TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 5 Years Question Paper is available here. Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of TGCHE conducted TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 5 Years exam on May 18 from 4 PM to 5.30 PM. TS LAWCET 2026 Question Paper consists of 120 questions for 120 marks to be attempted in 90 minutes.

  • TS LAWCET Question Paper 2026 is divided into 3 sections- General Knowledge and Mental Ability with 30 questions, Current Affairs with 30 questions, Aptitude for the Study of Law with 60 questions.
  • Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 5 Years Question Paper with Solutions

TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 5 Years Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?

  • (A) M. A. Ayyangar
  • (B) Hukam Singh
  • (C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
  • (D) G.V. Mavalankar

Question 2:

The 'hydrological cycle' is controlled by:

  • (A) Forests
  • (B) Lichens
  • (C) Epiphytes
  • (D) Grasslands

Question 3:

Which one of the following planets takes 88 Earth days to make one revolution around the Sun?

  • (A) Jupiter
  • (B) Mars
  • (C) Venus
  • (D) Mercury

Question 4:

Which of the following Seas has the highest salinity in the world?

  • (A) The Black Sea
  • (B) The Dead Sea
  • (C) The Red Sea
  • (D) The Mediterranean Sea

Question 5:

Which one of the following states holds GI tag for Kasuti Embroidery?

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Assam
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh

Question 6:

Chauri Chaura incident happened in which place in India?

  • (A) Amritsar, Punjab
  • (B) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
  • (C) Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Bombay, Maharashtra

Question 7:

Which of the following is world's largest Island?

  • (A) Greenland
  • (B) Australia
  • (C) New Guinea
  • (D) Borneo

Question 8:

Which well-known person's name is Gummadi Vittal Rao?

  • (A) Kaloji Narayana Rao
  • (B) Gaddar
  • (C) Ande Sri
  • (D) Pothana

Question 9:

When an object falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy:

  • (A) Increases
  • (B) Decreases
  • (C) Remains constant
  • (D) First increases and then decreases

Question 10:

The Booker Prize winning novel 'Inheritance of Loss' was written by:

  • (A) William Shakespeare
  • (B) Salman Rushdie
  • (C) Kiran Desai
  • (D) Ralph Ellison

Question 11:

Equinox means -

  • (A) Days are longer than nights
  • (B) Nights are longer than days
  • (C) Days and nights are equal
  • (D) Only days are longer

Question 12:

The Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?

  • (A) Telangana
  • (B) Manipur
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh

Question 13:

Which planet in the solar system is visible in the sky just before sunrise or just after sunset?

  • (A) Saturn
  • (B) Uranus
  • (C) Venus
  • (D) Earth

Question 14:

The Chairman of Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist Centre) is:

  • (A) Pushpa Kamal Dahal
  • (B) Nanda Kishor Pun
  • (C) Ashok Raj Sigdel
  • (D) Netra Bikram Chand

Question 15:

The artificial rearing of honey bees is called as:

  • (A) Silviculture
  • (B) Lociculture
  • (C) Apiculture
  • (D) Sericulture

Question 16:

The Big Bang theory for the origin of Universe was first proposed by:

  • (A) Fred Hoyle
  • (B) Edwin Hubble
  • (C) Laplace
  • (D) Georges Lemaître

Question 17:

Turpentine is obtained from which among the following?

  • (A) Deodar
  • (B) Crude Petroleum
  • (C) Pine
  • (D) Oak

Question 18:

Which one of the following hormones does NOT contain peptide chain?

  • (A) Oxytocin
  • (B) Corticotropin
  • (C) Insulin
  • (D) Cortisone

Question 19:

Who was honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2024?

  • (A) Amitabh Bachan
  • (B) Asha Parekh
  • (C) Mithun Chakraborty
  • (D) Waheeda Rehman

Question 20:

Read the given pattern carefully and tell which number will come in place of question mark (?):

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6

Question 21:

If 841=3, 633=5 and 425=7 then 217=?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 9

Question 22:

If in a certain language 'BLANCH' is coded as '36' and 'ARAB' is coded as '24'. What is the code for 'CORRECT'?

  • (A) 42
  • (B) 41
  • (C) 39
  • (D) 40

Question 23:

In the following question which of the following option is in the order of the words given in the English dictionary?

