The Odisha CPET 2025 Botany question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. CPET 2025 was conducted by SAMS Odisha (Higher Education Department, Government of Odisha) between May 4 and 18, 2025, and the Botany paper carried 100 questions in 80 minutes.

Odisha CPET 2025 Botany Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

Odisha CPET 2025 Botany Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The bacterial cell wall contains peptidoglycans, which are polymers of N-Acetyl Glucosamine and __________.

  • (A) N-Ethyl Gluconic acid
  • (B) N-Methyl Gluconic acid
  • (C) N-Acetyl Muramic acid
  • (D) N-Peptidyl Gluconic acid

Question 2:

Hepatitis B Virus contains __________.

  • (A) Double stranded RNA
  • (B) Single stranded RNA
  • (C) Single stranded DNA
  • (D) Partially Double stranded DNA

Question 3:

Among the followings, Endospores are more commonly formed in case of __________.

  • (A) Streptococcus
  • (B) Clostridium
  • (C) Eischerichia
  • (D) Pseudomonas

Question 4:

In the 50S ribosomal subunit, the sedimentation coefficient values of rRNA are 5S and __________.

  • (A) 16S
  • (B) 18S
  • (C) 23S
  • (D) 30S

Question 5:

Among the followings, Cap cells are more commonly seen in case of __________.

  • (A) Oedogonium
  • (B) Fucus
  • (C) Ectocarpus
  • (D) Polysiphonia

Question 6:

Nucule is the __________.

  • (A) Female sex organ in Chara
  • (B) Male sex organ in Nitella
  • (C) Sporangium in Coleochaete
  • (D) Vegetative reproductive structure in Vaucheria

Question 7:

Heterocysts do not contain __________.

  • (A) laminarin
  • (B) glycolipids
  • (C) polysaccharides
  • (D) polar granule

Question 8:

The most common structure for vegetative propagation in Lichens is __________.

  • (A) bulbils
  • (B) soredia
  • (C) cephalodia
  • (D) pycnidia

Question 9:

What is the name (either correct name or synonym) of the causal agent of citrus canker disease ?

  • (A) Xanthomonas cereus
  • (B) Xanthomonas licheniformis
  • (C) Xanthomonas megaterium
  • (D) Xanthomonas axonopodis

Question 10:

Citrinin, a mycotoxin, is produced by __________.

  • (A) Pythium
  • (B) Penicillium
  • (C) Fusarium
  • (D) Helminthosporium

Question 11:

Theorder O. Diener discovered __________.

  • (A) double stranded RNA
  • (B) nucleosomes
  • (C) viroids
  • (D) heterospory

Question 12:

Which one has no known sexual stage in its life cycle ?

  • (A) Parmelia
  • (B) Cercospora
  • (C) Neurospora
  • (D) Taphrina

Question 13:

Saprolegnia parasitica causes __________.

  • (A) White mold disease in beans
  • (B) Psittacosis in birds
  • (C) Salmon disease in fishes
  • (D) Schistosomiasis in human beings

Question 14:

As per Alexopolous and Mims (1979), Entomophthorales was placed under __________.

  • (A) Zygomycetes
  • (B) Ascomycetes
  • (C) Oomycetes
  • (D) Myxomycetes

Question 15:

Which phase in cell cycle is also known as quiescent phase ?

  • (A) S
  • (B) G1
  • (C) G2
  • (D) G0

Question 16:

Bouquet stage is a feature of __________.

  • (A) Leptotene
  • (B) Pachytene
  • (C) Diplotene
  • (D) Diakinesis

Question 17:

Millon's test detects the presence of __________.

  • (A) lipids
  • (B) amino acids
  • (C) nucleic acids
  • (D) glucuronic acids

Question 18:

Enthalpy relates to __________.

  • (A) Gay-Lussac's law
  • (B) Boyle's law
  • (C) Hess's law
  • (D) Raoult's law

Question 19:

In an enzymatic reaction, most appropriately, Km refers to __________.

