ICAI CA Final Exam 2026 Financial Reporting Question Paper for May 2 is available for download here. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) conducted CA Final Exam for Paper 1 Financial Reporting on May 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM.
- ICAI CA Final Exam 2026 Financial Reporting Question Paper is divided into two parts. Part A consists of Objective questions and Part B consists of Descriptive type questions.
- Part A has weightage of 30% for 30 marks and Part B has weightage of 70% for 70 marks.
Candidates can download ICAI CA Final Exam 2026 Financial Reporting Question Paper from the links provided below.
ICAI CA Final Exam 2026 Financial Reporting Question Paper May 2
| ICAI CA Final Exam 2026 May 2 Financial Reporting Question Paper | Download PDF | Check Solution |
Life line Limited has 10,00,000 Ordinary Shares of ₹ 1 each outstanding. The company has also issued 2,000, 10% Convertible Bonds of ₹ 100 each. Each bond is convertible into 20 Ordinary Shares on demand. For the current period, Life line Ltd. reported a Profit after Tax of ₹ 23,25,000. The applicable Income Tax rate is 25%. The average market price of the equity shares during the period was ₹ 5 per share. Based on Ind AS 33 Earnings Per Share, calculate the Diluted Earnings Per Share for the period.
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Concept:
Diluted Earnings Per Share (EPS) adjusts basic earnings and shares for the impact of dilutive potential ordinary shares.
Step 1: Identify the basic parameters given.
Basic Ordinary Shares = \(10,00,000\)
Profit after Tax = \(23,25,000\)
Step 2: Calculate potential new shares from convertible bonds.
Bonds = \(2,000\)
Conversion ratio = \(20\) shares per bond
Potential New Shares = \(2,000 \times 20 = 40,000\) shares
Step 3: Calculate the net-of-tax interest saved on conversion.
Face Value of Bonds = \(2,000 \times 100 = 2,00,000\)
Gross Interest = \(10%\) of \(2,00,000 = 20,000\)
Tax Rate = \(25%\)
Net Interest Saved = \(20,000 \times (1 - 0.25) = 15,000\)
Step 4: Determine Adjusted Earnings and Adjusted Shares.}
Adjusted Earnings = \(23,25,000 + 15,000 = 23,40,000\)
Adjusted Shares = \(10,00,000 + 40,000 = 10,40,000\)
Step 5: Calculate the Diluted EPS.
\(\)Diluted EPS = \frac{\text{Adjusted Earnings{\text{Adjusted Shares\(\) \(\)Diluted EPS = \frac{23,40,000{10,40,000\(\) \(\)Diluted EPS = 2.25\(\) Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The average market price (₹ 5) is irrelevant for convertible bonds; it is only used when calculating the dilutive effect of options or warrants. Always add the net-of-tax interest back to earnings when calculating the diluted EPS for convertible debt.
Which of the following is not an example of circumstances that might make a self-interest threat when a chartered accountant -
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Concept:
A self-interest threat occurs when a financial or other interest will inappropriately influence a professional accountant's judgment or behavior. The question asks to identify which scenario is not a threat.
Step 1:Analyze the concept of a self-interest threat.
A self-interest threat arises when an individual has a personal stake, usually financial, that conflicts with their professional duties.
Step 2: Evaluate Option (A).
Holding a direct/indirect financial interest affected by the accountant's decisions creates a clear motive to manipulate outcomes, which is a classic self-interest threat.
Step 3: Evaluate Option (C) and (D).
Being eligible for profit-related bonuses or holding deferred share options whose values are affected by the accountant's decisions directly links personal wealth to professional reporting, creating a severe self-interest threat.
Step 4: Evaluate Option (B).
Option (B) explicitly states the accountant "Does not have a motive and opportunity to manipulate... to gain financially." The absence of motive and opportunity means there is no threat present.
Step 5: Conclude the correct option.
Since the question asks for what is \textit{not an example of a self-interest threat, Option (B) is the correct answer. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Pay close attention to negative phrasing in the question stem like "not an example". Options A, C, and D all describe having a direct financial stake, making B the obvious outlier.
What will be the treatment of prepayment premium and processing fee of new loan in the financial statements of Aakash Ltd. as per Ind AS 109?
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Concept:
Under Ind AS 109, when a financial liability is extinguished (derecognized), any costs or fees incurred are recognized as part of the gain or loss on extinguishment. Transaction costs directly attributable to the issue of a new financial liability are included in the initial measurement of the liability and amortized using the Effective Interest Rate (EIR) method.
Step 1: Identify the two distinct financial events.
Aakash Ltd. is extinguishing an old loan with DXE Bank by paying a ₹ 5,00,000 prepayment charge, and originating a new loan with BXE Bank involving a 1% processing fee.
Step 2: Analyze the extinguishment of the old loan (DXE Bank).
Because the old liability is being fully extinguished and paid off, the relationship with DXE Bank is terminated.
Step 3: Determine the treatment of the prepayment premium.
Per Ind AS 109, the ₹ 5,00,000 prepayment premium paid to DXE Bank represents a cost to extinguish the liability and must be recognized immediately in the Statement of Profit and Loss as part of the gain/loss on extinguishment.
Step 4: Analyze the new loan origination (BXE Bank).
The new loan from BXE Bank is a new financial liability that will be measured at amortized cost.
Step 5: Determine the treatment of the processing fees.
The 1% processing fee paid to BXE Bank is a directly attributable transaction cost for the new loan. Under Ind AS 109, this is deducted from the fair value of the loan on initial recognition and factored into the calculation of the Effective Interest Rate (EIR). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Always separate costs related to the "death" of an old loan (expensed immediately) from the costs related to the "birth" of a new loan (capitalized and amortized via EIR).
How will the convertible preference shares be classified in the financial statements of Hawk Limited?
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Concept:
Under Ind AS 32 (Financial Instruments: Presentation), for a derivative or convertible instrument to be classified as Equity by the issuer, it must pass the "Fixed-for-Fixed" test. This means it must be settled by the issuer exchanging a fixed amount of cash/assets for a fixed number of its own equity instruments.
Step 1: Identify the instrument and the issuer's perspective.
Hawk Limited is issuing 1,000 convertible preference shares to Aakash Ltd. We must determine how Hawk Limited classifies this instrument in its own financial statements.
Step 2: Analyze the initial conversion ratio.
Initially, the shares are convertible in a 10:1 ratio (10 equity shares for each preference share). If this ratio were permanent, it might meet the fixed-for-fixed criteria.
Step 3: Identify the anti-dilution clause.
The agreement states that if Hawk Limited issues equity shares at a price lower than ₹ 10, the conversion ratio will be adjusted.
Step 4: Evaluate the impact of the variable conversion ratio.
Because the conversion ratio adjusts to ensure Aakash Ltd. maintains a 25% stake, the number of equity shares Hawk Limited will issue upon conversion is variable, not fixed.
Step 5: Conclude the classification under Ind AS 32.
Since the instrument fails the "Fixed-for-Fixed" test due to the variable conversion ratio, the entire instrument must be classified as a Financial Liability in the books of the issuer (Hawk Limited). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The moment a conversion clause dictates that a variable number of shares will be issued to maintain a percentage stake or guarantee a value, the "fixed-for-fixed" rule is broken, and equity classification is strictly prohibited under Ind AS 32.
What is the correct treatment of impairment loss?
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Concept:
As per Ind AS 36 (Impairment of Assets), if there is an indication that an asset may be impaired, the recoverable amount should be estimated. For corporate assets that do not generate independent cash flows, their carrying amount must be allocated to the respective Cash Generating Units (CGUs) on a reasonable and consistent basis before testing for impairment. Any resulting impairment loss is then apportioned pro-rata based on the carrying amounts of the assets within that CGU.
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Step 1: Identify and Allocate Corporate Assets
The Corporate Office Building has a carrying value of ₹ 40 lakhs. The carrying amounts of CGU '1' and CGU '2' are ₹ 80 lakhs and ₹ 120 lakhs, respectively. We allocate the corporate asset based on their carrying value ratio, which is 80:120 (or 2:3).
Therefore, Corporate Asset allocated to CGU '1' = \(\frac{2}{5} \times 40 = 16\) lakhs.
Corporate Asset allocated to CGU '2' = \(\frac{3}{5} \times 40 = 24\) lakhs.
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Step 2: Calculate Revised Carrying Amounts for CGUs
After allocation, the revised carrying amount for each CGU is:
Revised CGU '1' = Base Carrying Value (80) + Allocated Corporate Asset (16) = ₹ 96 lakhs.
Revised CGU '2' = Base Carrying Value (120) + Allocated Corporate Asset (24) = ₹ 144 lakhs.
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Step 3: Determine Impairment Loss for Each CGU
We compare the revised carrying amounts against the given recoverable amounts.
For CGU '1': Recoverable amount is ₹ 72 lakhs. Since the carrying amount (₹ 96 lakhs) is greater, Impairment Loss = \(96 - 72 = 24\) lakhs.
