UP Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 (Code 825 CW) with Answer Key and Solutions PDF is Available to Download

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 25, 2025

UP Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 PDF (Code 825 CW) with Answer Key and Solutions PDF is available for download here. UP Board Class 10 exams were conducted between February 24th to March 12th 2025. The total marks for the theory paper were 70. Students reported the paper to be easy to moderate.

UP Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 (Code 825 CW) with Solutions

UP Board Class 10 Social Science (825 CW) Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions
UP Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 (Code 825 CW) with Solutions

Question 1:

Who among the following had to face defeat in 1815 A.D. from superpowers like Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria?

  • (A) Otto von Bismark
  • (B) Hitler
  • (C) Napoleon Bonaparte
  • (D) Metternich
Correct Answer: (C) Napoleon Bonaparte
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the context.

In 1815, Napoleon Bonaparte faced a defeat at the Battle of Waterloo, where he was defeated by the allied forces of Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria. This marked the end of his reign and his dominance in Europe.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Napoleon Bonaparte, as he was defeated by the combined forces of these superpowers in 1815.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (C) Napoleon Bonaparte.} \] Quick Tip: Napoleon Bonaparte’s defeat at Waterloo in 1815 marked the end of the Napoleonic Wars and reshaped Europe’s political landscape.


Question 2:

When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold. Whose statement is this?

  • (A) Metternich
  • (B) Bismark
  • (C) Louis Philippe
  • (D) Napoleon
Correct Answer: (A) Metternich
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the statement.

The phrase "When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold" was famously attributed to Klemens von Metternich, the Austrian diplomat. It reflects the idea that France, due to its influence in European politics, directly affects the political dynamics of the entire continent.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Metternich, who recognized France's pivotal role in European geopolitics.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Metternich.} \] Quick Tip: Metternich's statement emphasizes the influence of France in shaping European politics during the 19th century.


Question 3:

In which conference was the International Monetary Fund established?

  • (A) Non-Aligned Conference
  • (B) Treaty of Versailles
  • (C) Bretton Woods Conference
  • (D) Conference of East India Company
Correct Answer: (C) Bretton Woods Conference
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the context.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference, which was held in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, USA. This conference aimed to create a framework for international economic cooperation and rebuilding after World War II.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Bretton Woods Conference, as it was the conference where the IMF and the World Bank were created to promote global financial stability.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (C) Bretton Woods Conference.} \] Quick Tip: The Bretton Woods Conference laid the foundation for the global economic system, establishing institutions like the IMF and the World Bank.


Question 4:

From where did the disease called 'Rinderpest' spread in 1890 AD?

  • (A) Africa
  • (B) South America
  • (C) India
  • (D) Russia
Correct Answer: (A) Africa
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Rinderpest.

Rinderpest is a viral disease that affects cattle and other cloven-hoofed animals. It was highly contagious and spread rapidly across regions, leading to severe economic impacts in agricultural societies.

Step 2: Origin of the Disease.

Rinderpest spread in 1890 AD primarily from Africa, where it was believed to have originated before spreading to other parts of the world, including India and Europe.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Africa, as this is where the disease was first reported in 1890 AD and subsequently spread to other regions.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Africa.} \] Quick Tip: Rinderpest had devastating effects on livestock populations and economies, particularly in Africa, before efforts led to its eradication.


Question 5:

'Spinning Jenny' machine was used for

  • (A) Speed up the spinning process
  • (B) For washing clothes
  • (C) Construction of tunnel
  • (D) For digging soil
Correct Answer: (A) Speed up the spinning process
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Spinning Jenny.

The Spinning Jenny was an early multi-spindle spinning frame invented by James Hargreaves in 1764. It revolutionized the textile industry by allowing workers to spin multiple threads simultaneously, thus greatly increasing the speed and efficiency of the spinning process.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Speed up the spinning process, as the machine was designed to increase productivity in the textile industry by spinning more threads at once.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Speed up the spinning process.} \] Quick Tip: The Spinning Jenny was a key invention in the Industrial Revolution, enhancing productivity in the textile industry.


Question 6:

The author of 'Gulamgiri' is

  • (A) Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
  • (B) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (C) Jyotiba Phule
  • (D) Pandit Motilal Nehru
Correct Answer: (C) Jyotiba Phule
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding 'Gulamgiri'.

