Bihar BEd CET 2021 Question Paper (Available) :Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

Bihar BEd CET 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. The exam was conducted by Lalit Narayan Mithila University (LNMU) on August 11, 2021. The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions.

Bihar BEd CET 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Bihar BEd 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution

Bihar BEd CET 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

In self-directed learning, an individual:

  • (A) takes initiative with or without the help of others
  • (B) is passive and waits for directions
  • (C) is helpless and dependent
  • (D) takes initiative, without an objective
Correct Answer: (A) takes initiative with or without the help of others
View Solution



In self-directed learning, individuals take the initiative in their learning process, regardless of whether they are assisted by others. The process involves identifying learning needs, setting goals, seeking resources, and evaluating outcomes. Thus, the correct answer is "takes initiative with or without the help of others".
Quick Tip: Self-directed learning is a vital skill, particularly in today's education system, where learners are increasingly expected to take responsibility for their own learning.


Question 2:

There is a need for self-directed learning because:

  • (A) it is more effective method
  • (B) it is a modern method of learning
  • (C) it is a passive process
  • (D) it is a mandatory requirement
Correct Answer: (A) it is more effective method
View Solution



Self-directed learning is often considered more effective because it allows individuals to take control of their learning process, thereby making it more personalized and efficient. This approach fosters greater responsibility and engagement, leading to better learning outcomes.
Quick Tip: Self-directed learning improves critical thinking and problem-solving skills, as it requires active engagement from the learner.


Question 3:

Which word best describes self-directed learning?

  • (A) Active learning
  • (B) Passive learning
  • (C) Compulsory learning
  • (D) Repulsive learning
Correct Answer: (A) Active learning
View Solution



Self-directed learning involves active participation by the learner. This form of learning requires individuals to take responsibility for setting their goals, choosing their methods, and evaluating their progress. Therefore, it is best described as "active learning".
Quick Tip: Active learning engages the learner, leading to better retention and understanding of the material.


Question 4:

The modern environment according to the author is:

  • (A) restrictive
  • (B) instructive
  • (C) less developed
  • (D) impracticable
Correct Answer: (C) less developed
View Solution



According to the author, the modern environment is not fully developed in terms of supporting self-directed learning. The correct description is "less developed" as it suggests there is room for improvement in the current state of the environment to support this learning style.
Quick Tip: Modern environments require more facilitative structures for self-directed learning to thrive.


Question 5:

The synonym of the word "diagnosing" is:

  • (A) searching
  • (B) examining
  • (C) identifying
  • (D) complying
Correct Answer: (B) examining
View Solution



"Diagnosing" refers to the process of examining something, particularly in the context of identifying problems or conditions. It closely aligns with the meaning of "examining" in this case. Therefore, the correct synonym is "examining".
Quick Tip: When finding synonyms, focus on words with similar contexts in specific subject areas like medicine or problem-solving.


Question 6:

A strong dislike:

  • (A) Reciprocity
  • (B) Aversion
  • (C) Admiration
  • (D) Vices
Correct Answer: (B) Aversion
View Solution



A strong dislike is commonly referred to as "aversion," which means a strong feeling of dislike or repugnance. The other options do not correctly describe a strong dislike.
Quick Tip: When looking for synonyms, consider both the emotional context and the intensity of the feeling expressed by the word.


Question 7:

A place where birds are kept:

  • (A) Aviary
  • (B) House
  • (C) Aquarium
  • (D) Apiary
Correct Answer: (A) Aviary
View Solution



An aviary is a large enclosure for confining birds, typically larger than a birdcage. The other options refer to places for different types of animals or insects. Therefore, the correct answer is "Aviary".
Quick Tip: When trying to identify places related to specific animals, remember that terms like "aviary" are often specific to birds.


Question 8:

Loss of memory:

  • (A) Ambrosia
  • (B) Amnesia
  • (C) Insomnia
  • (D) Forgetting
Correct Answer: (B) Amnesia
View Solution



"Amnesia" refers to the condition of memory loss, either partial or complete. The other options do not specifically relate to memory loss. "Ambrosia" refers to the food of the gods in Greek mythology, "insomnia" refers to sleep issues, and "forgetting" is the action but not the condition.
Quick Tip: When studying medical terms, focus on the prefixes and suffixes to identify meanings. "A" often denotes a condition, as in "amnesia".


Question 9:

A study of sounds:

  • (A) Semantics
  • (B) Stylistics
  • (C) Linguistics
  • (D) Phonetics
Correct Answer: (D) Phonetics
View Solution



Phonetics is the study of sounds in human speech, including their production, transmission, and perception. The other options focus on different aspects of language or its structure.
Quick Tip: Phonetics is the foundation of linguistics, which covers the structure, meaning, and use of language.


Question 10:

In order to maintain good health, we should eat a .......... diet:

  • (A) rich
  • (B) strict
  • (C) balanced
  • (D) sad
Correct Answer: (C) balanced
View Solution



A "balanced" diet is one that includes a variety of foods in the right proportions to maintain good health. The other options do not represent an ideal or healthy dietary choice.
Quick Tip: For optimal health, aim for a balanced diet that includes a variety of food types such as proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals.


Question 11:

The Police .......... the mob:

  • (A) scattered
  • (B) disbanded
  • (C) drove
  • (D) dispersed
Correct Answer: (D) dispersed
View Solution



The verb "dispersed" means to scatter or spread something over a wide area. In this context, it means the police caused the mob to scatter or break up. "Scattered" could also be a possible choice, but "dispersed" is more commonly used in this context.
Quick Tip: When describing groups breaking up, "dispersed" is often used to indicate the spreading out of people or objects.


Question 12:

The suspect was located in a ..........:

  • (A) crew
  • (B) gang
  • (C) fleet
  • (D) block
Correct Answer: (B) gang
View Solution



A "gang" typically refers to a group of people, often involved in illegal or suspicious activity, and is the most appropriate term for locating a suspect. The other options do not fit as well in this context.
Quick Tip: The term "gang" is commonly associated with a group of individuals engaged in unlawful activities.