  • (A) Enzyme concentration
  • (B) Product concentration
  • (C) Ratio of enzyme concentration to substrate concentration
  • (D) Substrate concentration

Question 20:

The number of Carbon atoms in Lauric acid is __________.

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 16

Question 21:

Which one contains a methyl group ?

  • (A) Glutamine
  • (B) Tryptophan
  • (C) Tyrosine
  • (D) Alanine

Question 22:

Which is not a feature of bryophytes ?

  • (A) Commonly, they grow in damp habitat
  • (B) In general, the main plant body is a sporophyte
  • (C) Vasculature is absent
  • (D) Sexual reproduction is oogamous

Question 23:

According to Bhatnagar and Moitra (1996), Glossopteridales belongs to __________.

  • (A) Progymnospermopsida
  • (B) Cycadopsida
  • (C) Coniferopsida
  • (D) Gnetopsida

Question 24:

Commonly, the antheridial cell in Selaginella divides to form a group of twelve cells, out of which __________ are primary androgonial cells.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 25:

Which one is known as spike moss ?

  • (A) Sphagnum
  • (B) Funaria
  • (C) Polytrichum
  • (D) Selaginella

Question 26:

Which one is not a period of Mesozoic era of geological time scale ?

  • (A) Cretaceous
  • (B) Permian
  • (C) Jurassic
  • (D) Triassic

Question 27:

Jackson (1953) divided meristems into three types. Which one is not one of those ?

  • (A) Ground meristem
  • (B) Procambium
  • (C) Rib meristem
  • (D) Protoderm

Question 28:

Root hairs arise from _______.

  • (A) cortex
  • (B) pericycle
  • (C) endodermis
  • (D) epiblema

Question 29:

The term "continuing meristematic residue" was introduced by _______.

  • (A) Buvate
  • (B) Popham and Chan
  • (C) Newman
  • (D) Gifford

Question 30:

Korper-Kappe theory relates to _______.

  • (A) Microbial growth
  • (B) Root apex
  • (C) Genotypic ratio
  • (D) Plant succession

Question 31:

In the cell wall of higher plants, the network of pectins consists of cross-linked _______.

  • (A) proteins
  • (B) lipoproteins
  • (C) lipids
  • (D) polysaccharides

Question 32:

Lithocysts characteristically contain _______.

  • (A) Calcium carbonate
  • (B) Sodium sulphate
  • (C) Ammonium phosphate
  • (D) Magnesium oxide

Question 33:

Amongst the followings, which one is better known for therapeutic value against asthma ?

  • (A) Ricinus
  • (B) Nerium
  • (C) Tylophora
  • (D) Datura

Question 34:

'Cellulose Sulphate Process' is used in __________ industry.

  • (A) Bakery
  • (B) Rayon
  • (C) Fermentation
  • (D) Glue

Question 35:

Co.213 is an improved variety of __________.

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Tobacco
  • (C) Groundnut
  • (D) Sugarcane

Question 36:

The place 'Kangra' is known for production of __________.

  • (A) Green tea
  • (B) Groundnut
  • (C) Jute
  • (D) Rubber

Question 37:

Which one is not one of the Vavilovian Centres of origin of crop plants ?

  • (A) Mediterranean Centre
  • (B) Arabian Centre
  • (C) China Centre
  • (D) Central Asia Centre

Question 38:

'Institute of Forest Genetics and Tree Breeding' is located at __________.

  • (A) Jorhat
  • (B) Jodhpur
  • (C) Coimbatore
  • (D) Jabalpur

Question 39:

'Central Rice Research Institute' located at Cuttack was renamed as __________ in 2015.

  • (A) ICAR-National Rice Research Institute
  • (B) CSIR-Regional Rice Research Institute
  • (C) International Rice Research Institute
  • (D) International Rice Breeding and Research Institute

Question 40:

In case of gene interaction, the phenotypic ratio 15 : 1 denotes __________.

