Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science (Set A - Shift 1)Question Paper 2024 (Available): Download with Answer Key

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Chanpreet Kaur

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Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2024 (Set A) with Answer Key pdf is available for download here. The Social Science paper was conducted on February 19, 2024 in the morning shift from 9:30 AM to 12:45 PM. The question paper was divided into two sections - Section A for objective questions and Section B for subjective questions.

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2024 (Set A) with Answer Key (Shift 1)

Bihar Board Class 10 2024 Social Science Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2024 with Solutions

Question 1:

Which is called the Cradle of European Civilization?

  • (A) Greece
  • (B) Portugal
  • (C) England
  • (D) Poland
Correct Answer: (A) Greece
View Solution

The Cradle of European Civilization is Greece. It is often referred to as the birthplace of Western culture and civilization, influencing art, politics, philosophy, and many other aspects of society. Quick Tip: For questions about the origins of European Civilization, focus on Ancient Greece as the key influencer in shaping modern Europe.


Question 2:

The Parliament of Russia is called

  • (A) Diet
  • (B) Parliament
  • (C) Duma
  • (D) Senate
Correct Answer: (C) Duma
View Solution

The Parliament of Russia is called the Duma. It is the legislative body of the Russian Federation. Quick Tip: For questions related to national legislatures, remember that some countries use unique names for their parliamentary systems.


Question 3:

Where was the Communist Party of India established?

  • (A) Lucknow
  • (B) Berlin
  • (C) Delhi
  • (D) Tashkent
Correct Answer: (D) Tashkent
View Solution

The Communist Party of India was established in Tashkent in 1925. It was an important event in Indian political history, as it marked the beginning of organized communist activities in the country. Quick Tip: For historical events related to political movements, focus on key dates and locations, as they are often critical in the formation of political parties and movements.


Question 4:

Where was Tonkin free school established?

  • (A) Cambodia
  • (B) France
  • (C) Laos
  • (D) Vietnam
Correct Answer: (D) Vietnam
View Solution

Tonkin Free School was established in Vietnam during the French colonial period. It played an important role in the educational development of the region. Quick Tip: For questions about historical institutions, be aware of colonial influence in Southeast Asia, as many educational institutions were founded during that time.


Question 5:

During whose reign was the Ilbert bill passed?

  • (A) Lord Lytton
  • (B) Lord Ripon
  • (C) Lord Dalhousie
  • (D) Lord Curzon
Correct Answer: (B) Lord Ripon
View Solution

The Ilbert Bill was passed during the reign of Lord Ripon in 1883. It was an important legislation that allowed Indian judges to preside over trials involving British defendants. Quick Tip: Remember that the Ilbert Bill was a significant step in the history of judicial reforms in colonial India, aiming to grant more power to Indian judges.


Question 6:

In which Congress session was the proposal of non-cooperation movement adopted?

  • (A) Nagpur
  • (B) Lahore
  • (C) Lucknow
  • (D) Karachi
Correct Answer: (A) Nagpur
View Solution

The proposal for the non-cooperation movement was adopted at the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920. Quick Tip: The Nagpur session of 1920 was pivotal for the Indian freedom struggle, marking the formal adoption of Mahatma Gandhi's non-cooperation movement.


Question 7:

In which country did printing start?

  • (A) India
  • (B) England
  • (C) China
  • (D) Germany
Correct Answer: (C) China
View Solution

Printing is believed to have originated in China, with the invention of woodblock printing during the Tang Dynasty. Quick Tip: When studying the history of printing, keep in mind that the Chinese were the first to develop movable type printing technology.


Question 8:

Who published 'Independence'?

  • (A) Annie Besant
  • (B) Motilal Nehru
  • (C) Gandhi Ji
  • (D) Martin Luther
Correct Answer: (B) Motilal Nehru
View Solution

The newspaper "Independence" was published by Motilal Nehru. He played a significant role in India's freedom struggle and was a key figure in the Indian National Congress. Quick Tip: Motilal Nehru was an influential leader and journalist who used the press to advocate for India's independence.


Question 9:

Who had the first government in South Vietnam?

  • (A) Ho Chi Minh
  • (B) Bao Dai
  • (C) Ngo Dinh Diem
  • (D) Sihanouk
Correct Answer: (C) Ngo Dinh Diem
View Solution

The first government in South Vietnam was headed by Ngo Dinh Diem, who became the president in 1955 after the establishment of the Republic of Vietnam. Quick Tip: When studying the history of Vietnam, remember that Ngo Dinh Diem played a significant role in the creation of South Vietnam and its early government.


Question 10:

When was the first Geneva Convention held?

  • (A) 1854
  • (B) 1864
  • (C) 1874
  • (D) 1884
Correct Answer: (B) 1864
View Solution

The first Geneva Convention was held in 1864. It focused on the treatment of the sick and wounded soldiers in the battlefield, marking the foundation of international humanitarian law. Quick Tip: The Geneva Conventions are essential to international law. The first convention in 1864 focused on humanitarian aid during wartime.


Question 11:

Against which law was a meeting organised in Jallianwala Bagh?

  • (A) Ilbert Bill
  • (B) Rowlatt Act
  • (C) Simon Commission
  • (D) Vernacular Press Act
Correct Answer: (B) Rowlatt Act
View Solution

The meeting at Jallianwala Bagh was organised against the Rowlatt Act, which allowed the British government to arrest anyone without trial and impose martial law. Quick Tip: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was one of the pivotal events in the Indian independence movement, leading to widespread protests against the Rowlatt Act.


Question 12:

When was the unification of Italy completed?

  • (A) 1861
  • (B) 1871
  • (C) 1720
  • (D) 1817
Correct Answer: (B) 1871
View Solution

The unification of Italy was completed in 1871 with the capture of Rome, marking the end of centuries of political fragmentation in the country. Quick Tip: The unification of Italy was a major event in European history, largely achieved under the leadership of figures like Giuseppe Garibaldi and Count Cavour.


Question 13:

Louis Philippe was the ruler of which country?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) France
  • (C) Austria
  • (D) Italy
Correct Answer: (B) France
View Solution

Louis Philippe was the King of France from 1830 to 1848, during the July Monarchy. He was also known as the "Citizen King" due to his middle-class background. Quick Tip: Louis Philippe's reign was marked by relative peace and economic growth, but his refusal to implement more democratic reforms led to his eventual overthrow in 1848.


Question 14:

In which year was the International Women's Day announced?

  • (A) 1975
  • (B) 1978
  • (C) 1980
  • (D) 1985
Correct Answer: (A) 1975
View Solution

International Women's Day was officially recognized by the United Nations in 1975, though it had been celebrated earlier in some countries. Quick Tip: International Women's Day is observed globally on March 8 every year to honor the achievements of women and to advocate for gender equality.


