Bihar Board Class 10 Science(Set I - Shift 2)Question Paper 2024 (Available):Download Solution With Answer Key

Chanpreet Kaur's profile photo

Chanpreet Kaur

Content Writer | MBA Professional | Updated 3+ months ago

Bihar Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2024 (Set I) with Answer Key pdf is available for download here. The Science paper was conducted on February 20, 2024 in the evening shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. The question paper was divided into two sections - Section A for objective questions and Section B for subjective questions.

Bihar Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2024 (Set I) with Answer Key (Shift 2)

Bihar Board Class 10 2024 Science Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Bihar Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2024 with Solutions 

Question 1:

The expulsion of water through stomata in the form of vapor from the aerial part of the plant is known as:

  • (A) osmosis
  • (B) transpiration
  • (C) excretion
  • (D) diffusion
Correct Answer: (B) transpiration
View Solution

The process by which water is expelled from plants through the stomata (small pores in leaves and stems) in the form of vapor is called transpiration. This process plays a crucial role in maintaining the flow of water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant, and also helps in cooling the plant.

Osmosis (option A) refers to the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to high solute concentration. Excretion (option C) is the process of eliminating waste materials from the body. Diffusion (option D) refers to the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, but not specifically in the context of water vapor expulsion in plants. Quick Tip: Transpiration helps in cooling plants, maintaining water flow, and ensuring the uptake of minerals from the soil.


Question 2:

The tiger is a consumer of:

  • (A) first trophic level
  • (B) second trophic level
  • (C) third trophic level
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) third trophic level
View Solution

The tiger, being a carnivore, feeds on herbivores (the second trophic level). It does not consume primary producers (plants), which are at the first trophic level, nor does it consume other carnivores, which are typically at higher levels. Therefore, the tiger occupies the third trophic level as a secondary consumer. Quick Tip: In a food chain, primary consumers (herbivores) occupy the second trophic level, and secondary consumers (carnivores like the tiger) occupy the third trophic level.


Question 3:

The place of origin of humans is:

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) Africa
  • (D) America
Correct Answer: (C) Africa
View Solution

Based on fossil and genetic evidence, it is widely accepted that the origin of modern humans can be traced to Africa. The "Out of Africa" hypothesis suggests that humans evolved in Africa and later migrated to other regions of the world. Quick Tip: The origin of humans is traced back to Africa according to the "Out of Africa" theory.


Question 4:

Peristalsis movement is found in:

  • (A) Colon
  • (B) Oesophagus
  • (C) Pancreas
  • (D) Small intestine
Correct Answer: (B) Oesophagus
View Solution

Peristalsis refers to the wave-like muscular contractions that move food through the digestive tract. This process is most notably found in the oesophagus, where it moves food from the mouth to the stomach. Peristalsis also occurs in other parts of the digestive system, such as the small intestine and colon. Quick Tip: Peristalsis is critical for the movement of food and liquids through the digestive system, starting from the oesophagus.


Question 5:

Open circulatory system is found in:

  • (A) Pigeon
  • (B) Butterfly
  • (C) Man
  • (D) Cat
Correct Answer: (B) Butterfly
View Solution

An open circulatory system, where blood is not confined to vessels but flows freely within cavities, is found in arthropods such as butterflies. In contrast, vertebrates like humans, pigeons, and cats have a closed circulatory system. Quick Tip: Arthropods like butterflies have an open circulatory system, which is different from the closed system found in vertebrates.


Question 6:

The carrier of oxygen in blood is:

  • (A) fat
  • (B) hormone
  • (C) hemoglobin
  • (D) carbohydrate
Correct Answer: (C) hemoglobin
View Solution

The protein \textit{hemoglobin in red blood cells binds with oxygen in the lungs and carries it through the blood to tissues and organs. It is the primary carrier of oxygen in the blood. Quick Tip: Hemoglobin is responsible for the red color of blood and is essential for oxygen transport.


Question 7:

The number of pairs of autosomes in humans is:

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 23
  • (C) 11
  • (D) 22
Correct Answer: (D) 22
View Solution

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs are autosomes, and the remaining pair are sex chromosomes (XX or XY). Quick Tip: In humans, 22 pairs of chromosomes are autosomes, and the 23rd pair are sex chromosomes.


Question 8:

The most effective color of visible light spectrum for photosynthesis is:

  • (A) red
  • (B) blue
  • (C) yellow
  • (D) green
Correct Answer: (A) red
View Solution

Red light is the most effective in driving photosynthesis, although blue light also plays an important role. Plants reflect green light, which is why they appear green to us. Quick Tip: Red and blue light are primarily used by plants for photosynthesis, while green light is reflected.


Question 9:

Which one of the following is the natural source of oxalic acid?