Question 13:

The visit of the P.M. has been advanced .............. two days:

  • (A) for
  • (B) by
  • (C) to
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) by
View Solution



The phrase "advanced by two days" indicates that the visit of the P.M. has been moved forward in time by this amount. "By" is the correct preposition in this context.
Quick Tip: In time-related phrases, "by" often indicates a change or movement in time.


Question 14:

Normally he stays ........... these days:

  • (A) up
  • (B) out
  • (C) on
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D) None of the above
View Solution



The sentence "Normally he stays ..... these days" does not fit with the provided options. The correct structure would be "Normally he stays at home these days" or "Normally he stays in these days," so "None of the above" is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: When in doubt, check if the phrase sounds natural. If not, "None of the above" could be the answer.


Question 15:

The history of Hindu religion dates ........ ancient times:

  • (A) from
  • (B) since
  • (C) for
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) from
View Solution



The phrase "dates from ancient times" is the correct usage. "From" is the correct preposition to indicate the starting point in time.
Quick Tip: When referring to the starting point of an event or period, use "from" to indicate the origin of time.


Question 16:

How many male members are there in the family?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 3
View Solution



To determine how many male members are in the family, we need to carefully analyze the family structure and identify the male members. Based on the provided context, the correct answer is "3".
Quick Tip: When analyzing family-related questions, carefully consider the relationships and genders of the individuals mentioned.


Question 17:

Who is the mother of B?

  • (A) D
  • (B) F
  • (C) E
  • (D) F
Correct Answer: (B) F
View Solution



From the provided family relationships, the correct answer is "F" who is the mother of B.
Quick Tip: When figuring out relationships in a family tree, follow the direct references to family members carefully.


Question 18:

How many children does A have?

  • (A) One
  • (B) Two
  • (C) Three
  • (D) Four
Correct Answer: (B) Two
View Solution



Based on the given family structure, A has two children, making the correct answer "Two".
Quick Tip: In family-related questions, pay attention to the number of offspring and family structure for accurate answers.


Question 19:

Who is the wife of E?

  • (A) A
  • (B) F
  • (C) B
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) F
View Solution



From the family structure, F is identified as the wife of E. The other options do not match the family relationships.
Quick Tip: In family-related questions, track relationships carefully to identify the correct answers.


Question 20:

Which of the following is a pair of females?

  • (A) AE
  • (B) BD
  • (C) DF
  • (D) AD
Correct Answer: (C) DF
View Solution



The correct answer is "DF," as both D and F are females in the family structure. The other pairs include at least one male member.
Quick Tip: When identifying pairs, focus on the gender of the individuals involved in the relationship.


Question 21:

Children should avoid smoking because:

  • (A) it is a bad habit
  • (B) elders advise them not to do so
  • (C) it is an unnecessary expenditure
  • (D) it is injurious to health
Correct Answer: (D) it is injurious to health
View Solution



The most compelling reason for children to avoid smoking is that it is injurious to health. Smoking can lead to serious health problems like lung disease, cancer, and heart disease. Therefore, "it is injurious to health" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Focus on the long-term effects of smoking when considering why it should be avoided.


Question 22:

Ice floats on water because:

  • (A) it is transparent
  • (B) it is spongy
  • (C) its weight is less than the weight of water of equal volume
  • (D) it is a substance which melts quickly
Correct Answer: (C) its weight is less than the weight of water of equal volume
View Solution



Ice floats on water because its density is less than that of water. This means that the weight of an equal volume of ice is less than the weight of an equal volume of water. This is why ice floats.
Quick Tip: Objects float when their density is lower than the fluid they are in.


Question 23:

People use rubber soles in their shoes because:

  • (A) They are fashionable
  • (B) Rubber is more porous than leather
  • (C) They produce less sound
  • (D) They are durable
Correct Answer: (D) They are durable
View Solution



Rubber soles are commonly used in shoes because they are durable, providing long-lasting wear and comfort. Additionally, rubber is resistant to wear and tear, which makes it ideal for shoes.
Quick Tip: When selecting footwear, durability is an important factor to consider for long-term use.


Question 24:

A deaf is "always dumb" because:

  • (A) he is born so
  • (B) ear is internally connected to throat
  • (C) deaf and dumb are synonyms
  • (D) speaking is learned by hearing from others
Correct Answer: (D) speaking is learned by hearing from others
View Solution



A deaf person is often unable to speak clearly because speaking is typically learned by hearing the sounds and speech patterns of others. The absence of hearing inhibits the ability to learn to speak effectively.
Quick Tip: Speech and language development often rely on auditory feedback, making hearing an essential part of verbal communication.


Question 25:

Platinum is more costly than gold because it is:

  • (A) heavier
  • (B) whiter
  • (C) rarely found
  • (D) harder
Correct Answer: (C) rarely found
View Solution



Platinum is more costly than gold primarily because it is much rarer in nature. Although platinum is also denser and harder, its rarity contributes most significantly to its higher cost.
Quick Tip: The rarity of a metal plays a major role in its value.


Question 26:

What comes next in the series: 1, 3, 6, 9, ...?

  • (A) 11
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (D) 12
View Solution



The series increases by 3 with each successive number. The next number in the series after 9 is 12. Thus, the correct answer is "12".
Quick Tip: To solve number series questions, look for the common difference or pattern between the terms.


Question 27:

What comes next in the series: 3, 6, 8, 16, 19, ...?

  • (A) 21
  • (B) 38
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 36
Correct Answer: (B) 38
View Solution



In this series, the first term is multiplied by 2 (3 * 2 = 6), then 2 is added (6 + 2 = 8), then it is multiplied by 2 (8 * 2 = 16), and then 3 is added (16 + 3 = 19). Continuing this pattern, 19 is multiplied by 2 (19 * 2 = 38). Thus, the next term is "38".
Quick Tip: Observe the alternating pattern of multiplication and addition to solve such series.