For CGU '2': Recoverable amount is ₹ 152 lakhs. Since the carrying amount (₹ 144 lakhs) is lower, there is no impairment loss for CGU '2'.
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Step 4: Apportion Impairment Loss within the Impaired CGU
The ₹ 24 lakhs impairment loss for CGU '1' must be allocated pro-rata between its core assets and the allocated corporate building. The ratio of their carrying values is 80:16 (or 5:1).
Impairment allocated to CGU '1' Assets = \(24 \times \frac{5}{6} = 20\) lakhs.
Impairment allocated to Corporate Building = \(24 \times \frac{1}{6} = 4\) lakhs.
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Step 5: Conclude and Evaluate Options
Hence, the impairment loss charged to the assets in CGU '1' is ₹ 20 lakhs, and to the Corporate Office Building is ₹ 4 lakhs. Evaluating the given choices, Option (D) perfectly reflects this calculation, rendering the other options incorrect. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Always remember the two-step allocation for corporate assets under Ind AS 36: First, push the corporate asset down to the CGUs to find total impairment. Second, push the resulting impairment back up by apportioning it pro-rata between the CGU's base assets and the corporate asset portion.
The CFO of Aakash Ltd. seeks your advice for the basis on which will the land be fair valued under Ind AS-113?
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View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 113 (Fair Value Measurement), the fair value of a non-financial asset takes into account a market participant's ability to generate economic benefits by using the asset in its highest and best use or by selling it to another market participant that would use the asset in its highest and best use.
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Step 1: Identify the Asset Classification
Aakash Ltd. possesses a vacant plot of land located in a prime area. The company has classified this property as an investment property since its future use is undetermined and it is currently only let out for parking.
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Step 2: Analyze the Core Principle of Ind AS 113
Ind AS 113 dictates that for non-financial assets, fair value is strictly determined based on the "highest and best use" from the perspective of market participants. This principle applies irrespective of the entity's actual intended use or current use of the asset.
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Step 3: Evaluate the Specific Market Conditions
The land is situated in a prime location where commercial complexes are being actively developed. Crucially, there are no legal restrictions preventing the conversion of this land into a commercial plot. Therefore, a commercial complex is physically possible, legally permissible, and financially feasible.
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Step 4: Reject Inappropriate Valuation Approaches
While the Cost Approach (A) and Income Approach (D) are valuation techniques, they are not the foundational \textit{basis or premise upon which a non-financial asset is measured. Quoted Price (B) typically applies to identical financial instruments in active markets (Level 1 inputs), not unique parcels of land.
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Step 5: Conclude on the Final Valuation Basis
Even though Aakash Ltd. currently uses the land as a parking lot, market participants would price the land based on its potential to house a commercial complex. Therefore, the basis for fair valuation must be its "Highest and Best use", making Option (C) the correct answer. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The current management's intention (like using prime land just for parking) does not limit the fair value under Ind AS 113. If the market would pay more to build a shopping mall on it, you must value it as a shopping mall.
What is the amount of Aakash Ltd.'s gain on disposal of its investment in Oil Limited?
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View Solution
Concept:
According to Ind AS 110 (Consolidated Financial Statements), when a parent company loses control of a subsidiary, it must derecognize the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary, derecognize the carrying amount of any Non-Controlling Interest (NCI), and recognize the fair value of the consideration received. Furthermore, per Ind AS 21, any cumulative exchange differences relating to that foreign operation recognized in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) must be reclassified (recycled) to the Statement of Profit and Loss.
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Step 1: Ascertain the Value of Net Assets Derecognized
The total net assets of the subsidiary, Oil Ltd., stand at ₹ 1,500 lakhs. The NCI represents the portion of these net assets not owned by Aakash Ltd., which is valued at ₹ 200 lakhs.
Therefore, Aakash Ltd.'s share of the net assets being derecognized is: \(1,500 - 200 = 1,300\) lakhs.
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Step 2: Calculate the Initial Gain Before Reclassification
Aakash Ltd. sold its entire 90% stake for a total consideration of ₹ 2,000 lakhs.
The base gain on disposal is the difference between the consideration received and the carrying amount of its share of net assets:
Base Gain = Consideration Received \(-\) Parent's Share of Net Assets
Base Gain = \(2,000 - 1,300 = 700\) lakhs.
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Step 3: Account for the Foreign Currency Translation Reserve (FCTR)
During its period of ownership, Aakash Ltd. accumulated exchange gains. The portion attributable directly to Aakash Ltd. (the parent) is a credit balance of ₹ 270 lakhs in the foreign currency translation reserve.
Upon losing control, this reserve must be reclassified from equity directly to the Statement of Profit and Loss as an additional gain.
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Step 4: Compute the Final Total Gain on Disposal
The total recognized gain is the sum of the base gain from the sale and the recycled FCTR.
Total Gain = Base Gain + Reclassified FCTR
Total Gain = \(700 + 270 = 970\) lakhs.
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Step 5: Evaluate and Match with the Given Options
Hence, the total gain to be reported by Aakash Ltd. is ₹ 970 lakhs. Evaluating the provided options, Option (B) accurately reflects this figure, confirming the other options are based on incomplete calculations (like ignoring FCTR). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In consolidation, the formula for gain/loss on loss of control is: Consideration Received + Fair Value of Retained Investment (if any) + NCI Derecognized \(-\) Net Assets Derecognized \(\pm\) Reclassification of OCI Reserves. Never forget to recycle the parent's share of FCTR!
What is the carrying value of Zest Ltd.'s investment in Sun Ltd. (associate) in its books of accounts as on 31st March, 2026?
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 28 (Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures), investments in associates are accounted for using the equity method. The investment is initially recognized at cost and subsequently adjusted for the investor's share of the associate's post-acquisition profits or losses and Other Comprehensive Income (OCI). Pre-acquisition reserves are factored into the initial purchase price and do not increase the carrying amount post-acquisition.
Step 1: Identify the initial cost of investment.
Zest Ltd. acquired a 45% stake in Sun Ltd. on 1st April, 2025, for a total consideration of ₹ 50,00,000.
Step 2: Calculate the share of post-acquisition profit.
From the date of acquisition until 31st March, 2026, Sun Ltd. earned a profit of ₹ 16,00,000.
Zest Ltd.'s share of this profit = \(45% \times 16,00,000 = ₹ 7,20,000\).
Step 3: Analyze the pre-acquisition revaluation reserve.
Sun Ltd. had revalued a property on 31st March, 2025, creating a revaluation reserve of ₹ 8,00,000. Since this event occurred strictly before the acquisition date (1st April, 2025), it forms part of the pre-acquisition net assets. Thus, it is already embedded in the initial ₹ 50,00,000 purchase price and is not added again.
Step 4: Compute the final carrying amount.
Carrying Value = Initial Cost + Share of Post-Acquisition Profit
Carrying Value = \(50,00,000 + 7,20,000 = ₹ 57,20,000\).
Step 5: Conclude the correct option.
The carrying value in the books of Zest Ltd. is ₹ 57,20,000. Therefore, Option (C) is the correct answer. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Always distinguish between pre-acquisition and post-acquisition reserves. Pre-acquisition reserves only affect the initial calculation of goodwill/capital reserve, while post-acquisition changes are added to the investment's carrying amount via the equity method.
What will be the impairment loss from investment of Zest Ltd. in associate Large Ltd. for the year ending 31st March, 2026?
View Solution
Concept:
To find the impairment loss of an associate under Ind AS 36, compare its carrying amount (adjusted for post-acquisition profits and unrealized profits on downstream transactions under Ind AS 28) against its recoverable amount. Any shortfall represents the impairment loss.
Step 1: Determine the unadjusted share of post-acquisition profit.
Initial investment on 1st April, 2025, is ₹ 65,50,000 for a 40% stake.
Large Ltd.'s retained earnings grew from ₹ 52,40,000 to ₹ 76,00,000.
Post-acquisition profit = \(76,00,000 - 52,40,000 = ₹ 23,60,000\).
Zest Ltd.'s share = \(40% \times 23,60,000 = ₹ 9,44,000\).
Step 2: Adjust for unrealized profit on downstream sale.
Zest Ltd. sold inventory to Large Ltd. for ₹ 15,00,000, which originally cost ₹ 5,00,000.
Total profit = \(15,00,000 - 5,00,000 = ₹ 10,00,000\).
Since the inventory remains unsold to third parties by 31st March, 2026, Zest Ltd. must eliminate its share of this unrealized profit: \(40% \times 10,00,000 = ₹ 4,00,000\).
Step 3: Calculate the carrying amount before impairment.
Carrying Amount = Initial Cost + Share of Profit \(-\) Unrealized Profit
Carrying Amount = \(65,50,000 + 9,44,000 - 4,00,000 = ₹ 70,94,000\).
Step 4: Ascertain the recoverable amount of the investment.
