Bihar Board 2024 Class 10 Social Science(Set G - Shift 2) Question Paper (Available) :Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Chanpreet Kaur

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Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2024 (Set G) with Answer Key pdf is available for download here. The Social Science paper was conducted on February 19, 2024 in the evening shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. The question paper was divided into two sections - Section A for objective questions and Section B for subjective questions.

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2024 (Set G) with Answer Key (Shift 2)

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper With Solution

SECTION – A
(Multiple Choice Question)

Question 1:

Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’?

  • (A) Kosi
  • (B) Ganga
  • (C) Damodar
  • (D) Gandak
Correct Answer: (C) Damodar
View Solution



The Damodar River is referred to as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ because of its frequent flooding in the Bengal region. These floods have caused extensive damage to the area over the years, particularly during the monsoon season.
Quick Tip: For river-related questions, remember that the "Sorrow of Bengal" refers to the Damodar River.


Question 2:

The tremor of the ocean bottom is related to:

  • (A) Cyclone
  • (B) Tsunami
  • (C) Tide
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Tsunami
View Solution



A tsunami is triggered by a sudden disruption at the ocean floor, like an earthquake or volcanic eruption. Quick Tip: For ocean-related phenomena, remember that tsunamis are often caused by seismic activity on the ocean floor.


Question 3:

3. From which state was Meghalaya carved out?

  • (A) Manipur
  • (B) Tripura
  • (C) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (D) Assam
Correct Answer: (D) Assam
View Solution



In 1972, Meghalaya was separated from Assam to become an independent state.
Quick Tip: Meghalaya was created by bifurcating Assam, particularly due to cultural and ethnic differences.


Question 4:

Who has the right to make laws on the subjects of the concurrent list?

  • (A) State
  • (B) Union
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution



Both the Union and State governments share the authority to legislate on matters listed in the Concurrent List.
Quick Tip: The Concurrent List allows both the State and Union governments to legislate on specific matters.


Question 5:

Who is the head of village court?

  • (A) Panch
  • (B) Sarpanch
  • (C) Mayor
  • (D) Nyaya Mitra
Correct Answer: (B) Sarpanch
View Solution



The Sarpanch is the head of a village court and is responsible for overseeing the operations of the Panchayat. Quick Tip: The Sarpanch is the elected head of the village council and judicial functions in rural areas.


Question 6:

The government based on public opinion is:

  • (A) Monarchy
  • (B) Dictatorship
  • (C) Democracy
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Democracy
View Solution

A democracy is a government where the public has the power to participate in decision-making and elect leaders.
Quick Tip: In a democracy, public opinion and participation are crucial for the functioning of the government.


Question 7:

Who elects the Sarpanch?

  • (A) Members of Gram Sabha
  • (B) State Government
  • (C) Mukhiya and Panch
  • (D) Panch
Correct Answer: (A) Members of Gram Sabha
View Solution

The Sarpanch is the head of a village court and is responsible for overseeing the operations of the Panchayat.
Quick Tip: The Gram Sabha plays a key role in local governance, including the election of the Sarpanch.


Question 8:

Where was the seven-party alliance formed?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) Myanmar
  • (D) Nepal
Correct Answer: (D) Nepal
View Solution

In 2005, a seven-party alliance was formed in Nepal to tackle political challenges and advocate for a constitutional monarchy.
Quick Tip: The seven-party alliance played a pivotal role in the political transformation of Nepal in the early 21st century.


Question 9:

Which of the following is an abiotic resource?

  • (A) Human
  • (B) Bird
  • (C) River
  • (D) Tree
Correct Answer: (C) River
View Solution

A river is classified as an abiotic resource because it is a non-living resource.
Quick Tip: Abiotic resources are non-living elements, like water bodies, minerals, etc.


Question 10:

What is regur called?

  • (A) Red soil
  • (B) Black soil
  • (C) Alluvial soil
  • (D) Laterite soil
Correct Answer: (B) Black soil
View Solution

Regur soil, also known as black soil, is rich in iron and calcium, making it ideal for cultivating cotton.
Quick Tip: Regur soil is highly fertile and is often found in areas like Maharashtra and Gujarat.


Question 11:

Where is the Sharavati River Valley Project located?

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (B) Karnataka
View Solution

The Sharavati River Valley Project is located in the state of Karnataka, where the Sharavati river originates.
Quick Tip: This project involves harnessing the river's water resources for irrigation and power generation.


Question 12:

What percentage of India is covered by forest?

  • (A) 21-25%
  • (B) 24-62%
  • (C) 33%
  • (D) 18%
Correct Answer: (B) 24-62%
View Solution

According to the latest forest surveys, approximately 24-62% of India is covered by forests, making it one of the most significant environmental resources.
Quick Tip: Forest cover is a critical component of India's ecosystem, supporting biodiversity and controlling climate.


Question 13:

Where is the Naharkatia oil field located?

  • (A) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (B) Assam
  • (C) Nagaland
  • (D) Tripura
Correct Answer: (B) Assam
View Solution

The Naharkatia oil field is located in the state of Assam, which is one of the main oil-producing regions in India.
Quick Tip: Assam is home to several significant oil fields, including Naharkatia and Digboi.


Question 14:

When was the first National Water Policy adopted?

  • (A) 1975
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 1987
  • (D) 2002
Correct Answer: (C) 1987
View Solution

India's first National Water Policy was implemented in 1987 to tackle water resource issues and promote their efficient management.
Quick Tip: The policy laid down strategies to address water scarcity, conservation, and equitable distribution.


Question 15:

In which year did the most severe earthquake occur in Bihar?

  • (A) 1931
  • (B) 1932
  • (C) 1933
  • (D) 1934
Correct Answer: (D) 1934
View Solution

The 1934 Bihar earthquake was one of the deadliest in India's history, resulting in extensive damage and a significant loss of life.
Quick Tip: The 1934 earthquake had a magnitude of 8.1 and affected many regions, including Nepal and Bihar.


Question 16:

Where among the following is the thermal power generation plant located?

  • (A) Barauni
  • (B) Kahalgaon
  • (C) Kanti
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Thermal power plants are situated in places like Barauni, Kahalgaon, and Kanti.
Quick Tip: Thermal power plants in these regions play a vital role in meeting Bihar's electricity demands.


Question 17:

Which economic activity is predominant in rural areas?

  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Primary
View Solution

Primary activities like agriculture, fishing, and mining are mainly practiced in rural areas.
Quick Tip: Primary sector activities are related to the extraction and harvesting of natural resources.


Question 18:

Which sector has benefited the least by the policy of globalization?

  • (A) Agriculture
  • (B) Service
  • (C) Manufacturing
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Agriculture
View Solution

Compared to sectors like manufacturing and services, agriculture has been the least affected by globalization.
Quick Tip: While globalization has led to growth in manufacturing and services, agriculture has faced challenges like price instability.


Question 19:

Dinar is the currency of which country?

  • (A) Iran
  • (B) Iraq
  • (C) Saudi Arabia
  • (D) Afghanistan
Correct Answer: (B) Iraq
View Solution

The Dinar is the official currency of Iraq and is also used in countries such as Jordan and Kuwait.
Quick Tip: Be aware that different countries in the Middle East use the Dinar as their currency.