'Gulamgiri' is a book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1873. The book deals with the issues of untouchability and the caste system in India. It is one of the first works that openly criticized the caste system and advocated for social equality.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Jyotiba Phule, who was the author of 'Gulamgiri'.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (C) Jyotiba Phule.} \] Quick Tip: 'Gulamgiri' played an important role in spreading awareness about caste-based discrimination and advocating for the rights of the lower castes.


Question 7:

In which schedule of the Constitution of India is language mentioned?

  • (A) First Schedule
  • (B) Third Schedule
  • (C) Twelve Schedule
  • (D) Eighth Schedule
Correct Answer: (D) Eighth Schedule
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Eighth Schedule.

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of India. It recognizes 22 languages and allows for their use in governmental affairs, education, and official purposes.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Eighth Schedule, as it contains the list of recognized languages in India.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (D) Eighth Schedule.} \] Quick Tip: The Eighth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution to preserve and promote linguistic diversity in India.


Question 8:

Which one of the following is the largest democratic country in the world?

  • (A) America
  • (B) India
  • (C) Russia
  • (D) France
Correct Answer: (B) India
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Largest Democracy.

India is the largest democracy in the world with a population of over 1.4 billion people. It conducts regular elections and allows for universal suffrage, where every adult citizen has the right to vote.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) India, as it is the largest democratic country by population.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) India.} \] Quick Tip: India is the largest democracy in the world, known for its vast electoral system and political diversity.


Question 9:

When was the 'Nari Shakti Vandan Act' passed in the Indian Parliament?

  • (A) 1950
  • (B) 2014
  • (C) 1999
  • (D) 2023
Correct Answer: (D) 2023
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Nari Shakti Vandan Act.

The Nari Shakti Vandan Act, passed in 2023, aims to enhance the representation of women in the Indian Parliament by reserving a significant number of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) 2023, as this was the year the Nari Shakti Vandan Act was passed.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (D) 2023.} \] Quick Tip: The Nari Shakti Vandan Act marks a significant step towards increasing female political representation in India.


Question 10:

Bahujan Samaj Party is a

  • (A) Regional Party
  • (B) National Party
  • (C) Minorities' Party
  • (D) Women's Party
Correct Answer: (A) Regional Party
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Bahujan Samaj Party.

The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) is a political party in India that mainly represents the Bahujan (majority) class, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, and religious minorities. It is primarily focused on regional issues in India.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Regional Party, as the Bahujan Samaj Party primarily operates at the regional level, focusing on the welfare of underrepresented communities.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Regional Party.} \] Quick Tip: The Bahujan Samaj Party is a regional party that focuses on representing the interests of the underprivileged and marginalized communities in India.


Question 11:

Which measurement of the economic growth includes the population of the country also?

  • (A) National Income
  • (B) Per capita Income
  • (C) Gross Domestic Product
  • (D) Net National Income
Correct Answer: (B) Per capita Income
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the concept of Per Capita Income.

Per capita income is a measure of the average income earned by each individual in a given country. It is calculated by dividing the total national income by the population of the country. This allows for a comparison of economic well-being across different countries.

Step 2: Why Per Capita Income includes Population.

Since per capita income considers the population of the country in its calculation, it directly reflects the distribution of income among all individuals in the country.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Per capita Income, as it takes the population into account while measuring economic growth.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) Per capita Income.} \] Quick Tip: Per capita income is an important indicator for comparing the economic well-being of individuals across different countries, as it factors in population size.


Question 12:

The work of online food delivery is a profession of which sector?

  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Tertiary
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the sectors.

The economy is divided into three sectors: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The primary sector deals with natural resource extraction (e.g., agriculture, mining), the secondary sector involves manufacturing and construction, and the tertiary sector provides services.

Step 2: Online food delivery as a service.

Online food delivery falls under the tertiary sector, as it is a service that provides convenience to customers without producing a tangible product.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Tertiary, as online food delivery is a service-based activity.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (C) Tertiary.} \] Quick Tip: Services like online food delivery, healthcare, and education fall under the tertiary sector as they involve providing services rather than manufacturing or extracting resources.


Question 13:

Which one of the following is a source of informal credit?

  • (A) Credit taken from a friend
  • (B) Credit taken from a commercial bank
  • (C) Credit taken from co-operative societies
  • (D) Cash withdrawal through a credit card
Correct Answer: (A) Credit taken from a friend
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding informal credit.