  • (A) i, iii, iv, ii, v
  • (B) i, ii, iii, iv, v
  • (C) i, v, iv, iii, ii
  • (D) i, iv, iii, ii, v

Question 24:

A tank can be filled by pipe P in 2 hours and pipe Q in 6 hours. At 10 am pipe P was opened. At what time will the tank be filled if pipe Q is opened at 11 am?

  • (A) 12:45 PM
  • (B) 5:00 PM
  • (C) 11:45 AM
  • (D) 11:50 AM

Question 25:

In an examination, a candidate scores 2 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. A candidate attempts all the 100 questions and scores 56 marks. How many questions did he answer correctly?

  • (A) 52
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 56

Question 26:

If the first day of a month is Thursday, which of the following would be the fifth day from the 16th of that month?

  • (A) Wednesday
  • (B) Thursday
  • (C) Friday
  • (D) Saturday

Question 27:

Five boys Ajay, Mohit, Nayan, Sameer and Vijay play the piano on five different days, starting on Tuesday and ending on Saturday. Nayan plays the piano immediately after Sameer. Only two persons play the piano between Ajay and Sameer. Vijay plays the piano on the day immediately before Mohit. Who plays the piano on Saturday?

  • (A) Ajay
  • (B) Sameer
  • (C) Mohit
  • (D) Nayan

Question 28:

What comes next in the following series? A, G, L, P, S, ?

  • (A) U
  • (B) W
  • (C) X
  • (D) Y

Question 29:

If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded?

  • (A) 97854
  • (B) 64521
  • (C) 53410
  • (D) 75632

Question 30:

Select the missing number from the given responses: 121, 144, 289, 324, 529, 576, ?

  • (A) 961
  • (B) 841
  • (C) 900
  • (D) 1320

Question 31:

'Purple Fair 2025' was related to which of the following communities?

  • (A) LGBTQIA+
  • (B) Persons with Disabilities
  • (C) De-notified, Nomadic, and semi-nomadic Tribes (DNTs)
  • (D) Most Vulnerable Tribal Groups

Question 32:

The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) has named __________ as the new lead sponsor of Team India in 2025.

  • (A) Air India
  • (B) Jio
  • (C) Apollo Tyres
  • (D) Hero

Question 33:

Which of the following feature films was chosen as India's official entry for the 2026 Academy Awards (Oscars) in the Best International Feature Category?

  • (A) Homebound
  • (B) The Bengal Files
  • (C) Pushpa 2
  • (D) Super boys of Malegaon

Question 34:

Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi got Global Goalkeeper Award for which of the following movement?

  • (A) Saubhagya Yojana
  • (B) Nutrition Mission
  • (C) Swachh Bharat
  • (D) Mission Indradhanush

Question 35:

In January 2026, which country's National Assembly has approved a Bill to ban children under 15 years from accessing social media platforms to protect mental health?

  • (A) Mauritius
  • (B) Russia
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) France

Question 36:

Which of the following teams emerged as Champion of the Women's Premier League 2025?

  • (A) Delhi Capitals
  • (B) Mumbai Indians
  • (C) Royal Challengers Bengaluru
  • (D) UP Warriorz

Question 37:

Who was crowned as the 72nd Miss World in the year 2025?

  • (A) Karolina Bielawska
  • (B) Krystyna Pyszkova
  • (C) Opal Suchata Chuangsri
  • (D) Harnaaz Sandhu

Question 38:

Recently the Government of India entered into an agreement for a lithium exploration and mining project with which of the following countries?

  • (A) Brazil
  • (B) Australia
  • (C) Argentina
  • (D) Chile

Question 39:

Who received the Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award 2025?

  • (A) Dr. Ritu Karidhal
  • (B) Dr. Sai Gautham Gopalakrishnan
  • (C) Dr. Mylswamy Annadurai
  • (D) Dr. Tessy Thomas

Question 40:

Which country developed the Yildirimhan Missile that was first unveiled at SAHA, 2026?

  • (A) Iran
  • (B) Israel
  • (C) Turkey
  • (D) Russia

Question 41:

Katrina Kaif has been named the new global brand ambassador for the tourism of which country?