Question 20:

What is the duration of the eleventh five-year plan?

  • (A) 1996 - 2002
  • (B) 2002 - 2007
  • (C) 2007 - 2012
  • (D) 2012 - 2017
Correct Answer: (C) 2007 - 2012
View Solution

India's eleventh five-year plan was carried out from 2007 to 2012.
Quick Tip: The five-year plans are part of India's planning process, focusing on economic development.


Question 21:

Gas and electricity production are placed in which sector?

  • (A) Primary sector
  • (B) Secondary sector
  • (C) Tertiary sector
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Secondary sector
View Solution

Gas and electricity production belong to the secondary sector, which involves the transformation of raw materials into finished goods.
Quick Tip: The secondary sector includes manufacturing, energy production, and other industrial activities.


Question 22:

The process of economic development which raises the standard of living of all the sections of society is called:

  • (A) Sustainable Development
  • (B) Inclusive Development
  • (C) Economic Growth
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B) Inclusive Development
View Solution

Inclusive development focuses on raising the standard of living for all sections of society, including marginalized groups.
Quick Tip: Inclusive development ensures that the benefits of growth reach all sections of society.


Question 23:

Who prepared India's first Human Development Report?

  • (A) Planning Commission
  • (B) National Development Council
  • (C) World Bank
  • (D) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Correct Answer: (A) Planning Commission
View Solution

India's first Human Development Report was prepared by the Planning Commission of India in 1999.
Quick Tip: The Human Development Report is prepared to analyze the human development index and associated factors.


Question 24:

The secondary sector is also known as:

  • (A) Agriculture sector
  • (B) Industrial sector
  • (C) Service sector
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B) Industrial sector
View Solution

The secondary sector involves industrial activities such as manufacturing, construction, and energy production.
Quick Tip: The secondary sector is crucial for transforming raw materials into finished goods and products.


Question 25:

Who was the king of Sardinia?

  • (A) Victor Emmanuel
  • (B) Napoleon
  • (C) Charles X
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) Victor Emmanuel
View Solution

Victor Emmanuel was the king of Sardinia and later became the first king of unified Italy in the 19th century.
Quick Tip: Victor Emmanuel played a key role in the unification of Italy in the mid-1800s.


Question 26:

Who founded the Third International in 1919?

  • (A) Karl Marx
  • (B) Lenin
  • (C) Friedrich Engels
  • (D) Robert Owen
Correct Answer: (B) Lenin
View Solution

The Third International, also known as the Comintern, was founded by Lenin in 1919 to promote global communist revolution.
Quick Tip: Lenin's establishment of the Third International marked the global expansion of socialist ideologies.


Question 27:

Who was the chief hero of the unification of Italy?

  • (A) Mazzini
  • (B) Cavour
  • (C) Garibaldi
  • (D) All of them
Correct Answer: (D) All of them
View Solution

Mazzini, Cavour, and Garibaldi all played significant roles in the unification of Italy, each contributing in different ways.
Quick Tip: Mazzini was a nationalist leader, Cavour was a diplomat, and Garibaldi was a military leader.


Question 28:

By what name is the first Russian Revolution of 1917 known?

  • (A) October Revolution
  • (B) March Revolution
  • (C) February Revolution
  • (D) November Revolution
Correct Answer: (C) February Revolution
View Solution

The first Russian Revolution of 1917 is known as the February Revolution, which led to the abdication of Tsar Nicholas II.
Quick Tip: The February Revolution was followed by the October Revolution, which brought Lenin to power.


Question 29:

Which of the following is not a liberal leader?

  • (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
  • (B) Firoz Shah Mehta
  • (C) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (D) Surendranath Banerjee
Correct Answer: (C) Bipin Chandra Pal
View Solution

Bipin Chandra Pal was an extremist leader, while the others were associated with the moderate or liberal faction of Indian leaders.
Quick Tip: Bipin Chandra Pal was part of the extremist wing that sought more radical methods of political change.


Question 30:

Which of the following proposed separate electorates for Muslims for the first time?

  • (A) Simon Commission
  • (B) Morley-Minto Reforms
  • (C) Delhi Pact
  • (D) Montague-Chelmsford Report
Correct Answer: (B) Morley-Minto Reforms
View Solution

The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims in British India.
Quick Tip: The Morley-Minto Reforms were a major step in the political representation of Muslims in India under British rule.


Question 31:

Where was the first textile mill established in India?

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: (B) Maharashtra
View Solution

The first textile mill in India was established in Maharashtra, at the town of Ahmedabad.
Quick Tip: Maharashtra, particularly Ahmedabad, became the textile hub of India during the industrial revolution.


Question 32:

In which country was the 'corn law' passed?

  • (A) Britain
  • (B) Russia
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) France
Correct Answer: (A) Britain
View Solution

The Corn Laws were passed in Britain in the early 19th century to regulate the import and export of grain.
Quick Tip: The Corn Laws were controversial and were eventually repealed in 1846 due to their negative impact on the working class.


Question 33:

What is COPRA?

  • (A) Right to Information Act
  • (B) Consumer Protection Act
  • (C) Human Development Index
  • (D) Consumer Right Day
Correct Answer: (B) Consumer Protection Act
View Solution

COPRA stands for the Consumer Protection Act of 1986, which provides for the protection of consumers' rights in India.
Quick Tip: COPRA aims to safeguard consumers from exploitation and ensures fair trade practices.


Question 34:

By what name was the Land Development Bank earlier known?

  • (A) Regional Rural Bank
  • (B) Cooperative Bank
  • (C) Land Mortgage Bank
  • (D) NABARD
Correct Answer: (C) Land Mortgage Bank
View Solution

The Land Development Bank was earlier known as the Land Mortgage Bank, focusing on providing long-term credit for agricultural activities.
Quick Tip: The Land Development Bank plays a crucial role in agricultural financing and rural development.


Question 35:

Railways were started in India during whose reign?

  • (A) Lord Dalhousie
  • (B) Lord Lytton
  • (C) Lord Cornwallis
  • (D) Lord Minto
Correct Answer: (A) Lord Dalhousie
View Solution

The first railway in India was started during Lord Dalhousie's reign in 1853.
Quick Tip: Lord Dalhousie is often credited for the expansion of infrastructure during British rule in India, including the railways.


Question 36:

When was Louis Sixteen hanged?

  • (A) 1748
  • (B) 1793
  • (C) 1798
  • (D) 1854
Correct Answer: (B) 1793
View Solution

Louis XVI, the King of France, was executed by guillotine in 1793 during the French Revolution.
Quick Tip: The execution of Louis XVI marked a significant turning point in the French Revolution and the end of monarchy in France.


Question 37:

Who implemented the New Economic Policy (NEP)?

  • (A) Lenin
  • (B) Metternich
  • (C) Bismarck
  • (D) Stalin
Correct Answer: (A) Lenin
View Solution

The New Economic Policy (NEP) was implemented by Lenin in 1921 in the Soviet Union to encourage economic recovery after the Russian Civil War.
Quick Tip: The NEP allowed limited market reforms and the reintroduction of private enterprise to boost the Soviet economy.