Informal credit refers to credit obtained from non-institutional sources, such as friends, family, or community-based lenders, rather than formal financial institutions like banks or co-operative societies.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Credit taken from a friend, as this is an example of informal credit.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Credit taken from a friend.} \] Quick Tip: Informal credit is usually easier to access but can come with the risk of strained personal relationships.


Question 14:

International trade favours

  • (A) Small countries
  • (B) Big countries
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Big countries
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding international trade.

International trade tends to favour big countries due to their larger economies, access to more resources, and greater capacity for production. Bigger countries also have more bargaining power in trade negotiations and can better absorb the costs associated with international trade.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Big countries, as they tend to benefit more from international trade.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) Big countries.} \] Quick Tip: While international trade benefits all nations, big countries typically have more influence and a competitive edge in the global marketplace.


Question 15:

Consumer courts

  • (A) Protect the rights of a consumer
  • (B) Encourage international trade
  • (C) Protect human rights
  • (D) Control competitions between industries
Correct Answer: (A) Protect the rights of a consumer
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Consumer Courts.

Consumer courts are set up to protect consumers' rights and resolve disputes between consumers and service providers. They play an important role in safeguarding the rights of consumers in the marketplace.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Protect the rights of a consumer, as that is the primary function of consumer courts.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (A) Protect the rights of a consumer.} \] Quick Tip: Consumer courts are designed to protect consumers from unfair trade practices, ensuring they have access to justice when disputes arise.


Question 16:

What percentage of the total area of India is mountainous?

  • (A) 40%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 27%
  • (D) 16%
Correct Answer: (B) 30%
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding India's geography.

India has a diverse topography, including plains, deserts, plateaus, and mountains. Approximately 30% of India’s total land area is mountainous, including the Himalayan ranges and other mountain ranges like the Western and Eastern Ghats.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 30%, as this is the estimated percentage of India’s land area covered by mountains.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) 30%.} \] Quick Tip: India's mountainous regions, including the Himalayas, are crucial for the country’s climate, biodiversity, and water resources.


Question 17:

Which one of the following comes under extinct class in India?

  • (A) Asian Elephants
  • (B) Cheetah
  • (C) Rhinoceros
  • (D) Blue Sheep
Correct Answer: (B) Cheetah
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding extinction status.

The Cheetah, once found in India, is considered extinct in the wild. The species was declared extinct in India after the last known sighting in the 1950s. The Indian government has been working on reintroducing the Cheetah through conservation efforts.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Cheetah, as it is the species listed under the extinct category in India.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) Cheetah.} \] Quick Tip: The Cheetah is one of the fastest land animals and is being considered for reintroduction into India’s wildlife sanctuaries after its extinction in the country.


Question 18:

Which one of the following is not an example of millet?

  • (A) Jowar (Sorghum)
  • (B) Bajra
  • (C) Ragi
  • (D) Arhar
Correct Answer: (D) Arhar
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding millet.

Millets are a group of small-seeded grasses commonly grown as cereal crops. Jowar, Bajra, and Ragi are all examples of millet crops, which are staple foods in many parts of India.

Step 2: Arhar (Pulses).

Arhar, also known as Pigeon pea, is a type of legume and is not considered a millet. It is often grown for its edible seeds used as pulses in cooking.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Arhar, as it is not a millet.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (D) Arhar.} \] Quick Tip: Millets are small grains, often used in dry climates, while Arhar is a legume, used primarily as a pulse.


Question 19:

Sohan has installed a biogas plant to get fuel from animal wastes. This method of getting energy is

  • (A) Conventional
  • (B) Non-conventional
  • (C) A makeshift
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Non-conventional
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding biogas production.

Biogas is produced through the process of anaerobic digestion of organic materials such as animal waste. It is considered a non-conventional source of energy because it is not derived from traditional fossil fuels.

Step 2: Non-conventional energy sources.

Non-conventional energy sources include renewable and environmentally friendly sources of energy, such as biogas, solar power, and wind energy.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Non-conventional, as biogas is a renewable energy source.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) Non-conventional.} \] Quick Tip: Non-conventional energy sources, like biogas, are sustainable alternatives to fossil fuels and help reduce environmental impact.


Question 20:

Fossil fuel causes

  • (A) Soil pollution
  • (B) Air pollution
  • (C) Water pollution
  • (D) Noise pollution
Correct Answer: (B) Air pollution
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the effects of fossil fuels.