Question 28:

1, 5, 13, 29, 61, ...

  • (A) 90
  • (B) 103
  • (C) 109
  • (D) 125
Correct Answer: (B) 103
View Solution



The pattern in the series is increasing by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding 1:

1 * 2 + 3 = 5

5 * 2 + 3 = 13

13 * 2 + 3 = 29

29 * 2 + 3 = 61

61 * 2 + 3 = 103.

Thus, the next number in the series is "103".
Quick Tip: When solving series problems, try identifying any arithmetic patterns (multiplication or addition) between terms.


Question 29:

3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ...

  • (A) 63
  • (B) 73
  • (C) 83
  • (D) 93
Correct Answer: (C) 83
View Solution



The pattern in this series involves adding successive odd numbers:

3 + 8 = 11

11 + 12 = 23

23 + 16 = 39

39 + 20 = 59

59 + 24 = 83.

Thus, the next number in the series is "83".
Quick Tip: Look for arithmetic patterns in differences between terms, such as adding consecutive even or odd numbers.


Question 30:

4, 16, 36, 64, ...

  • (A) 300
  • (B) 200
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 150
Correct Answer: (C) 100
View Solution



The pattern in the series involves the squares of the numbers:

2^2 = 4

4^2 = 16

6^2 = 36

8^2 = 64

The next number should be 10^2 = 100. Thus, the correct answer is "100".
Quick Tip: Look for patterns involving squares, cubes, or other common mathematical operations when solving number series.


Question 31:

Statements:

I. All boys are beautiful.

II. All beautiful are lovely.


Conclusions:

  • (A) All boys are lovely.
  • (B) Some boys are lovely.
  • (C) Some lovely are boys.
  • (D) All beautiful are not lovely.
Correct Answer: (A) All boys are lovely.
View Solution



From the statements:
- "All boys are beautiful" means all boys are included in the group of beautiful individuals.

- "All beautiful are lovely" means everyone in the group of beautiful individuals is also lovely.

Therefore, it follows that all boys are lovely. Hence, the correct conclusion is "All boys are lovely."
Quick Tip: When solving logical reasoning problems, always try to connect the given statements and conclusions logically.


Question 32:

Statements:

I. Manish is a player.


Conclusions:

  • (A) Manish is tall.
  • (B) All tall men are players.
  • (C) Tall men are not players.
  • (D) Manish is not tall.
Correct Answer: (D) Manish is not tall.
View Solution



The statement that "Manish is a player" does not give information about his height. Therefore, we cannot conclude that Manish is tall from the given statement. "Manish is not tall" is the only option that is logically valid because there is no direct statement indicating his height.
Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, make sure conclusions only derive directly from the given statements without adding assumptions.


Question 33:

Statements:

I. Some people are wise.

II. Some people are rich.


Conclusions:

  • (A) All the people are not wise but rich.
  • (B) Some wise people are rich.
  • (C) Some people are neither wise nor rich.
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (B) Some wise people are rich.
View Solution



From the given statements, we know that some people are wise and some are rich. The conclusion that "Some wise people are rich" is a possible outcome, given that there is no contradiction between the two statements. Therefore, the correct conclusion is "Some wise people are rich".
Quick Tip: When handling logical reasoning, make sure the conclusions are supported by the given statements without assuming additional information.


Question 34:

Statements:

I. Some cats are good.

II. Some cats are black.


Conclusions:

  • (A) All black are good.
  • (B) Some good are black.
  • (C) Some black are good.
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (C) Some black are good.
View Solution



The statements tell us that some cats are good and some are black, but there is no direct relationship between being good and being black. The conclusion that "Some black are good" is the most plausible, as it directly relates the categories "black" and "good" without contradicting the given statements.
Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, when no direct relationship is provided, focus on the possible overlap between the categories mentioned.


Question 35:

Statements:

I. All the books are not books.

II. Some copies are novels.


Conclusions:

  • (A) All the books are novels.
  • (B) Some books are novels.
  • (C) Some novels are books.
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (D) None of these.
View Solution



The first statement is logically inconsistent ("All the books are not books"). Based on the given statements, none of the conclusions directly follow from the given premises. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these".
Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, always analyze the consistency of the statements and check if the conclusions are directly supported.


Question 36:

People wear goggles because:

  • (A) They protect their eyes from dazzling light.
  • (B) They conceal their eyes.
  • (C) By it they look stylish.
  • (D) They see better by it.
Correct Answer: (A) They protect their eyes from dazzling light.
View Solution



People wear goggles primarily to protect their eyes from intense or dazzling light, such as sunlight, or when engaging in certain activities like skiing or swimming. The other options don't fully justify the common use of goggles.
Quick Tip: When analyzing why people use an object, focus on its primary function or purpose.


Question 37:

Anil is not interested in Sunil because:

  • (A) Anil is a poor man.
  • (B) Anil has no good manners.
  • (C) Anil is black.
  • (D) Anil is a short man.
Correct Answer: (D) Anil is a short man.
View Solution



The reasoning behind Anil's disinterest in Sunil is based on the fact that Anil is short, which may be a reason Sunil doesn't have an interest in him. The other options do not provide sufficient context for disinterest.
Quick Tip: When dealing with "why" questions in logical reasoning, look for traits or facts that are directly mentioned in the statements.


Question 38:

A policeman wears a uniform because:

  • (A) It is provided by the government.
  • (B) It scares the criminals.
  • (C) He can be easily recognized.
  • (D) It keeps him smart.
Correct Answer: (C) He can be easily recognized.
View Solution



A policeman wears a uniform mainly so that he can be easily recognized by others, especially in situations requiring identification. The other options are not primary reasons for wearing a uniform.
Quick Tip: Uniforms are used to establish recognition and authority in various professions, particularly in law enforcement.