Question 38:

Who succeeded Lenin?

  • (A) Mazzini
  • (B) Stalin
  • (C) Trotsky
  • (D) Kerensky
Correct Answer: (B) Stalin
View Solution

Stalin succeeded Lenin as the leader of the Soviet Union, consolidating power after Lenin's death in 1924.
Quick Tip: Stalin's leadership marked a shift to totalitarianism, with centralized control over the Soviet economy and society.


Question 39:

Who surrendered after the declaration of Potsdam?

  • (A) France
  • (B) Japan
  • (C) Vietnam
  • (D) India
Correct Answer: (B) Japan
View Solution

Japan surrendered after the Potsdam Declaration in 1945, marking the end of World War II in the Pacific.
Quick Tip: The Potsdam Declaration outlined the terms of surrender for Japan during World War II.


Question 40:

Who was the first President of Swaraj Dal?

  • (A) Motilal Nehru
  • (B) Chitta Ranjan Das
  • (C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
  • (D) Manavendra Nath Roy
Correct Answer: (B) Chitta Ranjan Das
View Solution

Chitta Ranjan Das was the first President of the Swaraj Dal, a political party formed in 1923.
Quick Tip: Swaraj Dal was founded by Chitta Ranjan Das and Motilal Nehru, promoting full self-rule for India.


Question 41:

In which state is the Indira Gandhi canal located?

  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Rajasthan
  • (D) Bihar
Correct Answer: (C) Rajasthan
View Solution

The Indira Gandhi Canal, one of the largest irrigation projects in India, is located in Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: The canal plays a vital role in providing irrigation and drinking water in the desert regions of Rajasthan.


Question 42:

Where is Rohila National Park?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Himachal Pradesh
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Assam
Correct Answer: (B) Himachal Pradesh
View Solution

Rohila National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh, known for its rich biodiversity and scenic beauty.
Quick Tip: Rohila National Park is a popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts and nature lovers in Himachal Pradesh.


Question 43:

India is the leading producer of which mineral in the world?

  • (A) Manganese
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Bauxite
  • (D) Mica
Correct Answer: (D) Mica
View Solution

India is the leading producer of Mica, which is an important mineral used in various industrial applications such as electronics and cosmetics.
Quick Tip: Mica is mostly found in states like Jharkhand, Bihar, and Rajasthan, where it is mined extensively.


Question 44:

Which mineral is needed to make aluminium?

  • (A) Tin
  • (B) Bauxite
  • (C) Manganese
  • (D) Iron
Correct Answer: (B) Bauxite
View Solution

Bauxite is the primary mineral used in the production of aluminum.
Quick Tip: Aluminum is extracted from bauxite through the Bayer process, which involves refining the bauxite ore.


Question 45:

In which state is Damodar Valley Project located?

  • (A) Jharkhand
  • (B) West Bengal
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Odisha
Correct Answer: (B) West Bengal
View Solution

The Damodar Valley Project is located in the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand and is one of the most significant multipurpose projects in India.
Quick Tip: The project provides irrigation, flood control, and power generation to the region.


Question 46:

Which is the largest sugarcane producing state in South India?

  • (A) Andhra Pradesh
  • (B) Odisha
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
View Solution

Tamil Nadu is the leading sugarcane producer in South India due to its fertile soil and favorable climatic conditions.
Quick Tip: Sugarcane cultivation is highly concentrated in tropical and subtropical regions of India, particularly in Tamil Nadu.


Question 47:

Where is Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited located?

  • (A) Salem
  • (B) Bhadravati
  • (C) Vijaynagar
  • (D) Durgapur
Correct Answer: (B) Bhadravati
View Solution

Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited (VISL) is located in Bhadravati, Karnataka, and is one of the premier steel plants in India.
Quick Tip: VISL is part of the public sector steel industry in India, playing a significant role in the country's industrialization.


Question 48:

Which shipyard makes warships for India?

  • (A) Mazagaon
  • (B) Kolkata
  • (C) Chennai
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Mazagaon
View Solution

Mazagaon Dock Limited in Mumbai is known for constructing warships and submarines for the Indian Navy.
Quick Tip: Mazagaon Dock is one of the key shipyards for India's naval defense.


Question 49:

Which of the following is the headquarters of North Central Railways?

  • (A) Allahabad
  • (B) Hajipur
  • (C) Jabalpur
  • (D) Mumbai Central
Correct Answer: (A) Allahabad
View Solution

The headquarters of North Central Railways is located in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
Quick Tip: North Central Railways serves a large region in the northern and central parts of India.


Question 50:

When did All India Radio start?

  • (A) 1930
  • (B) 1936
  • (C) 1957
  • (D) 1965
Correct Answer: (B) 1936
View Solution

All India Radio (AIR) started in 1936, serving as the national public radio broadcaster of India.
Quick Tip: All India Radio played a crucial role in disseminating information, culture, and news across the country.


Question 51:

Which state has the first position in terms of length of roads in India?

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (C) Maharashtra
View Solution

Maharashtra has the largest network of roads in India, reflecting its extensive infrastructure development.
Quick Tip: The state’s well-developed road network supports economic growth and facilitates trade across India.


Question 52:

Which of the following states is most affected by cyclonic storms?

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Bihar
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Jharkhand
Correct Answer: (A) Odisha
View Solution

Odisha is the state most prone to cyclonic storms due to its geographical location along the Bay of Bengal.
Quick Tip: The coastal regions of Odisha frequently experience devastating cyclones, requiring effective disaster management.


Question 53:

Which of the following is a first-aid equipment?

  • (A) Life jacket
  • (B) Fire extinguisher
  • (C) Rope
  • (D) Bandage and Tape
Correct Answer: (D) Bandage and Tape
View Solution

Bandage and tape are essential first-aid equipment used to secure dressings and manage minor injuries.
Quick Tip: First-aid kits typically include items like bandages, tape, antiseptics, and other emergency supplies.


Question 54:

Aswan Dam is built on which river?

  • (A) Nile
  • (B) Amazon
  • (C) Krishna
  • (D) Godavari
Correct Answer: (A) Nile
View Solution

The Aswan Dam is located on the Nile River in Egypt and is one of the largest dams in the world.
Quick Tip: The Aswan Dam helps regulate the flow of the Nile and provides hydroelectric power.


Question 55:

Richter scale is used in which disaster?

  • (A) Flood
  • (B) Cyclone
  • (C) Earthquake
  • (D) Drought
Correct Answer: (C) Earthquake
View Solution

The Richter scale is used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes, giving a numeric value to their severity.
Quick Tip: The Richter scale quantifies the energy released by an earthquake, known as its magnitude.


Question 56:

Eastern Bihar is prone to which calamity?

  • (A) Earthquake
  • (B) Flood
  • (C) Drought
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Flood
View Solution

Eastern Bihar is particularly prone to flooding due to its proximity to the Ganges and its low-lying geography.
Quick Tip: Floods in Eastern Bihar are often caused by the overflow of rivers during the monsoon season.


Question 57:

Who among the following suggested democratic decentralization?