  • (A) Tomato
  • (B) Tamarind
  • (C) Orange
  • (D) Vinegar
Correct Answer: (B) Tamarind
View Solution

Tamarind is known to contain oxalic acid, a naturally occurring compound. It is one of the notable sources of this acid in nature, along with other plants such as spinach and rhubarb. Quick Tip: Tamarind contains a significant amount of oxalic acid, which contributes to its tart flavor.


Question 10:

Propane, with the molecular formula \( C_3H_8 \), has:

  • (A) 7 covalent bonds
  • (B) 8 covalent bonds
  • (C) 9 covalent bonds
  • (D) 10 covalent bonds
Correct Answer: (D) 10 covalent bonds
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the structure of propane \( C_3H_8 \).

Propane consists of three carbon (\(C\)) atoms and eight hydrogen (\(H\)) atoms. The structure of propane is as follows:
\[ CH_3 - CH_2 - CH_3 \]

Step 2: Identifying the covalent bonds.

1. Each carbon forms a single bond with other carbon atoms.
2. Each carbon also forms single bonds with hydrogen atoms.
3. Carbon always forms four covalent bonds (either with carbon or hydrogen).

Step 3: Counting the bonds.

- There are 2 carbon-carbon (\(C-C\)) single bonds.
- There are 8 carbon-hydrogen (\(C-H\)) single bonds.
\[ Total covalent bonds = 2 (C-C) + 8 (C-H) = 10. \]

Thus, the total number of covalent bonds in propane is 10. Quick Tip: To determine the number of covalent bonds in an organic molecule, count all single, double, or triple bonds formed between atoms.


Question 11:

The ozone layer protects the Earth from which harmful radiation?

  • (A) Infrared
  • (B) Thermal
  • (C) Ultraviolet
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (C) Ultraviolet
View Solution

The ozone layer primarily absorbs and blocks ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun. UV radiation can cause significant harm to living organisms, which is why the ozone layer is vital for life on Earth. Quick Tip: The ozone layer shields us from harmful UV radiation, which is why it is critical for human health and the environment.


Question 12:

Which non-metal is found in liquid state at room temperature?

  • (A) Mercury
  • (B) Bromine
  • (C) Sulphur
  • (D) Sodium
Correct Answer: (B) Bromine
View Solution

Bromine is the only non-metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature. It is a halogen and is reddish-brown in color. Quick Tip: Bromine is a non-metal that is unique in being a liquid at room temperature.


Question 13:

Which one of the following is a metalloid?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Ni
  • (D) As
Correct Answer: (D) As
View Solution

Arsenic (As) is a metalloid, meaning it has characteristics of both metals and non-metals. Fe, Cu, and Ni are metals. Quick Tip: Metalloids, like arsenic, have properties that are intermediate between metals and non-metals.


Question 14:

\( CaCO_3 (s) \rightarrow CaO (s) + CO_2 (g) \) is what type of reaction?

  • (A) Decomposition
  • (B) Combination
  • (C) Displacement
  • (D) Double displacement
Correct Answer: (A) Decomposition
View Solution

This is a decomposition reaction where one reactant (\( CaCO_3 \)) breaks down into two products (\( CaO \) and \( CO_2 \)). Quick Tip: Decomposition reactions involve the breakdown of a single compound into two or more products.


Question 15:

Which of the following equations is balanced?

  • (A) \( Mg + O_2 \rightarrow MgO \)
  • (B) \( Zn + H_2SO_4 \rightarrow ZnSO_4 + H_2 \)
  • (C) \( Fe + Cl_2 \rightarrow FeCl_3 \)
  • (D) \( H_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow HCl \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \text{H}_2 + \text{Cl}_2 \rightarrow \text{HCl} \)
View Solution

The equation \( H_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow HCl \) is balanced as both sides contain the same number of hydrogen and chlorine atoms. Quick Tip: Always check if the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the equation for it to be balanced.


Question 16:

Which of the following causes acid rain in industrial areas?

  • (A) Chlorofluorocarbon
  • (B) Sulphur dioxide
  • (C) Ozone
  • (D) Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: (B) Sulphur dioxide
View Solution

Sulphur dioxide (SO\(_2\)) is primarily responsible for acid rain. It reacts with water vapor in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid, which contributes to acid rain. Quick Tip: Sulphur dioxide is a significant pollutant produced by industrial activities that causes acid rain.


Question 17:

10 cm is positive, if the value of object distance is:

  • (A) more than 10 cm
  • (B) more than 20 cm
  • (C) less than 10 cm
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) less than \(10\) cm
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding magnification in a concave mirror.

The magnification (\( m \)) of a concave mirror is given by: \[ m = \frac{-v}{u} \]
where:
- \( v \) is the image distance,
- \( u \) is the object distance.