  • (A) Additive factor
  • (B) Inhibitory factor
  • (C) Epistasis
  • (D) Duplicate factor

Question 41:

Belling's Copy-Choice Theory explains the mechanism of __________.

  • (A) linkage
  • (B) crossing over
  • (C) transformation
  • (D) inversion

Question 42:

Correns' experiment regarding Cytoplasmic inheritance in Mirabilis involved __________.

  • (A) Plastids
  • (B) Mitochondria
  • (C) Nucleus
  • (D) Golgi bodies

Question 43:

Diethyl Sulphate is better known as __________ mutagen.

  • (A) alkylating
  • (B) ionising
  • (C) deaminating
  • (D) dye

Question 44:

Aneuploidy does not include __________.

  • (A) monosomy
  • (B) disomy
  • (C) trisomy
  • (D) tetrasomy

Question 45:

Out of total 64 codons in protein synthesis, how many do not specify for amino acids ?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 46:

The targeting sequence of a polypeptide segment Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu in single letter code is __________.

  • (A) LAGE
  • (B) KAGL
  • (C) LDGE
  • (D) KDEL

Question 47:

Hardy-Weinberg Law states that the gene and genotype frequencies in a Mendelian population remain constant generation after generation if there is no __________, mutation, migration or random drift.

  • (A) selection
  • (B) succession
  • (C) variation
  • (D) deletion

Question 48:

A genetic code, in which two or more codons specify for a single amino acid, is called __________.

  • (A) commaless
  • (B) degenerate
  • (C) overlapping
  • (D) ambiguous

Question 49:

Free DNA fragments from the surrounding medium are taken up by competent bacterial cells during __________.

  • (A) transformation
  • (B) conjugation
  • (C) sex-duction
  • (D) transduction

Question 50:

The DNA that shows left-handed coiling, contains 12 base pairs per turn and has a pitch of 69 Å is known as __________ DNA.

  • (A) A form
  • (B) B form
  • (C) C form
  • (D) Z form

Question 51:

In general, the smallest RNA is __________.

  • (A) mRNA
  • (B) rRNA
  • (C) tRNA
  • (D) double-stranded RNA

Question 52:

Klenow fragment is derived from __________.

  • (A) DNA ligase
  • (B) DNA Polymerase I
  • (C) Reverse transcriptase
  • (D) DNA Polymerase III

Question 53:

Who developed techniques in early 1960s to chemically synthesize polynucleotides ?

  • (A) James Watson
  • (B) Barbara Mc Clintock
  • (C) Fredrick Sanger
  • (D) Har Gobind Khurana

Question 54:

Which one is correct about transcription ?

  • (A) 5'-OH group joins with 3'-triphosphate group
  • (B) RNA polymerase II enzyme needs no primer
  • (C) RNA chain grows in 3' → 5' direction
  • (D) Only the coding strand (sense strand) of DNA is transcribed

Question 55:

As regards transcription, the prototype enhancer discovered in the animal virus SV40 is a sequence of __________ base pairs.

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 27
  • (D) 127

Question 56:

Which one is a structural gene in tryptophan operon ?

  • (A) trp K
  • (B) trp Z
  • (C) trp Y
  • (D) trp A

Question 57:

Which one is known as ochre ?

  • (A) UAA
  • (B) UGA
  • (C) UAG
  • (D) AUG

Question 58:

Based on light duration, plants are divided into different types. Which one is not one of those ?

  • (A) Short-day plants
  • (B) Long-day plants
  • (C) Mid-day plants
  • (D) Day-neutral plants

Question 59:

Based on nature of substratum, plants are divided into different types. Which one is not one of those ?

  • (A) Oxylophytes
  • (B) Sciophytes
  • (C) Psammophytes
  • (D) Chasmophytes

Question 60:

Joseph Barrell is known for his studies on ___.

  • (A) lithosphere
  • (B) succession
  • (C) water resources
  • (D) natality

Question 61:

Which one is not a theory of community ?