  • (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  • (B) Tendulkar Committee
  • (C) Narsimham Committee
  • (D) Chelliah Committee
Correct Answer: (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
View Solution

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee of 1957 suggested the idea of democratic decentralization in India, focusing on strengthening Panchayati Raj.
Quick Tip: Democratic decentralization promotes local governance by empowering rural self-government institutions.


Question 58:

Which constitutional amendment is related to urban local self-government?

  • (A) 75th
  • (B) 74th
  • (C) 73rd
  • (D) 72nd
Correct Answer: (B) 74th
View Solution

The 74th Constitutional Amendment of India, enacted in 1992, deals with urban local self-government and empowers municipalities.
Quick Tip: The 74th Amendment made provisions for the establishment of urban local bodies in India.


Question 59:

Which state is associated with the Chipko movement?

  • (A) Uttarakhand
  • (B) Himachal Pradesh
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Kerala
Correct Answer: (A) Uttarakhand
View Solution

The Chipko movement, aimed at preventing deforestation, started in Uttarakhand in the 1970s.
Quick Tip: The Chipko movement is often regarded as one of the earliest environmental movements in India.


Question 60:

Who declares emergency?

  • (A) President
  • (B) Prime Minister
  • (C) Chief Justice
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) President
View Solution

In India, the President has the authority to declare a state of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution.
Quick Tip: The declaration of emergency is a significant decision that alters the normal functioning of government and individual rights.


Question 61:

Which country does not have a federal system of governance?

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) Belgium
  • (D) Switzerland
Correct Answer: (B) China
View Solution

China has a unitary system of governance, unlike India, which follows a federal structure.
Quick Tip: China's political system is centralized, with power concentrated in the hands of the central government.


Question 62:

Which is the oldest political party in India?

  • (A) Janata Dal
  • (B) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (C) Indian National Congress
  • (D) Nationalist Congress Party
Correct Answer: (C) Indian National Congress
View Solution

The Indian National Congress, founded in 1885, is the oldest political party in India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
Quick Tip: The Indian National Congress is one of the oldest political parties in the world and has led India for much of its post-independence history.


Question 63:

In which of the following countries is direct democracy found?

  • (A) Switzerland
  • (B) India
  • (C) America
  • (D) Belgium
Correct Answer: (A) Switzerland
View Solution

Switzerland is known for its system of direct democracy, where citizens can directly participate in decision-making.
Quick Tip: In Switzerland, referendums and initiatives are used to involve citizens in political decisions.


Question 64:

Due to which quality democracy is considered better than other forms of government?

  • (A) Nurturer of equality and liberty
  • (B) Public opinion
  • (C) Reconciliation of differences
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Democracy is valued for its ability to nurture equality, respect public opinion, and reconcile differences among people.
Quick Tip: Democracy thrives on open dialogue, equal opportunities, and reconciling different viewpoints in a peaceful manner.


Question 65:

When was the national income estimated for the first time in India?

  • (A) 1798
  • (B) 1848
  • (C) 1868
  • (D) 1911
Correct Answer: (C) 1868
View Solution

The national income of India was first estimated in 1868 by the government of India, marking the beginning of economic planning.
Quick Tip: National income estimation is crucial for measuring the economic performance of a country.


Question 66:

Circular flow is related to which of the following?

  • (A) Production
  • (B) Income
  • (C) Expenditure
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Circular flow represents the continuous movement of income, production, and expenditure in an economy.
Quick Tip: Circular flow of income shows the interdependence of different sectors of the economy.


Question 67:

What is the difference between income and consumption called?

  • (A) Production
  • (B) Saving
  • (C) Exchange
  • (D) Distribution
Correct Answer: (B) Saving
View Solution

The difference between income and consumption is referred to as saving, which represents income that is not spent.
Quick Tip: Savings play a critical role in economic growth by providing funds for investment.


Question 68:

Micro-financial institutions started from which country?

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) Bangladesh
  • (D) Myanmar
Correct Answer: (C) Bangladesh
View Solution

Micro-financial institutions, particularly the Grameen Bank, were started in Bangladesh to provide financial services to the rural poor.
Quick Tip: Bangladesh's microfinance institutions have helped millions of low-income families access credit.


Question 69:

Which sector has the least contribution to Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

  • (A) Primary sector
  • (B) Secondary sector
  • (C) Tertiary sector
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Primary sector
View Solution

The primary sector has the least contribution to India's GDP as the country has shifted towards industrialization and services.
Quick Tip: The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing, which have a smaller share in GDP in many developed countries.


Question 70:

Which of the following is a part of economic infrastructure?

  • (A) Education
  • (B) Health
  • (C) Civil Services
  • (D) Transportation
Correct Answer: (D) Transportation
View Solution

Transportation is a key part of economic infrastructure, as it facilitates the movement of goods and people, contributing to economic development.
Quick Tip: Economic infrastructure includes essential systems like transportation, communication, and energy supply.


Question 71:

Where is the headquarters of World Trade Organization situated?

  • (A) New York
  • (B) Geneva
  • (C) Hanoi
  • (D) Paris
Correct Answer: (B) Geneva
View Solution

The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is located in Geneva, Switzerland. It is responsible for regulating international trade.
Quick Tip: The WTO's headquarters in Geneva plays a key role in global economic governance and trade dispute resolution.


Question 72:

The meaning of National income is:

  • (A) Family income
  • (B) Income of Public enterprises
  • (C) Government income
  • (D) Monetary value of all final goods and services of an economy
Correct Answer: (D) Monetary value of all final goods and services of an economy
View Solution

National income refers to the monetary value of all the final goods and services produced within an economy during a specific period. It is a measure of a country's economic performance.
Quick Tip: National income is a key indicator used to gauge the economic health of a country and to compare different economies.


Question 73:

Who was the political guru of Gandhi ji?

  • (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  • (B) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (C) Vipin Chandra Pal
  • (D) Vyomkesh Banerjee
Correct Answer: (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
View Solution

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi. He had a profound influence on Gandhi's ideas on social reform and politics.
Quick Tip: Gokhale emphasized the need for social reform, better education, and peaceful political methods, which influenced Gandhi greatly.


Question 74:

Which of the following was not a part of the allied powers?

  • (A) Britain
  • (B) Germany
  • (C) France
  • (D) Russia
Correct Answer: (B) Germany
View Solution

Germany was part of the Central Powers, not the Allied Powers, during World War I. The Allied Powers included Britain, France, and Russia.
Quick Tip: The Allied Powers opposed the Central Powers, which included Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire during World War I.


Question 75:

In which language was 'Samvad Kaumudi' published?

  • (A) Bangla
  • (B) Hindi
  • (C) Marathi
  • (D) English
Correct Answer: (A) Bangla
View Solution

'Samvad Kaumudi' was a prominent newspaper published in Bangla by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. It played a significant role in promoting social reforms.
Quick Tip: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an influential reformer who used 'Samvad Kaumudi' to advocate for social and educational reforms.


Question 76:

Who is famous as the liberator of Indian newspapers?