  • (A) Mauritius
  • (B) Bali
  • (C) Seychelles
  • (D) Maldives

Question 42:

Who was appointed as Punjab National Bank's first ever female brand ambassador in December 2025?

  • (A) PV Sindhu
  • (B) Smriti Mandhana
  • (C) Harmanpreet Kaur
  • (D) Mithali Raj

Question 43:

Country with highest life expectancy in the world:

  • (A) South Korea
  • (B) Hong Kong
  • (C) Monaco
  • (D) San Marino

Question 44:

In which city was the 17th BRICS Summit held in July, 2025?

  • (A) Brasilia
  • (B) Copenhagen
  • (C) Rio de Janeiro
  • (D) Johannesburg

Question 45:

In February 2026, which one of the following countries signed an MoU with India to enhance cooperation in the postal sector?

  • (A) Vietnam
  • (B) Cambodia
  • (C) Brazil
  • (D) Congo

Question 46:

As per NCRB Report 2024, which metropolitan city tops in suicidal deaths in India?

  • (A) Bengaluru City
  • (B) Hyderabad City
  • (C) Delhi City
  • (D) Mumbai City

Question 47:

Deepika Padukone has recently been appointed by the Indian Government as:

  • (A) First Mental Health Ambassador
  • (B) First Tennis Ambassador
  • (C) Consultant to Ministry of Health
  • (D) Indian Olympic Association President

Question 48:

Tilly Norwood, who released a new music video titled "Take the Lead" in March 2026, is a:

  • (A) Chess player
  • (B) Tennis player
  • (C) AI generated actress
  • (D) Third world model

Question 49:

Which country announced its withdrawal from the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in January 2026?

  • (A) United States of America
  • (B) Denmark
  • (C) Canada
  • (D) Japan

Question 50:

In which of the following cities was the 86th All India Presiding Officers Conference (AIPOC) held in January 2026?

  • (A) Dehradun
  • (B) Bengaluru
  • (C) Lucknow
  • (D) Ahmedabad

Question 51:

Which State has become the first legislature in India to use AI-powered face recognition technology to mark MLA attendance in 2026?

  • (A) Andhra Pradesh
  • (B) West Bengal
  • (C) Mizoram
  • (D) Bihar

Question 52:

Which bank won the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) Banking Technology Award 2026 for Best Fintech & Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) Adoption?

  • (A) Canara Bank
  • (B) Karnataka Bank
  • (C) Punjab National Bank
  • (D) ICICI Bank

Question 53:

Where was 23rd Bio Asia 2026 International Summit held?

  • (A) Chennai
  • (B) Jaipur
  • (C) Prayagraj
  • (D) Hyderabad

Question 54:

The Indian Army has declared 2026 as:

  • (A) Year of Artificial Intelligence
  • (B) Year of Technology Absorption
  • (C) Year of Transformation
  • (D) Year of Networking & Data Centricity

Question 55:

India's first underwater metro rail tunnel has been constructed under which river?

  • (A) Yamuna
  • (B) Ganga
  • (C) Hooghly
  • (D) Gomti

Question 56:

Who was the first Tennis player to win 400 Grand Slam singles matches?

  • (A) Novak Djokovic
  • (B) Carlos Alcaraz
  • (C) Jannik Sinner
  • (D) Lorenzo Musetti

Question 57:

Who were the chief guests for India's 2026 Republic Day Parade?

  • (A) Ursula von der Leyen and Antonio Costa
  • (B) Emmanuel Macron and Joe Biden
  • (C) Rishi Sunak and Volodymyr Zelenskyy
  • (D) Donald Trump and Benjamin Netanyahu

Question 58:

Where were the 6th Khelo India Winter Games held from January 20 to January 26, 2026?

  • (A) Darjeeling
  • (B) Panaji
  • (C) Shimla
  • (D) Leh and Ladakh

Question 59:

India's rank in Climate Change Performance Index 2026 is:

  • (A) 7th
  • (B) 10th
  • (C) 15th
  • (D) 23rd

Question 60:

25th summer Deaflympics 2025 were held in:

  • (A) London
  • (B) Paris
  • (C) Tokyo
  • (D) Barcelona

Question 61:

In India, it is possible for certain citizens to get free legal aid from the State. This has been made majorly possible due to:

  • (A) Directive Principles of State Policy
  • (B) Human Rights
  • (C) Fundamental Duties
  • (D) Fundamental Freedom

Question 62:

Under which Article of the Constitution, the process of adopting the official language or languages of the State has been provided?

