AIBE 21 Question Paper Set C is available for download here. Bar Council of India conducted AIBE 21 exam on 7 June, 2026. AIBE 21 Question Paper consists of 100 questions for 100 marks.
- AIBE 21 Paper consists of questions from Constitutional law, IPC, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and other law topics.
- Each question carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
Candidates can download AIBE 21 Question Paper Set C with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.
AIBE 21 Question Paper Set C with Solution PDF
| AIBE 21 Question Paper Set C | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: The Bar Council of India derives its rule-making power from Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorises it to frame rules governing professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. Rule 20 framed thereunder categorically bars an advocate from stipulating for, or receiving, any fee whose quantum is dependent upon the outcome of litigation, or from entering into any arrangement to share in its proceeds. An advocate who contravenes this Rule is liable to be proceeded against under Section 35 of the Act.
Conclusion I: An advocate may lawfully enter into an outcome-linked fee arrangement so long as the client's written consent is obtained prior to the engagement.
Conclusion II: An advocate who violates the prohibition on contingency-based fees may face disciplinary action under the Advocates Act, 1961.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true?
Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay? Which of the following statements is most accurate?
Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police?
Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General?
Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves?
Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with “fast track merger”. What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval?
A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month’s imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true?
Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer-in-charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within:
The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights?
Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts?
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Assertion (A): An ex parte decree may be set aside if the defendant satisfies the court that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Reason (R): Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court must be satisfied that the summons was not duly served or that the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, stipulates that a police officer must produce a person arrested without a warrant before a Magistrate within a maximum period of 24 hours?
A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. As per the applicable law, the following steps are proposed: (i) Preliminary notification (ii) Social Impact Assessment (SIA) (iii) Gram Sabha consultation/consent (iv) Final notification. Which of the following statements is correct?
The term “Public Interest Litigation (PIL)” was first used by:
In roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as:
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Assertion (A): The right to privacy has been judicially recognised as an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): Privacy is expressly enumerated as a separate Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution of India.
Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform for Yash Aditya Music Company and begins performing for BR Chopra & Company. Yash Aditya Music Company files a suit seeking an injunction restraining Ajeet Singh from performing for BR Chopra & Company. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in:
The adoption of an Ombudsman-type institution in India was first recommended by which of the following?
The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client's money by an advocate, held that:
The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment?
According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for 'Plea Bargaining' must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges?
Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, between which hours must a marriage generally be solemnized?
According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall:
Regarding the offence of ‘Criminal Conspiracy’ as defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following statements is legally accurate?
What do you mean by 'onus probandi'?
In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut-off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract:
Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, what condition applies for appointing a guardian for a married female minor?
X takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety, promising to pay the bank if X defaults. After 3 months, Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y. Subsequently, X defaults on the loan. Which of the following statements correctly describes Y's liability under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is granted to an inventor in India. Which of the following correctly reflects a limitation on the patentee's rights under the law?
During an India – Country X war, India declares X an enemy. A (an Indian citizen) enters into a contract to supply medicines to B (a citizen of X) via a neutral intermediary and a bank. Which of the following is most accurate under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that “the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant’s freedom”?
A executes a document in favour of B stating, “I hereby sell my house to B for ₹ 5,00,000. If I repay the amount within 3 years, B shall retransfer the property to me; otherwise, the sale shall become absolute.” The condition is included in the same document. A fails to repay within 3 years. B claims absolute ownership. Examine the correct legal position under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India forms the primary legislative basis for the parliament enacting the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may:
In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment-debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim:
Which of the following does not fall under the framework of presumption under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Allegations have been made by the Minority Shareholders that ABC's promoters sold the optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares to a trust controlled by ABC's promoters at prices significantly below their fair market value, thereby causing a financial loss to ABC and its shareholders. What is the recourse for minority shareholders under law?
Conclusion I: The Minority Shareholders can file for class action under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, seeking directions from NCLT to either reverse the sale of optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares or to compensate the Minority Shareholders.
Conclusion II: The aggrieved members may proceed individually to protect their rights against acts of oppression or mismanagement under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Which of the following options correctly states the composition of a Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council as prescribed under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961?
In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may:
Under Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette framed by the Bar Council of India, an advocate is prohibited from appearing before any court, tribunal or authority for or against an organisation or institution of which he is a member of its:
Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, within how many months from the date of marriage must dowry received before marriage be transferred to the woman?
Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, ‘Default Bail’ or statutory bail is a right of the accused if the investigation is not completed:
Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law. Statement II: Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of the following options is correct?
According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows:
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term ‘electronic record’ includes which of the following? I. Data stored in digital form II. Image or sound stored or transmitted electronically III. Information generated in microfilm or computer-generated microfiche IV. Information recorded only on paper without electronic processing. Which of the above are correct?
Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify the authenticity of electronic evidence?
The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in cases of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation?
Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement (ingredient) to constitute the offence of 'Abduction'?