For a concave mirror:
- If the image is real and inverted, the magnification is negative.
- If the image is virtual and upright, the magnification is positive.

Step 2: Condition for positive magnification.

- A concave mirror produces a positive magnification only when the image is virtual and erect.
- This happens when the object is placed between the focus (\( F \)) and the pole (\( P \)) of the mirror.
- The focal length of the mirror is given as 10 cm, meaning the focal point is at \( u = -10 \) cm.

Step 3: Finding the correct range for object distance \( u \).

- If the object is placed at \( u < 10 \) cm (i.e., between the pole and focus), the image will be virtual, upright, and magnified.
- Hence, the correct answer is (C) less than 10 cm. Quick Tip: A concave mirror produces a virtual and magnified image when the object is placed between the pole and the focus.


Question 18:

On moving from focus towards the pole, the magnification in a concave mirror:

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) remains constant
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (A) increases
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding magnification in a concave mirror.

The magnification (\( m \)) of a concave mirror is given by: \[ m = \frac{-v}{u} \]
where:
- \( v \) is the image distance,
- \( u \) is the object distance.

For a concave mirror:
- When the object is beyond the center of curvature (\( C \)), the image is real, inverted, and smaller (\( |m| < 1 \)).
- When the object is at \( C \), the image is of the same size (\( |m| = 1 \)).
- When the object is between \( C \) and \( F \) (focus), the image is real, inverted, and magnified (\( |m| > 1 \)).
- When the object is at \( F \), the image is formed at infinity.
- When the object is between \( F \) and \( P \) (pole), the image is virtual, upright, and highly magnified.

Step 2: Behavior of magnification as the object moves from \( F \) to \( P \).

- When the object moves from the focus towards the pole, the image remains virtual and magnified.
- The magnification increases as the object gets closer to the mirror.
- At the pole, the magnification tends to infinity.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Since magnification increases as the object moves towards the pole, the correct answer is (A) increases. Quick Tip: In a concave mirror, moving an object from the focus towards the pole increases magnification, making the image larger and more upright.


Question 19:

Which energy does a hydro-electric power plant convert into electric energy?

  • (A) Nuclear energy
  • (B) Solar energy
  • (C) Potential energy
  • (D) Thermal energy
Correct Answer: (C) Potential energy
View Solution

A hydro-electric power plant converts potential energy of water (stored at a height) into mechanical energy, which is then converted to electrical energy. Quick Tip: The potential energy of water in a hydroelectric plant is converted to electrical energy using turbines.


Question 20:

A rectangular coil of a copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current in the coil changes after:

  • (A) every one-fourth rotation
  • (B) every half rotation
  • (C) every one rotation
  • (D) every two rotations
Correct Answer: (C) every one rotation
View Solution

The direction of the induced current changes after one full rotation (360°), i.e., every one rotation. Quick Tip: The induced current in a rotating coil changes direction every full rotation.


Question 21:

The image of an ant in a concave mirror is erect and goes increasing as the ant moves along the principal axis. The direction of motion of the ant is:

  • (A) from focus to centre of curvature
  • (B) from focus to pole
  • (C) from pole to focus
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) from pole to focus
View Solution

In a concave mirror, when an object moves from the pole towards the focus, the image increases in size and remains erect. Quick Tip: The image formed by a concave mirror becomes larger as the object moves from the pole towards the focus.


Question 22:

The radius of curvature of the lens of an eye is controlled by:

  • (A) retina
  • (B) iris
  • (C) pupil
  • (D) ciliary muscles
Correct Answer: (D) ciliary muscles
View Solution

The ciliary muscles are responsible for controlling the curvature of the lens in the eye, which enables the eye to focus on near and far objects. Quick Tip: Ciliary muscles adjust the lens shape to focus light on the retina.


Question 23:

Why is the colour of some clouds white?

  • (A) Due to reflection
  • (B) Due to scattering
  • (C) Due to absorption
  • (D) Due to refraction
Correct Answer: (B) Due to scattering
View Solution

Clouds appear white because light is scattered in all directions by the water droplets in the clouds. This scattering of all colors of light leads to a white appearance. Quick Tip: Scattering of light by tiny droplets or particles results in the white color of clouds.


Question 24:

The SI unit of resistance is:

  • (A) ampere
  • (B) watt
  • (C) ohm
  • (D) volt
Correct Answer: (C) ohm
View Solution

The SI unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω), which is defined as the resistance that allows one ampere of current to flow when one volt is applied. Quick Tip: The unit of resistance, the ohm, is the reciprocal of the unit of conductance, the siemens.