Question 15:

When did India become a member of the World Trade Organization?

  • (A) 1995
  • (B) 1996
  • (C) 1998
  • (D) 1999
Correct Answer: (A) 1995
View Solution

India became a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995. The organization was established to facilitate international trade and resolve trade disputes between nations. Quick Tip: WTO membership enables countries to participate in global trade discussions and benefit from trade agreements, reducing tariffs and barriers.


Question 16:

What title did the British government give to Gandhiji?

  • (A) Knight
  • (B) Kaiser-e-Hind
  • (C) Mahatma
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B) Kaiser-e-Hind
View Solution

The British government awarded Gandhiji the title of Kaiser-e-Hind in 1915 in recognition of his work during the Boer War in South Africa, although he later renounced the title in protest against British policies in India. Quick Tip: While Gandhi was honored by the British, he later rejected such titles in protest of the colonial rule in India.


Question 17:

Which movement was started with the Dandi March?

  • (A) Non-cooperation Movement
  • (B) Quit India Movement
  • (C) Civil Disobedience Movement
  • (D) Champaran Satyagraha
Correct Answer: (C) Civil Disobedience Movement
View Solution

The Dandi March, led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930, marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The march was a non-violent protest against the British monopoly on salt production and sales in India. Quick Tip: The Dandi March was a defining moment in the Indian freedom struggle, leading to mass protests and a significant step towards independence.


Question 18:

Which of the following banks was established first?

  • (A) Punjab National Bank
  • (B) Central Bank of India
  • (C) Bank of India
  • (D) Indian Bank
Correct Answer: (A) Punjab National Bank
View Solution

Punjab National Bank was established in 1894, making it the first among the listed banks to be established. It was one of the pioneering public sector banks in India. Quick Tip: Public sector banks like Punjab National Bank have played a significant role in the economic development of India.


Question 19:

Who was the first President of All India Trade Union Congress?

  • (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  • (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
View Solution

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first president of the All India Trade Union Congress, a key figure in the Indian independence movement and labor rights activism. Quick Tip: Tilak's leadership was instrumental in mobilizing workers and advocating for their rights during the colonial period.


Question 20:

When was the All India Muslim League established?

  • (A) 1902
  • (B) 1906
  • (C) 1911
  • (D) 1912
Correct Answer: (B) 1906
View Solution

The All India Muslim League was established in 1906 in Dhaka. It played a crucial role in the creation of Pakistan and in advocating for the political rights of Muslims in India. Quick Tip: The formation of the All India Muslim League in 1906 marked a pivotal moment in Indian politics, with its growing influence leading to the partition of India in 1947.


Question 21:

Where is Simlipal National Park located?

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Odisha
  • (D) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (C) Odisha
View Solution

Simlipal National Park is located in the state of Odisha, India. It is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including the Royal Bengal Tiger. Quick Tip: National parks like Simlipal are vital for biodiversity conservation and play a key role in protecting endangered species.


Question 22:

Where is Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant situated?

  • (A) Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Kerala
  • (D) West Bengal
Correct Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu
View Solution

The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Tamil Nadu, India, and is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). Quick Tip: India's nuclear power plants, like Kalpakkam, contribute significantly to the country's energy needs through nuclear energy.


Question 23:

Which of the following ports is not located on the eastern coast?

  • (A) Tuticorin
  • (B) Marmagao
  • (C) Paradip
  • (D) Vishakhapatnam
Correct Answer: (B) Marmagao
View Solution

Marmagao Port is located in Goa, which is on the western coast of India. The other ports listed are located on the eastern coast. Quick Tip: When studying India's ports, remember that the eastern coast features key ports like Paradip and Vishakhapatnam, while the western coast is home to Marmagao.


Question 24:

Which of the following is a factor of soil formation?

  • (A) Climate
  • (B) Vegetation
  • (C) Rocks
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Soil formation is influenced by several factors including climate, vegetation, and rocks. These elements interact over time to form fertile soil. Quick Tip: Factors like climate, vegetation, and rocks all play a critical role in the process of soil formation and fertility.


Question 25:

Aus is a type of?

  • (A) Wheat
  • (B) Rice
  • (C) Maize
  • (D) Millet
Correct Answer: (B) Rice
View Solution

Aus is a type of rice. It is one of the varieties of rice cultivated in India and is known for its early maturity and high quality. Quick Tip: Rice is a staple food for millions of people around the world, and varieties like Aus are vital to agricultural systems in India.


Question 26:

Which of the following is not the headquarters of any railway zone?

  • (A) Bilaspur
  • (B) Hajipur
  • (C) Indore
  • (D) Kolkata
Correct Answer: (C) Indore
View Solution

Indore is not the headquarters of any railway zone. Bilaspur, Hajipur, and Kolkata are major railway zones in India. Quick Tip: India's railway system is divided into various zones, each with its headquarters in different cities like Bilaspur, Hajipur, and Kolkata.


Question 27:

Which of the following special economic zones is in West Bengal?

  • (A) Surat
  • (B) Santa Cruz
  • (C) Kandla
  • (D) Falta
Correct Answer: (D) Falta
View Solution

Falta is located in West Bengal and is one of the special economic zones (SEZs) designated to promote industrial growth. Quick Tip: Special economic zones like Falta provide businesses with tax exemptions and other incentives to promote investment and economic growth.


Question 28:

Which is the biggest river valley project of South India?

  • (A) Tungabhadra
  • (B) Sharavati
  • (C) Chambal
  • (D) Hirakud
Correct Answer: (A) Tungabhadra
View Solution

The Tungabhadra River Valley Project is the largest river valley project in South India, aimed at irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. Quick Tip: River valley projects like the Tungabhadra play a key role in the agricultural and economic development of regions.


Question 29:

Who started radio broadcasting in India?

  • (A) Radio Club of Delhi
  • (B) Radio Club of Calcutta
  • (C) Akashvani
  • (D) Radio Club of Bombay
Correct Answer: (B) Radio Club of Calcutta
View Solution

Radio broadcasting in India started with the Radio Club of Calcutta in 1923, which later became the foundation of All India Radio (AIR). Quick Tip: The establishment of radio broadcasting in India helped in shaping the country’s communication infrastructure, which was later transformed into All India Radio.


Question 30:

In which year was All India Radio set up?

  • (A) 1972
  • (B) 1985
  • (C) 1992
  • (D) 1995
Correct Answer: (A) 1972
View Solution

All India Radio was set up in 1972 with the aim of providing radio broadcasts to the masses across India, promoting education, entertainment, and national integration. Quick Tip: All India Radio, also known as Akashvani, is one of the largest radio networks in the world, playing a significant role in Indian culture and communication.


