ruling made it clear that sub-classification among Scheduled Castes is permissible, provided there is empirical data to justify the inadequacy of representation of the sub-class. Moreover, criteria for exclusion from the creamy layer for Scheduled Castes may differ from that of Other Backward Classes.
100. Which of the following is not required for sub-classification of the Scheduled Caste?
(A) The inadequacy of representation of a caste/group because of its backwardness
(B) The data must be collected by the State on the inadequacy of representation of a caste in the “services of the State” because it is used as an indicator of backwardness
(C) Efficiency of administration must be viewed in a manner which promotes inclusion and equality as required by Article 16(1)
(D) The State in exercise of the power under Articles 15(4) and 16(4) is not required to further classify the Scheduled Castes
(D) The State in exercise of the power under Articles 15(4) and 16(4) is not required to further classify the Scheduled Castes For sub-classification of the Scheduled Castes, it is essential to assess the inadequacy of representation, collect data, and consider the promotion of inclusion and equality. However, the State is not required to further classify the Scheduled Castes unless justified by specific empirical data.

Comprehension:
The tort of negligence comprises three essential elements: duty of care, breach of duty, and resultant damage. Duty of care involves foreseeability, proximity, and fairness in imposing a legal obligation.

Read More

In *Managing Director, Kerala Tourism Development Corporation Limited v. Deepti Singh (2019)*, the Supreme Court outlined that negligence requires a legal duty to take care, a breach of that duty, and resulting damage. The court referred to *Caparo Industries Plc. v. Dickman (1990)* to establish that duty depends on foreseeability of damage, the proximity of the relationship, and whether imposing the duty is just and reasonable.

Breach of duty involves assessing whether the defendant’s conduct fell below the standard expected of a reasonable person. Determining negligence entails three steps: identifying the standard of care expected in the given circumstances, considering relevant factors, and evaluating whether the defendant's actions were less careful than those of a reasonable person.

The court emphasized that the division of negligence into duty, breach, and damage is helpful for explanation but often overlaps. Negligence as a tort aims to determine if the type of loss suffered by the plaintiff is actionable and whether the defendant failed to act with the required care.

101. In the context of negligence, which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the presence of all essential elements?
(A) A doctor prescribes the wrong medication to a patient, but the patient’s immune system prevents any harmful side effects and the patient does not suffer any injury
(B) A driver runs a red light, narrowly avoiding an accident with another car and both vehicles continue without any collision or harm
(C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender
(D) A construction company delays necessary maintenance on a bridge and despite having major cracks the bridge remains functional
(C) A hotel guest tragically drowns in the swimming pool as the lifeguard was assigned duties as a part-time bartender In negligence cases, the essential elements include duty of care, breach of duty, causation, and injury. Option (C) demonstrates all these elements: the hotel had a duty to ensure safety, the lifeguard’s breach of duty led to a fatal accident, which resulted in harm.
102. Reasonable foreseeability means:
(A) Mere possibility
(B) Expectation of sensible person
(C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person
(D) Remote possibility of a particular consequence of his consequence by a reasonable person
(C) Foreseeability of probable consequences of his act by an average prudent person Reasonable foreseeability refers to the ability of a reasonable person to predict the probable consequences of their actions. Option (C) defines it precisely as the foreseeability of probable consequences by an average prudent person.
103. A renowned judgment in which reasonable foreseeability test was discussed by the Privy Council, was:
(A) Scott v. Shephard
(B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case)
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(D) Re Polemis and Furness, Withy Co
(B) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case) The Wagon Mound case (Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock) is the famous Privy Council judgment in which the test for reasonable foreseeability was laid down. It established that a defendant is only liable for the foreseeable consequences of their actions.
104. In which of the following judgment the neighbour principle was propounded?
(A) Scott v. Shephard
(B) Rylands v. Fletcher
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(D) Overseas Tankship UK Ltd. v. Morts Dock and Engineering Co. Ltd. (Wagon Mound Case)
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson The neighbour principle was propounded in Donoghue v. Stevenson, where Lord Atkin established that one must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions that could foreseeably harm their neighbors—those closely and directly affected by one’s actions.
105. Compensation is to be assessed on the basis of:
(A) Rough estimate of loss generally resulting from death
(B) Approximate calculation of damage as a result of death
(C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits
(D) Closeness in relationship between claimants and the deceased
(C) Legitimate expectation of loss of pecuniary benefits Compensation in wrongful death cases is typically assessed based on the legitimate expectation of pecuniary benefits that the deceased would have provided, such as income or other financial support to the claimants.

Comprehension:
In *R.K. Jain v. Union of India (1993)*, the Supreme Court emphasized the need to review the functioning of tribunals established under Articles 323-A and 323-B to ensure their independence and effectiveness.