Question 25:

Kidney helps in:

  • (A) respiration
  • (B) reproduction
  • (C) excretion
  • (D) digestion
Correct Answer: (C) excretion
View Solution

The kidney plays a vital role in excretion by filtering waste materials and regulating water balance in the body. Quick Tip: Kidneys are essential for removing waste products from the blood and maintaining fluid balance in the body.


Question 26:

Photosynthesis takes place during:

  • (A) Morning-evening
  • (B) Day only
  • (C) Day-night
  • (D) Night only
Correct Answer: (B) Day only
View Solution

Photosynthesis occurs only in the presence of light, so it happens during the day when sunlight is available. Quick Tip: Photosynthesis is a process that requires sunlight, so it only takes place during the day.


Question 27:

Synaptic knobs are found in:

  • (A) kidney
  • (B) brain
  • (C) ovary
  • (D) neuron
Correct Answer: (D) neuron
View Solution

Synaptic knobs, or axon terminals, are found at the ends of neurons and are responsible for transmitting nerve signals. Quick Tip: Synaptic knobs release neurotransmitters that enable communication between neurons.


Question 28:

Which of the following has the fastest heartbeat?

  • (A) Elephant
  • (B) Human
  • (C) Rat
  • (D) Whale
Correct Answer: (C) Rat
View Solution

Rats have the fastest heartbeat among the listed animals, with a heart rate that can exceed 500 beats per minute. Quick Tip: Smaller animals generally have higher heart rates than larger animals.


Question 29:

Which of the following is a cellular fuel?

  • (A) Protein
  • (B) Glucose
  • (C) Fat
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Glucose
View Solution

Glucose is the primary fuel for cellular respiration. It is broken down in cells to release energy. Quick Tip: Glucose is the main energy source for cells in the body, used to produce ATP.


Question 30:

How many phosphates are there in ATP?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

ATP contains three phosphate groups, which are essential for storing and transferring energy within cells. Quick Tip: ATP is the primary energy source in cells, and it has three phosphate groups.


Question 31:

Which of the following is not an excretory organ of humans?

  • (A) Lungs
  • (B) Kidney
  • (C) Pancreas
  • (D) Skin
Correct Answer: (C) Pancreas
View Solution

The pancreas is not involved in excretion; it is an endocrine and digestive organ. The lungs, kidneys, and skin are involved in excretion. Quick Tip: The pancreas is important for digestion and regulating blood sugar, not excretion.


Question 32:

The smallest endocrine gland is:

  • (A) Adrenal
  • (B) Thyroid
  • (C) Pineal
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Pineal
View Solution

The pineal gland is the smallest endocrine gland, located in the brain, and is responsible for producing melatonin. Quick Tip: The pineal gland, though small, plays a key role in regulating sleep patterns.


Question 33:

All acids dissolve in water to give:

  • (A) H\(^+\) ion
  • (B) OH\(^-\) ion
  • (C) Electron
  • (D) Neutron
Correct Answer: (A) H\(^+\) ion
View Solution

Acids release H\(^+\) ions (protons) when they dissolve in water, which is what makes the solution acidic. Quick Tip: The presence of H\(^+\) ions is what defines a substance as acidic.


Question 34:

Which of the following compounds is a weak acid?

  • (A) HCl
  • (B) CH\(_3\)COOH
  • (C) H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (D) HNO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) CH\(_3\)COOH
View Solution

Acetic acid (CH\(_3\)COOH) is a weak acid because it partially dissociates in water, unlike HCl, H\(_2\)SO\(_4\), and HNO\(_3\), which are strong acids. Quick Tip: Weak acids like acetic acid dissociate only partially in water.


Question 35:

What is the color of silver iodide?

  • (A) White
  • (B) Blue
  • (C) Yellow
  • (D) Green
Correct Answer: (C) Yellow
View Solution

Silver iodide (AgI) appears yellow in color due to its crystal properties. Quick Tip: Silver iodide is used in photographic films and has a distinctive yellow color.


Question 36:

The hardest natural substance is:

  • (A) Silver
  • (B) Gold
  • (C) Diamond
  • (D) Iron
Correct Answer: (C) Diamond
View Solution

Diamond is the hardest known natural substance, with the highest rating on the Mohs scale of hardness. Quick Tip: Diamond has the highest hardness of any known natural substance.


Question 37:

How many crystalline allotropes of carbon are there?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Carbon has three crystalline allotropes: diamond, graphite, and graphene. Quick Tip: Diamond, graphite, and graphene are the three crystalline forms of carbon.


Question 38:

Zinc blende is an ore of which metal?

  • (A) Mg
  • (B) Zn
  • (C) Pb
  • (D) Au
Correct Answer: (B) Zn
View Solution

Zinc blende (ZnS) is an ore of zinc. Quick Tip: Zinc blende is the primary ore from which zinc is extracted.