Question 31:

Which district of Bihar is the largest producer of jute?

  • (A) Gaya
  • (B) Bhojpur
  • (C) Purnea
  • (D) Kaimur
Correct Answer: (C) Purnea
View Solution

Purnea is the largest producer of jute in Bihar, and it is well-known for its vast jute fields which contribute significantly to the state's economy. Quick Tip: Jute is one of the major cash crops in Bihar, with Purnea being a key district for its production and processing.


Question 32:

Which of the following is called "Sorrow of Bihar"?

  • (A) Son
  • (B) Gandak
  • (C) Kosi
  • (D) Punpun
Correct Answer: (C) Kosi
View Solution

The Kosi River is often referred to as the "Sorrow of Bihar" because of the frequent floods it causes, which result in loss of life and property. Quick Tip: The Kosi River has been infamous for its devastating floods, leading to extensive damage in Bihar. It is one of the major rivers in the state.


Question 33:

Which state is leading in the production of bauxite?

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Odisha
  • (C) Jharkhand
  • (D) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (B) Odisha
View Solution

Odisha is the leading state in the production of bauxite in India. The state has rich deposits of this mineral, which is crucial for aluminum production. Quick Tip: Odisha is a major producer of many minerals, including bauxite, which supports India's aluminum industry.


Question 34:

Where is black soil found?

  • (A) Jharkhand
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) West Bengal
  • (D) Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: (B) Maharashtra
View Solution

Black soil is primarily found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Tamil Nadu. It is highly suitable for cotton cultivation and is also known as 'Regur soil.' Quick Tip: For agriculture-related questions, remembering soil types and their characteristics is essential.


Question 35:

Bokaro Steel Plant was built in which Five-Year Plan?

  • (A) Second
  • (B) Third
  • (C) Fourth
  • (D) Fifth
Correct Answer: (B) Third
View Solution

The Bokaro Steel Plant was built during the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966). It is one of the major steel plants in India, located in Jharkhand. Quick Tip: The Third Five-Year Plan was crucial in promoting industrial growth in India, including the establishment of major steel plants like Bokaro.


Question 36:

Most of the iron and steel plants were established in which region of India?

  • (A) Deccan Plateau
  • (B) Western Coast
  • (C) Himalayan Region
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Deccan Plateau
View Solution

Most of the iron and steel plants in India are located in the Deccan Plateau region. This region has rich deposits of iron ore and coal, which are essential for steel production. Quick Tip: The Deccan Plateau is rich in mineral resources, making it a prime location for the establishment of iron and steel plants in India.


Question 37:

Which of the following is called new alluvial soil?

  • (A) Khadar
  • (B) Bangar
  • (C) Regur
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Khadar
View Solution

Khadar soil is considered new alluvial soil, typically found along river beds and floodplains. It is fertile and rich in minerals due to frequent flooding and deposition. Quick Tip: Khadar soil is ideal for agriculture due to its fertility, while Bangar soil is older and less fertile.


Question 38:

In which part is mangrove forest mostly found?

  • (A) North-eastern states
  • (B) Sundarban
  • (C) Western coast
  • (D) Andaman-Nicobar islands
Correct Answer: (B) Sundarban
View Solution

The Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world and is mostly found in the delta region of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and home to the famous Royal Bengal Tiger. Quick Tip: Mangrove forests are found in tropical and subtropical coastal regions and serve as important ecosystems that prevent coastal erosion and support biodiversity.


Question 39:

Which of the following is the largest tea exporting port in India?

  • (A) Kochi
  • (B) Kolkata
  • (C) Paradip
  • (D) Mumbai
Correct Answer: (B) Kolkata
View Solution

Kolkata is the largest tea exporting port in India, primarily due to its proximity to the tea-growing regions of Darjeeling, Assam, and other areas. Quick Tip: Kolkata's strategic location and infrastructure make it the primary port for the export of tea and other goods in India.


Question 40:

Which of the following is leading in the production of cotton textile?

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Nagpur
  • (C) Mumbai
  • (D) Surat
Correct Answer: (C) Mumbai
View Solution

Mumbai is a major hub for cotton textile production, with a well-established textile industry that has been central to India's textile exports. Quick Tip: Mumbai, with its historical ties to the cotton industry, continues to lead in cotton textile production in India.


Question 41:

Which part of Bihar is the most prone to flood?

  • (A) Eastern
  • (B) Northern
  • (C) Southern
  • (D) Western
Correct Answer: (A) Eastern
View Solution

The eastern part of Bihar is more prone to floods due to the frequent overflow of rivers like the Kosi, which causes significant damage during the monsoon season. Quick Tip: Bihar’s eastern region is particularly vulnerable to floods due to its proximity to the Kosi and other rivers prone to frequent flooding.


Question 42:

When did the severe earthquake occur in Gujarat?

  • (A) 1998
  • (B) 2001
  • (C) 2002
  • (D) 2005
Correct Answer: (B) 2001
View Solution

The severe earthquake in Gujarat occurred in 2001, specifically on January 26th. This earthquake caused widespread destruction in the state, particularly in Kutch. Quick Tip: The 2001 Gujarat earthquake was one of the most devastating natural disasters in India, causing thousands of casualties and widespread damage.


Question 43:

Which scheme has been launched to prevent the decline of underground water level?

  • (A) Rainwater harvesting
  • (B) Watershed management
  • (C) Drip irrigation
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

To prevent the decline of underground water levels, multiple schemes have been implemented, including rainwater harvesting, watershed management, and drip irrigation. Quick Tip: Rainwater harvesting and drip irrigation are key to sustainable water management, especially in water-scarce regions.


Question 44:

Which of the following is a river of South Bihar?

  • (A) Gandak
  • (B) Son
  • (C) Kosi
  • (D) Kamala
Correct Answer: (B) Son
View Solution

The Son River is a major river of South Bihar, contributing to the agricultural and ecological systems of the region. Quick Tip: The Son River is an important tributary of the Ganga and flows through the southern part of Bihar.


Question 45:

How much does the intensity of an earthquake increase after each unit of the Richter scale?

  • (A) Five times
  • (B) Seven times
  • (C) Ten times
  • (D) Fifteen times
Correct Answer: (C) Ten times
View Solution

The intensity of an earthquake increases by a factor of ten for each unit increase on the Richter scale, making higher magnitude earthquakes significantly more powerful. Quick Tip: An increase of one unit on the Richter scale represents a tenfold increase in the intensity of an earthquake.


Question 46:

Which is the 22nd State of India?

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Mizoram
  • (C) Sikkim
  • (D) Manipur
Correct Answer: (C) Sikkim
View Solution

Sikkim became the 22nd state of India in 1975 after it was merged into the Indian Union. Quick Tip: Sikkim is the only state in India to have become a state post-independence, in 1975.