Read More

Justice Ahmadi, speaking for himself and Justice Punchhi, noted that sufficient time had passed since the establishment of tribunals under various statutes, and it was essential to evaluate whether they had achieved their objectives. Complaints about their functioning necessitate a comprehensive review by the Law Commission of India to recommend measures for improving their performance and independence.

The Court stressed the importance of creating a model for the constitution or reconstitution of tribunals to bolster public confidence in their impartiality and efficiency. It highlighted the ineffectiveness of the current alternative mechanisms for judicial review, affirming that judicial review and remedy are fundamental rights of citizens. The Court expressed concern over the quality of justice dispensed by tribunals and urged improvements to meet public expectations and constitutional standards.

106. In which of the following case the Court held that though judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, the vesting of the power of judicial review in an alternative institutional mechanism, after taking it away from the High Courts, would not violate the basic structure so long as it was ensured that the alternative mechanism was an effective and real substitute for the High Court?
(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997
(B) R.K. Jain v. Union of India 1993
(C) S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India 1985
(D) Kesvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 1973
(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others 1997 In the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court held that while judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, the judicial review powers could be vested in alternative mechanisms such as administrative tribunals. However, this would not violate the basic structure, as long as the mechanism is effective and a real substitute.
107. The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 shall not apply to:
(A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union
(B) Officer or servant of the Supreme Court or of any High Court or Courts subordinate
(C) Person appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament or to the secretarial staff of any State Legislature or a House thereof or, in the case of a Union Territory having a Legislature, of that Legislature
(D) All of the above
(A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 do not apply to members of the armed forces (military, naval, air) under Section 14 of the Act. Hence, the correct answer is (A).
108. The first tribunal established in India is:
(A) Central Administrative Tribunal
(B) Railway Claims Tribunal
(C) Armed Forces Tribunal
(D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal
(D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) was the first tribunal established in India in 1941. It deals with disputes related to income tax.
109. Articles 323-A and 323-B of the Indian Constitution for the establishment of tribunal to adjudicate disputes in specific matters. While both articles deal with tribunals, there are key differences in their scope and application. Which of the following statement correctly reflects the distinction between Articles 323-A and 323-B?
(A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms
(B) While tribunals under Article 323-A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323-B can only be established by State legislature, with matters falling within their legislative competence
(C) Under Article 323-A, only one tribunal for centre and no tribunal for state may be established. As far as Article 323-B is concerned, there is no hierarchy of tribunals
(D) Article 323-A grant tribunals the power to hear appeals directly from the Supreme Court, by passing the High Court. Under Article 323-B there is no such power
(A) Article 323-A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323-B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms Article 323-A deals with administrative tribunals for matters related to public services, whereas Article 323-B provides for tribunals on a wider range of subjects, such as taxation, land reforms, and industrial disputes. Thus, option (A) is the correct distinction.
110. The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in the year:
(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
(D) 2010 The National Green Tribunal Act was passed in 2010 to provide for the establishment of the National Green Tribunal for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

Comprehension:
The Companies Act, 2013 and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) address distinct legal scenarios: winding up of companies under Section 271 of the Companies Act versus insolvency-related revival and rehabilitation under the IBC.

Read More

In *Moser Baer Karamchari Union v. Union of India (2023)*, the Supreme Court clarified that the Companies Act and the IBC serve different purposes. While Section 271 of the Companies Act allows the winding up of companies, including financially sound ones, for specific statutory reasons, the IBC focuses on reviving or winding up companies unable to pay debts.

The Court emphasized that sacrifices from various stakeholders, including workmen and secured creditors, are essential for the revival of insolvent companies. Such sacrifices must not be deemed unconstitutional unless they are manifestly unjust or arbitrary.

Rejecting arguments of discrimination under Article 14 or violation of Article 21, the Court observed that the objectives and purposes of the Companies Act and the IBC are fundamentally different. Examining the waterfall mechanism in either enactment in isolation would not adequately address the unique contexts of each law.