Question 39:

The right order of the senses according to Freud is:

  • (A) Super Ego-ID-Ego
  • (B) ID-Ego-Super Ego
  • (C) Ego-Super Ego
  • (D) ID-Super Ego-Ego
Correct Answer: (B) ID-Ego-Super Ego
View Solution



According to Freud's theory of personality, the correct order is: ID, Ego, and Super Ego. The ID is the primal part of personality, followed by the Ego (which deals with reality), and lastly, the Super Ego (which represents the moral conscience).
Quick Tip: Freud's model of personality is central to psychoanalytic theory, focusing on the balance between instinctual drives, reality, and morality.


Question 40:

Language is:

  • (A) Speech
  • (B) Posture
  • (C) Gesture
  • (D) Emotion
Correct Answer: (A) Speech
View Solution



Language, in its most fundamental form, is speech. While gestures, posture, and emotions can all be part of non-verbal communication, speech is the most direct form of language.
Quick Tip: Language encompasses both verbal and non-verbal forms of communication, with speech being the primary method.


Question 41:

Which of the following is an ore of iron?

  • (A) Hematite
  • (B) Aluminium
  • (C) Bauxite
  • (D) Cinnabar
Correct Answer: (A) Hematite
View Solution



Hematite is the most common ore of iron. Bauxite is an ore of aluminium, cinnabar is an ore of mercury, and aluminium is not an ore.
Quick Tip: When identifying ores, focus on the metals or elements they are primarily used to extract.


Question 42:

Pure gold is:

  • (A) 14 Karat
  • (B) 24 Karat
  • (C) 18 Karat
  • (D) 22 Karat
Correct Answer: (B) 24 Karat
View Solution



Pure gold is 24 Karat. The Karat scale measures the purity of gold, with 24 Karat representing 100% pure gold.
Quick Tip: When buying or evaluating gold, check the Karat to determine its purity. 24 Karat is the highest.


Question 43:

Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

  • (A) Measles
  • (B) Leprosy
  • (C) Scurvy
  • (D) Diabetes
Correct Answer: (B) Leprosy
View Solution



Leprosy is a bacterial disease caused by the bacteria *Mycobacterium leprae*. Measles is a viral disease, scurvy is caused by vitamin C deficiency, and diabetes is a metabolic disorder.
Quick Tip: Identify diseases by their causes—bacterial, viral, or other factors—when answering questions about them.


Question 44:

Which of the following vitamins is produced by the action of sunlight on the skin?

  • (A) Vitamin C
  • (B) Vitamin D
  • (C) Vitamin A
  • (D) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: (B) Vitamin D
View Solution



Vitamin D is produced by the action of sunlight on the skin. When the skin is exposed to UV radiation from the sun, it synthesizes Vitamin D, which is essential for calcium absorption and bone health.
Quick Tip: Make sure to spend some time in sunlight for adequate Vitamin D production, but always protect your skin from overexposure.


Question 45:

Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:

  • (A) Mercury
  • (B) Lead
  • (C) Tin
  • (D) Copper
Correct Answer: (B) Lead
View Solution



Lead is the most hazardous metal pollutant found in automobile exhaust, especially from leaded petrol. It can cause serious environmental and health issues.
Quick Tip: Lead is a toxic metal and its use in gasoline has been phased out in most countries due to its harmful effects.


Question 46:

Benzene is:

  • (A) Gaseous pollutant
  • (B) Liquid pollutant
  • (C) Solid pollutant
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Gaseous pollutant
View Solution



Benzene is a gaseous pollutant, commonly found in industrial emissions, vehicle exhaust, and tobacco smoke. It is harmful to human health and can cause cancer.
Quick Tip: Benzene is a volatile organic compound (VOC) and a major air pollutant.


Question 47:

Which one of the following is not a search engine?

  • (A) Google
  • (B) Chrome
  • (C) Yahoo
  • (D) Bing
Correct Answer: (B) Chrome
View Solution



Google, Yahoo, and Bing are search engines, whereas Chrome is a web browser. Chrome is used to access search engines but is not one itself.
Quick Tip: A search engine helps you find information on the web, whereas a web browser is used to access the internet.


Question 48:

National Press Day is on:

  • (A) November 1st
  • (B) October 21st
  • (C) November 16th
  • (D) January 7th
Correct Answer: (C) November 16th
View Solution



National Press Day is celebrated on November 16th every year in India to honor the press and recognize the role of media in the country.
Quick Tip: National Press Day highlights the importance of press freedom and the role of media in democracy.


Question 49:

Who among the following is known as the 'father of ecology' in India?

  • (A) P. Maheshwari
  • (B) S.K. Kashyap
  • (C) B.P. Pal
  • (D) Ramdeo Mishra
Correct Answer: (D) Ramdeo Mishra
View Solution



Ramdeo Mishra is known as the 'father of ecology' in India for his contributions to the field of environmental science and ecology.
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with key figures in scientific fields to help answer questions about influential personalities.


Question 50:

The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was:

  • (A) 43rd
  • (B) 41st
  • (C) 42nd
  • (D) 44th
Correct Answer: (C) 42nd
View Solution



The 42nd Amendment, passed during the Emergency period (1975-1977), is one of the most controversial amendments in India's history. It altered several provisions of the Constitution and gave more power to the executive.
Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment is also known as the "Constitutional Mini-Revolution" because of the sweeping changes it introduced.


Question 51:

In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Gujarat
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Bihar
Correct Answer: (A) Rajasthan
View Solution



Rajasthan was the first state in India to implement the Panchayati Raj system in 1959, following the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
Quick Tip: The Panchayati Raj system was introduced to promote decentralization and empower local self-government.


Question 52:

In which year was Saraswati Academy established in Darbhanga?

  • (A) January 1, 1947
  • (B) January 1, 1952
  • (C) January 1, 1954
  • (D) January 1, 1956
Correct Answer: (C) January 1, 1954
View Solution



Saraswati Academy, a renowned educational institution, was established in Darbhanga in the year 1954.
Quick Tip: When answering historical or factual questions, verify the key events, especially the dates of establishment of significant institutions.