The total recoverable amount of Large Ltd.'s net assets is deemed to be ₹ 1,15,00,000.
Zest Ltd.'s 40% share of the recoverable amount = \(40% \times 1,15,00,000 = ₹ 46,00,000\).
Step 5: Calculate the final impairment loss.
Impairment Loss = Carrying Amount \(-\) Recoverable Amount
Impairment Loss = \(70,94,000 - 46,00,000 = ₹ 24,94,000\). Hence, Option (A) is correct. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In downstream sales (Investor to Associate), the investor must eliminate the unrealized profit strictly to the extent of its percentage interest in the associate. This adjustment directly reduces the carrying amount of the investment.
Determine the amount of consideration for Business Combination for acquiring Sour Ltd.
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Concept:
Under Ind AS 103 (Business Combinations), the consideration transferred in a business combination strictly includes the assets transferred, liabilities incurred, and equity interests issued to the former owners of the acquiree. It excludes payments that settle pre-existing relationships, remunerate employees for future services, or reimburse transaction costs (which must be expensed as incurred).
Step 1: Identify the gross agreed consideration.
Zest Ltd. agreed to a total comprehensive payment of ₹ 200 lakhs to acquire a 100% stake in Sour Ltd. We must deduct any components that do not qualify as purchase consideration.
Step 2: Eliminate transaction costs.
The ₹ 4 lakhs designated to reimburse the shareholders of Sour Ltd. for transaction costs is not part of the exchange for the business. Ind AS 103 mandates that acquisition-related costs be expensed immediately.
Step 3: Eliminate remuneration for future services.
Two former shareholders will be retained as general managers, receiving a quarterly salary of ₹ 40,000 each for a period of 2 years.
Total remuneration = 2 individuals \(\times\) ₹ 40,000 \(\times\) 4 quarters \(\times\) 2 years = ₹ 6,40,000 (or 6.40 lakhs). This is payment for post-combination services, not part of the business combination consideration.
Step 4: Eliminate the settlement of pre-existing relationships.
The ₹ 2,00,000 (2.00 lakhs) allocated to settle the past legal case extinguishes a pre-existing dispute between Zest Ltd. and Sour Ltd. This is accounted for separately from the business combination.
Step 5: Calculate the true business combination consideration.
Consideration = Total Payment \(-\) (Transaction Costs + Remuneration + Legal Settlement)
Consideration = \(200 - (4.00 + 6.40 + 2.00)\)
Consideration = \(200 - 12.40 = 187.60\) lakhs. Thus, Option (A) is correct. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Always strip out the "imposters" from the total purchase price. If a payment is for legal fees, past lawsuits, or future employee salaries, it belongs in the Profit and Loss statement, not in the Business Combination's consideration pool.
What amount of Cumulative Catch Up Adjustment is required to be done in Revenue of ABC Ltd.?
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View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 115 (Revenue from Contracts with Customers), a contract modification that does not add distinct goods or services is treated as part of the original contract. The entity must update the transaction price and the measure of progress, recognizing the effect of the modification as a cumulative catch-up adjustment to revenue at the date of modification.
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Step 1: Calculate the initially recognized revenue.
Original estimate: 200 hours at ₹ 300 per hour = ₹ 60,000 total expected revenue.
Hours incurred before modification: 100 hours.
Initial percentage of completion = \(\frac{100}{200} = 50%\).
Revenue already recognized = \(50% \times 60,000 = ₹ 30,000\).
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Step 2: Determine the nature of the modification.
ABC Ltd. and the customer agreed to change the software specifications, adding 50 hours at a revised rate of ₹ 200 per hour. Since the software is customized and the remaining services are not distinct from the services already provided, this modification is accounted for on a cumulative catch-up basis.
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Step 3: Calculate the revised transaction price and progress.
New estimated total hours = \(200 + 50 = 250\) hours.
New total transaction price = \((200 \times 300) + (50 \times 200) = 60,000 + 10,000 = ₹ 70,000\).
Revised percentage of completion based on hours incurred to date = \(\frac{100}{250} = 40%\).
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Step 4: Compute the cumulative revenue required.
Cumulative revenue to be recognized to date = \(40% \times 70,000 = ₹ 28,000\).
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Step 5: Determine the catch-up adjustment.
Cumulative Catch Up Adjustment = Revised Cumulative Revenue \(-\) Revenue Already Recognized
Adjustment = \(28,000 - 30,000 = ₹ (2,000)\).
Therefore, ABC Ltd. must recognize a negative adjustment (reduction in revenue) of ₹ 2,000. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: When a contract modification involves non-distinct goods/services, recalculate the completion percentage using the new total inputs and the new total price. Subtract what you have already booked to find the catch-up adjustment.
Compute the value of Fertilizer division's Goodwill at the date of classification after re-measurement.
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View Solution
Concept:
As per Ind AS 105 (Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations), a disposal group is measured at the lower of its carrying amount and its Fair Value Less Costs to Sell (FVLCTS). If the FVLCTS is lower, an impairment loss is recognized. This impairment loss must first be allocated to reduce the carrying amount of any Goodwill within the disposal group to zero before allocating to other non-current assets.
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Step 1: Determine the total carrying amount of the disposal group.
Prior to classification, the carrying amounts were:
Goodwill = 20.0m, PPE = 40.0m, Patents = 16.0m, Inventories = 30.0m, Trade Receivables = 20.0m.
Total Carrying Amount = \(20.0 + 40.0 + 16.0 + 30.0 + 20.0 = 126.0\) million.
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Step 2: Calculate the Fair Value Less Costs to Sell (FVLCTS).
The disposal group is offered for sale at an achievable price of ₹ 93 million.
Direct selling costs are estimated at ₹ 10,00,000 (which is 1.0 million).
FVLCTS = \(93.0 - 1.0 = 92.0\) million.
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Step 3: Compute the total impairment loss.
Impairment Loss = Carrying Amount \(-\) FVLCTS
Impairment Loss = \(126.0 - 92.0 = 34.0\) million.
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Step 4: Allocate the impairment loss to Goodwill.
According to the impairment allocation rules (Ind AS 36 applied via Ind AS 105), the first asset to absorb the impairment loss is Goodwill.
Total impairment to allocate = 34.0 million.
Carrying amount of Goodwill = 20.0 million.
Goodwill fully absorbs 20.0 million of the impairment loss, bringing its carrying value down to zero.
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Step 5: Conclude on Goodwill's final value.
After re-measurement at the date of classification, the value of the Fertilizer division's Goodwill is completely wiped out, rendering it Nil. Thus, Option (C) is the correct answer. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Goodwill acts as the "first line of defense" against impairment in a cash-generating unit or disposal group. Always exhaust the entire Goodwill balance before touching other long-term assets like PPE or intangibles.
Calculate the closing balance of Fertilizer division's asset - Property, Plant and Equipment at the period end.
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View Solution
Concept:
Following Ind AS 105, after fully impairing Goodwill, any remaining impairment loss in a disposal group must be allocated to the other eligible non-current assets pro-rata based on their carrying amounts. Current assets measured under other standards (like Inventories under Ind AS 2 and Receivables under Ind AS 109) are excluded from this pro-rata allocation.
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Step 1: Identify the remaining impairment loss to be allocated.
From the previous calculation, the total impairment loss for the disposal group is 34.0 million.
Impairment absorbed by Goodwill = 20.0 million.
Remaining impairment to allocate = \(34.0 - 20.0 = 14.0\) million.
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Step 2: Identify eligible assets for pro-rata allocation.
Inventories (30.0m) and Trade Receivables (20.0m) are stated at no more than their recoverable amounts per their respective Ind AS and are shielded from this general allocation.
The eligible non-current assets are Property, Plant and Equipment (PPE) and Patents.
Carrying amount of PPE = 40.0 million.
Carrying amount of Patents = 16.0 million.
Total base for allocation = \(40.0 + 16.0 = 56.0\) million.
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Step 3: Determine the allocation ratio.
The remaining 14.0 million impairment must be distributed in the ratio of the carrying amounts of PPE and Patents (40 : 16, which simplifies to 5 : 2).
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Step 4: Calculate the impairment allocated to PPE.
Impairment allocated to PPE = Remaining Impairment \(\times \left( \frac{Carrying Amount of PPE}{Total Base} \right)\)
Impairment allocated to PPE = \(14.0 \times \left( \frac{40.0}{56.0} \right)\)
Impairment allocated to PPE = \(14.0 \times \frac{5}{7} = 10.0\) million.
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Step 5: Compute the closing balance of PPE.
Closing Balance of PPE = Original Carrying Amount \(-\) Allocated Impairment
Closing Balance = \(40.0 - 10.0 = 30.0\) million.
Hence, Option (D) correctly reflects the final carrying value of the Property, Plant and Equipment. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In a disposal group, current assets like inventory and receivables are generally immune to the residual impairment allocation, as they are already marked-to-market or measured at net realizable value under their own specific standards.