Fossil fuels, when burned for energy, release harmful gases like carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. These gases contribute to air pollution, leading to smog, acid rain, and respiratory issues.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Air pollution, as fossil fuels are primarily responsible for air contamination.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The correct answer is (B) Air pollution.} \] Quick Tip: Air pollution is a major environmental issue caused by the burning of fossil fuels, leading to climate change and health problems.


Question 21:

Mention two major impacts of the Great Depression on the Indian economy.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Impact 1: Decline in Exports.

The Great Depression caused a significant decline in global demand for goods. As a result, India, primarily an exporter of raw materials, faced a severe drop in exports, leading to economic stagnation.

Impact 2: Reduction in Industrial Activity.

The global recession reduced industrial output in India. The textile, iron, and steel industries were particularly affected, leading to factory closures and job losses.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1. Decline in Exports, 2. Reduction in Industrial Activity.} \] Quick Tip: The Great Depression had a profound impact on colonial economies, including India, as it further entrenched poverty and unemployment due to a reduction in trade and industrial activity.


Question 22:

Mention two major contributions of technology in the development of the world economy.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Contribution 1: Industrial Revolution.

The Industrial Revolution, powered by advancements in technology such as the steam engine, mechanized production, and the introduction of factories, led to a massive increase in production and global trade, shaping modern economies.

Contribution 2: Digital Revolution.

Technological advancements in computing, the internet, and communication technologies have driven globalization, improving connectivity, efficiency, and productivity, which has drastically reshaped the world economy over the last few decades.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1. Industrial Revolution, 2. Digital Revolution.} \] Quick Tip: Technology has played a pivotal role in transforming economies by reducing costs, enhancing productivity, and connecting global markets.


Question 23:

‘Democracy creates accountable, responsible and legitimate government.’ Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Accountability in Democracy.

In a democracy, the government is accountable to the people. This is achieved through regular elections, where citizens have the power to vote for their representatives. If the government fails to meet the needs of the people, it can be voted out of office.

Step 2: Responsibility of Government.

A responsible government in a democracy ensures that its actions align with the public's interests. It works within a legal framework, upholds human rights, and responds to the citizens' needs through policies and reforms.

Step 3: Legitimacy of Government.

Legitimacy in a democracy is derived from the consent of the governed. Citizens accept the government's authority as it is chosen by them through free and fair elections. This process gives the government the legitimacy to act in the name of the people.

Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, democracy ensures that the government is accountable, responsible, and legitimate by making it answerable to the people, working in their interest, and obtaining its authority through their consent.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Democracy creates accountable, responsible, and legitimate government by ensuring regular elections, responsiveness to public needs, and legitimacy through citizens' consent.} \] Quick Tip: A strong democracy fosters accountability and legitimacy by maintaining transparency and ensuring that the government answers to its people.


Question 24:

What do you understand by coalition government? Mention the role of regional political parties in coalition government.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Coalition Government.

A coalition government is formed when multiple political parties join forces to form a majority in the legislature, especially when no single party can achieve a majority on its own. These governments are usually formed in multi-party systems where diverse political ideologies are present.

Step 2: Role of Regional Political Parties.

Regional political parties play a key role in coalition governments. They often hold significant influence in specific states or regions, and their support can be crucial in securing a majority. Regional parties bring localized concerns to the national level and advocate for policies that benefit their regions.

Step 3: Conclusion.

In coalition governments, regional political parties help in shaping national policies by ensuring that regional issues are addressed, often balancing national interests with regional aspirations.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Coalition governments are formed when multiple parties join together to achieve a majority, and regional parties ensure that their regions' issues are represented.} \] Quick Tip: Coalition governments can be more inclusive by representing a diverse range of interests, particularly those of regional parties that otherwise might be sidelined.


Question 25:

Define globalization. Write two benefits of it.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Defining Globalization.

Globalization refers to the process of increasing interconnectedness and interdependence among countries, cultures, and economies through trade, communication, and technology. It has led to the exchange of goods, services, ideas, and cultural practices across borders, creating a more integrated world.

Step 2: Benefits of Globalization.

1. Increased Economic Growth: Globalization allows businesses to expand internationally, access larger markets, and increase their production capabilities, leading to greater economic growth and wealth generation.
2. Cultural Exchange: Globalization fosters the exchange of cultural ideas, art, and practices, allowing people to experience diverse cultures, which promotes greater tolerance and understanding.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1. Increased Economic Growth, 2. Cultural Exchange.} \] Quick Tip: Globalization has both positive and negative impacts, and it is important for countries to manage its effects in a way that benefits their economy and society.