  • (A) Warren Hastings
  • (B) Charles Metcalfe
  • (C) Lord Lytton
  • (D) Lord Ripon
Correct Answer: (B) Charles Metcalfe
View Solution

Charles Metcalfe is known as the liberator of Indian newspapers due to his role in repealing the press regulations, which allowed greater freedom for the press.
Quick Tip: Charles Metcalfe, known for his liberal policies, made significant contributions to the growth of press freedom in colonial India.


Question 77:

With whom is the policy of 'Blood and Iron' related?

  • (A) Lenin
  • (B) Stalin
  • (C) Bismarck
  • (D) Garibaldi
Correct Answer: (C) Bismarck
View Solution

The policy of 'Blood and Iron' is associated with Otto von Bismarck, the Prussian Prime Minister, who used war and militarization to unite Germany.
Quick Tip: Bismarck's policy of 'Blood and Iron' emphasized the use of military power to achieve national unity in Germany.


Question 78:

Bohemia was under which of the following countries?

  • (A) Austria
  • (B) Greece
  • (C) Turkey
  • (D) Poland
Correct Answer: (A) Austria
View Solution

Bohemia, historically a part of the Austro-Hungarian Empire, is now part of the Czech Republic.
Quick Tip: Bohemia was an important kingdom within Austria before the formation of Czechoslovakia.


Question 79:

Between which countries was the treaty of Brest-Litovsk signed?

  • (A) Russia and Italy
  • (B) Russia and France
  • (C) Russia and England
  • (D) Russia and Germany
Correct Answer: (D) Russia and Germany
View Solution

The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed in 1918 between Soviet Russia and Germany, marking Russia's exit from World War I.
Quick Tip: This treaty was a major diplomatic move during World War I, ending hostilities between Germany and Soviet Russia.


Question 80:

Where did William I become the emperor in 1871?

  • (A) Italy
  • (B) England
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) Poland
Correct Answer: (C) Germany
View Solution

William I became the Emperor of Germany in 1871 after the unification of German states into the German Empire.
Quick Tip: The unification of Germany was a key moment in European history, leading to the establishment of the German Empire under Kaiser William I.


Question 81:

Write in brief about Cold War.

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The Cold War was a period of political tension and military rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union, lasting from the end of World War II in 1945 until the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991. It was marked by the absence of direct military conflict but involved proxy wars, nuclear arms race, and ideological differences between the capitalist and communist blocs.
Quick Tip: The Cold War involved the U.S. and the USSR, divided into two ideologically opposed blocs.


Question 82:

What were the causes of the French Revolution of 1848?

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The French Revolution of 1848 was caused by social, economic, and political factors. The poor economic conditions, heavy taxation on the lower classes, and political disenfranchisement led to widespread dissatisfaction. Moreover, the influence of revolutionary ideas and the failure of the monarchy to address these issues catalyzed the revolution.
Quick Tip: The French Revolution was driven by inequality, poor governance, and economic hardship.


Question 83:

Why was the All India Trade Union Congress established?

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The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established in 1920 to unite workers across India and address issues like poor working conditions, unfair wages, and lack of labor rights. It aimed to create a platform for the working class to fight for their economic and social rights.
Quick Tip: AITUC played a key role in India's labor movement, advocating for workers' rights and industrial reforms.


Question 84:

How did industrialization affect the livelihood of the laborers?

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Industrialization led to both positive and negative changes for laborers. On one hand, it created job opportunities and increased wages. On the other hand, it often resulted in poor working conditions, long working hours, and exploitation, particularly in unregulated industries.
Quick Tip: Industrialization provided job opportunities but also posed challenges in terms of worker rights and welfare.


Question 85:

What is Communism?

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Communism is a political and economic ideology that advocates for a classless society where the means of production are collectively owned and controlled. It seeks to eliminate private property and income inequality in order to create an egalitarian society.
Quick Tip: Communism focuses on eliminating class distinctions and ensuring equality in wealth and opportunities.


Question 86:

What was the purpose of the Hoa Hao movement?

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The Hoa Hao movement was a religious and political movement in Vietnam that began in the 1930s. It aimed to promote social reform, fight against corruption, and improve the welfare of the rural poor. It also advocated for independence from French colonial rule.
Quick Tip: The Hoa Hao movement was pivotal in challenging colonial authority and promoting social change in Vietnam.


Question 87:

How did print revolution assist the growth of Nationalism in India?

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The print revolution in India, which began in the 19th century, played a pivotal role in the growth of nationalism. The establishment of printing presses and the rise of vernacular newspapers allowed the spread of ideas on a much larger scale, making it possible to reach a broad audience. Newspapers like 'The Hindoo Patriot', 'The Amrita Bazar Patrika', and 'The Indian Mirror' began to publish articles that questioned British colonial policies, and in doing so, helped stir national consciousness. These publications not only focused on political issues but also spread messages about social reforms, unity, and self-rule.

The print media provided an outlet for leaders such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Lala Lajpat Rai to spread their ideas about the Indian independence movement, social reforms, and national identity. It also helped in the consolidation of national sentiments by breaking regional barriers, allowing people from different parts of India to connect over shared issues and aspirations. Moreover, the accessibility of printed material contributed to the awareness of Indian history, culture, and the injustices of British rule. As a result, the print revolution was crucial in unifying diverse groups within India, galvanizing them into action for the struggle for independence.
Quick Tip: The print revolution helped spread nationalist ideas, promoting a sense of shared identity among the people of India. It played a crucial role in mobilizing people for the freedom struggle.


Question 88:

How did the series of inventions of machines pave the way for industrial revolution?

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The series of machine inventions during the late 18th and early 19th centuries marked a critical turning point in history, driving the Industrial Revolution, particularly in Britain. Before these inventions, industries were labor-intensive, with products being made by hand or in small workshops. The invention of the spinning jenny by James Hargreaves in 1764 revolutionized the textile industry by allowing a single worker to spin multiple threads simultaneously. This increased production efficiency significantly. Similarly, Richard Arkwright's water frame (1771) and Samuel Crompton’s spinning mule (1779) further enhanced textile production.

One of the most significant inventions was James Watt’s steam engine (1765), which played a key role in transforming industries and transportation. It replaced manual labor and water mills, providing power to factories and mines, and it led to the development of steam-powered locomotives and ships, revolutionizing transportation. The steam engine not only boosted productivity but also played a role in urbanization, as factories could now be built away from water sources. These technological advancements created a demand for raw materials like coal and iron, leading to the establishment of iron industries and coal mining. The mechanization of industries led to mass production, lower costs, and greater availability of goods, which fueled economic growth.

Overall, the series of machine inventions laid the foundation for the rise of industrial capitalism, radically transforming the global economy.
Quick Tip: The industrial revolution brought technological advancements that transformed industries, leading to mass production and urbanization, which were key to economic growth during the 19th century.


Question 89:

How is right to information the savior of democracy?

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Right to Information (RTI) is a crucial tool in strengthening democracy as it ensures transparency in government operations. It allows citizens to access information about governmental decisions, policies, and functioning, thereby promoting accountability. By empowering people to question the government, RTI ensures that officials are held responsible for their actions. Furthermore, it helps in curbing corruption and fostering trust between the government and the public, making it an essential component of a vibrant democratic system.
Quick Tip: RTI enhances transparency and accountability, ensuring that citizens actively participate in the democratic process.