Question 47:

By what name is the mass struggle of 1974 known?

  • (A) Green Revolution
  • (B) Total Revolution
  • (C) Rainbow Revolution
  • (D) White Revolution
Correct Answer: (B) Total Revolution
View Solution

The mass struggle of 1974 led by Jayaprakash Narayan is known as the Total Revolution. It was a movement aimed at improving social, economic, and political conditions in India. Quick Tip: The Total Revolution was a call for systemic change in various facets of Indian society and politics, driven by the ideals of non-violence and civil disobedience.


Question 48:

Money, banking, communications like matters are kept in which list?

  • (A) Union List
  • (B) State List
  • (C) Concurrent List
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Union List
View Solution

Money, banking, and communications are part of the **Union List** in the Constitution of India, meaning only the **Central Government** has the authority to legislate on these subjects. Quick Tip: The **Union List** contains subjects of national importance, on which only the **Central Government** can make laws, ensuring uniformity across the country.


Question 49:

What is the 12th schedule of the constitution related to?

  • (A) Jurisdiction of municipality
  • (B) Income sources of municipal corporation
  • (C) Directive principles of state
  • (D) Fundamental rights
Correct Answer: (A) Jurisdiction of municipality
View Solution

The 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipal authorities. It defines the structure of municipalities and urban local bodies. Quick Tip: The 12th Schedule is important for understanding local governance and urban administration in India.


Question 50:

How many other languages are recognized as scheduled languages by the constitution besides Hindi?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 19
Correct Answer: (B) 21
View Solution

The Indian Constitution recognizes 21 other languages as scheduled languages besides Hindi. These are listed in the Eighth Schedule. Quick Tip: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the languages recognized as scheduled languages, ensuring linguistic diversity in India.


Question 51:

In which country was the foundation of political parties laid for the first time?

  • (A) Britain
  • (B) India
  • (C) France
  • (D) United States of America
Correct Answer: (A) Britain
View Solution

The foundation of political parties was laid in Britain during the late 17th century with the formation of the Whigs and Tories, who were the first political parties in the world. Quick Tip: Britain is where modern political parties first took shape, influencing democratic systems worldwide.


Question 52:

With which states is the Narmada Valley Project related?

  • (A) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka
  • (C) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: (C) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
View Solution

The Narmada Valley Project is related to the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh. It involves the construction of a series of dams on the Narmada River. Quick Tip: The Narmada Valley Project aims at flood control, irrigation, and electricity generation across these three states.


Question 53:

When was the West Indies Federation established?

  • (A) 1950
  • (B) 1958
  • (C) 1973
  • (D) 1999
Correct Answer: (B) 1958
View Solution

The West Indies Federation was established in 1958 as a political union of several Caribbean islands, aimed at fostering regional cooperation. Quick Tip: The West Indies Federation was an important step toward regional unity, although it was short-lived and dissolved in 1962.


Question 54:

In which article of the constitution has the local self-government been given a place?

  • (A) Article 31
  • (B) Article 35
  • (C) Article 40
  • (D) Article 42
Correct Answer: (C) Article 40
View Solution

Article 40 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the organization of local self-governments in rural areas. It encourages the formation of Panchayats in rural areas. Quick Tip: Article 40 plays an essential role in the decentralization of governance and promotes local self-governance in rural India.


Question 55:

Which of the following has been called the 'lifeline of democracy'?

  • (A) Local self-government
  • (B) Political parties
  • (C) Fundamental Rights
  • (D) Directive Principles
Correct Answer: (B) Political parties
View Solution

Political parties have been called the 'lifeline of democracy' because they play a crucial role in the functioning of democratic systems, providing a platform for political debate, leadership, and governance. Quick Tip: Political parties are essential to the functioning of democracy as they help to organize political debates, form governments, and ensure accountability.


Question 56:

Which of the following has a unitary system of government?

  • (A) India
  • (B) England
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) Australia
Correct Answer: (B) England
View Solution

England follows a unitary system of government, where the central government holds the majority of political power. Unlike federal systems, there is no division between central and regional powers. Quick Tip: A unitary system centralizes power in the central government, as opposed to a federal system, where power is shared between central and state governments.


Question 57:

Who of the following is appointed by the state government?

  • (A) Mayor
  • (B) Mukhiya
  • (C) City Commissioner
  • (D) All of them
Correct Answer: (D) All of them
View Solution

All the mentioned positions (Mayor, Mukhiya, City Commissioner) are appointed by the state government at various levels. The Mayor is typically elected, while the others may be appointed by the state government. Quick Tip: Positions like Mayor and City Commissioner are often appointed or elected based on the local governance structure and the state government's decisions.


Question 58:

In which of the following systems, there is a possibility of forming coalition government?

  • (A) One-party system
  • (B) Two-party system
  • (C) Multi-party system
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Multi-party system
View Solution

In a multi-party system, coalition governments are formed when no single party has a clear majority, leading to alliances between different parties. Quick Tip: Multi-party systems often require coalition governments, especially in democratic countries with a diverse range of political views.


Question 59:

Which of the following is a bad result of the spirit of regionalism?

  • (A) Fondness of own region
  • (B) Separatism
  • (C) National interest
  • (D) National integrity
Correct Answer: (B) Separatism
View Solution

Separatism is often seen as a negative result of regionalism when regional groups push for autonomy or independence from the larger nation, undermining national unity. Quick Tip: Regionalism can lead to stronger local identities, but when taken to extremes, it may fuel separatism, which challenges the unity of the nation.


Question 60:

Where is the executive officer appointed?

  • (A) Gram Panchayat
  • (B) Municipal Corporation
  • (C) Nagar Panchayat
  • (D) Nagar Parishad
Correct Answer: (B) Municipal Corporation
View Solution

The executive officer is appointed in a Municipal Corporation. This officer is responsible for the administration and implementation of policies in urban areas. Quick Tip: The executive officer in urban governance structures ensures the smooth functioning of municipal services and programs.


Question 61:

In where of the following was the social division based on language?

  • (A) Belgium
  • (B) Northern Ireland
  • (C) Bolivia
  • (D) Nepal
Correct Answer: (A) Belgium
View Solution

Belgium is an example of a country where social divisions were based on language, with conflicts between the Dutch-speaking Flemish and the French-speaking Walloons. Quick Tip: When studying social divisions based on language, keep an eye on Belgium's history of conflict between its Dutch and French-speaking regions.


Question 62:

When was the Constituent Assembly formed?