Question 39:

How many bonds are there between two atoms in a molecule of nitrogen?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

In a nitrogen molecule (N\(_2\)), the two nitrogen atoms are bonded by a triple bond, which consists of three shared electron pairs. Quick Tip: Nitrogen gas (N\(_2\)) has a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms.


Question 40:

The general formula of alkyne is:

  • (A) C\(_n\)H\(_{2n+2}\)
  • (B) C\(_n\)H\(_{2n}\)
  • (C) C\(_n\)H\(_{2n-2}\)
  • (D) C\(_n\)H\(_{2n-1}\)
Correct Answer: (C) C\(_n\)H\(_{2n-2}\)
View Solution

The general formula for alkynes, which have a triple bond, is C\(_n\)H\(_{2n-2}\). Quick Tip: Alkynes contain at least one triple bond and have the general formula C\(_n\)H\(_{2n-2}\).


Question 41:

Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the unit of:

  • (A) energy
  • (B) time
  • (C) mass
  • (D) power
Correct Answer: (A) energy
View Solution

Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy, specifically used to quantify electrical energy consumption. Quick Tip: Kilowatt-hour is the standard unit for measuring electrical energy.


Question 42:

The amount of light entering the human eye is controlled by:

  • (A) Ciliary muscles
  • (B) Pupil
  • (C) Cornea
  • (D) Iris
Correct Answer: (D) iris
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the function of the iris in the human eye.

- The iris is the colored part of the eye that surrounds the pupil.
- It contains muscles that contract or relax to adjust the size of the pupil.
- The pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eye.

Step 2: Why the iris controls light entry.

- In bright light, the iris constricts, making the pupil smaller to limit the amount of light entering.
- In dim light, the iris expands, making the pupil larger to allow more light in.
- This automatic adjustment helps protect the retina from excessive light and ensures clear vision.

Step 3: Analyzing the options.

- Ciliary muscles (Option A): Control the shape of the lens for focusing, not light entry.
- Pupil (Option B): It is the opening through which light enters, but the iris controls its size.
- Cornea (Option C): It helps focus light onto the retina but does not control the amount of light entering.
- Iris (Option D): It adjusts the pupil size to control light entry.

Conclusion: Since the iris controls the amount of light entering the eye, the correct answer is (D) iris. Quick Tip: The iris controls the size of the pupil, which regulates the amount of light entering the eye, ensuring proper vision.


Question 43:

Which is the conventional source of energy?

  • (A) Nuclear energy source
  • (B) Geo-thermal energy source
  • (C) Biomass
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Biomass
View Solution

Biomass, which includes wood, agricultural residues, and animal waste, is considered a conventional energy source used for heating and cooking. Quick Tip: Biomass has been used historically for energy production and is considered a conventional energy source.


Question 44:

The maximum number of electrons in a shell is:

  • (A) 4n\(^2\)
  • (B) 3n\(^2\)
  • (C) 2n\(^2\)
  • (D) n\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (C) 2n\(^2\)
View Solution

The maximum number of electrons that can be held in a shell is \( 2n^2 \), where \( n \) is the shell number. Quick Tip: The formula for the maximum number of electrons in a shell is \( 2n^2 \).


Question 45:

Which hydrocarbon is the simplest compound?

  • (A) Methane
  • (B) Propane
  • (C) Butane
  • (D) Ethane
Correct Answer: (A) Methane
View Solution

Methane (CH\(_4\)) is the simplest hydrocarbon because it contains only one carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms. Quick Tip: Methane is the simplest alkane and the main component of natural gas.


Question 46:

Which of the following metals has the lowest melting point?

  • (A) Na
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Fe
  • (D) Al
Correct Answer: (A) Na
View Solution

Sodium (Na) has the lowest melting point among these metals, at approximately 98°C. Quick Tip: Sodium has the lowest melting point among alkali metals.


Question 47:

The atomic number of gold is:

  • (A) 23
  • (B) 43
  • (C) 79
  • (D) 80
Correct Answer: (C) 79
View Solution

Gold (Au) has an atomic number of 79. Quick Tip: Gold is an element with the atomic number 79 and is represented by the symbol Au.


Question 48:

Which of the following is a salt?

  • (A) HCl
  • (B) NH\(_4\)OH
  • (C) NaOH
  • (D) K\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (D) K\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
View Solution

K\(_2\)SO\(_4\) is a salt formed by the reaction between a strong acid (H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)) and a strong base (KOH). Quick Tip: Salts are formed from the neutralization of acids and bases.