Question 90:

Mention any four features of Indian Federal System.

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The Indian Federal System has the following key features:
1. Division of Powers: Powers are divided between the central government and state governments as outlined in the Constitution.
2. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land, and both the Union and States must function within its framework.
3. Independent Judiciary: An independent judiciary ensures that the federal balance is maintained by resolving disputes between the Union and States.
4. Dual Government: The system operates with a dual government—central and state governments, each with specific responsibilities.
Quick Tip: India follows a quasi-federal system with features of both federal and unitary systems.


Question 91:

Why has India adopted a multi-party system?

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India has adopted a multi-party system because of its diverse society, which includes various linguistic, cultural, and regional groups. A multi-party system allows different groups to express their views and aspirations, ensuring representation for all sections of society. This system provides a platform for regional parties to play a vital role in the political landscape, ensuring that no single party dominates the political discourse. It also fosters competition and a broader range of ideas, leading to a more inclusive and dynamic democracy.
Quick Tip: India's multi-party system ensures broad-based political representation and accommodates the country's diversity.


Question 92:

What were the main demands of the Indian Farmer’s Union?

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The Indian Farmer’s Union, which has historically advocated for the rights of farmers, has made several demands over the years, including:

1. Fair Prices: Ensuring that farmers receive a fair price for their produce, protecting them from market exploitation.

2. Loan Waivers: Demanding relief from heavy debts by seeking government loan waivers for distressed farmers.

3. Better Irrigation: Increased investment in irrigation infrastructure to help farmers deal with water scarcity and ensure year-round farming.

4. Land Reforms: Advocating for land reforms to ensure land ownership for the landless and secure tenancy rights for farmers.
Quick Tip: The Farmer’s Union demands better support for agriculture, focusing on fair prices, debt relief, and land rights.


Question 93:

Discuss the role of judiciary in the federal system.

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In a federal system, the judiciary plays an essential role in maintaining the balance between the central and state governments. The judiciary ensures that the powers allocated to both levels of government are exercised within the framework of the Constitution. This is especially important in countries like India, where there is a clear division of powers between the Union (central government) and the States.


One of the key roles of the judiciary is to resolve disputes that arise between the central government and the state governments. These disputes can relate to the interpretation of the Constitution, as well as to issues concerning the scope of powers granted to each level of government. The judiciary, through its rulings, ensures that neither the Union nor the States exceed their constitutional boundaries, thus maintaining the integrity of the federal structure.


The judiciary also safeguards the fundamental rights of citizens. When a conflict arises between the state and individual rights, the judiciary steps in to protect those rights, even if it means challenging the authority of the government. This check on power ensures that the government does not abuse its authority, which is critical in a democracy.


In countries like India, the judiciary’s role as the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution makes it a crucial institution for maintaining the rule of law and ensuring the smooth functioning of the federal system. Without an independent judiciary, the balance between the Union and States could be jeopardized, leading to conflicts and instability.
Quick Tip: The judiciary’s responsibility in federal systems is to resolve disputes, interpret the Constitution, and ensure that both central and state governments function within their constitutional limits.


Question 94:

What factors are responsible for the success of democracy?

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The success of democracy depends on several interconnected factors that ensure its proper functioning. One of the most fundamental factors is political participation, where citizens actively engage in the democratic process, particularly by voting. Active participation ensures that the government is accountable to the people, and it fosters a sense of ownership and responsibility among the citizens.


A free and independent press is another critical factor for democracy’s success. A vibrant media allows for the free flow of information, which helps in educating citizens, holding the government accountable, and exposing corruption or mismanagement. The press also serves as a platform for debate and the exchange of ideas, which is essential for a healthy democratic system.


Furthermore, the protection of individual rights is indispensable. Democracy thrives when citizens’ fundamental rights, such as the right to free speech, assembly, and religion, are protected. When individuals are free to express their views, engage in peaceful protests, and practice their beliefs, it ensures that democracy is inclusive and open to all sections of society.


Additionally, strong democratic institutions are crucial for maintaining the integrity of the democratic process. This includes having an independent judiciary, fair electoral systems, and checks and balances between the executive, legislature, and judiciary. When these institutions function properly, they prevent the concentration of power and safeguard the rights of citizens.


Another important factor is citizen education and awareness. A well-educated and informed citizenry is better equipped to make informed decisions during elections and to participate meaningfully in political processes. When citizens understand the importance of democracy and their role in it, they are more likely to contribute to its success.


In conclusion, the success of democracy is ensured by active citizen participation, the protection of rights, the independence of key institutions, and an informed public. These factors work together to create a dynamic, accountable, and functioning democratic system.
Quick Tip: For democracy to thrive, it requires active participation, strong institutions, protection of rights, and an informed citizenry.


Question 95:

What is mixed economy?

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A mixed economy is an economic system that combines elements of both capitalism and socialism. In this system, both the private sector and the government play significant roles in the economy. The private sector is responsible for producing goods and services, while the government regulates and provides certain essential services that are not efficiently provided by private businesses. A mixed economy allows for private ownership and entrepreneurship, but also emphasizes social welfare, public goods, and the reduction of inequalities.
Quick Tip: A mixed economy balances the benefits of free-market capitalism with the social benefits of government intervention.


Question 96:

Mention four positive effects of globalization.

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Globalization has brought several positive changes to the global economy:

1. Economic Growth: Globalization has facilitated the exchange of goods, services, and investments, leading to economic growth, particularly in developing countries.

2. Access to Technology: It has allowed countries to access advanced technologies, which can improve productivity and innovation.

3. Job Creation: Globalization has created job opportunities, especially in emerging economies, by attracting foreign direct investment.

4. Cultural Exchange: It has promoted cultural exchange and a greater understanding between different nations, enhancing global cooperation.
Quick Tip: Globalization leads to economic integration, which promotes growth, technological exchange, and improved living standards.


Question 97:

What is the function of financial institutions?

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Financial institutions play a vital role in an economy by facilitating the flow of money and resources. Their main functions include:

1. Mobilizing Savings: Financial institutions accept savings from individuals and organizations and channel them into productive investments.

2. Providing Loans and Credit: They offer loans to businesses and individuals, which are used for expansion, development, and consumption.

3. Facilitating Payments: Financial institutions help in the transfer of funds through various mechanisms, such as electronic transfers and checks.

4. Risk Management: They offer insurance and other products that help manage financial risks.
Quick Tip: Financial institutions are essential for the functioning of the economy as they connect savers and borrowers, promote investment, and ensure liquidity.


Question 98:

What is the role of self-help group in women empowerment?

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Self-help groups (SHGs) play an important role in empowering women, particularly in rural areas. These groups are small, informal associations of women who come together to save money, support each other, and provide access to financial resources. By participating in SHGs, women are able to gain financial independence, improve their livelihoods, and increase their social standing within the community. Moreover, SHGs encourage leadership, decision-making, and confidence among women, leading to greater participation in local governance and economic activities. SHGs also create a platform for women to voice their concerns and advocate for their rights.
Quick Tip: SHGs empower women by promoting self-reliance, enhancing access to resources, and fostering leadership skills.