How should the Inventory valuation error discovered on 30th April, 2026 in respect of the cement unit be corrected?
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Concept:
According to Ind AS 10 (Events after the Reporting Period) and Ind AS 8 (Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors), material errors discovered after the financial statements have been approved for issue cannot be adjusted in those closed statements. Instead, they are classified as prior period errors in the subsequent reporting period and must be corrected retrospectively by restating the comparative figures.
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Step 1: Determine the timeline of critical events.
Financial year-end: 31st March, 2026.
Date of approval of financials by competent authority: 15th April, 2026.
Date the error was discovered: 30th April, 2026.
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Step 2: Evaluate the applicability of Ind AS 10.
Since the error was discovered after the financial statements were officially approved for issue, the books for FY 2025-26 are closed. Consequently, no direct adjustments can be made to the 2025-26 financial statements.
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Step 3: Classify the nature of the issue under Ind AS 8.
The overvaluation of inventory by ₹ 10 Lakhs is due to a calculation error. Under Ind AS 8, a mathematical mistake or oversight constitutes a prior period error, and not a change in accounting estimate.
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Step 4: Apply the correction mechanism for prior period errors.
Ind AS 8 strictly mandates retrospective restatement for material prior period errors. The entity must correct the error in the first set of financial statements authorized for issue after its discovery (which will be FY 2026-27). This involves adjusting the opening balance of retained earnings as of 1st April, 2026, and restating the comparative figures presented for FY 2025-26.
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Step 5: Conclude the correct option.
Therefore, the error must be corrected retrospectively by adjusting opening reserves and fixing comparatives. Option (B) perfectly describes this standard procedure, whereas the other options incorrectly suggest prospective recognition (A and C) or completely ignoring the error (D). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Never attempt to adjust or reopen financial statements that have already been approved for issue. Prior period errors always trigger a retrospective restatement in the current year's books by adjusting opening retained earnings and correcting the comparative column.
Panama Pharma Ltd. is a leading company engaged in the manufacturing of 14 generic medicines. The company decided to acquire Bio Gen Research Ltd., a biotech firm specializing in viral vector technology to diversify its portfolio and enter the high-growth vaccine segment.
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To achieve this, Panama Pharma Ltd. initially acquired a 30% stake in Bio Gen Research Ltd. for ₹ 15,00,000 on 1st July, 2025. Subsequently, to gain control, Panama Pharma Ltd. acquired a further 40% stake on 1st January, 2026 for ₹ 24,00,000. On the date of acquiring control (1st January, 2026), the fair value of the previously held 30% equity interest was determined to be ₹ 17,50,000.
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Additional Information:
Vax-Shield: Bio Gen Research Ltd. has an unrecorded self-generated intangible asset valued at ₹ 8,50,000.
Inter-company Balances: Trade Receivables of Panama include ₹ 1,00,000 due from Bio Gen.
Unrealized Profit: Downstream sale of goods from Panama to Bio Gen for ₹ 2,00,000 (Cost: ₹ 1,50,000). 40% remain in inventory.
Fair Values: Bio Gen's PPE FV is ₹ 26,00,000, and Investment in Bonds FV is ₹ 11,50,000.
NCI: Fair Value of NCI on acquisition date is ₹ 16,00,000.
Required: Pass necessary journal entries for the business combination and prepare the Consolidated Balance Sheet of Panama Pharma Ltd. as at 1st January, 2026.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 103 (Business Combinations), an acquisition achieved in stages (step acquisition) requires remeasurement of previously held interest at fair value. Consolidation involves combining financial statements line-by-line, eliminating inter-company balances, and recognizing goodwill and Non-Controlling Interest (NCI).
Step 1: Calculate Net Identifiable Assets at Fair Value
Equity Share Capital = ₹ 5,00,000
Other Reserves = ₹ 24,00,000
PPE FV Adjustment = ₹ 8,00,000
Bonds FV Adjustment = ₹ 1,50,000
Intangible Asset = ₹ 8,50,000
Total Net Assets = ₹ 47,00,000
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Step 2: Calculate Goodwill
Consideration = ₹ 24,00,000
Fair Value of Previous Stake = ₹ 17,50,000
NCI = ₹ 16,00,000
Total Value = ₹ 57,50,000
Goodwill = ₹ 57,50,000 - 47,00,000 = ₹ 10,50,000
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Step 3: Adjust Inter-company Transactions
Gain on revaluation = ₹ 2,50,000
Eliminate receivables = ₹ 1,00,000
Unrealized profit = ₹ 20,000
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Step 4: Journal Entries
\begin{table[H]
\centering
\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.2
\begin{tabular{|l|c|c|
\hline
Particulars & Dr (₹) & Cr (₹)
\hline
Investment in Bio Gen Dr. & 2,50,000 &
To Gain on Revaluation & & 2,50,000
\hline
Assets Dr. & 63,50,000 &
Goodwill Dr. & 10,50,000 &
To Liabilities & & 10,00,000
To Investment in Bio Gen & & 41,50,000
To NCI & & 16,00,000
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table
Step 5: Consolidated Balance Sheet
\begin{table[H]
\centering
\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.2
\begin{tabular{|l|c|
\hline
Particulars & Amount (₹)
\hline
Total Assets & 1,62,30,000
Total Equity \& Liabilities & 1,62,30,000
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table Quick Tip: Always remeasure previously held interest in step acquisition. Unrealized profit in downstream transactions reduces parent reserves.
Power-tech Limited issued 50,000, 5-year, 6% convertible debentures on April 1, 2023, with a face value of ₹ 100 each (Total ₹ 50,00,000). The holder can convert them into 10 equity shares per debenture at maturity, or exercise a prepayment Put Option at the end of Year 3 (March 31, 2026) at a 5% premium. The market interest rate is 10%.
Required: Analyze the instrument under Ind AS 32, compute the liability and equity components, and pass journal entries for the issue and the assumed prepayment.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 32 (Financial Instruments: Presentation), a convertible debenture is a Compound Financial Instrument. It must be split into a financial liability component (the obligation to pay cash/interest) and an equity component (the conversion right) using the residual method.
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Step 1: Analyze the Nature of the Instrument
The debenture contains an unavoidable obligation to deliver cash (annual interest and the potential prepayment of principal at a premium). This forms the Financial Liability. Simultaneously, it contains an option to convert into a fixed number of equity shares (50,000 \(\times\) 10 = 5,00,000 shares), meeting the "fixed-for-fixed" criteria, which forms the Equity Component.
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Step 2: Calculate the Value of the Liability Component
Since rational investors maximize returns, the liability is valued assuming the put option is exercised at the end of Year 3 at a 5% premium.
Annual Coupon Payment = \(6% \times 50,00,000 = ₹ 3,00,000\).
Principal Repayment (Year 3) = \(50,00,000 \times 1.05 = ₹ 52,50,000\).
PV of Interest = \(3,00,000 \times 2.4869 (PV Annuity factor @ 10%) = ₹ 7,46,070\).
PV of Principal = \(52,50,000 \times 0.7513 (PV factor @ 10%) = ₹ 39,44,325\).
Total Financial Liability = \(7,46,070 + 39,44,325 = \textbf{₹ 46,90,395}\).
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Step 3: Calculate the Value of the Equity Component
Using the residual approach:
Equity Component = Total Proceeds \(-\) Financial Liability
Equity Component = \(50,00,000 - 46,90,395 = \textbf{₹ 3,09,605}\).
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Step 4: Pass Journal Entry on the Date of Issue (April 1, 2023)
\begin{table[h]
\centering
\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.2
\begin{tabular{|l|c|c|
\hline
Particulars & Debit (₹) & Credit (₹)
\hline
Bank A/c Dr. & 50,00,000 &
\hspace{0.5cm To Financial Liability (Convertible Debentures) & & 46,90,395
\hspace{0.5cm To Equity Component of Compound Instrument & & 3,09,605
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table
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Step 5: Pass Journal Entry upon Prepayment (March 31, 2026)
At the end of Year 3, because the effective interest method strictly amortizes the liability to exactly match the expected cash outflow, the carrying amount of the liability will be exactly ₹ 52,50,000. Upon payment, the liability is extinguished, and the equity component is transferred to Retained Earnings.
\begin{table[h]
\centering
\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.2
\begin{tabular{|l|c|c|
\hline
Particulars & Debit (₹) & Credit (₹)
\hline
Financial Liability A/c Dr. & 52,50,000 &
\hspace{0.5cm To Bank A/c & & 52,50,000
\hline
Equity Component of Compound Instrument A/c Dr. & 3,09,605 &
\hspace{0.5cm To Retained Earnings A/c & & 3,09,605
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In a compound instrument with a put option, the liability is discounted assuming the most unfavorable outcome for the issuer (highest present value of cash outflows). The residual naturally becomes the pure equity element.
Chill-Zone Ltd. prepares interim financial reports on a quarterly basis. As the Statutory Auditor, evaluate the proposed accounting treatments by the Accounts Manager for three independent issues in Q1 (2025-26) as per Ind AS 34.