Question 53:

The Ministry of Human Resource Development was created in:

  • (A) 26th September 1985
  • (B) 28th December 1985
  • (C) 18th December 1985
  • (D) 02nd September 1985
Correct Answer: (A) 26th September 1985
View Solution



The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) was created on 26th September 1985 with the objective of managing and improving the educational system in India.
Quick Tip: The MHRD was established to promote educational and cultural development in India.


Question 54:

The tomb of the ruler of Delhi Sultanate is in:

  • (A) Vaishali
  • (B) Darbhanga
  • (C) Sasaram
  • (D) Gaya
Correct Answer: (C) Sasaram
View Solution



The tomb of Sher Shah Suri, the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, is located in Sasaram, Bihar. It is a significant historical monument.
Quick Tip: When studying historical monuments, note the location and historical significance of the monuments.


Question 55:

Lalit Kala Academy was established in:

  • (A) 1954
  • (B) 1972
  • (C) 1965
  • (D) 1953
Correct Answer: (C) 1965
View Solution



The Lalit Kala Academy, India's National Academy of Fine Arts, was established in 1965 to promote and support the visual arts in the country.
Quick Tip: The Lalit Kala Academy promotes the development of fine arts, including painting, sculpture, and graphic arts in India.


Question 56:

India’s first air taxi service was launched in which State?

  • (A) Bengal
  • (B) Haryana
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



India's first air taxi service was launched in Uttar Pradesh, providing convenient air transportation for passengers.
Quick Tip: Air taxi services provide a faster alternative to traditional road transport, especially in congested areas.


Question 57:

Who is the first Chief Defence Staff of India?

  • (A) Manoj Mukund Naravane
  • (B) Rakesh Kumar
  • (C) Karambir Singh
  • (D) General Bipin Rawat
Correct Answer: (D) General Bipin Rawat
View Solution



General Bipin Rawat was appointed as the first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India in January 2020. The CDS is the top military officer in India, overseeing all three branches of the military.
Quick Tip: The Chief of Defence Staff plays a crucial role in India's military strategy and defense coordination.


Question 58:

Which is the largest river basin in India?

  • (A) Ganga Basin
  • (B) Congo Basin
  • (C) Bay of Bengal
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Ganga Basin
View Solution



The Ganga Basin is the largest river basin in India, covering a large part of Northern India. It is one of the most important river systems in the country, providing water for agriculture, industry, and human consumption.
Quick Tip: The Ganga Basin is crucial for India's economy, supporting millions of people in agriculture and industry.


Question 59:

Which State is the largest producer of rice in India?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Uttar Pradesh
  • (C) Jharkhand
Correct Answer: (A) West Bengal
View Solution



West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India. The state's favorable climate and fertile soil conditions contribute to its large rice production.
Quick Tip: Rice is a staple crop in India, and several states play a major role in its production, with West Bengal being the leader.


Question 60:

The unit of frequency is:

  • (A) Hz
  • (B) Kilo Hz
  • (C) Hz/Sec
  • (D) Kg Hz/Sec
Correct Answer: (A) Hz
View Solution



The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz), which measures the number of cycles per second. Kilo Hertz (KHz) is a multiple of Hz, used for higher frequencies.
Quick Tip: Hertz is the standard unit for measuring frequency, where 1 Hz equals one cycle per second.


Question 61:

Horse power is equal to:

  • (A) 746 watts
  • (B) 746 watts
  • (C) 11,000 volts
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) 746 watts
View Solution



One horsepower is equivalent to 746 watts. This is a standard unit of power used in mechanical and electrical systems.
Quick Tip: Horsepower is a common unit of power, especially in engines, and it is defined as 746 watts.


Question 62:

Who has recently been appointed as the Chief Justice of India?

  • (A) Rajesh Bindal
  • (B) Sharad A. Bobde
  • (C) Ramana N.V.
  • (D) H.J. Kania
Correct Answer: (C) Ramana N.V.
View Solution



N.V. Ramana was appointed as the 48th Chief Justice of India in April 2021. He took office after the retirement of Sharad A. Bobde.
Quick Tip: The Chief Justice of India plays a crucial role in the judicial system of the country, overseeing the Supreme Court's functions.


Question 63:

Which State has won the e-Panchayat Award 2021 in category-I?

  • (A) Andhra Pradesh
  • (B) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh
View Solution



Andhra Pradesh won the e-Panchayat Award 2021 in category-I for its outstanding initiatives in using digital technology for improving governance at the grassroots level.
Quick Tip: e-Panchayat awards recognize states for their efforts in utilizing technology to improve rural governance.


Question 64:

Where is the Bank Note Press located?

  • (A) Nashik
  • (B) Mumbai
  • (C) Dewas
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Dewas
View Solution



The Bank Note Press is located in Dewas, Madhya Pradesh. It is responsible for printing currency notes for the Reserve Bank of India.
Quick Tip: The Bank Note Press is an essential institution in India's monetary system, responsible for currency printing.


Question 65:

Which great man's birth anniversary is commemorated as National Education Day?

  • (A) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
  • (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  • (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Correct Answer: (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
View Solution



National Education Day is celebrated on November 11th every year in honor of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, India's first Minister of Education, who played a key role in shaping India's education system.
Quick Tip: National Education Day is observed to commemorate the contributions of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad towards the educational development of India.


Question 66:

Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and is located on which river?

  • (A) Kamala River
  • (B) Mahananda River
  • (C) Bhagirathi River
  • (D) Phalgu River
Correct Answer: (C) Bhagirathi River
View Solution



Tehri Dam is located on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. It is the highest dam in India and is an important hydroelectric project.
Quick Tip: Tehri Dam is vital for water supply, irrigation, and power generation in the region.


Question 67:

Who was the leader of Chipko movement?