Question 49:

Depletion of the ozone layer is due to:

  • (A) ATP
  • (B) CFC
  • (C) NADP
  • (D) DDT
Correct Answer: (B) CFC
View Solution

CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are compounds that release chlorine atoms when they break down in the stratosphere, causing the depletion of the ozone layer. Quick Tip: CFCs are harmful to the ozone layer and have been banned in many countries due to their environmental impact.


Question 50:

In which of the following organisms does asexual reproduction occur through budding?

  • (A) Plasmodium
  • (B) Leishmania
  • (C) Amoeba
  • (D) Yeast
Correct Answer: (D) Yeast
View Solution

Yeast undergoes asexual reproduction through budding, where a small bud forms on the parent organism and eventually detaches to form a new individual. Quick Tip: Budding is a form of asexual reproduction observed in organisms like yeast and hydra.


Question 51:

An example of plant hormone is:

  • (A) IAA
  • (B) TSH
  • (C) ACH
  • (D) ACTH
Correct Answer: (A) IAA
View Solution

IAA (Indole-3-acetic acid) is a naturally occurring plant hormone responsible for regulating growth. Quick Tip: IAA is a type of auxin that helps in cell growth and elongation in plants.


Question 52:

Vegetative propagation in potato takes place by:

  • (A) Root
  • (B) Seed
  • (C) Fruit
  • (D) Stem
Correct Answer: (D) Stem
View Solution

Potatoes propagate vegetatively through their tubers, which are modified stems that can give rise to new plants. Quick Tip: Tubers are specialized stem structures that allow potatoes to reproduce vegetatively.


Question 53:

Hydrilla is found:

  • (A) In water
  • (B) In soil
  • (C) On tree
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) In water
View Solution

Hydrilla is an aquatic plant commonly found in freshwater environments. Quick Tip: Hydrilla is a submerged aquatic plant that thrives in shallow freshwater habitats.


Question 54:

Systolic blood pressure of a healthy person is:

  • (A) 140 mm Hg
  • (B) 120 mm Hg
  • (C) 100 mm Hg
  • (D) 80 mm Hg
Correct Answer: (B) 120 mm Hg
View Solution

Normal systolic blood pressure in a healthy adult is typically around 120 mm Hg, which is the upper value of the blood pressure reading. Quick Tip: Systolic blood pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts.


Question 55:

An example of a bisexual organism is:

  • (A) Hydra
  • (B) Man
  • (C) Fish
  • (D) Goat
Correct Answer: (A) Hydra
View Solution

Hydra is a bisexual organism capable of producing both male and female gametes, allowing for self-fertilization. Quick Tip: Bisexual organisms can produce both male and female reproductive cells.


Question 56:

In fish, respiration takes place through:

  • (A) Mouth
  • (B) Gills
  • (C) Nose
  • (D) Lungs
Correct Answer: (B) Gills
View Solution

Fish use gills to extract oxygen from water. Water flows over the gills, and oxygen is absorbed while carbon dioxide is expelled. Quick Tip: Fish use gills for gas exchange in water, unlike land animals that use lungs.


Question 57:

The valency of all elements in a group of the periodic table is:

  • (A) Same
  • (B) Different
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Same
View Solution

Elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons and, therefore, the same valency. Quick Tip: Elements in the same group have the same valency due to similar electron configurations.


Question 58:

Which of the following is used as wine?

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Methanol
  • (C) Vinegar
  • (D) Methanoic acid
Correct Answer: (A) Ethanol
View Solution

Wine contains ethanol, which is a type of alcohol produced during fermentation. Quick Tip: Ethanol is the type of alcohol present in alcoholic beverages like wine.


Question 59:

What is the number of elements in the third group of the periodic table?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (D) \(8\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Group 3 of the Periodic Table.

- The third group of the periodic table includes elements from both the main group and transition series.
- It consists of Scandium (Sc), Yttrium (Y), Lanthanum (La), and Actinium (Ac) as well as elements from the lanthanide and actinide series.

Step 2: Counting the elements.

- Scandium (Sc) and Yttrium (Y) are always included.
- The inclusion of Lanthanum (La) and Actinium (Ac) follows the periodic trends.
- The lanthanides and actinides also belong to the third group, leading to a total count of 8 elements.

Step 3: Conclusion.

- Since the total number of elements in Group 3 is 8, the correct answer is (D) 8. Quick Tip: Group 3 of the periodic table contains 8 elements, including transition metals and some lanthanides and actinides.


Question 60:

Which is used in a solar cell?

  • (A) Uranium
  • (B) Plastic
  • (C) Silicon
  • (D) Plutonium
Correct Answer: (C) Silicon
View Solution

Silicon is the primary material used in the production of solar cells due to its excellent semiconducting properties. Quick Tip: Silicon is the key component in most solar cells because of its semiconductor nature.