Question 26:

How an average consumer can be cheated? How can he protect his interest?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Ways in which an average consumer can be cheated.

1. False Advertising: Companies may advertise their products with exaggerated claims or misleading information, leading consumers to purchase goods that do not meet their expectations or needs.
2. Overcharging or Hidden Costs: Some sellers may overcharge consumers by adding hidden costs or fees that are not clearly mentioned during the purchasing process.
3. Counterfeit Products: Some consumers may unknowingly purchase counterfeit goods that are of inferior quality and do not meet safety standards.

Step 2: How consumers can protect their interests.

1. Awareness and Education: Consumers should be well-informed about the products they purchase, check reviews, and verify claims made by companies.
2. Legal Protections: Consumers can file complaints with consumer protection organizations or authorities if they have been cheated, and they can seek legal recourse for issues related to defective products or unfair trade practices.
3. Consumer Rights Awareness: Understanding one's rights as a consumer helps in making informed decisions and ensures that businesses are held accountable for their actions.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Consumers can protect their interests by staying informed, using legal protections, and asserting their rights when cheated.} \] Quick Tip: Always check for authenticity, pricing transparency, and consumer reviews before purchasing products to avoid being cheated.


Question 27:

Why is the development of transportation system necessary? Give any two causes.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Cause 1: Economic Growth.

The development of the transportation system is essential for economic growth as it allows for the efficient movement of goods and services, which boosts trade and enhances industrial activities. This leads to increased production and improved access to markets.

Cause 2: Connectivity and Accessibility.

A well-developed transportation system improves connectivity between regions, making it easier for people to access essential services such as healthcare, education, and employment opportunities. It bridges gaps between rural and urban areas, fostering social and economic inclusion.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1. Economic Growth, 2. Connectivity and Accessibility.} \] Quick Tip: A strong transportation system is a key factor for the overall development of a country as it facilitates both domestic and international trade.


Question 28:

Differentiate between basic and consumption industries.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Basic Industries:

Basic industries are industries that produce goods or services which are essential for the production of other goods. They supply raw materials and are the backbone of other industries. Examples include iron and steel, coal, and petroleum industries.

Consumption Industries:

Consumption industries produce goods that are consumed by the general public directly. These industries provide finished products for daily use. Examples include the food and beverage industry, clothing industry, and entertainment industry.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Basic industries provide raw materials, while consumption industries produce goods for direct consumption.} \] Quick Tip: Basic industries are often larger in scale and have a greater impact on economic growth, while consumption industries focus on providing goods for the everyday needs of consumers.


Question 29:

What do you understand by Non-Cooperation movement? Mention its main reasons.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Non-Cooperation Movement.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was a mass movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920-1922, aiming to resist British colonial rule through non-violent methods. It called for the boycott of British goods, educational institutions, courts, and the civil services. The goal was to attain Swaraj (self-rule) by weakening British authority in India through peaceful resistance.

Step 2: Main Reasons for the Movement.

1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: The brutal massacre of innocent Indians by British troops in 1919 led to widespread outrage, fueling the need for a stronger resistance against British rule.
2. Failure of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms: The reforms introduced in 1919 were seen as insufficient and unsatisfactory, leading the Indian leaders to demand more substantial changes in governance.
3. Economic Exploitation: The British colonial policies led to economic exploitation of India, causing widespread poverty. The Indian National Congress (INC) and other leaders were determined to end this.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, 2. Failure of Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 3. Economic Exploitation.} \] Quick Tip: The Non-Cooperation Movement marked the beginning of a nationwide struggle for self-rule, uniting Indians from all walks of life in the fight against British imperialism.


Question 30:

Analyse the contribution of the rise of Nationalism in Europe in the unification of Italy and Germany.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Step 1: Rise of Nationalism in Europe.

Nationalism in Europe, which rose in the 19th century, was marked by the belief that people who shared a common language, culture, and heritage should unite as a nation-state. The spread of nationalist ideas led to the decline of empires and the formation of unified nation-states, particularly in Italy and Germany.

Step 2: Contribution to the Unification of Italy.