A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for ₹ 50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at ₹ 60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming ₹ 10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
Mandatory PUC Certificate is provided under which Section and Rule?
Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene?
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law. II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court. III. Withdrawal of a suit without permission of the court to institute a fresh suit bars a subsequent suit on the same cause of action. IV. The court must grant permission whenever such request is made. Which of the above statements are correct?
Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief:
Under Section 35B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a party fails to take a step required by the court on the date fixed, the court may:
Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance. The opinion rendered by the Court in such a reference is generally regarded as:
On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
According to Section 10(37), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, compensation is received by an individual on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land which had been used for agricultural purposes by him prior to acquisition. What is the correct legal position?
Which of the following is not a document as per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe?
Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a 'Terrorist Act' been formally integrated into India's general penal legislation for the first time?
Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the maximum fine that may be imposed for printing or publishing matter in contravention of provisions relating to in-camera proceeding?
According to Section 56(2)(x), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if an individual receives a sum of money, without consideration, from a person other than a relative, and the amount exceeds the prescribed limit. What is the correct legal position?
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I: If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II: If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a ‘Bailable Offence’?
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A): Income-tax is levied on the total income of a person for the previous year. Reason (R): Income earned during the previous year is assessed to tax in the immediately succeeding assessment year under the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, ‘Forfeiture of Property’ is listed as a punishment. In which specific case is this most commonly applied?
An assessee pays a medical insurance premium for himself and his family and claims a deduction while computing total income. What is the correct position under the Income Tax Act, 1961?
Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry?
“The rules of natural justice were not confined to the narrow precincts of the prevailing definition of quasi-judicial functions.” This principle was laid down in which case?
Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments: I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the following is included in the Central Government's power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded?
A, an 18-year-old adult of sound mind, executes a written instrument in favour of B stating, “I promise to pay B ₹ 75,000 on 1st April next year.” A is fully competent, has signed the note, and the instrument contains all essential elements of a promissory note. B sues A for recovery after 1st April when A defaults. Examine the correct legal position.
Which of the following is not included in “The Industrial Relations Code, 2020”?
“Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition was given by:
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is instituted against a person who is subsequently found to have been wrongly impleaded as a defendant, the court may:
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A): The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust. The dispute originated when he was terminated due to repeated absence from duty. The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an 'industry' under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and therefore the worker was not a workman, making Section 25-F inapplicable. Reason (R): The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration. In the context of the above Assertion and Reason under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which one of the following is correct?
A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, “The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert to my heirs. Further, the income from the property shall accumulate for 50 years before being used for expansion of the library.” Which of the following statements is most accurate in law?
What is the year did the mandatory pre-fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
As per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what are one-sided agreements?
Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India?
Under the scheme of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where proceedings are pending before a competent civil court, and an application is made seeking transfer of the case from one district to another district within the state, such transfer may be ordered:
Under the Constitution of India, Parliament enacts legislation to implement India's obligations under an international environmental agreement. The subject ordinarily falls within the State List and no resolution under Article 252 has been passed. The source of Parliament's competence would be:
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A): The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Reason (R): The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State. In the context of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. A dispute arises regarding jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Statement I: The arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction. Statement II: A plea that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction shall be raised not later than the submission of the statement of defence, unless the arbitral tribunal permits a later plea.
Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of 'Defamation'?
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case?
Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of ‘Theft’?
Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which situation makes the consent of a wife unnecessary for adoption?
Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public-spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with:
Ramesh's job contract with M/s XYZ bars him from joining any rival software firm in India for three years post-resignation. But after resigning within three years, he joins a competitor. XYZ company filed a suit to enforce the restrictive clause. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the legal position?
Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of:
Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, in which of the following scenarios does the “Right of Private Defence of the Body” extend to the extent of voluntarily causing death to the assailant?
Under constitutional jurisprudence in India, repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the Legislature was described by the Supreme Court as a “fraud on the Constitution” in which decision?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957: Statement I: In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II: For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public.
According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to:
AIBE 21 Topic-wise weightage
| Topics | Questions |
|---|---|
| Indian Constitutional Law | 10 |
| Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita | 8 |
| Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita | 10 |
| Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) | 10 |
| Evidence Act and Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam | 8 |
| Alternative Dispute Redressal including the Arbitration Act | 4 |
| Family Law | 8 |
| Public Interest Litigation | 4 |
| Administrative Law | 3 |
| Professional Ethics & Cases of Professional Misconduct under BCI rules | 4 |
| Company Law | 2 |
| Environment Law | 2 |
| Cyber Law | 2 |
| Labor and Industrial Law | 4 |
| Law of Tort, including the Motor Vehicle Act and the Consumer Protection Law | 5 |
| Law related to Taxation | 4 |
| Law of Contract, Specific Relief, Property Laws, Negotiable Instrument Act | 8 |
| Land Acquisition Act | 2 |
| Intellectual Property Act | 2 |
| Total | 100 |
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