Question 61:

The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 7. What is the atomic number of the element?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 19
Correct Answer: (C) 17
View Solution

The atomic number is the total number of electrons in an atom. With the configuration 2, 8, 7, the atomic number is 17. Quick Tip: The atomic number corresponds to the number of electrons or protons in an element.


Question 62:

Duralumin is an alloy of which metal?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Sn
  • (C) Al
  • (D) Cu
Correct Answer: (C) Al
View Solution

Duralumin is an alloy primarily composed of aluminum (Al) and small amounts of copper and other elements. Quick Tip: Duralumin is a strong and light alloy made of aluminum and copper.


Question 63:

The molecular formula of sodium phosphate is:

  • (A) NaPO\(_4\)
  • (B) Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
  • (C) Na\(_2\)(PO\(_4\))\(_3\)
  • (D) Na\(_2\)PO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (B) Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
View Solution

Sodium phosphate has the formula Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\), with three sodium ions balancing the charge of the phosphate ion. Quick Tip: Sodium phosphate is used in detergents and as a food additive.


Question 64:

The structural and functional unit of kidney is called:

  • (A) Urinary bladder
  • (B) Glomerulus
  • (C) Bowman's capsule
  • (D) Nephron
Correct Answer: (D) Nephron
View Solution

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, involved in filtering the blood and producing urine. Quick Tip: Each kidney contains millions of nephrons that perform the essential tasks of filtration.


Question 65:

What should be the minimum speed of wind in a wind electric generator?

  • (A) 1500 km/h
  • (B) 150 km/h
  • (C) 15 km/h
  • (D) 1-5 km/h
Correct Answer: (C) 15 km/h
View Solution

A wind speed of at least 15 km/h is required for a wind electric generator to begin generating electricity. Quick Tip: Wind turbines typically begin generating electricity at speeds above 15 km/h.


Question 66:

A split ring is used in:

  • (A) Galvanometer
  • (B) D.C. motor
  • (C) Microscope
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) D.C. motor
View Solution

A split ring is used in D.C. motors as a commutator to reverse the current direction and ensure continuous rotation. Quick Tip: Split rings are crucial components in D.C. motors for current reversal.


Question 67:

Metallic conduction is based on the motion of which particle in material?

  • (A) Electron
  • (B) Proton
  • (C) Neutron
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Electron
View Solution

In metallic conduction, free electrons move through the lattice, transferring energy and enabling electrical conductivity. Quick Tip: Electrons are the charge carriers in metallic conduction.


Question 68:

The upper part of a box-type solar cooker has a glass cover. The reason for this is:

  • (A) To see whether the food kept inside the cooker is being cooked or not
  • (B) To prevent loss of heat due to radiation
  • (C) To prevent the passage of dust into the box
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) To prevent loss of heat due to radiation
View Solution

The glass cover of a box-type solar cooker helps to trap the heat inside and prevent it from escaping, thus reducing heat loss due to radiation. This is important for efficient cooking. Quick Tip: The glass cover allows sunlight to pass through and prevents heat loss, making the cooker more effective.


Question 69:

A resistor of power \(P_1\) at voltage \(V_1\) is connected in series with another resistor of power \(P_2\) at voltage \(V_2\). The equivalent resistance will be:

  • (A) \(\frac{V_1^2}{P_1} + \frac{V_2^2}{P_2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{P_1^2}{V_1} + \frac{P_2^2}{V_2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{P_1 + P_2}{(V_1 + V_2)^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{P_1}{V_1^2} + \frac{P_2}{V_2^2}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{V_1^2}{P_1} + \frac{V_2^2}{P_2}\)
View Solution

When two resistors are connected in series, the equivalent resistance \(R_{eq}\) is the sum of individual resistances. Using the formula \(R = \frac{V^2}{P}\) for each resistor, the equivalent resistance becomes:
\[ R_{eq} = \frac{V_1^2}{P_1} + \frac{V_2^2}{P_2} \] Quick Tip: For resistors in series, the total resistance is the sum of individual resistances.


Question 70:

The frequency of alternating current in household electric circuits is:

  • (A) 50 Hz
  • (B) 60 Hz
  • (C) 100 Hz
  • (D) 220 Hz
Correct Answer: (A) 50 Hz
View Solution

In most countries, the alternating current (AC) supplied to households has a frequency of 50 Hz. Quick Tip: The standard frequency for AC supply in many countries is 50 Hz.


Question 71:

Which of the following has the lowest refractive index?

  • (A) Turpentine
  • (B) Benzene
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Kerosine
Correct Answer: (C) Water
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding refractive index.

The refractive index (n) of a medium determines how much light bends when it enters the medium from air. A lower refractive index means light bends less.