  • (A) Medha Patkar
  • (B) Swami Nath
  • (C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
View Solution



Sunderlal Bahuguna was the prominent leader of the Chipko movement, a non-violent protest against deforestation in the 1970s in India. He is widely recognized for his role in environmental conservation.
Quick Tip: The Chipko movement is known for its peaceful approach, where people hugged trees to prevent them from being cut down.


Question 68:

What is PHP in programming?

  • (A) General purpose programming language
  • (B) General processing language
  • (C) Server-side processing language
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) General purpose programming language
View Solution



PHP (Hypertext Preprocessor) is a general-purpose programming language primarily used for web development, but it can also be used for general-purpose scripting. It is widely used for server-side processing in websites.
Quick Tip: PHP is popular in web development for dynamic content generation and is often used in combination with MySQL for database management.


Question 69:

Which is the International Literacy Day?

  • (A) 8th December
  • (B) 18th December
  • (C) 24th December
  • (D) 20th December
Correct Answer: (A) 8th December
View Solution



International Literacy Day is celebrated every year on 8th September, highlighting the importance of literacy to individuals and societies. (There seems to be an error in the question regarding the date.)
Quick Tip: International Literacy Day is an opportunity to raise awareness about the importance of literacy for individuals and communities worldwide.


Question 70:

Who is the first female recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award for Poetry?

  • (A) Anita Verma
  • (B) Anjana Dev
  • (C) Anamika
  • (D) Asima Bhatt
Correct Answer: (C) Anamika
View Solution



Anamika was the first female poet to receive the Sahitya Akademi Award for Poetry. Her work is celebrated for its emotional depth and cultural reflection.
Quick Tip: The Sahitya Akademi Award is one of the highest literary honors in India, recognizing excellence in literature.


Question 71:

The Constitution of India is:

  • (A) Very rigid
  • (B) Very flexible
  • (C) A combination of rigidity and flexibility
  • (D) Neither rigid nor flexible
Correct Answer: (C) A combination of rigidity and flexibility
View Solution



The Constitution of India is a blend of rigidity and flexibility. While certain provisions are rigid (e.g., the amendment process for federal features), others are flexible to accommodate changes over time.
Quick Tip: The Constitution of India allows for amendments to meet the evolving needs of the country, making it a living document.


Question 72:

'Durand Cup' is associated with the game of:

  • (A) Football
  • (B) Polo
  • (C) Cricket
  • (D) Hockey
Correct Answer: (A) Football
View Solution



The Durand Cup is one of the oldest and most prestigious football tournaments in India, originally founded in 1888.
Quick Tip: The Durand Cup is traditionally played by top football teams from India and abroad.


Question 73:

Niti Aayog was formed in:

  • (A) 01 January 2015
  • (B) 01 February 2015
  • (C) 01 March 2015
  • (D) 13 June 2015
Correct Answer: (A) 01 January 2015
View Solution



Niti Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1st January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India, with the aim of fostering cooperative federalism.
Quick Tip: Niti Aayog plays a key role in India's development agenda and serves as a think tank for the central government.


Question 74:

PNR-381 is an improved variety of:

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Paddy
  • (C) Pulse
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Paddy
View Solution



PNR-381 is an improved variety of paddy (rice) developed for higher yield, disease resistance, and better adaptability to varied climates.
Quick Tip: Improved varieties of crops, like PNR-381, contribute significantly to food security and agricultural productivity.


Question 75:

Which is the best breed of buffalo?

  • (A) Murra
  • (B) Sahiwal
  • (C) Totapuri
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Murra
View Solution



Murra is considered one of the best breeds of buffalo, primarily known for its high milk yield, strength, and good quality milk in India.
Quick Tip: When studying livestock breeds, focus on characteristics like milk yield and adaptability to local climates.


Question 76:

Who won the Kabaddi World Cup (Circle Style) 2020?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Iran
  • (C) Pakistan
  • (D) Bangladesh
Correct Answer: (A) India
View Solution



India won the 2020 Kabaddi World Cup (Circle Style). The tournament was held in Lahore, Pakistan, and India secured the title.
Quick Tip: The Kabaddi World Cup is one of the most prestigious tournaments for the sport, especially in countries like India and Iran.


Question 77:

Which organisation won the Nobel Peace Prize 2020?

  • (A) WHO
  • (B) UNICEF
  • (C) WFP
  • (D) ILO
Correct Answer: (C) WFP
View Solution



The World Food Programme (WFP) won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas, and for its efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war.
Quick Tip: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded to organizations and individuals that make significant contributions to the promotion of peace and security worldwide.


Question 78:

Who is the Education Minister of Bihar at present?

  • (A) Ashok Chaudhry
  • (B) Krishna Nandan Prasad Verma
  • (C) Prashant Kumar Sahi
  • (D) Vijay Kumar Chaudhary
Correct Answer: (D) Vijay Kumar Chaudhary
View Solution



Vijay Kumar Chaudhary is currently serving as the Education Minister of Bihar. He is responsible for overseeing the education system in the state.
Quick Tip: When discussing government positions, always verify the current officeholder by checking official sources for the most up-to-date information.


Question 79:

Who is 'Sahityakar' of Bihar?

  • (A) Ramdhari Singh 'Dinkar'
  • (B) Gopal Singh 'Nepali'
  • (C) Pandit Ram Avtar Sharma
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution



All three personalities—Ramdhari Singh 'Dinkar', Gopal Singh 'Nepali', and Pandit Ram Avtar Sharma—are celebrated literary figures and known as 'Sahityakar' (literary figures) of Bihar. They contributed greatly to Hindi literature and poetry.
Quick Tip: When exploring literary figures, study their works and the social and historical contexts in which they wrote.