  • (A) 1945
  • (B) 1946
  • (C) 1947
  • (D) 1948
Correct Answer: (B) 1946
View Solution

The **Constituent Assembly of India** was formed in **1946** under the **Cabinet Mission Plan**. It was responsible for drafting the **Constitution of India**, which was adopted on **November 26, 1949**, and came into effect on **January 26, 1950**. Quick Tip: The **Constituent Assembly** was formed in **1946**, and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar played a crucial role as the Chairman of the **Drafting Committee**.


Question 63:

When was the Planning Commission formed?

  • (A) 1948
  • (B) 1950
  • (C) 1952
  • (D) 1954
Correct Answer: (B) 1950
View Solution

The Planning Commission of India was established in 1950 to oversee the country's economic planning and to formulate five-year plans for development. Quick Tip: The Planning Commission was an essential body for India’s economic growth in the post-independence period, responsible for creating a blueprint for the country's development.


Question 64:

When was the first Human Development Report of India released?

  • (A) May 2000
  • (B) April 2001
  • (C) April 2002
  • (D) August 2005
Correct Answer: (C) April 2002
View Solution

The first Human Development Report of India was released in April 2002. It was an important milestone in assessing India's progress in terms of education, health, and living standards, rather than just economic growth. Quick Tip: The Human Development Report is an important tool for measuring progress beyond GDP, focusing on human well-being, education, and health.


Question 65:

Who gave the calorie criteria for determining the poverty line?

  • (A) Tendulkar Committee
  • (B) Planning Commission
  • (C) National Development Council
  • (D) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: (B) Planning Commission
View Solution

The Planning Commission of India introduced the calorie-based criteria for determining the poverty line. This approach, based on minimum calorie consumption, was first suggested by the Task Force on Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand in 1979. It defined poverty based on caloric intake: 2,400 kcal per day in rural areas and 2,100 kcal per day in urban areas. Quick Tip: The \textbf{Planning Commission's calorie-based poverty line} was later revised by the \textbf{Tendulkar Committee (2009)}, which shifted focus to a broader expenditure-based measure.


Question 66:

What is the remuneration of land called?

  • (A) Interest
  • (B) Wages
  • (C) Profit
  • (D) Rent
Correct Answer: (D) Rent
View Solution

The remuneration or payment for land is called "Rent." It is one of the primary factors of production in economics. Quick Tip: In economics, land is considered one of the factors of production, and its payment is called "Rent."


Question 67:

Which state of India has the highest per capita income?

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Punjab
  • (C) Telangana
  • (D) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (A) Goa
View Solution

Goa has the highest per capita income among the states of India, due to its higher levels of tourism and development. Quick Tip: States with higher per capita income tend to have better economic development, tourism, and industrial output.


Question 68:

What is the monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a year called?

  • (A) Gross National Product
  • (B) Gross Domestic Product
  • (C) Net Domestic Product
  • (D) Net National Product
Correct Answer: (B) Gross Domestic Product
View Solution

The monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a year is known as the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). It is a key economic indicator that measures the overall economic performance of a country and helps assess its growth and development. Quick Tip: \textbf{Gross Domestic Product (GDP)} represents the total value of production within a country's borders, while \textbf{Gross National Product (GNP)} includes income earned by residents from abroad.


Question 69:

Which was formed under the chairmanship of Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis?

  • (A) Central Statistical Organization
  • (B) Human Development Index
  • (C) National Income Committee
  • (D) Planning Commission
Correct Answer: (A) Central Statistical Organization
View Solution

The Central Statistical Organization was formed under the chairmanship of Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis, primarily to aid in data collection and statistical analysis for economic planning. Quick Tip: The role of statistical organizations is crucial for providing data that informs national economic decisions and planning.


Question 70:

Rupee is the currency of which of the following countries?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Nepal
  • (C) Pakistan
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

The Rupee is used as the official currency in India (Indian Rupee - INR), Nepal (Nepalese Rupee - NPR), and Pakistan (Pakistani Rupee - PKR). Each country issues its own version of the rupee, with different values and exchange rates. Quick Tip: Several countries use the term \textbf{"Rupee"} for their national currency, but each has its own independent monetary system and exchange rate.


Question 71:

What is saving?

  • (A) Difference between consumption and saving
  • (B) Difference between income and consumption
  • (C) Difference between consumption and production
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Difference between income and consumption
View Solution

Saving is the portion of income that is not spent on consumption. It is calculated as the difference between income and consumption, representing the funds available for future investment or security. Quick Tip: \textbf{Saving} is essential for financial stability and future investment. It is the amount left after deducting consumption expenses from total income.


Question 72:

Which of the following is not a letter of credit?

  • (A) Cheque
  • (B) Bank draft
  • (C) Overdraft
  • (D) Promissory note
Correct Answer: (C) Overdraft
View Solution

A letter of credit is a financial instrument issued by a bank guaranteeing that a buyer’s payment to a seller will be received on time. However, an overdraft is a facility that allows an account holder to withdraw more money than is available in their account, making it different from a letter of credit. Quick Tip: A \textbf{letter of credit} ensures payment security in international trade, whereas an \textbf{overdraft} is a loan facility allowing withdrawals beyond available balance.


Question 73:

Which of the following is a part of capital market?

  • (A) Securities market
  • (B) Industrial market
  • (C) Development financial institution
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Securities market
View Solution

Securities market is a part of the capital market, which deals in long-term funding through instruments like stocks and bonds. Quick Tip: Capital markets are where long-term financial instruments such as stocks, bonds, and other securities are bought and sold.


Question 74:

When was the Cooperative Credit Society Act passed?

  • (A) 1904
  • (B) 1912
  • (C) 1914
  • (D) 1919
Correct Answer: (A) 1904
View Solution

The Cooperative Credit Society Act was passed in 1904 to facilitate the establishment of cooperative banks and credit societies across India. Quick Tip: The Cooperative Credit Society Act laid the foundation for cooperative banking and credit societies in India, aiming to help small borrowers.


Question 75:

Which sector contributes the most to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

  • (A) Agriculture sector
  • (B) Industrial sector
  • (C) Service sector
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Service sector
View Solution

The service sector, including industries like IT, finance, and telecommunications, contributes the largest share to India's GDP, accounting for a significant portion of the economy. Quick Tip: India's economic growth is primarily driven by the service sector, especially the IT and financial industries, which have seen rapid growth in recent years.


Question 76:

When was the LPG policy adopted in India?

  • (A) 1990
  • (B) 1991
  • (C) 1995
  • (D) 2001
Correct Answer: (B) 1991
View Solution

The LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) policy was adopted in India in 1991, marking a major shift in the country's economic policy. Quick Tip: The LPG reforms of 1991 significantly opened up the Indian economy to the global market and reduced restrictions on businesses.