Step 2: Comparing refractive indices.

The approximate refractive indices of the given substances are:
- Water: \( n \approx 1.33 \) (Lowest)
- Kerosene: \( n \approx 1.44 - 1.48 \)
- Benzene: \( n \approx 1.50 \)
- Turpentine: \( n \approx 1.47 \)

Step 3: Conclusion.

- Water has the lowest refractive index among the given options.
- Hence, the correct answer is (C) Water. Quick Tip: A lower refractive index means the medium is less optically dense, allowing light to travel faster through it.


Question 72:

A simple prism is bounded by how many surfaces?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (C) \(5\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the structure of a simple prism.

A prism is a transparent optical element with flat, polished surfaces that refract light. A triangular prism, which is the simplest type of prism, consists of:
1. Two triangular faces (base surfaces).
2. Three rectangular faces (lateral surfaces).

Step 2: Counting the total surfaces.

- The prism has two triangular faces (top and bottom).
- It also has three rectangular lateral faces.
\[ Total surfaces = 2 + 3 = 5 \]

Step 3: Conclusion.

Since a simple prism is bounded by 5 surfaces, the correct answer is (C) 5. Quick Tip: A simple triangular prism is enclosed by two triangular bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces, making a total of 5 surfaces.


Question 73:

The far point for normal vision is:

  • (A) 25 mm
  • (B) 25 cm
  • (C) 25 m
  • (D) Infinity
Correct Answer: (D) infinity
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the far point of normal vision.

The far point of vision is the maximum distance at which an object can be seen clearly without accommodation.

For a person with normal vision, the farthest distance they can see clearly is infinity.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.

- 25 mm (Option A): This is extremely short and incorrect.
- 25 cm (Option B): This is incorrect; this is closer to the near point of vision.
- 25 m (Option C): This is incorrect, as normal vision extends far beyond this range.
- Infinity (Option D): This is correct because a normal human eye can focus on objects at an infinite distance.

Step 3: Conclusion.

- The far point for normal vision is at infinity.
- Hence, the correct answer is (D) infinity. Quick Tip: For a person with normal vision, the farthest point they can see clearly without accommodation is at infinity.


Question 74:

What will be the nature of the image of an object, if magnification of the image is negative?

  • (A) Real and erect
  • (B) Virtual and erect
  • (C) Virtual and inverted
  • (D) Real and inverted
Correct Answer: (D) Real and inverted
View Solution

If the magnification is negative, the image formed is real and inverted. This occurs for real objects placed outside the focal point in concave mirrors. Quick Tip: Negative magnification indicates an inverted and real image.


Question 75:

How many laws are there for reflection of light?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

There are two laws of reflection: 1) The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection, and 2) The incident ray, reflected ray, and normal lie in the same plane. Quick Tip: The two laws of reflection are: 1) angle of incidence = angle of reflection, and 2) all rays lie in the same plane.


Question 76:

A ray of light is incident perpendicular to a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be:

  • (A) 135°
  • (B) 90°
  • (C) 45°
  • (D) 0°
Correct Answer: (D) 0°
View Solution

When the ray of light is perpendicular to the mirror, the angle of incidence is 0°, so the angle of reflection will also be 0°. Quick Tip: The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence.


Question 77:

Which color of light scatters more in the atmosphere?

  • (A) Yellow
  • (B) Orange
  • (C) Red
  • (D) Blue
Correct Answer: (D) Blue
View Solution

Blue light scatters more than other colors due to its shorter wavelength, causing the sky to appear blue. Quick Tip: Shorter wavelengths like blue light scatter more, making the sky blue.


Question 78:

Converging lens in air is:

  • (A) Concave lens of glass
  • (B) Plano-concave lens of glass
  • (C) Convex lens of glass
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Convex lens of glass
View Solution

A converging lens is a convex lens that focuses parallel light rays towards a single point. Quick Tip: Converging lenses are typically convex lenses.


Question 79:

If the lower half of a concave mirror gets broken, then the image:

  • (A) Will form erect
  • (B) Will be halved
  • (C) Will be less intense
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Will be less intense
View Solution

If half of the concave mirror is missing, the intensity of the image decreases, but the nature of the image remains unchanged. Quick Tip: A broken concave mirror reduces the intensity of the formed image.


Question 80:

When a ray of light travels from air (a rarer medium) to glass (a denser medium), it bends:

  • (A) Away from the normal
  • (B) Towards the normal
  • (C) Parallel to the normal
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Towards the normal
View Solution

When light moves from a rarer medium (air) to a denser medium (glass), it slows down and bends towards the normal. Quick Tip: Light bends towards the normal when moving into a denser medium.



Bihar Board Class Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers

Comments


No Comments To Show