- Giuseppe Mazzini: He was the leader of the nationalist movement in Italy and laid the foundation for unification with his vision of a free and independent Italian nation-state.
- Count Cavour: As the prime minister of Sardinia-Piedmont, he played a crucial role in the unification process through diplomacy, military strategy, and alliances with France.
- Giuseppe Garibaldi: He led the famous Expedition of the Thousand, which helped liberate Southern Italy, completing the unification of Italy in 1861.

Step 3: Contribution to the Unification of Germany.

- Otto von Bismarck: The Prime Minister of Prussia, Bismarck used a policy of "blood and iron" to unite the German states. Through diplomatic skill and strategic wars (Danish War, Austro-Prussian War, and Franco-Prussian War), he succeeded in unifying Germany in 1871 under the Prussian king, Wilhelm I.
- The Franco-Prussian War: This war united the northern German states under Prussia and led to the proclamation of the German Empire in 1871, marking the successful unification of Germany.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{The rise of nationalism led to the unification of Italy and Germany through the efforts of key leaders like Mazzini, Cavour, Garibaldi, and Bismarck.} \] Quick Tip: Nationalism played a crucial role in the unification of Italy and Germany by inspiring movements for national identity and independence, overcoming the divisions of old empires.


Question 31:

Describe the main features of Indian Federal System of Government.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Main Features of the Indian Federal System of Government:
India follows a federal system of government which means that powers and responsibilities are divided between the central government and state governments. The main features of the Indian federal system are:

1. Written Constitution: India has a single written Constitution that defines the distribution of powers between the central and state governments. It is the supreme law of the land.

2. Dual Polity: India has a dual polity, which consists of two levels of government: the central government and the state governments. This division helps in managing the large country and its diverse regions effectively.

3. Division of Powers: The Constitution divides the powers between the Union and the States into three lists:
- Union List: Subjects on which only the central government can legislate (e.g., defence, foreign affairs).
- State List: Subjects on which only state governments can legislate (e.g., police, public health).
- Concurrent List: Subjects where both central and state governments can legislate (e.g., education, criminal law).

4. Single Citizenship: Unlike the USA, where people can have dual citizenship (national and state), India provides a single citizenship. The Indian citizen is a citizen of the country, not of any state.

5. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution of India is supreme and all laws passed by both the central and state governments must comply with its provisions.

6. Flexibility: The Indian federal system is flexible as the Constitution allows for amendments to adjust to the changing needs of the country. Quick Tip: The Indian federal system seeks to balance power between the Union and the States, ensuring that both levels of government can work together effectively. Gender inequality, while being a major issue, is being addressed through various governmental measures like reservations and laws.


Question 32:

What do you understand by Gender inequality? Throw light on the representation of women in the political system of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Gender Inequality in India:
Gender inequality refers to the unequal treatment and access to opportunities and resources for individuals based on their gender. This inequality is a deeply rooted problem in India, and it manifests in various forms such as educational, economic, and social disparity.

1. Low Female Literacy Rate: The literacy rate of women is much lower than that of men in India, especially in rural areas. This results in limited access to educational opportunities, which affects their economic empowerment.

2. Limited Economic Participation: Women in India often face discrimination in employment, especially in leadership roles and skilled jobs. There are significant pay gaps and limited access to career advancement.

3. Gender-Based Violence: Women in India face a high level of violence, including domestic violence, sexual harassment, and trafficking. This not only affects their physical and mental health but also limits their participation in society.

4. Political Representation of Women:
- While women have the right to vote and contest elections in India, their representation in the Indian Parliament and state assemblies remains disproportionately low.
- The Women's Reservation Bill, which proposes to reserve 33% of the seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for women, has been a subject of ongoing political debate.
- Women like Indira Gandhi, the first woman Prime Minister of India, and other women leaders have made significant contributions, but there is still a significant gender gap in political leadership.

5. Measures for Political Empowerment:
- Women have been encouraged to take part in local governance through reservations in Panchayats and municipal bodies, with 33% of seats reserved for women.
- Programs and policies have been initiated to increase female participation in politics and governance. Quick Tip: The Indian federal system seeks to balance power between the Union and the States, ensuring that both levels of government can work together effectively. Gender inequality, while being a major issue, is being addressed through various governmental measures like reservations and laws.


Question 33:

What does Public goods mean? Discuss any two effects of public goods on the standard of living of a common man.

Correct Answer:
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What are Public Goods?