Question 77:

Mining is included in which sector?

  • (A) Agriculture sector
  • (B) Industrial sector
  • (C) Service sector
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Agriculture sector
View Solution

Mining is often considered part of the industrial sector because it involves resource extraction and processing. However, in some economic classifications, primary activities like mining, along with agriculture, forestry, and fishing, are grouped under the primary sector due to their reliance on natural resources. Quick Tip: The classification of mining varies: it is generally part of the \textbf{industrial sector}, but in broader economic models, it may be categorized under the \textbf{primary sector}, along with agriculture and forestry.


Question 78:

Which is the agency function of commercial bank?

  • (A) To give loan
  • (B) Buying and selling of securities
  • (C) To provide locker
  • (D) To accept deposits
Correct Answer: (D) To accept deposits
View Solution

The primary agency function of a commercial bank is to accept deposits from the public and provide services related to their management. Quick Tip: Commercial banks play a crucial role in the economy by accepting deposits and providing financial services to individuals and businesses.


Question 79:

What is the basic element of cooperative?

  • (A) Mutual cooperation
  • (B) Voluntary membership
  • (C) Democratic functioning
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

The basic elements of a cooperative are mutual cooperation, voluntary membership, and democratic functioning, which are the fundamental principles of cooperatives. Quick Tip: Cooperatives are built on the foundation of mutual cooperation, voluntary membership, and democratic decision-making.


Question 80:

Which of the following leads to capital formation?

  • (A) Consumption
  • (B) Exchange
  • (C) Saving
  • (D) Investment
Correct Answer: (C) Saving
View Solution

Capital formation occurs when savings are invested in the economy. Savings contribute to building capital, which is crucial for economic growth. Quick Tip: Saving is the key to capital formation because it leads to investment, which drives economic development.


Question 81:

What were the main causes for the economic depression of 1929?

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The 1929 depression was caused by the 1929 stock market crash, leading to bank failures, mass unemployment, and a decline in international trade. Overproduction and the collapse of key financial institutions contributed to the worldwide economic crisis.
Quick Tip: The 1929 Great Depression had long-lasting global effects on both the economy and society, starting with the stock market crash in the U.S.


Question 82:

What were the economic effects of the Non-cooperation Movement?

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The Non-cooperation Movement led to a boycott of British goods and institutions, boosting Indian industries. It created economic instability for the British. While some sectors suffered, the movement promoted self-reliance, particularly in the textile and handicrafts industries.
Quick Tip: Boycotting British goods during the Non-cooperation Movement enhanced the development of indigenous industries in India.


Question 83:

How did the intellectual awakening affect the Russian Revolution?

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Intellectual awakening, particularly through Marxism and Leninism, inspired widespread discontent with Tsarist rule. Ideas of equality, workers' rights, and revolution prompted mass mobilization. It galvanized revolutionary movements, leading to the overthrow of Tsar Nicholas II and the rise of Soviet power.
Quick Tip: Intellectual movements such as Marxism were crucial in shaping revolutionary ideologies and inspiring the Russian Revolution.


Question 84:

State the reasons for the rise of nationalism in Vietnam.

Correct Answer:
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Nationalism in Vietnam arose due to French exploitation, social inequality, and cultural suppression. The desire for self-rule grew after observing successful anti-colonial movements in other countries. The spread of nationalist ideas led to resistance against French colonial rule and the fight for independence.
Quick Tip: Nationalism in Vietnam was driven by both the hardships under colonial rule and the growing desire for national independence.


Question 85:

Between whom and why was the Pune Agreement signed?

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The Pune Agreement was signed in 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. The agreement addressed the issue of separate electorates for Dalits, granting them reserved seats but rejecting separate electorates, thus ensuring unity within Hindu society.
Quick Tip: The Pune Agreement was significant in securing political rights for Dalits while maintaining social unity in India.


Question 86:

Why was the New Deal implemented?

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The New Deal, implemented by President Franklin D. Roosevelt, was designed to provide relief, recovery, and reform during the Great Depression. Its main goals were to alleviate unemployment, stimulate economic growth, and prevent future economic downturns. It introduced public works programs, banking reforms, and social security, significantly reshaping the U.S. economy and government role in economic affairs.
Quick Tip: The New Deal is considered one of the most significant efforts in U.S. history to combat a national economic crisis.


Question 87:

Discuss the causes and effects of the rise of nationalism in Europe.

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The rise of nationalism in Europe during the 19th century was a result of various factors. One of the main causes was the spread of liberal ideas that challenged traditional monarchies and empires. The French Revolution of 1789 played a significant role in spreading the concept of equality, fraternity, and liberty, which encouraged people to fight for self-determination. The idea of the nation-state also gained momentum, which called for the unity of people who shared a common language, culture, and history.

Nationalism further spread due to economic factors, such as the Industrial Revolution, which led to increased trade and communication across Europe, helping in the creation of a sense of shared national identity. Furthermore, the decline of powerful empires, such as the Ottoman Empire and the Austro-Hungarian Empire, created opportunities for smaller nations to assert their independence.

The effects of nationalism were significant. It led to the unification of Italy and Germany under strong leaders like Cavour and Bismarck. Nationalism also contributed to the weakening of empires and the creation of new states. However, it also resulted in conflicts, such as the wars between European nations, the Balkan Wars, and eventually World War I. Nationalism intensified competition among European powers and led to a dangerous arms race. In conclusion, while nationalism contributed to the formation of modern nation-states, it also caused instability and violent conflicts.
Quick Tip: Nationalism in Europe significantly influenced both the unification of nations and the outbreak of wars, making it an important factor in shaping modern European history.


Question 88:

Discuss the contribution of the Indian National Congress in the Indian National Movement.

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The Indian National Congress (INC), formed in 1885, played a crucial role in India's struggle for independence. Initially, the INC aimed for moderate political reforms under British colonial rule, seeking constitutional changes and the expansion of Indian participation in governance. Its early leaders, such as Allan Octavian Hume, were primarily focused on achieving reforms through dialogue with the British government.

As the national movement gained momentum, the INC, under the leadership of figures like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and later Mahatma Gandhi, shifted towards more radical methods. The movement embraced mass mobilization through the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) and the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930). Gandhi’s philosophy of non-violence and civil disobedience gained widespread support, inspiring millions to join in protests against British rule.

The INC also became the central platform for various struggles, such as the Salt March in 1930 and the Quit India Movement in 1942. The Quit India Movement, in particular, was a call for immediate independence, highlighting the growing resentment against colonial rule. The INC's efforts were not limited to protests and boycotts. It also focused on social reform, promoting issues such as untouchability, education, and the empowerment of women.