  • (A) Holistic theory
  • (B) Lindemann theory
  • (C) Individualistic theory
  • (D) Neutral theory

Question 62:

A transition area between two plant communities, where they meet and integrate, is called ___.

  • (A) ecotone
  • (B) niche
  • (C) habitat
  • (D) constance

Question 63:

As per classification by Allee (1949), ___ is not mentioned as one of the biomes.

  • (A) Tundra
  • (B) Woodland
  • (C) Grassland
  • (D) Taiga

Question 64:

Which one is not mentioned as one of the phytogeographical divisions of India as per the description by D. Chatterjee (1962) ?

  • (A) Eastern Himalayas
  • (B) Gangetic plain
  • (C) South-East India
  • (D) Central India

Question 65:

What was the earlier name of family Brassicaceae?

  • (A) Scitaminae
  • (B) Graminae
  • (C) Cruciferae
  • (D) Umbelliferae

Question 66:

Which is not correct?

  • (A) According to ICN, the name of a taxonomic class should end in 'ales'
  • (B) According to ICN, every family should have a type genus
  • (C) Corymb is a type of inflorescence
  • (D) Perianth may be a part of flower in angiosperms

Question 67:

Where is Lloyd Botanic Garden situated?

  • (A) New York
  • (B) Darjeeling
  • (C) Philadelphia
  • (D) Dehradun

Question 68:

In plant taxonomy, the specimen used by the original author from a single gathering collected at one time and designated by the author as the nomenclatural type is called _____.

  • (A) holotype
  • (B) paratype
  • (C) neotype
  • (D) syntype

Question 69:

Who authored Critica Botanica?

  • (A) A. P. de Candolle
  • (B) Aristotle
  • (C) Carl Linnaeus
  • (D) N. L. Britton

Question 70:

'Nomina specifica conservanda' was for the first time introduced in the proceedings of fourteenth International Botanical Congress known as _____ code.

  • (A) Sydney
  • (B) St. Louis
  • (C) Tokyo
  • (D) Berlin

Question 71:

Which one is more commonly considered as a natural system of classification?

  • (A) Bessey's system
  • (B) Hutchinson's system
  • (C) Bentham and Hooker's system
  • (D) Engler and Prantl's system

Question 72:

From amongst the followings, which one is more commonly found in plants of Rubiaceae?

  • (A) Caryopsis
  • (B) Capsule
  • (C) Follicle
  • (D) Pome

Question 73:

Which one is not included under wall layers of anther?

  • (A) Epidermis
  • (B) Endothecium
  • (C) Pericycle
  • (D) Middle layers

Question 74:

Which one is not related to NPC system of classification?

  • (A) Tapetum
  • (B) Dizonotreme
  • (C) Catalept
  • (D) Colporate

Question 75:

Polygonum type embryo sac is categorized as _____ type.

  • (A) monosporic
  • (B) bisporic
  • (C) trisporic
  • (D) tetrasporic

Question 76:

The full-grown pollen tube shows distinct zones. Which is not one of those?

  • (A) Apical zone
  • (B) Meristematic zone
  • (C) Nuclear zone
  • (D) Vacuolation zone

Question 77:

During development of embryo in angiosperms, the apical cell of the two-celled proembryo divides longitudinally and both the apical cell and basal cell take part in further development of embryo. This type of embryo is called as _____ type.

  • (A) Solanad
  • (B) Caryophyllad
  • (C) Asterad
  • (D) Chenopodiad

Question 78:

Which one is not a type of apomixis?

  • (A) Diplospory
  • (B) Apospory
  • (C) Adventitious embryony
  • (D) Syngamy

Question 79:

Which one is not related to seed dispersal?

  • (A) Barochory
  • (B) Chicory
  • (C) Blastochory
  • (D) Herpochory

Question 80:

Peter Agre was awarded Nobel Prize in 2003 for discovery of _____.