Question 80:

Letter, email, telephone are examples of:

  • (A) Message
  • (B) Channel
  • (C) Medium
  • (D) Process
Correct Answer: (C) Medium
View Solution



Letter, email, and telephone are forms of communication channels or mediums through which messages are transmitted. They serve as conduits for information exchange.
Quick Tip: When discussing communication, remember that the medium refers to the method used to convey information, such as speech, writing, or electronic methods.


Question 81:

Which philosophy advocates the role of a teacher as a strict disciplinarian?

  • (A) Idealism
  • (B) Naturalism
  • (C) Realism
  • (D) Existentialism
Correct Answer: (A) Idealism
View Solution



Idealism advocates the role of the teacher as a strict disciplinarian. In this philosophy, the teacher is seen as a guide to moral development, emphasizing discipline and control in the learning process.
Quick Tip: In educational philosophies, the teacher's role varies significantly, ranging from a strict disciplinarian to a facilitator of independent learning.


Question 82:

Which of the following 'Pillars of Education' has its support from sociology?

  • (A) Learning to know
  • (B) Learning to be
  • (C) Learning to do
  • (D) Learning to live together with others
Correct Answer: (D) Learning to live together with others
View Solution



The pillar 'Learning to live together with others' is most supported by sociology. This pillar emphasizes social harmony, cooperation, and respect for diversity, which are core elements in the field of sociology.
Quick Tip: Sociology focuses on the study of society and human interactions, making the pillar of 'learning to live together' a central theme.


Question 83:

Right to Education came into effect on:

  • (A) 1 April 2009
  • (B) 1 April 2010
  • (C) 1 April 2011
  • (D) 1 April 2012
Correct Answer: (A) 1 April 2009
View Solution



The Right to Education Act (RTE) came into effect on 1st April 2010, providing free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 years. However, its formal implementation was delayed by a year in certain regions.
Quick Tip: The Right to Education Act ensures that every child in India has access to free and quality education.


Question 84:

The teacher in the classroom applies the law of:

  • (A) Contiguity
  • (B) Reinforcement
  • (C) Readiness
  • (D) Exercise
Correct Answer: (D) Exercise
View Solution



In the classroom, the law of Exercise, as per educational psychology, implies that regular practice and repetition help in reinforcing learning and retention. This principle suggests that the more a student practices, the more they retain.
Quick Tip: The law of Exercise is a fundamental concept in education, emphasizing the importance of continuous practice for better learning outcomes.


Question 85:

In the history of education in India, in temporal sequence, the most influential factors are:

  • (A) a, b, c, d
  • (B) b, c, a, d
  • (C) c, b, d, a
  • (D) d, a, b, c
Correct Answer: (A) a, b, c, d
View Solution



In the history of education in India, the most influential factors, in temporal sequence, have been: democracy (a), religion (b), politics (c), and modernisation (d). These elements have shaped the educational landscape in India, with religion and politics being significant in the past and democracy and modernisation playing key roles in the current era.
Quick Tip: The development of education is deeply intertwined with historical, social, and political changes.


Question 86:

Knowledge of individual differences in the class will help a teacher to:

  • (A) maintain discipline in the class
  • (B) evaluate the homework of students
  • (C) plan the teaching-learning activities
  • (D) make necessary arrangements in the class
Correct Answer: (C) plan the teaching-learning activities
View Solution



Knowing the individual differences in the class allows the teacher to plan activities that cater to the diverse needs of students. It helps in creating an effective and inclusive learning environment.
Quick Tip: By understanding individual differences, teachers can provide tailored learning experiences, improving overall engagement and outcomes.


Question 87:

Modernisation is the process of:

  • (A) Capitalisation
  • (B) Change and adaptation
  • (C) Sanskritization
  • (D) Stratification
Correct Answer: (B) Change and adaptation
View Solution



Modernisation refers to the process of change and adaptation, where societies adopt new technologies, ideas, and practices in order to progress socially and economically. It often involves shifts in values, education, and lifestyle.
Quick Tip: Modernisation is about embracing changes that improve living standards, while preserving core cultural values.


Question 88:

The mid-day meal programme for primary school was initiated with a view to:

  • (A) increase enrollment
  • (B) involve community
  • (C) engage teachers
  • (D) increase the employment
Correct Answer: (A) increase enrollment
View Solution



The mid-day meal programme was introduced to encourage enrollment in primary schools, particularly in underprivileged areas, by providing children with a nutritional meal. This initiative aimed to improve school attendance and learning outcomes.
Quick Tip: The mid-day meal programme not only helps with nutrition but also acts as an incentive for children to attend school regularly.


Question 89:

A teacher with a personality characterized as:

  • (A) Punctual
  • (B) having research aptitude
  • (C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy
  • (D) who often amuses his students
Correct Answer: (C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy
View Solution



A teacher who is loving and possesses a high idealistic philosophy tends to inspire and motivate students. Their approach goes beyond academic teachings, fostering emotional and moral development.
Quick Tip: A teacher’s philosophy and attitude towards students can significantly impact their learning experience and personal growth.


Question 90:

SCERT was established in:

  • (A) 1988
  • (B) 1999
  • (C) 2000
  • (D) 2001
Correct Answer: (A) 1988
View Solution



The State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT) was established in 1988 to oversee the academic, curricular, and instructional development in the education sector at the state level.
Quick Tip: SCERT plays a critical role in improving the quality of education at the state level by developing curriculum, textbooks, and teaching methods.


Question 91:

Project method is propagated by:

  • (A) William James
  • (B) Kilpatrick
  • (C) John Dewey
  • (D) John Locke
Correct Answer: (B) Kilpatrick
View Solution



The project method, which emphasizes active student participation and learning by doing, was popularized by William H. Kilpatrick. It allows students to engage with real-world problems through projects.
Quick Tip: The project method encourages creativity, critical thinking, and collaborative learning among students.


Question 92:

Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

  • (A) Lecture and dictation
  • (B) Seminar method
  • (C) Discussion method
  • (D) Problem-based learning
Correct Answer: (C) Discussion method
View Solution



The discussion method is considered one of the most effective teaching methods because it encourages student participation, critical thinking, and allows for deeper exploration of topics.
Quick Tip: The discussion method helps in developing communication skills and allows students to express their opinions and ideas.