  • (A) Article 342
  • (B) Article 348
  • (C) Article 345
  • (D) Article 346

Question 63:

The largest committee of Parliament of India is:

  • (A) Public Accounts Committee
  • (B) Estimates Committee
  • (C) Committee on Public Undertakings
  • (D) Joint Parliamentary Committee

Question 64:

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

  • (A) to promote international peace and security
  • (B) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
  • (C) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  • (D) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence

Question 65:

Which provision of the Indian Constitution deals with Education for All?

  • (A) Article 41
  • (B) Article 45
  • (C) Article 43
  • (D) Article 44

Question 66:

How many members were part of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

  • (A) 8 members
  • (B) 14 members
  • (C) 9 members
  • (D) 7 members

Question 67:

Which of the following is an offence under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

  • (A) Marital Rape
  • (B) Adultery
  • (C) Child Marriage
  • (D) Stalking

Question 68:

In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that the 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be 'fair, just, and reasonable'?

  • (A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
  • (B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
  • (C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  • (D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Question 69:

When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated as:

  • (A) Affray
  • (B) Conspiracy
  • (C) Abetment
  • (D) Riot

Question 70:

By which Constitutional Amendment, Clause (4B) was added to Article 16?

  • (A) 81st Constitutional Amendment
  • (B) 85th Constitutional Amendment
  • (C) 88th Constitutional Amendment
  • (D) 92nd Constitutional Amendment

Question 71:

Watching, possessing, and failing to report child pornography is punishable under which Act?

  • (A) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  • (B) POCSO Act
  • (C) Juvenile Justice Act
  • (D) Digital personal Data Protection Act, 2023

Question 72:

The right to freedom under article 19 is subject to:

  • (A) Reasonable classification
  • (B) Reasonable restrictions
  • (C) Reasonable situations
  • (D) No restrictions

Question 73:

Digital Signatures are based on __________ key encryption.

  • (A) Private
  • (B) Public
  • (C) Shared
  • (D) Internal

Question 74:

Who said that liability in law of tort arises only when the wrong is covered by any one or the other nominated tort?

  • (A) Fraser
  • (B) Winfield
  • (C) Blackstone
  • (D) Salmond

Question 75:

The main issue in Sabarimala case is relating to women between __________ age not being allowed into the temple.

  • (A) 14-48 years
  • (B) 10-50 years
  • (C) 12-45 years
  • (D) 13-50 years

Question 76:

Right against Exploitation is mentioned under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) Article 14 to 18
  • (B) Articles 23 and 24
  • (C) Articles 25 to 28
  • (D) Articles 52 to 78

Question 77:

The list dividing powers between Centre and States are mentioned under which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) Schedule VII
  • (B) Schedule VI
  • (C) Schedule V
  • (D) Schedule IV

Question 78:

When the Court is unable to assess damages, in a symbolic manner the aggrieved party may be awarded:

  • (A) Nominal damages
  • (B) Exemplary damages
  • (C) Actual damages
  • (D) Liquidated damages

Question 79:

A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is:

  • (A) Void
  • (B) Voidable
  • (C) Illegal
  • (D) Unenforceable

Question 80:

What does 'I' stand for in IGST?

  • (A) International
  • (B) Internal
  • (C) Indian
  • (D) Integrated

Question 81:

Mens Rea is not a necessary condition for which offence?

  • (A) Kidnapping
  • (B) Murder
  • (C) Theft
  • (D) Wrongful Restraint

Question 82:

The Indian Councils Act, 1909 is otherwise known as:

  • (A) Minto Morley Reforms
  • (B) Cabinet Mission Plan
  • (C) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
  • (D) Cripps Mission Plan

Question 83:

Which one of the following correctly identifies the specific defences available in an action for defamation?

  • (A) Privilege, mistake, fair comment
  • (B) Truth, mistake, fair comment
  • (C) Privilege, truth, fair comment
  • (D) Truth, Privilege, mistake

Question 84:

Which one of the following is relatively the most important source of International Law?