Question 99:

Discuss the rights given to the consumers under the Consumer Protection Act.

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The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, was enacted to protect the rights of consumers in India. It provides for the establishment of consumer forums and councils at the district, state, and national levels to resolve consumer disputes. The Act ensures that consumers have the right to seek redress against unfair trade practices, defective goods, and services, and fraudulent advertisements. There are six primary rights given to consumers under the Consumer Protection Act:


1. Right to Safety: Consumers have the right to be protected against goods and services that are hazardous to health and life.


2. Right to be Informed: Consumers have the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, and standard of goods and services.


3. Right to Choose: Consumers have the right to select from a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.


4. Right to be Heard: Consumers have the right to express their grievances and have their complaints heard and addressed.


5. Right to Seek Redressal: Consumers have the right to seek compensation for damages caused by defective goods or services.


6. Right to Consumer Education: Consumers have the right to acquire knowledge and skills to make informed choices in the marketplace.


The Consumer Protection Act provides a framework for consumers to ensure they are treated fairly, and it empowers them with legal recourse in case of disputes.
Quick Tip: The Consumer Protection Act ensures the rights of consumers are protected by allowing them to seek redress for grievances.


Question 100:

Discuss the economic importance of money.

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Money is a fundamental component of modern economies and plays a vital role in the functioning of the economic system. Its economic importance can be highlighted through the following key functions:


1. Medium of Exchange: Money serves as a universally accepted medium of exchange, allowing goods and services to be traded efficiently. This eliminates the need for barter, making trade more convenient.


2. Unit of Account: Money provides a common measure for valuing goods and services, making it easier to compare prices and assess value. This helps in pricing products and services effectively.


3. Store of Value: Money enables individuals and businesses to store wealth for future use. It maintains its value over time, unlike perishable goods or services, making it possible to save and accumulate wealth.


4. Standard of Deferred Payments: Money facilitates credit transactions by allowing future payments to be made in money, thus helping in the smooth functioning of the credit system.


5. Facilitating Investment and Economic Growth: Money enables individuals and businesses to invest in productive activities. The availability of capital leads to investment in infrastructure, industries, and services, fostering economic growth.


6. Influencing Monetary Policy: Central banks control the money supply to influence inflation, interest rates, and overall economic stability. Money plays a key role in monetary policy and the management of economic cycles.


Thus, money is crucial in the functioning of modern economies, promoting trade, investment, and growth, and helping stabilize the economy.
Quick Tip: Money is essential for trade, investment, and economic growth, providing stability and facilitating transactions in modern economies.


Question 101:

Nuclear power is obtained from which minerals?

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Nuclear power is primarily obtained from minerals such as uranium and thorium. Uranium is the most widely used fuel for nuclear reactors. It undergoes a process called nuclear fission, where its atoms are split to release a large amount of energy. Thorium is another mineral that is being researched as a potential alternative to uranium, as it can produce nuclear energy with fewer radioactive byproducts. These minerals are found in various parts of the world and are mined to supply the nuclear power industry.
Quick Tip: Uranium and thorium are key minerals used for generating nuclear energy through the process of fission.


Question 102:

What is the utility of manganese?

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Manganese is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in various industries. Its primary utility is in the production of steel, where it is used as an alloying element to enhance the strength, hardness, and toughness of steel. Manganese is also used in the production of batteries, particularly dry-cell batteries, and as a component in other chemical processes. Additionally, it plays an important role in the human body, where it is involved in the formation of connective tissue, bones, and blood clotting. The global demand for manganese is largely driven by the steel industry.
Quick Tip: Manganese is crucial in steel production, battery manufacturing, and human health as a trace element.


Question 103:

Define thermal pollution.

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Thermal pollution refers to the increase in the temperature of natural water bodies due to human activity, particularly industrial processes. It is most commonly caused by the discharge of heated water from power plants, factories, or other industrial facilities into nearby rivers, lakes, or oceans. The increase in water temperature can harm aquatic life by reducing the oxygen levels, disrupting ecosystems, and altering the growth and reproduction of organisms. It can also affect water quality and lead to the growth of harmful algal blooms. Thermal pollution is considered a major environmental concern and requires effective measures to mitigate its impact.
Quick Tip: Thermal pollution is caused by the release of heated water into natural water bodies, harming aquatic ecosystems.


Question 104:

Mention the problems related to the development of canals in Bihar.

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The development of canals in Bihar faces several challenges. These include:

1. Waterlogging: Improper management of canal irrigation systems can lead to waterlogging, which affects the soil’s fertility and productivity.

2. Sedimentation: Canals often get blocked by sediment deposits, which reduce the flow of water and make irrigation less effective.

3. Maintenance Issues: The lack of regular maintenance and repairs can result in canal breaches, causing water loss and further damage to agriculture.

4. Lack of Infrastructure: Insufficient infrastructure for proper distribution of water through canals can lead to uneven irrigation, affecting crop yields.


Addressing these issues requires improvements in canal management, regular monitoring, and investment in infrastructure to ensure the effective use of water resources for agriculture.
Quick Tip: Canal development in Bihar faces challenges like waterlogging, sedimentation, and maintenance issues, which hinder efficient irrigation.


Question 105:

Write the features of mangrove forest.

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Mangrove forests are coastal ecosystems found in tropical and subtropical regions, characterized by salt-tolerant trees and shrubs. The key features of mangrove forests include:

1. Salt-tolerant Vegetation: Mangrove trees are adapted to survive in saline environments and have special roots that can filter out excess salt.

2. Biodiversity Hotspots: These forests are rich in biodiversity, providing habitat for various species of fish, birds, and invertebrates.

3. Protection against Erosion: Mangroves act as natural barriers, protecting coastal areas from erosion, storm surges, and tsunamis.

4. Breeding Grounds: They serve as breeding and nursery grounds for many marine species, contributing to the health of marine ecosystems.


Mangrove forests are crucial for the protection of coastal areas and the preservation of marine life. They also play an essential role in carbon sequestration, helping to mitigate climate change.
Quick Tip: Mangrove forests provide critical environmental services, including biodiversity preservation, coastal protection, and carbon sequestration.


Question 106:

Name two coal fields of Jharkhand.

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Two major coal fields in Jharkhand are:

1. Jharia Coalfields: Located in the Dhanbad district, Jharia is one of the largest coalfields in India, known for its high-quality coking coal.

2. Ramgarh Coalfields: Located in the southern part of Jharkhand, Ramgarh coalfields are rich in non-coking coal used for thermal power generation.


These coal fields are critical for India's energy production, supplying a significant amount of coal to power plants across the country.
Quick Tip: Jharkhand’s coal fields, such as Jharia and Ramgarh, are crucial for energy generation in India.


Question 107:

Describe the methods of rainwater harvesting and recycling.

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Rainwater harvesting is the process of collecting and storing rainwater for future use. It is one of the oldest and most effective methods to conserve water. The methods of rainwater harvesting include:


1. Rooftop Harvesting: This method involves collecting rainwater from the roofs of buildings, which is then channeled into storage tanks or underground reservoirs. This is one of the most common methods used in urban areas where space is limited. The water can be used for non-potable purposes like gardening, flushing, and even for drinking if properly filtered.