(i) Deferring ₹ 550 Lakhs of the ₹ 800 Lakhs revenue earned in Q1 to subsequent quarters to show a consistent trend.
(ii) Calculating Q1 tax expense as ₹ 10 Lakhs by treating Q1 as a standalone period (Tax rate: 25% on first 50L, 40% above 50L; Q1 profit: 40L, Expected annual profit: 100L).
(iii) Restating Q1 and Q2 financial statements due to a revision in the warranty provision estimate from 2% to 5% in Q3.
View Solution
Concept:
Ind AS 34 (Interim Financial Reporting) mandates that an entity must apply the same accounting policies in its interim financials as in its annual financials. Revenues subject to seasonality cannot be smoothed, tax expenses must be recognized based on the weighted average annual effective tax rate, and changes in accounting estimates are accounted for prospectively without restating prior interim periods.
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Step 1: Evaluate Issue (i) - Smoothing of Revenue
Auditor's Advice: The CFO's proposal to defer revenue is incorrect.
Reasoning: According to Ind AS 34, revenues received seasonally, cyclically, or occasionally within a financial year shall not be anticipated or deferred as of an interim date if anticipation or deferral would not be appropriate at the end of the entity's financial year. Since the revenue of ₹ 800 Lakhs was earned entirely in Q1, it must be recognized in full in Q1. Artificial smoothing of earnings violates the framework.
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Step 2: Evaluate Issue (ii) - Calculation of Interim Tax Expense
Auditor's Advice: Mr. Das's calculation of ₹ 10 Lakhs treating Q1 as standalone is incorrect.
Reasoning: Ind AS 34 requires income tax expense in an interim period to be calculated by applying the estimated weighted average annual effective income tax rate to the interim pre-tax income.
Expected Annual Pre-tax Profit = ₹ 1,00,00,000 (1 Crore).
Expected Annual Tax = \((25% \times 50,00,000) + (40% \times 50,00,000) = 12,50,000 + 20,00,000 = ₹ 32,50,000\).
Annual Effective Tax Rate = \(\frac{32,50,000}{1,00,00,000} \times 100 = 32.5%\).
Correct Q1 Tax Expense = Q1 Profit (40 Lakhs) \(\times 32.5% = \textbf{₹ 13,00,000}\).
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Step 3: Evaluate Issue (iii) - Restatement for Change in Estimate
Auditor's Advice: The proposal to restate Q1 and Q2 financial statements is incorrect.
Reasoning: The revision of the warranty provision from 2% to 5% constitutes a change in an accounting estimate, not a prior period error. Under Ind AS 8 and Ind AS 34, changes in accounting estimates are accounted for prospectively. The effect of the change should be recognized in the period of change (Q3) and future periods. Past interim reports for Q1 and Q2 must not be restated. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Interim periods are generally treated as discrete reporting periods, but with a major exception for Taxes: taxes are calculated on a "year-to-date integral" approach using the estimated annual effective rate. Never smooth revenue or restate past quarters for a simple change in estimate.
Electro Drive Ltd., a manufacturer, entered into a 4-year finance lease with City Transport Corp. for an electric bus on 1st April, 2022. The bus costs ₹ 45,00,000 to manufacture and has a fair value of ₹ 60,00,000. Annual lease rental is ₹ 18,06,560 payable in arrears. The unguaranteed residual value is ₹ 4,00,000. Implicit interest rate is 10%. Legal charges incurred by lessor are ₹ 25,000.
Required: Account for the transaction in the books of the Lessor by calculating Revenue, Cost of Sales, and Selling Profit. Provide the Lease Amortization Schedule.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 116 (Leases), when a manufacturer or dealer acts as a lessor in a finance lease, it recognizes a selling profit or loss at the commencement date, in the same manner as an outright sale. Revenue is the lower of fair value and the PV of lease payments discounted at the market rate. Initial direct costs are expensed immediately as selling expenses, not added to the net investment in the lease.
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Step 1: Calculate Present Value of Lease Components
Discount rate = 10%.
PV of Lease Payments (LP): Annual Rental \(\times\) PV Annuity Factor for 4 years.
\(PV of LP = 18,06,560 \times 3.170 = ₹ 57,26,795\).
PV of Unguaranteed Residual Value (URV): URV \(\times\) PV Factor for Year 4.
\(PV of URV = 4,00,000 \times 0.683 = ₹ 2,73,200\).
Check: Total PV = \(57,26,795 + 2,73,200 = ₹ 59,99,995\) (Approximates the Fair Value of ₹ 60,00,000 due to rounding of discount factors).
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Step 2: Compute Revenue, Cost of Sales, and Selling Profit
Revenue: Lower of Fair Value (60,00,000) or PV of Lease Payments (57,26,795). Therefore, Revenue = ₹ 57,26,795.
Cost of Sales: Cost of the asset less the PV of the Unguaranteed Residual Value.
Cost of Sales = \(45,00,000 - 2,73,200 = \textbf{₹ 42,26,800}\).
Selling Profit: Revenue \(-\) Cost of Sales.
Selling Profit = \(57,26,795 - 42,26,800 = \textbf{₹ 14,99,995}\).
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Step 3: Treatment of Initial Direct Costs}
For manufacturer/dealer lessors, costs incurred in connection with obtaining a finance lease are excluded from the net investment in the lease and are recognized as an expense when the selling profit is recognized. Therefore, the ₹ 25,000 legal charges are charged to the Statement of Profit and Loss immediately.
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Step 4: Prepare Lease Amortization Schedule}
The opening Net Investment in the Lease is the Fair Value (₹ 60,00,000). Interest is applied at 10% per annum.
\begin{table[h]
\centering
\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.2
\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|c|
\hline
Year & Opening Balance (₹) & Interest @ 10% (₹) & Installment (₹) & Closing Balance (₹)
\hline
1 & 60,00,000 & 6,00,000 & (18,06,560) & 47,93,440
2 & 47,93,440 & 4,79,344 & (18,06,560) & 34,66,224
3 & 34,66,224 & 3,46,622 & (18,06,560) & 20,06,286
4 & 20,06,286 & 2,00,629 & (18,06,560) & 4,00,355*
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table
\textit{*Note: The closing balance at the end of Year 4 closely represents the Unguaranteed Residual Value of ₹ 4,00,000 (difference of ₹ 355 is due to approximation in PV factors). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: For manufacturer/dealer lessors, Revenue is NOT the fair value of the asset; it strictly excludes the PV of the unguaranteed residual value (since the lessor retains that residual risk, it hasn't been "sold" to the lessee).
PQR Ltd. has identified 4 Operating Segments (L, M, N, O) for which revenue data is given. Segment N is a new business unit and Management expects this segment to make a significant contribution to External Revenue in coming years. Identify the reportable segments under Ind-AS 108.
Total Revenues (External + Internal): Segment L = 55L, Segment M = 13L, Segment N = 19L, Segment O = 105L. Total = 192L.
External Revenues: Segment L = 52L, Segment M = 4L, Segment N = 17L, Segment O = 9L. Total = 82L.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 108 (Operating Segments), an operating segment is reportable if its reported revenue (including internal and external) is 10% or more of the combined revenue of all operating segments. Additionally, the total external revenue reported by operating segments must constitute at least 75% of the entity's total external revenue. Management can also voluntarily disclose a segment if deemed useful to users.
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Step 1: Apply the 10% Revenue Quantitative Threshold}
Total Revenue of all segments = ₹ 1,92,00,000.
10% threshold = \(10% \times 1,92,00,000 = \textbf{₹ 19,20,000}\).
Segment L: 55,00,000 \(\ge\) 19,20,000 \(\rightarrow\) Reportable.
Segment M: 13,00,000 \(<\) 19,20,000 \(\rightarrow\) Not Reportable based on size.
Segment N: 19,00,000 \(<\) 19,20,000 \(\rightarrow\) Not Reportable based on size.
Segment O: 1,05,00,000 \(\ge\) 19,20,000 \(\rightarrow\) Reportable.
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Step 2: Evaluate Management Expectations for Segment N}
Although Segment N (19,00,000) falls just short of the 10% threshold, Ind AS 108 explicitly states that an entity may report information about an operating segment that does not meet the quantitative thresholds if management believes that information about the segment would be useful to users of the financial statements. Given the explicit management expectation of future significance, Segment N should be designated as a reportable segment.
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Step 3: Apply the 75% External Revenue Test}
The standard mandates that the total external revenue of reportable segments must be at least 75% of the entity's total external revenue.
Total External Revenue = ₹ 82,00,000.
75% of Total External Revenue = \(75% \times 82,00,000 = \textbf{₹ 61,50,000}\).
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Step 4: Verify Compliance with the 75% Test}
If only Segments L and O are reported (based strictly on size):
External Revenue of L (52L) + O (9L) = ₹ 61,00,000.