  • (A) nucleosome
  • (B) aquaporins
  • (C) photosynthetic pigment
  • (D) ATPase

Question 81:

SGLT1 is a ________.

  • (A) Symporter
  • (B) Co-transporter
  • (C) Uniporter
  • (D) Antiporter

Question 82:

Which one is not a second messenger?

  • (A) cAMP
  • (B) mRNA
  • (C) Inositol triphosphate
  • (D) Ca++

Question 83:

Which statement is wrong regarding Photosystem I?

  • (A) Commonly, it is present in stroma of chloroplast.
  • (B) It is activated by longer wavelength (above 680nm) of light.
  • (C) Chlorophyll a to chlorophyll b ratio is less than one.
  • (D) It is necessary for both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Question 84:

Which one is the first stable product of C3 cycle soon after the uptake of CO2?

  • (A) 3-PGA
  • (B) DHAP
  • (C) 3-PGAl
  • (D) Phosphoribulose

Question 85:

In beta-oxidation, how many carbon atoms are removed from fatty acid per turn of the cycle?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 86:

Which statement is wrong regarding nitrogenase?

  • (A) Component II is known as Di Nitrogenase Reductase.
  • (B) Component I reduces N2 to NH3.
  • (C) Component II is the smaller subunit.
  • (D) Mo-Fe protein is contained in component II.

Question 87:

In aerobic respiration, ________ is the terminal electron acceptor.

  • (A) Hydrogen
  • (B) Sulfur
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) Water

Question 88:

Chemiosmotic theory attempts to explain the mechanism of ________.

  • (A) Oxidative phosphorylation
  • (B) C3 cycle
  • (C) Pentose Phosphate pathway
  • (D) Uptake of minerals

Question 89:

The DNA sequence that determines/indicates where a genetic sequence can be read and decoded, is called ____.

  • (A) GC box
  • (B) TATA box
  • (C) CAAT box
  • (D) Initiation sequence

Question 90:

The eukaryotic signal recognition particle consists of ____.

  • (A) 4 polypeptides and rRNA
  • (B) 4 polypeptides and 4.5 SL RNA
  • (C) 6 polypeptides and 7 SL RNA
  • (D) 6 polypeptides and rRNA

Question 91:

Sood and Palni (1992) used ____ in their tissue culture experiment for production of virus-free plants.

  • (A) Penisetum sp.
  • (B) Lycopersicon sp.
  • (C) Solanum sp.
  • (D) Lilium sp.

Question 92:

Which one has no protein component?

  • (A) Cytochrome c oxidase
  • (B) Ribozyme
  • (C) Superoxide dismutase
  • (D) DNA methyl transferase

Question 93:

Which one is involved in the path of electron transport in case of both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

  • (A) Plastoquinone
  • (B) Cytochrome f
  • (C) P680
  • (D) Pheophytin

Question 94:

The transamination reaction between oxaloacetate and alanine leads to formation of pyruvate and ____ acid.

  • (A) Malic
  • (B) Glutamic
  • (C) Fumaric
  • (D) Aspartic

Question 95:

Oxidation of fatty acids with a methyl group at the 3-position, such as Phytanic acid, starts with ____.

  • (A) alpha oxidation
  • (B) beta oxidation
  • (C) omega oxidation
  • (D) glyoxalate cycle

Question 96:

pBR322 is a ____.

  • (A) Genetically modified wheat variety
  • (B) Variety of cotton plant
  • (C) Plasmid vector
  • (D) A pigment

Question 97:

Papaver somniferum contains _________ having analgesic property.

  • (A) Shikonin
  • (B) Codeine
  • (C) Diosgenin
  • (D) Scopolamine

Question 98:

What is used to provide a constant flow of growth medium to keep microorganisms in a logarithmic phase of growth?

  • (A) Chemostat
  • (B) Autoclave
  • (C) Laminar flow
  • (D) Fermentor

Question 99:

Which is not a region in Ti plasmid?