111. In which of the following cases, it was held by the Supreme Court addressed shareholders rights, RB’s role and judicial Intervention?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd
(B) R. K. Dalmia v. Delhi Administration
(C) Dale And Carrington Invt. P. Ltd. v. P.K. Prathapan
(D) Rohtas Industries Ltd v. S.D. Agarwal & Anr
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd In the case of Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd (1986), the Supreme Court addressed the rights of shareholders, the role of the Board of Directors, and the scope of judicial intervention in corporate matters, especially concerning decisions affecting the rights of minority shareholders.
112. The extent to which a corporation as a legal person can be held criminally liable for its acts and omissions and for those of the natural persons employed by it is called:
(A) Corporate manslaughter
(B) Lifting the corporate veil
(C) Corporate criminal liability
(D) Corporate social responsibility
(C) Corporate criminal liability Corporate criminal liability refers to the legal principle that a corporation, as a legal entity, can be held criminally liable for its own acts or the acts of its employees or agents within the scope of their employment.
113. In which of the following cases, the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was upheld by the Supreme Court?
(A) RPS Infrastructure Ltd. v. Union of India
(B) Paschimanchal Vidyut Vitran Nigam Ltd. v. Union of India
(C) Union Bank of India v. Financial Creditors of M/s Amtek Auto Limited
(D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India
(D) Swiss Ribbons v. Union of India In the case of Swiss Ribbons Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India (2019), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, affirming that the provisions of the Code do not violate the Constitution.
114. A Director other than a managing Director or a whole-time Director or a nominee Director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company/Directors other than the remuneration is called:
(A) Impartial Director
(B) Promoter
(C) Independent Director
(D) Associate Director
(C) Independent Director An Independent Director is a director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company or its directors, except for their remuneration, and is not involved in the day-to-day management of the company.
115. Which among the following is not a duty of a Director of the company?
(A) To file return of allotments
(B) To disclose interest
(C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings
(D) To convene General meeting
(C) Duty to call upon the shareholders to attend the Board meetings Directors have several duties, including filing returns of allotments, disclosing their interest, and convening General Meetings, but it is not their duty to call upon shareholders to attend Board meetings. This is generally the responsibility of the Board itself.

Comprehension:
In custody matters, the Supreme Court prioritizes the welfare and well-being of the child over strict legal provisions. The Court exercises its parens patriae jurisdiction to ensure the child's moral, ethical, and intellectual development.

Read More

In *Nil Ratan Kundu v. Abhijit Kundu (2008)*, the Supreme Court emphasized that custody decisions require a humane approach, focusing on the child’s welfare above legalistic interpretations. Factors such as the child’s comfort, education, health, and moral values are considered crucial.

Similarly, in *Gaurav Nagpal v. Semedha Nagpal (2009)*, the Court highlighted the importance of moral and ethical values, placing them on par with physical comforts in determining the child's welfare. The child's preferences, if they are mature enough to form an intelligent opinion, must also be taken into account, though the final decision lies with the Court.

The Court observed that when parents present conflicting custody claims, human considerations are paramount. Custody is not merely a legal issue but a matter requiring sensitivity to the child’s overall well-being, including their moral and ethical upbringing.

116. According to the passage, which is the most indispensable consideration in deciding the matters of custody of the child?
(A) Financial ability of the parents
(B) Sex of the child and its age at the relevant time
(C) Physical Comfort, possibility of recreational activities of the child
(D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values
(D) Environment conducive to development of moral and ethical values The most indispensable consideration in matters of child custody is ensuring that the environment is conducive to the development of moral and ethical values, which is paramount in the best interest of the child.
117. The provision of custody of child under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 gives:
(A) Right of custody to mother, if child is below five years of age
(B) Preferential custody right to father
(C) Custody right to any close relative who is found suitable
(D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age
(D) Preferential consideration to mother, in case the child is below five years of age Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, there is preferential consideration given to the mother for the custody of a child below the age of five years, reflecting the importance of maternal care at an early stage.
118. The sensitivity in judicial decision making is manifest in this passage from the court’s observation that:
(A) Custody of child can be given to grandparents
(B) Welfare of child is paramount consideration
(C) Ethical and moral wellbeing is given priority
(D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch
(D) Custody cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions but is required to be solved with human touch The passage emphasizes that custody cases should not be decided purely on legal provisions but should be approached with sensitivity, acknowledging the importance of human touch in addressing the welfare of the child.
119. What does the passage state about the opinion of a child who is old enough to state its preference regarding custody?
(A) The child has a right to get custody order according to his preference
(B) The child’s preference in relation to his custody is immaterial
(C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody
(D) Court is bound by the child’s preference in relation to custody even if it differs in its opinion about whom to grant the custody
(C) The child’s preference must be considered but the court is the final deciding authority regarding the custody The passage mentions that the child’s preference regarding custody must be considered, but it is ultimately the court’s decision to determine the custody arrangement, with the child’s welfare as the guiding principle.
120. The considerations for the decision in relation to custody of child, is subject to which of the following basis as mentioned in Sec.13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956?
(A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration
(B) Wishes of the child form the primary basis in custody cases
(C) Child’s health and educational needs are primary considerations
(D) Suitability of the person claiming custody is the basic consideration
(A) Welfare of the child is the paramount consideration Section 13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 clearly establishes that the welfare of the child is the paramount consideration in deciding matters of custody, overriding other factors.

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General4000
sc3500
pwd4000

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

Comments


No Comments To Show