Since \(61,00,000 < 61,50,000\), the 75% threshold is not met. The entity is forced to identify additional operating segments as reportable.
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Step 5: Conclude the Final Reportable Segments}
By adding Segment N as a reportable segment (justified by management expectations and required to meet the 75% test), the new total external revenue becomes:
L (52L) + O (9L) + N (17L) = ₹ 78,00,000.
Since \(78,00,000 \ge 61,50,000\), the test is now satisfied.
Therefore, the final reportable segments are Segment L, Segment O, and Segment N. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Always run the 75% external revenue "sanity check" after identifying segments based on the 10% rules. If you fail the 75% test, you must forcibly upgrade non-reportable segments into reportable ones until the threshold is crossed.
Saurabh Engineering Ltd. provides a retirement benefit facility to its employees. Using the following data, calculate for each of the three years (31/3/2024, 31/3/2025, 31/3/2026): (i) Actuarial gain/loss, (ii) Recognition and period, (iii) Liability in Balance Sheet, and (iv) Composition of amount recognized in Profit and Loss. Note: PV of obligation and FV of plan assets were both ₹ 2,000 lakhs at 1st April, 2023.
\begin{figure[htb]
\centering
\end{figure
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 19 (Employee Benefits), the "Expected return on plan assets" is a legacy concept. Ind AS 19 mandates using the Discount Rate to compute both the interest cost on the defined benefit obligation and the interest income on plan assets. The net interest is recognized in Profit and Loss (P\&L). Any difference between expected and actual figures constitutes a remeasurement (actuarial gain/loss), which must be recognized immediately in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) and is never reclassified to P\&L.
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Step 1: Calculate Actuarial Gains/Losses for Year 1 (31/3/2024)}
Obligation: Expected PV = Opening (2,000) + Interest (11% of 2,000 = 220) + Service Cost (250) \(-\) Benefits Paid (260) = 2,210.
Actual PV = 2,430. Actuarial Loss = \(2,430 - 2,210 = \textbf{220}\).
Plan Assets: Expected FV = Opening (2,000) + Interest Income (11% of 2,000 = 220) + Contributions (160) \(-\) Benefits Paid (260) = 2,120.
Actual FV = 2,294. Actuarial Gain = \(2,294 - 2,120 = \textbf{174}\).
Net Actuarial Loss = \(220 (Loss) - 174 (Gain) = \textbf{46 lakhs}\).
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Step 2: Calculate Actuarial Gains/Losses for Year 2 (31/3/2025)}
Obligation: Expected PV = Opening (2,430) + Interest (10% of 2,430 = 243) + Service Cost (280) \(-\) Benefits Paid (300) = 2,653.
Actual PV = 2,826. Actuarial Loss = \(2,826 - 2,653 = \textbf{173}\).
Plan Assets: Expected FV = Opening (2,294) + Interest Income (10% of 2,294 = 229.4) + Contributions (180) \(-\) Benefits Paid (300) = 2,403.4.
Actual FV = 2,274. Actuarial Loss = \(2,403.4 - 2,274 = \textbf{129.4}\).
Net Actuarial Loss = \(173 (Loss) + 129.4 (Loss) = \textbf{302.4 lakhs}\).
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Step 3: Calculate Actuarial Gains/Losses for Year 3 (31/3/2026)}
Obligation: Expected PV = Opening (2,826) + Interest (9% of 2,826 = 254.34) + Service Cost (310) \(-\) Benefits Paid (340) = 3,050.34.
Actual PV = 3,200. Actuarial Loss = \(3,200 - 3,050.34 = \textbf{149.66}\).
Plan Assets: Expected FV = Opening (2,274) + Interest Income (9% of 2,274 = 204.66) + Contributions (200) \(-\) Benefits Paid (340) = 2,338.66.
Actual FV = 2,400. Actuarial Gain = \(2,400 - 2338.66 = \textbf{61.34}\).
Net Actuarial Loss = \(149.66 (Loss) - 61.34 (Gain) = \textbf{88.32 lakhs}\).
\medskip
Step 4: Determine Recognition, Period, and Balance Sheet Liability}
Recognition: All actuarial gains and losses are recognized immediately as Remeasurements of the net defined benefit liability in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) in the period they occur. They are not amortized.
Balance Sheet Liability (Actual PV \(-\) Actual FV):
31/3/2024: \(2,430 - 2,294 = \textbf{136 lakhs\)
31/3/2025: \(2,826 - 2,274 = \textbf{552 lakhs}\)
31/3/2026: \(3,200 - 2,400 = \textbf{800 lakhs}\)
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Step 5: Detail the Composition of Amount Recognized in Profit \& Loss}
The P\&L charge consists of the Current Service Cost and the Net Interest on the defined benefit liability (Interest on Obligation \(-\) Interest Income on Assets):
31/3/2024: Service Cost (250) + Net Interest \((220 - 220) = \textbf{250 lakhs}\).
31/3/2025: Service Cost (280) + Net Interest \((243 - 229.4) = \textbf{293.6 lakhs}\).
31/3/2026: Service Cost (310) + Net Interest \((254.34 - 204.66) = \textbf{359.68 lakhs}\). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In Ind AS 19, ignore the "Expected return on plan assets" rate for P\&L purposes. Always use the Discount Rate to calculate the interest income on plan assets. Any variance from actual returns hits OCI directly.
How will you recognize and present the grants received from the Government in the following cases as per Ind AS 20?
(i) ₹ 40 lakh for immediate start-up without conditions.
(ii) ₹ 30 lakh for R\&D of medicine with a condition to reduce manufacturing cost over two years.
(iii) One acre of land free of cost (fair value ₹ 15 lakh, acquired value ₹ 5 lakh).
(iv) Loan at a concessional rate of interest.
(v) ₹ 20 lakh grant for purchasing machinery costing ₹ 90 lakh (useful life 10 years, SLM depreciation).
View Solution
Concept:
Ind AS 20 (Accounting for Government Grants) dictates that grants are recognized only when there is reasonable assurance the entity will comply with attached conditions and the grant will be received. Grants are recognized in Profit or Loss on a systematic basis over the periods in which the entity recognizes the related costs for which the grants are intended to compensate.
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Step 1: Evaluate Case (i) - Immediate Start-up Grant}
Since the ₹ 40 lakh grant is provided for immediate financial support or start-up with no future related costs or conditions attached, it becomes receivable as compensation for expenses or losses already incurred. Therefore, it should be recognized in the Statement of Profit and Loss immediately in the period it becomes receivable.
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Step 2: Evaluate Case (ii) - Grant with Performance Conditions}
The ₹ 30 lakh grant is conditional upon conducting R\&D to reduce manufacturing costs over a specified two-year period. Ind AS 20 states that grants related to income must be deferred. The company should recognize this grant in Profit and Loss over the two-year period in a systematic basis matching the expected R\&D expenses incurred to fulfill the condition.
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Step 3: Evaluate Case (iii) - Non-Monetary Grant (Land)}
Receiving land free of cost is a non-monetary grant. Ind AS 20 permits two options for presentation. The entity may account for both the asset and the grant at Fair Value (₹ 15 lakhs) or alternatively record them at a Nominal Value (e.g., ₹ 1). If recorded at fair value, the grant is presented as deferred income and transferred to P\&L over the life of the plant built on it, matching the depreciation expense. The government's acquired value (₹ 5 lakh) is irrelevant.
\medskip
Step 4: Evaluate Case (iv) - Concessional Interest Loan}
A loan at a concessional rate is treated under both Ind AS 109 and Ind AS 20. The loan is initially recognized at its Fair Value (the present value of future cash flows discounted at the market interest rate). The difference between the initial carrying amount (fair value) and the actual proceeds received is treated as a government grant under Ind AS 20 and amortized to P\&L to offset the higher market interest expense recognized over the loan tenure.
\medskip
Step 5: Evaluate Case (v) - Grant Related to Assets (Machinery)}
The ₹ 20 lakh grant is explicitly for a depreciable asset. Ind AS 20 gives the entity two presentation choices:
Option A (Deferred Income Approach): Present the grant as deferred income in the Balance Sheet and systematically transfer it to P\&L (₹ 2 lakhs per year) over the 10-year useful life of the machinery.
Option B (Deduction Approach): Deduct the ₹ 20 lakh grant from the ₹ 90 lakh cost of the asset. The machinery is recorded at a net carrying amount of ₹ 70 lakhs, resulting in a reduced annual depreciation charge of ₹ 7 lakhs in the P\&L. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The fundamental rule of Ind AS 20 is the "Matching Principle." Grants must hit the Profit \& Loss account in the exact same periods as the costs or depreciation they are intended to subsidize.