Public goods refer to goods that are non-rivalrous and non-excludable. This means that one person's use of a public good does not reduce its availability for others, and no one can be excluded from using the good. For example, clean air, national defense, and public parks are considered public goods.

Two Effects of Public Goods on the Standard of Living:

1. Improved Health and Environment:

Public goods such as clean air, water, and sanitation services contribute significantly to the improvement of public health. With these services available to everyone, the overall health of the population improves, reducing health-related costs and boosting the productivity of the workforce. This, in turn, enhances the standard of living, especially for the common man.

2. Economic Security:

Public goods like defense and public infrastructure (roads, bridges, etc.) provide economic security and stability to the society. They are essential for fostering economic activities and ensuring a conducive environment for businesses and individuals to thrive. This, in turn, improves the living standards of individuals, especially for those from low-income backgrounds.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Public goods, being non-rivalrous and non-excludable, improve the standard of living by ensuring better health and economic security for all.} \] Quick Tip: Public goods are crucial for the well-being of society, providing essential services like health, clean environment, and security to all, which raises the overall standard of living.


Question 34:

Is the support of government required in the development of the private sector? Write any two reasons.

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The Need for Government Support in Private Sector Development:

Yes, the government support is crucial in the development of the private sector for the following reasons:

1. Providing Infrastructure and Regulatory Framework:

The private sector requires adequate infrastructure like roads, communication networks, and power supply for smooth operations. Government involvement ensures that these are provided. Moreover, the government sets up regulations that ensure fairness, transparency, and competition in the market, fostering a conducive environment for private businesses to thrive.

2. Promoting Innovation and Investment:

The government can provide financial support, tax incentives, and grants for private firms to invest in new technologies and innovations. This support encourages private enterprises to invest in research and development, leading to growth and expansion of the sector. Additionally, government support in the form of subsidies can stimulate investment in sectors that might otherwise face challenges in attracting capital.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Government support is essential in providing infrastructure, regulatory frameworks, and promoting investment to ensure the growth of the private sector.} \] Quick Tip: The government's role in infrastructure provision, regulation, and innovation promotion creates a stable and attractive environment for private sector growth.


Question 35:

What are multipurpose river projects? How do they help water conservation and water management?

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Multipurpose River Projects:

Multipurpose river projects are large-scale infrastructure projects built along rivers, designed to serve several functions simultaneously. These projects typically include the construction of dams, canals, and reservoirs, with the aim of addressing various needs such as irrigation, flood control, hydropower generation, and water supply.

How Do They Help Water Conservation and Management?

1. Water Storage and Conservation:

Multipurpose projects allow for the storage of water during periods of surplus (like during the monsoon) in reservoirs and dams. This stored water can be utilized during dry seasons or droughts for irrigation, drinking water supply, and industrial use, thus ensuring water conservation and optimal use.

2. Flood Control and Management:

These projects help in controlling floods by regulating the flow of water. Dams built as part of multipurpose projects can hold excess water during heavy rainfall, thus preventing floods in downstream areas. This also ensures that the water is managed effectively for agricultural and human consumption.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Multipurpose river projects help conserve water by storing it for future use and managing flood risks effectively.} \] Quick Tip: Multipurpose river projects are key to integrated water management as they address multiple issues such as irrigation, flood control, and water storage.


Question 36:

What do you understand by non-conventional energy resources? Throw light on any two sources of non-conventional energy.

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Non-Conventional Energy Resources:

Non-conventional energy resources are energy sources that are not derived from fossil fuels (coal, oil, or natural gas). They are considered to be renewable and environmentally friendly alternatives to traditional energy sources. These sources help in reducing pollution and conserving natural resources.

Two Sources of Non-Conventional Energy:

1. Solar Energy:

Solar energy is energy harnessed from the Sun's radiation using solar panels or solar cells. It is a renewable energy source and can be used for electricity generation and heating purposes. Solar energy is abundant, clean, and sustainable, making it one of the most popular non-conventional energy sources.

2. Wind Energy:

Wind energy is generated by converting the kinetic energy of wind into mechanical or electrical energy using wind turbines. It is an abundant, renewable, and eco-friendly energy source. Wind farms are often established in areas with high wind potential, contributing to the generation of clean electricity.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Solar and wind energy are examples of non-conventional energy sources that are renewable, clean, and sustainable.} \] Quick Tip: Non-conventional energy resources, such as solar and wind energy, offer environmentally sustainable alternatives to fossil fuels, promoting a greener and cleaner future.

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