In conclusion, the Indian National Congress was instrumental in uniting the Indian people against British colonialism. Its diverse strategies, from constitutional methods to mass protests, ultimately led to India's independence in 1947, making the INC a vital force in the Indian National Movement.
Quick Tip: The Indian National Congress evolved from a moderate group to a radical force for change, uniting Indians in the fight for independence through diverse strategies.


Question 89:

How is communalism a threat to democracy?

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Communalism divides people based on religious, ethnic, or cultural differences, undermining the unity essential for a functioning democracy. It promotes intolerance, violence, and social unrest, weakening democratic values such as equality, justice, and secularism. When these values are compromised, the political stability necessary for democracy becomes fragile, leading to polarization and conflict. Quick Tip: A strong democracy is built on unity, equality, and secularism. Counteracting communalism through education and inclusive policies is crucial to preserving democratic integrity.


Question 90:

State the jurisdiction of the village court.

Correct Answer:
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The village court has jurisdiction over minor civil disputes, family issues, and petty criminal offenses within the local community. It helps resolve local issues in a simplified manner, providing easier access to justice for villagers. It deals with matters such as property disputes, domestic issues, and small civil claims.
Quick Tip: Village courts promote local justice by resolving small disputes within the community quickly, reducing the burden on higher courts.


Question 91:

What is the utility of opposition party in a democracy?

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The opposition party plays an essential role in a democracy by keeping the ruling party in check. It challenges government policies, provides alternative solutions, and protects the interests of minority groups. By holding the government accountable, it helps improve decision-making and ensures a balance of power in the political system.
Quick Tip: The opposition ensures democracy thrives by offering constructive criticism, proposing alternatives, and preventing authoritarianism.


Question 92:

Explain the difference between Federal and Unitary government systems.

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In a federal system, power is shared between central and regional governments, with each having autonomy in specific areas. A unitary system, however, centralizes authority, granting the central government the supreme power. The federal system allows for more local autonomy, while a unitary system maintains stronger central control over all administrative matters.
Quick Tip: Federal systems empower states or regions, offering autonomy, while unitary systems centralize control to maintain uniformity across the country.


Question 93:

How is the Federal system helpful in National integration? Describe.

Correct Answer:
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The Federal system plays a significant role in national integration by balancing the power between central and regional governments. It allows states to maintain autonomy over their cultural, social, and regional concerns while ensuring that the central government holds enough authority to govern the nation as a whole. This division of power helps accommodate regional diversity, reduce tensions, and promote peaceful coexistence. In India, the Federal system has allowed for the peaceful coexistence of states with different languages, religions, and cultural traditions, ensuring unity in diversity. By providing equal representation at the central level, it ensures that all states have a voice in shaping national policies. Moreover, federal systems can adapt policies based on the specific needs of different states while ensuring that national unity is not compromised. This decentralization strengthens the fabric of the nation and prevents the domination of any one group, making federalism a crucial mechanism for national integration.
Quick Tip: Federalism ensures that local and regional identities are respected while preserving national unity, promoting peace and stability.


Question 94:

Describe the effects of communal and caste differences on the politics of India.

Correct Answer:
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Communal and caste differences have significantly impacted the politics of India. These divisions have created challenges in governance, as political parties often seek support based on religious or caste affiliations. This leads to the fragmentation of the electorate and can result in vote-bank politics, where parties cater to the interests of specific groups rather than focusing on national issues. The rise of communalism, particularly religious polarization, has sometimes resulted in social unrest and violence. Caste-based politics has also led to the formation of caste-based parties that may prioritize the needs of one group over another, creating division rather than unity. However, India's democratic system has also helped in providing political representation to various marginalized communities, giving them a voice in the decision-making process. The challenge, however, remains in ensuring that these divisions do not hinder social and economic progress. A balance needs to be struck between maintaining social harmony and promoting inclusive politics that transcends caste and communal identities.
Quick Tip: Promoting secular and inclusive policies in India is essential to overcoming communal and caste-based politics for national progress.


Question 95:

State the components of Human Development Index.

Correct Answer:
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The Human Development Index (HDI) is calculated using three main components: life expectancy, which reflects the health dimension; education, measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling; and per capita income, which indicates the standard of living. These components combine to assess a country's development beyond just economic factors.
Quick Tip: HDI helps evaluate social and economic development by focusing on health, education, and income indicators, making it a comprehensive measure.


Question 96:

Why is sustainable development necessary?

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Sustainable development is necessary to meet present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs. It focuses on environmental protection, social equity, and economic growth, ensuring that resources are used efficiently. This balanced approach helps prevent the depletion of natural resources, reduces environmental degradation, and promotes long-term social and economic stability.
Quick Tip: Sustainable development is crucial to achieving lasting growth, considering environmental, social, and economic factors to ensure future well-being.


Question 97:

Explain the difference between cheque and bank draft.

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A cheque is a written order directing a bank to pay a specific amount from the issuer's account to the payee. It can bounce if there are insufficient funds. A bank draft, however, is a pre-paid payment method issued by a bank, guaranteeing the funds. Since it is drawn against the bank's own funds, it is considered more secure and cannot bounce.
Quick Tip: A bank draft is more reliable than a cheque as it guarantees payment, making it a safer option for large transactions.


Question 98:

Explain the four rights of the consumer under the Consumer Protection Act.

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Under the Consumer Protection Act, consumers have four main rights: the right to safety (protection from hazardous goods), the right to be informed (access to accurate information about products), the right to choose (freedom to choose from available options), and the right to seek redressal (ability to address grievances and seek compensation). These rights empower consumers to make informed and safe choices in the market.
Quick Tip: Consumers should be aware of their rights to safeguard themselves from exploitation and ensure fair treatment in the marketplace.


Question 99:

Discuss the main functions of commercial banks.

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Commercial banks are essential for the financial system and economy. Their primary function is to accept deposits and provide loans. Deposits are gathered from individuals, businesses, and the government. These deposits are then used to offer loans to people, businesses, and institutions, which helps stimulate economic growth. Banks also provide payment services, such as issuing cheques and facilitating electronic payments. They offer foreign exchange services, allowing individuals and businesses to exchange currencies. In addition, commercial banks act as intermediaries in the financial markets, helping to distribute capital effectively across the economy. Furthermore, they help in maintaining liquidity, manage savings, and promote investments, which is crucial for economic growth and financial stability. By offering a range of products and services, commercial banks contribute to financial inclusion, enabling individuals and businesses to access essential financial tools. Quick Tip: Commercial banks play a central role in economic development by providing capital and facilitating financial transactions.


Question 100:

What is saving? Discuss the factors affecting saving.