PQR Ltd. enters into a contract to sell a machine and spare parts (manufacturing time: 3 years). On 31st March 2026, the customer pays and takes possession of the machine. However, the customer requests PQR Ltd. to store the accepted spare parts in a separate section of PQR's warehouse due to proximity. The customer has legal title. PQR Ltd. expects to hold them for 1-3 years and cannot redirect them. Determine the revenue recognition for the performance obligations as per Ind AS 115.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 115 (Revenue from Contracts with Customers), revenue is recognized when control of the goods transfers to the customer. When a customer pays for goods but requests the entity to retain physical possession, it is a Bill-and-Hold Arrangement. Revenue can only be recognized if the customer has obtained control despite the entity retaining physical possession, requiring four strict criteria to be met.
\medskip
Step 1: Identify the Distinct Performance Obligations}
The contract clearly states that the promises to transfer the machine and the spare parts are distinct. Therefore, there are two primary performance obligations, each of which will be satisfied at a point in time. Additionally, since PQR Ltd. will store the parts for 1-3 years, custodial/storage service may be a third distinct performance obligation.
\medskip
Step 2: Evaluate Revenue Recognition for the Machine}
On 31st March 2026, the machine is completed, the customer has paid for it, and most importantly, the customer takes physical possession of it. Control has definitively transferred. Therefore, PQR Ltd. must recognize revenue for the machine at this point in time (31st March 2026).
\medskip
Step 3: Assess the Bill-and-Hold Criteria for the Spare Parts}
To recognize revenue for the undelivered spare parts, PQR Ltd. must assess the four Ind AS 115 criteria for bill-and-hold arrangements:
Substantive Reason: Met. The customer explicitly requested storage due to close proximity to its factory.
Separate Identification: Met. The parts are stored in a separate section of the warehouse and identified as belonging to the customer.
Ready for Physical Transfer: Met. The customer has inspected and accepted the parts, and they are ready for immediate shipment.
No Ability to Use or Redirect: Met. PQR Ltd. does not have the authority to use the parts or sell them to another customer.
\medskip
Step 4: Determine Revenue Recognition for the Spare Parts}
Since all four bill-and-hold criteria are successfully met, control of the spare parts has transferred to the customer despite PQR Ltd. retaining physical possession. Therefore, PQR Ltd. must recognize revenue for the sale of the spare parts on 31st March 2026.
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Step 5: Account for the Custodial Services}
Because PQR Ltd. will hold the spare parts for an extended period (1 to 3 years), the storage service provides a distinct benefit to the customer. PQR Ltd. must allocate a portion of the total transaction price to this custodial service performance obligation and recognize this allocated revenue over time as the storage service is provided over the 1-3 year period. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: In a bill-and-hold, physical possession doesn't equal control. If the product is explicitly segregated, ready to go, legally titled to the buyer, and requested to be held by the buyer, control has transferred, and the product revenue can be recognized immediately.
On 1st April, 2022, Gama Ltd. issued 1,00,000, 8% convertible debentures of face value of ₹ 100 per debenture at par. The debentures are redeemable at a premium of 10% on March 31, 2026, or these may be converted into ordinary shares at the option of the holder. The interest rate for equivalent debentures without conversion rights would have been 14%. The date of transition to Ind AS is April 1, 2024. Suggest how Gama Ltd. should account for this compound financial instrument on the date of transition? (Given PV factors at 14%: Y1=0.8772, Y2=0.7695, Y3=0.6750, Y4=0.5921)
\begin{figure[htb]
\centering
\end{figure
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 101 (First-time Adoption of Indian Accounting Standards), an entity must split a compound financial instrument into its liability and equity components retrospectively from the date of inception. The liability component is determined by discounting the future cash flows at the market rate of interest without the conversion option, and the residual becomes the equity component. The liability is then amortized to the date of transition using the effective interest method.
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Step 1: Identify the Cash Flows of the Debenture}
Total Issue Proceeds = \(1,00,000 \times 100 = \textbf{₹ 1,00,00,000}\)
Annual Interest Cash Outflow = \(8% \times 1,00,00,000 = \textbf{₹ 8,00,000}\)
Redemption Value (Principal + 10% Premium) at the end of Year 4 = \(1,00,00,000 \times 1.10 = \textbf{₹ 1,10,00,000}\)
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Step 2: Calculate Initial Liability Component (as on 1st April, 2022)}
Using the market rate of 14% to discount the cash flows over the 4-year term:
PV of Interest Payments: \(8,00,000 \times (0.8772 + 0.7695 + 0.6750 + 0.5921) = 8,00,000 \times 2.9138 = \textbf{₹ 23,31,040}\)
PV of Principal Repayment: \(1,10,00,000 \times 0.5921 = \textbf{₹ 65,13,100}\)
Total Initial Financial Liability: \(23,31,040 + 65,13,100 = \textbf{₹ 88,44,140}\)
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Step 3: Determine Initial Equity Component}
The equity component is calculated as the residual amount.
Equity Component = Total Proceeds \(-\) Initial Financial Liability
Equity Component = \(1,00,00,000 - 88,44,140 = \textbf{₹ 11,55,860}\)
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Step 4: Amortize the Liability to the Transition Date (1st April, 2024)}
The date of transition is exactly two years after the issue date. We must amortize the liability using the 14% effective interest rate for FY 2022-23 and FY 2023-24.
Year 1 (2022-23):
Opening Balance = ₹ 88,44,140
Interest Expense @ 14% = ₹ 12,38,180
Actual Interest Paid = (₹ 8,00,000)
Closing Balance = \(88,44,140 + 12,38,180 - 8,00,000 = \textbf{₹ 92,82,320}\)
Year 2 (2023-24):
Opening Balance = ₹ 92,82,320
Interest Expense @ 14% = ₹ 12,99,525
Actual Interest Paid = (₹ 8,00,000)
Closing Balance = \(92,82,320 + 12,99,525 - 8,00,000 = \textbf{₹ 97,81,845}\)
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Step 5: Conclude Accounting Treatment on Transition Date}
On the transition date (1st April, 2024), Gama Ltd. should recognize:
1. Financial Liability at the amortized cost of ₹ 97,81,845.
2. Equity Component (Other Equity) at the original residual value of ₹ 11,55,860.
3. The difference between the previous GAAP carrying amount and the Ind AS liability carrying amount should be adjusted in the Retained Earnings. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Under Ind AS 101, you must build the "time machine." Go back to the original issue date, calculate the split between debt and equity based on market rates at that time, and manually roll forward the debt using the Effective Interest Rate to arrive at the transition date balance.
List and explain the enhancing qualitative characteristics of financial information according to the Ind AS.
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Concept:
According to the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting under Ind AS, qualitative characteristics are the attributes that make financial information useful to users. While relevance and faithful representation are the fundamental characteristics, the \textit{enhancing qualitative characteristics improve the usefulness of information that is already relevant and faithfully represented.
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Step 1: Comparability
Comparability is the qualitative characteristic that enables users to identify and understand similarities in, and differences among, items.
Unlike the other characteristics, comparability does not relate to a single item; it requires at least two items. Information is highly useful if it can be compared with similar information about other entities (inter-firm comparison) and with similar information about the same entity for another period or date (intra-firm comparison). Consistency in accounting policies helps achieve comparability.
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Step 2: Verifiability
Verifiability helps assure users that information faithfully represents the economic phenomena it purports to represent.
It means that different knowledgeable and independent observers could reach consensus, although not necessarily complete agreement, that a particular depiction is a faithful representation. Verification can be direct (e.g., physically counting cash) or indirect (e.g., recalculating inventory using the same valuation methodology).
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Step 3: Timeliness
Timeliness means having information available to decision-makers in time to be capable of influencing their decisions.
Generally, the older the information is, the less useful it becomes. However, some information may continue to be timely long after the end of a reporting period because users may need to identify and assess complex long-term trends.
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Step 4: Understandability
Understandability requires classifying, characterizing, and presenting information clearly and concisely to make it comprehensible.
Some phenomena are inherently complex and cannot be made easy to understand. Excluding such information would make financial reports incomplete and potentially misleading. Financial reports are prepared for users who have a reasonable knowledge of business and economic activities and who review and analyze the information diligently.
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Step 5: Conclusion on Application
These four enhancing characteristics should be maximized to the extent possible. However, they cannot make information useful if that information is entirely irrelevant or fails to provide a faithful representation. Sometimes, one enhancing characteristic may need to be diminished to maximize another (e.g., delaying a report to ensure it is fully verifiable might reduce its timeliness). Quick Tip: Logic Tip: Remember the acronym CVTU (Comparability, Verifiability, Timeliness, Understandability). They are the "polish" on the financial statements, enhancing the core foundation of Relevance and Faithful Representation.
Define cloud computing and explain any four common applications of cloud computing.
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Concept:
Cloud Computing refers to the delivery of on-demand computing services—including servers, storage, databases, networking, software, analytics, and intelligence—over the Internet ("the cloud"). It provides rapid innovation, flexible resources, and economies of scale. Instead of owning and maintaining physical infrastructure, entities pay for cloud services on a pay-as-you-go basis.