  • (A) Judicial Decision
  • (B) Treaties
  • (C) Custom
  • (D) The general principles of Law

Question 85:

Which of the following is NOT an evidence under the Indian Evidence Act?

  • (A) Oral statements
  • (B) Documents
  • (C) Hearsay
  • (D) Confessions

Question 86:

Which of the following is an example of direct evidence?

  • (A) Eyewitness testimony
  • (B) Hearsay evidence
  • (C) Circumstantial evidence
  • (D) Forensic reports

Question 87:

The judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by:

  • (A) The Secretary General of the United Nations in consultation with five permanent members of the UN Security Council
  • (B) The UN Security Council only
  • (C) Both the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council
  • (D) The UN General Assembly only

Question 88:

Which of the following appointments is NOT made by the President of India?

  • (A) Chief of the Army Staff
  • (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • (C) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  • (D) Chief Justice of India

Question 89:

Whoever watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed either by the perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator will amount to:

  • (A) Stalking
  • (B) Voyeurism
  • (C) Intimidation
  • (D) Sexual harassment

Question 90:

The subjects of International Law are:

  • (A) States only
  • (B) Only International Organizations
  • (C) States, International Organizations and Individuals
  • (D) States and International Organizations only

Question 91:

A voluntarily burns a valuable security belonging to Z intending to cause wrongful loss to Z, has committed the offence of:

  • (A) Cheating
  • (B) Fraud
  • (C) Mischief
  • (D) Trespass

Question 92:

What is known as a charter of a company?

  • (A) Memorandum of Association
  • (B) By laws
  • (C) Articles of association
  • (D) Prospectus

Question 93:

Voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another is called:

  • (A) Sale
  • (B) Purchase
  • (C) Delivery
  • (D) Exchange

Question 94:

A contract is said to be induced by __________ where the relation subsisting between the parties is such that one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage.

  • (A) Fraud
  • (B) Undue influence
  • (C) Misrepresentation
  • (D) Coercion

Question 95:

What is the meaning of 'Audi Alteram Partem'?

  • (A) Listen to the alternative party
  • (B) Listen to the appeal
  • (C) Listen to the other side
  • (D) Listen to one side

Question 96:

According to which theory of punishment 'evil' should be returned by 'evil'?

  • (A) Deterrent theory
  • (B) Retributive theory
  • (C) Preventive theory
  • (D) Reformative theory

Question 97:

"I have a right to do so I please." The term 'right' in this statement refers to:

  • (A) Claim
  • (B) Power
  • (C) Liberty
  • (D) Immunity

Question 98:

Which writ can be issued against a private person also?

  • (A) Quo Warranto
  • (B) Certiorari
  • (C) Prohibition
  • (D) Habeas Corpus

Question 99:

The headquarters of World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is located in:

  • (A) Paris
  • (B) Madrid
  • (C) New York
  • (D) Geneva

Question 100:

Which of the following is NOT an essential condition for grant of Patent?

  • (A) Novelty
  • (B) Utility
  • (C) Non-obviousness
  • (D) Distinctiveness

Question 101:

Where can impeachment proceedings against the President be initiated?

  • (A) Lok Sabha only
  • (B) Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament called for that purpose
  • (C) Either House of Parliament
  • (D) Supreme Court only

Question 102:

Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) Judges declare law
  • (B) Judges make new law
  • (C) Judges declare and make law
  • (D) Judges do not make law

Question 103:

Ratio decidendi of a case is which one of the following?

  • (A) The order of the court in the case
  • (B) The final decree passed by the court
  • (C) The underlying principle or legal reasons on which the result of the case depends
  • (D) The part of the judgment which has persuasive effect

Question 104:

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  • (A) Precedent: Legislature
  • (B) Precedent: Jurist
  • (C) Precedent: Judge
  • (D) Precedent: Agreement

Question 105:

Liability in tort depends upon:

  • (A) Quantum of damages suffered
  • (B) Involvement of intention
  • (C) Infringement of legal right
  • (D) Effect on public interest

Question 106:

An incorrect example of corporation aggregate is the:

  • (A) President of India
  • (B) Reserve Bank of India
  • (C) University of Delhi
  • (D) Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad

Question 107:

A private company can be incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act 2013 with a minimum of:

  • (A) One member
  • (B) Two members
  • (C) Seven members
  • (D) Ten members

Question 108:

Which of the following is literal meaning of the word 'Smritis'?