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Saving is the portion of income that is not spent immediately but set aside for future use. It is crucial for personal financial security and enables individuals to meet future expenses such as retirement, healthcare, or education. Factors influencing saving include income level, interest rates, and economic conditions. Higher income typically leads to higher saving rates, as individuals have more disposable income. Interest rates incentivize saving by offering returns on deposits. Conversely, low-interest rates may discourage saving. Economic conditions, such as inflation and job security, also affect saving behavior. During times of economic uncertainty, people may save more for financial security. Additionally, government policies like tax incentives for savings can encourage saving. Psychological factors, such as an individual’s attitude towards money and long-term goals, play a role in saving behavior. In a growing economy, saving provides the capital necessary for investments, driving future growth. Quick Tip: A strong saving habit is essential for financial stability, and factors like income, interest rates, and economic conditions greatly influence it.


Question 101:

Name four main national waterways of India.

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India has a vast network of national waterways. The major national waterways include:
1. National Waterway 1 (Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system),
2. National Waterway 2 (Brahmaputra River),
3. National Waterway 3 (West Coast Canal),
4. National Waterway 4 (Godavari-Krishna rivers system). These waterways help in transporting goods, reducing road traffic, and boosting the economy. Quick Tip: National waterways improve the movement of goods across the country and reduce dependency on road and rail transportation.


Question 102:

Write a short note on the utility of resource conservation.

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Resource conservation is essential for sustaining our natural environment and ensuring future generations can meet their needs. It helps in preserving biodiversity, conserving energy, reducing pollution, and managing natural resources effectively. By conserving resources like water, forests, and energy, we reduce environmental damage, mitigate climate change, and maintain ecological balance, which is crucial for sustainable development. Quick Tip: Resource conservation is fundamental to sustainable development, helping preserve resources for future generations.


Question 103:

Write the characteristics of delta soil.

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Delta soil is highly fertile and rich in minerals. It is found in the deltas of rivers, such as the Ganges and the Godavari. This soil has a good amount of moisture, nutrients, and organic matter, making it suitable for agriculture. Delta soils are typically loamy, capable of holding water efficiently, and support a variety of crops, including rice and jute. Quick Tip: Delta soil is rich in fertility, thanks to its mineral content, making it suitable for growing water-intensive crops.


Question 104:

Differentiate between agro-based and mineral-based industries.

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Agro-based industries rely on raw materials sourced from agriculture, such as food processing, textiles, and paper manufacturing. These industries are dependent on seasonal crop production. Mineral-based industries, on the other hand, utilize mineral resources as raw materials, such as iron and steel, cement, and coal industries. These industries are generally more energy-intensive and do not rely on agricultural cycles. Quick Tip: Agro-based industries use agricultural produce, while mineral-based industries rely on raw minerals for manufacturing processes.


Question 105:

Why is buffer stock created?

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Buffer stock is created by the government to ensure food security. It involves storing surplus food grains during years of abundance to be used during times of scarcity, such as during droughts or floods. Buffer stocks help in stabilizing food prices and ensuring that there is always a steady supply of essential food items to meet the needs of the population. Quick Tip: Buffer stocks help stabilize food prices and maintain supply during times of crisis, ensuring food security.


Question 106:

What is the importance of border roads?

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Border roads are vital for national security and economic development. They facilitate movement of troops and supplies along the borders, ensuring quick response in times of national security threats. Additionally, border roads improve access to remote areas, promote trade with neighboring countries, and support the economic integration of border regions by improving connectivity and infrastructure. Quick Tip: Border roads are essential for national security, providing quick access to remote areas and supporting economic integration.


Question 107:

Mention the measures to increase the forest wealth in India.

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To increase the forest wealth in India, several measures need to be adopted:


1. \hspace{0.2cm Afforestation and reforestation programs must be implemented on a large scale to restore depleted forest areas.


2. \hspace{0.2cm Protection of existing forests by enforcing laws and regulations against deforestation.


3. \hspace{0.2cm Encouraging the sustainable use of forest resources, such as non-timber forest products.


4. \hspace{0.2cm Promoting agroforestry and community-based forest management to involve local communities in conservation efforts.


5. \hspace{0.2cm Increasing awareness about the importance of forests and the need for conservation at the grassroots level.


By adopting these measures, India can effectively increase its forest cover, thus enhancing biodiversity and mitigating climate change. Quick Tip: The key to increasing forest wealth is a balance between conservation efforts and sustainable use of forest resources.


Question 108:

Write a short note on the impact of globalization on Indian agriculture.

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Globalization has had a significant impact on Indian agriculture, both positive and negative. On the positive side, it has opened up new markets for Indian agricultural products, leading to increased exports. The introduction of advanced agricultural technology and modern farming practices has also enhanced productivity. However, globalization has also led to challenges, such as increased competition from foreign agricultural products, which sometimes undermines local farmers. Moreover, the pressure to produce for global markets has sometimes resulted in unsustainable farming practices. Additionally, the focus on cash crops for export has reduced the diversity of crops grown for domestic consumption. Therefore, while globalization has provided new opportunities, it has also posed challenges to the sustainability and equity of Indian agriculture. Quick Tip: Globalization brings opportunities but also challenges, particularly in balancing local needs with global market demands.


Question 109:

Name the alternative communication means used in natural calamities.

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In natural calamities, alternative communication methods include the use of satellite phones, ham radios, loudspeakers, and mobile networks. Additionally, social media platforms and community messaging systems help in disseminating critical information to affected populations and rescue teams. Quick Tip: During emergencies, communication methods should be diversified, ensuring redundancy in case one system fails.


Question 110:

Mention the damages caused by flood.

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Floods cause extensive damage, including destruction of infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and homes. Crops, livestock, and farmland are often destroyed, leading to food scarcity. Floods also cause loss of life, displacing communities and increasing the risk of diseases due to contaminated water sources. Quick Tip: Flood preparedness involves building infrastructure that can withstand floods and proper drainage systems to minimize damage.


Question 111:

State the causes of drought.

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Drought is caused by prolonged periods of below-average rainfall, inadequate water retention in the soil, and reduced water levels in rivers and reservoirs. Other contributing factors include climate change, deforestation, and unsustainable water usage for agriculture and industrial activities. Quick Tip: To prevent drought, effective water management practices, along with sustainable agriculture and forest conservation, are essential.


Question 112:

What types of houses are built in earthquake prone areas?

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In earthquake-prone areas, houses are built using flexible and lightweight materials like wood, steel, and reinforced concrete. Earthquake-resistant designs include reinforced walls, cross-bracing, and foundations that allow movement. Buildings are often equipped with seismic dampers to reduce the forces during an earthquake. Quick Tip: Building houses with seismic resilience is crucial to minimize damage and ensure the safety of inhabitants during earthquakes.


Bihar Board Class Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers

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