  • (A) vir region
  • (B) cos region
  • (C) ori region
  • (D) tra / trb region

Question 100:

Which lichen (known as dog lichen) was used for treatment of rabies?

  • (A) Lobaria
  • (B) Ochrolochia
  • (C) Evernia
  • (D) Peltigera

Odisha CPET 2025 Botany Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

As per the official notification on pg.samsodisha.gov.in, CPET is an offline, OMR-based test held subject-wise across Odisha's state universities.

  • Total questions: 100 MCQs, all from Subject Code 04 - Botany
  • Duration: 80 minutes
  • Total marks: 100
  • Marking scheme: +1 for a correct answer, -0.25 for a wrong one
  • Question types: single-correct MCQs with four options (A-D), no negative marking on unattempted questions

High-Weightage Subjects in Odisha CPET 2025 Botany to Focus On First

Going question by question through this paper, molecular biology and cell physiology together made up close to a third of the marks.

  • Molecular biology and the genetic code: around 12 of the 100 questions, covering DNA forms (A/B/Z-DNA), transcription, the trp operon, and promoter elements like the TATA box
  • Cell physiology (photosynthesis, respiration, metabolism): about 16 questions, from the C3 cycle and photophosphorylation to beta-oxidation and the electron transport chain
  • Genetics and cytogenetics: roughly 10 questions on gene interaction ratios, aneuploidy, mutagens, and Mendelian population genetics
  • Plant taxonomy and nomenclature: about 8 questions on ICN rules, classification systems, and type specimens
  • Plant ecology: 7 questions on biomes, community theories, and India's phytogeographical zones
  • Economic botany and plant breeding: 7 questions on crop varieties, Vavilovian centres, and research institutes

Odisha CPET 2025 Botany Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: OCS by Ranjan

How to Use the Odisha CPET Botany Question Paper for Practice

Past-year analysis from CPET aggregator sites rates the Botany paper as easy to moderate overall, so speed and accuracy matter more here than getting stuck on any one question.

  • Solve all 100 questions as a timed 80-minute mock before checking the solutions PDF
  • Since -0.25 applies per wrong answer, skip a question outright if you cannot narrow it to two options
  • Redo the molecular biology and cell physiology sections separately, since together they carry close to 30 of the 100 marks
  • Cross-check every taxonomy and nomenclature answer against the ICN rules, since several questions here hinge on one-word distinctions (class vs order suffixes, for example)

Odisha CPET 2025 Botany Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How difficult was the Odisha CPET 2025 Botany paper?

Ans. CPET Botany papers, including 2025, are generally rated easy to moderate by students who have attempted past years, with straightforward single-correct MCQs rather than lengthy problem-solving questions.

Ques. How many questions were there in the Odisha CPET 2025 Botany paper, and is there negative marking?

Ans. The paper had 100 MCQs to be solved in 80 minutes, with +1 mark for every correct answer and -0.25 for every wrong one.

Ques. Which topics carry the highest weightage in Odisha CPET Botany?

Ans. In the 2025 paper, molecular biology and cell physiology (photosynthesis, respiration, metabolism) together accounted for close to 28 of the 100 questions, ahead of genetics, taxonomy, and ecology.

Ques. Where can I download the Odisha CPET 2025 Botany question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. You can download it from the table above on Collegedunia. The official paper and answer key are also released on pg.samsodisha.gov.in, the SAMS Odisha portal.

Ques. Which universities accept the Odisha CPET score for M.Sc Botany admission?

Ans. CPET scores are accepted for PG admission across Odisha's state universities, including Utkal University, Sambalpur University, Berhampur University, Fakir Mohan University, North Orissa University, Ravenshaw University, Rama Devi Women's University, and Khallikote University, along with their affiliated colleges.

Ques. When was Odisha CPET 2025 conducted and when was the result declared?

Ans. Applications ran from March 10 to 28, 2025, the exams were held between May 4 and 18, 2025, and the result was declared on June 2, 2025.