  • (A) It enounces rule of Dharma
  • (B) Recollection
  • (C) Critical commentary and digest
  • (D) Decalogue

Question 109:

Which authority makes the rules for managing the village forests?

  • (A) The Central Government
  • (B) The State Government
  • (C) The Gram Panchayat
  • (D) The National Forest Conservation Board

Question 110:

Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) Dandi March

(b) Rowlatt Act

(c) Simon Commission

(d) Morley-Minto Reforms

  • (A) b, a, c, d
  • (B) a, d, b, c
  • (C) d, b, c, a
  • (D) b, d, c, a

Question 111:

What is the primary function of an Arbitrator?

  • (A) To act as a legal Advocate for the plaintiff.
  • (B) To serve as a neutral third party who renders a binding decision.
  • (C) To provide non-binding suggestions to the court.
  • (D) To represent the state in criminal proceedings.

Question 112:

Why is the New York Convention of 1958 considered vital to international business?

  • (A) It eliminates need for contracts for enforcing arbitral awards between nations.
  • (B) It mandates that all disputes must be settled in New York.
  • (C) It facilitates international recognition and enforcement of arbitral awards.
  • (D) It provides free legal aid to developing nations for arbitration.

Question 113:

According to the "Doctrine of Separability" if the main contract is found to be void:

  • (A) The arbitration clause remains valid and enforceable.
  • (B) The parties must move the case to a criminal court.
  • (C) The arbitration clause is automatically void as well.
  • (D) The arbitrator loses their power to charge fees.

Question 114:

The principle of "Kompetenz-Kompetenz" allows a tribunal to:

  • (A) Overrule the Supreme Court of a country.
  • (B) Force parties to settle without a hearing.
  • (C) Decide on its own jurisdiction.
  • (D) Hire its own legal counsel at the parties' expense.

Question 115:

The pro-arbitration stance of modern courts implies that:

  • (A) Courts will try to take over cases from arbitrators.
  • (B) Judges are required to act as arbitrators in their spare time.
  • (C) Litigation being replaced by arbitration entirely.
  • (D) Courts will generally respect and enforce arbitration agreements and awards.

Question 116:

How did the 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI alter the original UNCLOS III framework?

  • (A) It abolished the concept of the Exclusive Economic Zone.
  • (B) It modified the deep-sea mining regime to facilitate the participation of industrialized states.
  • (C) It transferred sovereignty of the High Seas to the United Nations.
  • (D) It prohibited all forms of fishing in the Area.

Question 117:

Which convention would be most applicable to a dispute involving a ship discharging oil into the Mediterranean Sea?

  • (A) The BBNJ Treaty
  • (B) The London Convention 1972
  • (C) The MARPOL Convention
  • (D) The 1995 UN Fish Stocks Agreement

Question 118:

A coastal state wishing to claim a continental shelf extending to 350 nautical miles must interact with which body?

  • (A) The International Seabed Authority
  • (B) The Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf
  • (C) The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea
  • (D) The International Maritime Organization

Question 119:

The "Contiguous Zone" allows a coastal state to exercise the control necessary to:

  • (A) Claim absolute sovereignty over the airspace.
  • (B) Prevent infringement of customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws.
  • (C) Extract mineral resources from the deep ocean floor.
  • (D) Prohibit innocent passage of foreign warships.

Question 120:

In the context of MGRs under the High Seas Treaty, what is a major point of legal contention?

  • (A) The right of states to build artificial islands.
  • (B) The equitable sharing of benefits derived from genetic sequences.
  • (C) The depth at which a submarine may submerge.
  • (D) The definition of a "launching state" for maritime satellites.

TS LAWCET 2026 Distribution of Questions

Section Maximum Marks Maximum Questions
Current Affairs 30 30
General Knowledge and Mental Ability 30 30
Aptitude for the Study of Law 60 60
Total 120 Marks 120 Questions

TS LAWCET 2026 Revision