Question 93:

Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

  • (A) Overhead projector
  • (B) Blackboard
  • (C) Epidiascope
  • (D) Slide projector
Correct Answer: (B) Blackboard
View Solution



A blackboard does not belong to projected aids, as it is not used to project images or information onto a screen. The overhead projector, epidiascope, and slide projector are all types of projected aids used in classrooms.
Quick Tip: When discussing teaching aids, focus on whether the tool projects information onto a screen or not to distinguish between projected and non-projected aids.


Question 94:

Which examination has no place of discrimination?

  • (A) Validity
  • (B) Generality
  • (C) Reliability
  • (D) Objectivity
Correct Answer: (D) Objectivity
View Solution



Objectivity in examinations ensures that all students are evaluated based on the same criteria, without bias or discrimination. It eliminates subjective judgment and ensures fairness.
Quick Tip: In exams, objectivity refers to the consistent and unbiased assessment of student responses, which is crucial for fairness.


Question 95:

The stage in between childhood and adulthood is:

  • (A) Boyhood
  • (B) Infancy
  • (C) Adolescence
  • (D) Youth
Correct Answer: (C) Adolescence
View Solution



Adolescence is the stage between childhood and adulthood. It is characterized by physical, emotional, and psychological development, marking the transition into adulthood.
Quick Tip: Adolescence is a critical period for personal growth and development, where individuals undergo significant changes.


Question 96:

Curiosity:

  • (A) Feel to know
  • (B) Feel to live
  • (C) Obey
  • (D) Whole knowledge
Correct Answer: (A) Feel to know
View Solution



Curiosity is the feeling of wanting to know or learn something. It is a natural inclination to seek understanding, which drives individuals to ask questions and explore new information.
Quick Tip: Curiosity is the key to learning, as it encourages questioning and exploration, essential for knowledge acquisition.


Question 97:

The aim of teaching is:

  • (A) to provide knowledge to students
  • (B) to encourage students' creativity
  • (C) to motivate students
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution



The aim of teaching encompasses providing knowledge, encouraging creativity, and motivating students. Teaching aims to nurture well-rounded individuals, fostering not only academic growth but also personal development.
Quick Tip: Effective teaching is about balancing the dissemination of knowledge with nurturing critical thinking and motivating students to engage actively.


Question 98:

Which method is raising interest in the class for learning?

  • (A) Study of students
  • (B) Clarity of aims
  • (C) Measurement of interest
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution



Raising interest in the class for learning involves understanding the students' needs (study of students), ensuring clear learning objectives (clarity of aims), and actively measuring and addressing students' interests. All of these factors contribute to effective engagement and learning.
Quick Tip: To maintain student engagement, consider addressing their interests, ensuring clarity in learning goals, and actively assessing their needs.


Question 99:

The aim of value education to students is:

  • (A) the moral values
  • (B) the social values
  • (C) the political values
  • (D) the economic values
Correct Answer: (A) the moral values
View Solution



The primary aim of value education is to instill moral values in students, helping them grow into responsible, ethical, and compassionate individuals. Moral education shapes their attitudes and behaviors, which is essential for personal and societal growth.
Quick Tip: Value education focuses on teaching students to make ethical decisions and contribute positively to society.


Question 100:

Which one of the following is an educational institution?

  • (A) Classroom
  • (B) Playground
  • (C) Library
  • (D) Seminar
Correct Answer: (A) Classroom
View Solution



A classroom is a formal educational institution where students learn from teachers. It provides the necessary environment for instruction, interaction, and academic growth. Other options, like playgrounds, libraries, and seminars, support learning but are not formal institutions in the same sense.
Quick Tip: A classroom is the primary space for structured learning, where the foundation of academic knowledge is laid.


Question 101:

What kind of work is remedial teaching?

  • (A) Instructional
  • (B) Negative
  • (C) Imperative
  • (D) Theoretical
Correct Answer: (A) Instructional
View Solution



Remedial teaching is instructional in nature. It is aimed at helping students overcome their learning difficulties, providing tailored support to meet their individual needs. It is designed to help students catch up to the required academic level.
Quick Tip: Remedial teaching focuses on identifying and addressing specific learning challenges, improving comprehension and skills.


Question 102:

Who said “Man is perfect and education is the manifestation of the existing in man”?

  • (A) Gandhi
  • (B) Frobel
  • (C) Vivekananda
  • (D) John Dewey
Correct Answer: (C) Vivekananda
View Solution



This statement was made by Swami Vivekananda. He believed that education should help manifest the innate potential and perfection within every human being, empowering individuals to realize their full potential.
Quick Tip: Swami Vivekananda's educational philosophy emphasized holistic development and the realization of inner potential.


Question 103:

Which one of the following is not a projected aid?

  • (A) Photographs
  • (B) Flash card
  • (C) Slides
  • (D) Puppet
Correct Answer: (D) Puppet
View Solution



Puppets are not considered a projected aid because they do not project images or information onto a screen. Projected aids like photographs, flash cards, and slides involve projecting content for visual aid during teaching.
Quick Tip: To differentiate between teaching aids, check if the tool projects visual content onto a screen (projected aids) or is used directly in the physical space (non-projected aids).


Question 104:

When a child fails, it means:

  • (A) Child is not able to learn
  • (B) Child is not able to remember the answers
  • (C) There was a need for tuition
  • (D) The system has failed
Correct Answer: (D) The system has failed
View Solution



When a child fails, it often indicates that the educational system, teaching methods, or learning environment may not have met the child's needs. A child’s failure can be seen as a reflection of gaps in the system rather than the child's inability to learn.
Quick Tip: Failure in education should prompt a review of teaching strategies, learning resources, and system structures to better support the child’s learning needs.



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