2. Surface Runoff Harvesting: This method involves collecting rainwater from the surface of the ground, such as through ponds, lakes, or other catchment areas. The water is stored in reservoirs or lakes for agricultural or industrial use. It is widely used in rural areas for irrigation.


3. Recharge Pits: Recharge pits are used to collect rainwater and direct it to underground aquifers, which increases the water table level and improves the availability of groundwater.


4. Water Recycling: Water recycling involves the treatment of wastewater for reuse. This can be done using various techniques like filtration, reverse osmosis, and biological treatment. Recycled water can be used for non-drinking purposes such as irrigation, industrial use, and even for cleaning or flushing toilets. The main objective of water recycling is to reduce the demand on fresh water sources and to reduce water wastage.


Rainwater harvesting and recycling together play a crucial role in ensuring sustainable water management, reducing dependence on natural water sources, and addressing water scarcity, particularly in areas prone to droughts.
Quick Tip: Rainwater harvesting is a simple yet effective method to conserve water, while water recycling helps in reusing water for various purposes.


Question 108:

Give a brief account of the characteristics of alluvial soil.

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Alluvial soil is one of the most fertile and agriculturally important soils found in river basins and deltas. It is formed by the deposition of sediments carried by rivers and streams. The characteristics of alluvial soil include:


1. Composition and Fertility: Alluvial soil is rich in nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, making it highly fertile. It is composed of a mixture of sand, silt, and clay, which makes it ideal for growing a variety of crops, including rice, wheat, sugarcane, and cotton.


2. Texture: The texture of alluvial soil varies depending on the size of the particles, which range from coarse to fine. In general, it is loamy and well-draining, with good moisture retention capabilities. This helps in retaining water and nutrients, which is beneficial for crop growth.


3. Color and Depth: Alluvial soil is typically light brown or dark brown in color, depending on the mineral content. It is usually deep and has a fine-grained structure. The depth and quality of alluvial soil increase along riverbeds, making it suitable for cultivation.


4. Good Drainage: Alluvial soil has excellent drainage properties, which help in preventing waterlogging during heavy rainfall. This is crucial for healthy root development in crops.


5. Location and Distribution: Alluvial soil is predominantly found in river valleys, deltas, and coastal areas. Major alluvial regions in India include the Indo-Gangetic plains, the Sunderbans, and parts of the Deccan plateau. These areas are known for their high agricultural productivity.


The combination of nutrients, texture, and favorable conditions make alluvial soil highly productive and important for both crop cultivation and natural vegetation.
Quick Tip: Alluvial soil is the most fertile soil, ideal for agriculture due to its rich mineral content and good water retention properties.


Question 109:

What is the difference between dam and embankment?

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A dam is a structure built across a river or stream to store or control water flow, and is often used for purposes such as water supply, hydroelectric power generation, and flood control. Dams can create reservoirs and act as barriers to water flow. They are usually large and designed to hold large amounts of water.


An embankment, on the other hand, is a raised structure, typically made of earth or other materials, built along the banks of a river, lake, or sea to prevent flooding. Embankments help manage water flow and prevent erosion, but unlike dams, they do not store water. They are used primarily for flood protection in areas prone to high water levels.
Quick Tip: A dam stores water, while an embankment prevents flooding by managing water flow along shorelines.


Question 110:

Write two measures to reduce the effects of earthquake.

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To reduce the effects of earthquakes, two important measures are:


1. Building Earthquake-Resistant Structures: One of the most effective measures to minimize earthquake damage is to build buildings and infrastructure that are designed to withstand seismic forces. This includes using flexible materials, reinforcing structures, and adhering to earthquake-resistant building codes.


2. Early Warning Systems: Implementing early warning systems can provide crucial time for people to take cover and for emergency services to respond. These systems detect the initial seismic waves of an earthquake and issue warnings seconds before the more damaging waves arrive, allowing people to evacuate or protect themselves.
Quick Tip: Earthquake-resistant buildings and early warning systems are key measures for reducing earthquake impacts.


Question 111:

Define satellite communication.

Correct Answer:
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Satellite communication refers to the use of communication satellites in Earth's orbit to send and receive signals for the purpose of telecommunication. These satellites relay information, such as telephone calls, television broadcasts, and internet data, across vast distances. Satellite communication has become essential for global communication, especially in areas where terrestrial communication networks are not feasible. Satellites operate by receiving signals from a ground station, amplifying them, and then sending them back to Earth, where they are received by another ground station.
Quick Tip: Satellite communication enables global telecommunication by relaying signals between Earth and space.


Question 112:

Why is disaster management needed?

Correct Answer:
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Disaster management is essential to mitigate the impact of natural and man-made disasters and to ensure the safety and well-being of communities. It involves the coordination of resources, strategies, and actions before, during, and after a disaster. The need for disaster management arises from the unpredictability of disasters such as earthquakes, floods, and hurricanes, which can cause significant loss of life and property. Effective disaster management includes risk reduction, preparedness, response, and recovery.


Key reasons for disaster management include:


1. Reducing Loss of Life: It helps in minimizing casualties through early warning systems, evacuation plans, and emergency medical services.


2. Mitigating Economic Loss: Proper disaster management reduces the economic burden of disasters by protecting infrastructure and restoring essential services quickly.


3. Building Resilience: It ensures that communities can withstand and recover from disasters, with less disruption to daily life.


Disaster management is critical for the safety, recovery, and sustainable development of affected regions.
Quick Tip: Disaster management reduces loss of life, mitigates economic impact, and helps communities recover and build resilience.



Bihar Board Class Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers

Bihar Class X Board Questions

  • 1.
    Choose the active voice of : “Vegetarians should not be offered meat.”

      • You should not offer meat to vegetarians
      • You must not offering meat to vegetarians
      • You cannot offer meat to vegetarians
      • You have not offer meat to vegetarians

    • 2.
      Choose the most suitable translation : वे लोग विद्यालय जा चुके हैं।

        • They have gone to school
        • Those people has gone to school
        • They people go to school
        • That people have gone to school

      • 3.
        One day the old emperor Shah Jahan became ill. His son Aurangzeb, who always wanted to be the emperor, put his father in a jail. Jahanara Begum, the eldest child of Shah Jahan, did not leave her father and went to jail along with him. She said, “I shall share the suffering of my father. He needs me in his old age, and I shall never leave him.” Shah Jahan spent seven years in jail before dying. During that period, Princess Jahanara stayed there and took care of him. After the death of her father, she returned to her own palace and continued to live there till her death. Before her death, however, she gave away all she had to the needy and the poor. Upon her death, Aurangzeb gave her the posthumous title : Sahibat-uz-Zamani (mistress of age).


          • 4.
            Choose the correct synonym of 'Cease' —

              • Begin
              • Create
              • Stop
              • Dull

            • 5.
              Yogesh promised that he ........................ hard.

                • would work
                • did working
                • has worked
                • can work

              • 6.
                Choose the most suitable translation : उसने मुझे सोया हुआ पाया।

                  • He find me asleep
                  • He found me sleeping
                  • He has found me asleep
                  • He found me to sleep

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