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Step 1: Define the Architecture of Cloud Computing}
At its core, cloud computing involves hosting resources off-site in massive data centers maintained by third-party providers (like AWS, Google Cloud, or Microsoft Azure). Users access these resources seamlessly via web browsers or APIs, eliminating the heavy upfront capital expenditure (CAPEX) associated with physical hardware.
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Step 2: Application 1: Software as a Service (SaaS)}
SaaS is a method for delivering software applications over the Internet on demand and typically on a subscription basis. Cloud providers host and manage the software application and underlying infrastructure.
Example: Microsoft Office 365, Google Workspace, or cloud-based accounting systems like Xero, where users do not install software locally but access it via a web browser.
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Step 3: Application 2: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
IaaS provides fundamental IT infrastructure—servers and virtual machines (VMs), storage, networks, and operating systems—on a pay-as-you-go basis.
Example: A company renting virtual servers from Amazon Web Services (AWS) to host its backend operations, allowing it to scale up instantly during peak seasons without buying physical servers.
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Step 4: Application 3: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
PaaS supplies an on-demand environment for developing, testing, delivering, and managing software applications. It is designed to make it easier for developers to quickly create web or mobile apps without worrying about setting up or managing the underlying server infrastructure.
Example: Heroku or Google App Engine, which provide the framework for developers to deploy their code instantly.
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Step 5: Application 4: Data Storage, Backup, and Recovery
Cloud computing fundamentally transforms data protection. Data can be transferred over the internet to an off-site cloud storage system that is accessible from any location and any device.
Example: Utilizing Google Drive or Dropbox for massive corporate data storage, or automated disaster recovery services that ensure business continuity in case of local hardware failure. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The cloud computing models build on each other. IaaS is the hardware foundation, PaaS is the development platform layered on top, and SaaS is the final software product delivered to the end consumer.
Real Estate Ltd. is a construction company and decided to construct a huge office building for its use since FY 2022-23. The construction of the office building consists of five floors. It is expected that the full office building will be constructed over several years but floor I, floor II and floor III of the building will be operational as soon as they are completed. During the initial stage, the project was funded out of internal accruals. However, the company decided to avail a term loan for the project from 1st April, 2025 and load the same to the project expenses.
Following are the details of the work done on different floors of the office building up to the financial year 2025-26:
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Loan taken @ 12% in the beginning of the year = ₹ 900 lakhs.
After taking substantial period for construction, floor I, floor II and floor III have become operational at the mid of the year i.e., on 30th September, 2025. The project was continuing for the rest of the floors. Find out the total amount to be capitalized and to be expensed during the financial year 2025-26.
View Solution
Concept:
As per Ind AS 23 (Borrowing Costs), borrowing costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition, construction, or production of a qualifying asset form part of the cost of that asset. Capitalization must cease when substantially all activities necessary to prepare the qualifying asset for its intended use are complete. When a project is completed in parts (e.g., floor by floor) and each part is capable of being used while construction continues on other parts, capitalization of borrowing costs for that specific part must cease when it is ready for use.
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Step 1: Determine the Total Borrowing Costs}
Total Specific Loan Taken = ₹ 900 lakhs.
Interest Rate = 12% per annum.
Total Interest for FY 2025-26 = \(900 \times 12% = \textbf{₹ 108 lakhs}\).
Since this is a specific loan for the building project, this entire interest pool will be allocated across the floors based on their direct costs to determine capitalization.
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Step 2: Allocate Interest to Individual Floors}
Allocate the total interest of ₹ 108 lakhs across the five floors based on their proportion of the total direct expenditure (₹ 884 lakhs).
Floor I: \(108 \times \left( \frac{148}{884} \right) = \textbf{18.08 lakhs}\)
Floor II: \(108 \times \left( \frac{110}{884} \right) = \textbf{13.44 lakhs}\)
Floor III: \(108 \times \left( \frac{134}{884} \right) = \textbf{16.37 lakhs}\)
Floor IV: \(108 \times \left( \frac{220}{884} \right) = \textbf{26.88 lakhs}\)
Floor V: \(108 \times \left( \frac{272}{884} \right) = \textbf{33.23 lakhs}\)
Check: \(18.08 + 13.44 + 16.37 + 26.88 + 33.23 = 108\) lakhs.
Step 3: Determine the Capitalization Period for Each Floor
Floors I, II, and III became operational on 30th September 2025. Therefore, their construction was completed mid-year (exactly 6 months into the financial year starting 1st April).
Capitalization period for Floors I, II, III = 6 months.
Remaining 6 months of interest for Floors I, II, III must be expensed to the Statement of Profit and Loss.
Construction on Floors IV and V continued throughout the year. Capitalization period = 12 months.
Step 4: Calculate the Interest to be Capitalized and Expensed
Floor I: Capitalized = \(18.08 \times \frac{6}{12} = 9.04\) | Expensed = \(18.08 \times \frac{6}{12} = 9.04\)
Floor II: Capitalized = \(13.44 \times \frac{6}{12} = 6.72\) | Expensed = \(13.44 \times \frac{6}{12} = 6.72\)
Floor III: Capitalized = \(16.37 \times \frac{6}{12} = 8.19\) | Expensed = \(16.37 \times \frac{6}{12} = 8.19\)
Floor IV: Capitalized = \(26.88 \times \frac{12}{12} = 26.88\) | Expensed = Nil
Floor V: Capitalized = \(33.23 \times \frac{12}{12} = 33.23\) | Expensed = Nil
Total Interest Capitalized = \(9.04 + 6.72 + 8.19 + 26.88 + 33.23 = \textbf{₹ 84.06 lakhs}\).
Total Interest Expensed = \(9.04 + 6.72 + 8.19 = \textbf{₹ 23.95 lakhs}\).
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Step 5: Conclude Total Capitalized and Expensed Amounts
Total Amount Capitalized = Direct Construction Costs + Capitalized Interest
Total Amount Capitalized = \(884.00 + 84.06 = \textbf{₹ 968.06 lakhs}\).
Total Amount Expensed to Profit and Loss = ₹ 23.95 lakhs. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: When a multi-part project allows components to be completed and used independently (like floors of a building or phases of a business park), Ind AS 23 strictly requires stopping the capitalization of interest for that specific component the moment it is ready, even if the rest of the project is ongoing.
An asset is sold in two different active markets at different prices. An entity enters into transactions in both markets and can access the price in those markets for the asset at the measurement date.
In Market C: The price that would be received is ₹ 88, transaction costs in the market are ₹ 9 and the cost of transport of the asset are ₹ 6.
In Market D: The price that would be received is ₹ 85, transaction costs in that market are ₹ 3 and the costs of transport of the asset are ₹ 6.
Calculate: (i) The fair value of the asset, if market C is the principal market, and (ii) The fair value of the asset, if none of the markets is principal market.
View Solution
Concept:
Under Ind AS 113 (Fair Value Measurement), fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset in an orderly transaction in the principal market (or, in its absence, the most advantageous market).
Transaction costs are NOT deducted when determining the fair value itself, as they are a characteristic of the transaction, not the asset. However, they are used to identify the most advantageous market.
Transport costs ARE deducted from the fair value calculation because location is a characteristic of the asset (it costs money to move the asset to the market).
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Step 1: Evaluate Scenario (i) - Market C is the Principal Market
If an entity has identified a principal market, the fair value must strictly be based on the price in that market, regardless of whether a more profitable market exists.
Market Price in C = ₹ 88
Less: Transport Cost to C = (₹ 6)
Fair Value in Principal Market C = ₹ 82
Note: The transaction cost of ₹ 9 is ignored in the final fair value measurement.
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Step 2: Evaluate Scenario (ii) - No Principal Market Exists
If there is no principal market, the entity must use the most advantageous market. This is the market that maximizes the net amount received after deducting both transaction and transport costs.
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Step 3: Identify the Most Advantageous Market
Calculate the net realization for the entity in both markets:
Net Realization in Market C: Price (88) \(-\) Transaction Cost (9) \(-\) Transport Cost (6) = ₹ 73
Net Realization in Market D: Price (85) \(-\) Transaction Cost (3) \(-\) Transport Cost (6) = ₹ 76
Since Market D provides a higher net realization (₹ 76 vs ₹ 73), Market D is the most advantageous market.
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Step 4: Calculate Fair Value based on the Most Advantageous Market}
Once Market D is identified as the reference market, we calculate the fair value by taking the market price and deducting only the transport costs (ignoring transaction costs).
Market Price in D = ₹ 85
Less: Transport Cost to D = (₹ 6)
Fair Value in Most Advantageous Market D = ₹ 79
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Step 5: Final Conclusion}
(i) Fair Value if Market C is the principal market = ₹ 82.
(ii) Fair Value if there is no principal market = ₹ 79. Quick Tip: Logic Tip: The Golden Rule of Ind AS 113 Market Selection: Use transaction costs to find the best market (Most Advantageous), but completely ignore them when calculating the final Fair Value. Transport costs, however, are deducted in both steps!








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