AIBE 7 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set A)

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 27, 2025

AIBE 7 question paper with answer key pdf (Set A) is available for download here. AIBE 7 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI). The question paper comprised a total of 100 questions.

AIBE 7 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set A)

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Question 1:

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is mainly meant to serve the needs of

  • (A) Organised workers
  • (B) Unorganised workers
  • (C) Unorganized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
  • (D) Organized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members

Question 2:

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is proclaimed under---------- of the Constitution of India.

  • (A) Art.39(a)
  • (B) Art.39(d)
  • (C) Art.39(b)
  • (D) Art.39(c)

Question 3:

Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial. Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year

  • (A) 1992
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 2009
  • (D) 2010

Question 4:

---------------- was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to go slow

  • (A) Bank of India v. T.S.Kelawala and others
  • (B) Randhirsingh v. Union of India
  • (C) Kamani metals and alloys Ltd. v. Their workmen
  • (D) Workmen v. Reptakos Brett and Co.Ltd.

Question 5:

Under the Industrial disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute /difference arising out of such termination shall be deemed to be':

  • (A) industrial dispute
  • (B) individual dispute
  • (C) both individual and industrial dispute
  • (D) none of these.

Question 6:

Gloucstershire grammar School Case is a leading case to explain the

  • (A) Volenti non fit injuria
  • (B) Injuria non fit volenti
  • (C) Damnum sine injuria
  • (D) Injuria sine damnum

Question 7:

Right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose -off property is abolished by

  • (A) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  • (B) 43rd Amendment Act, 1976
  • (C) 50th Amendment Act, 1950
  • (D) Ist Amendment Act, 1951

Question 8:

Which one of the following is covered under the definition of State

  • (A) The Indian Statistical Institute
  • (B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  • (C) Sainik School Society
  • (D) NCERT

Question 9:

National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development is a major environmental policy in India and it was passed in the year

  • (A) 1988
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 1992
  • (D) 1990

Question 10:

---------- of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, defines 'Environment'

  • (A) Section 2(a)
  • (B) Section 3(a)
  • (C) Section 1(a)
  • (D) Section 11(a)

Question 11:

Polluter Pays Principle means

  • (A) polluter should bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is responsible for pollution
  • (B) polluter should not necessarily bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is may not be responsible for pollution
  • (C) polluter may bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may be responsible for pollution
  • (D) none of the above

Question 12:

"Pollution is a civil wrong. By its very nature, it is a tort committed against the community as a whole. A person, therefore, who is guilty of causing pollution, has to pay damages (compensation) for restoration" of the environment. He has also to pay damages to those who have suffered loss on account of the act of the offender. Further, the offender can also be held liable to pay exemplary damages so that it may act as a deterrent for others not to cause pollution in any manner. However, the court cannot impose any pollution fine in absence of any trial and finding of guilty under the relevant statutory provisions." This observation was made in

  • (A) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
  • (B) Calcutta Tanneries Case
  • (C) M.C. Mehta v. UOI
  • (D) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu

Question 13:

India became a party to the International Convention on Biological Diversity in

  • (A) 1992
  • (B) 1995
  • (C) 1994
  • (D) 2000

Question 14:

"A", a railway company is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, demurrage and freight but rival claims have been made by "B" and "C" adversely to each other "A" can institute

  • (A) An application to decide the same
  • (B) An interpleader suit
  • (C) Friendly suit
  • (D) None of the above

Question 15:

As per the provisions of the Criminal procedure Code, the word 'inspection' used in S.93(1) (C) refers to

  • (A) Things or documents
  • (B) Documents only
  • (C) Locality and place
  • (D) None of the above

Question 16:

Statement recorded during investigation under S.161 of Cr.P. C can be used during trial for

  • (A) Corroborating the witness
  • (B) Contradicting the witness
  • (C) Both A and B
  • (D) Neither A nor B

Question 17:

"If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such minor offence has been committed." It was so upheld in which case

  • (A) Sangarabonia Sreenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
  • (B) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
  • (C) Balwinder Singh v. State of Punjab
  • (D) Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu

Question 18:

'Ex dolo malo non oritur actio' is

  • (A) An action arose only when a right infringes
  • (B) An actions could not prevent a legal right
  • (C) An action can not arise from an immoral act
  • (D) None of the above

Question 19:

The Jural correlative of immunity is

  • (A) Power
  • (B) Disability
  • (C) No claim
  • (D) Claim

Question 20:

Who defines "eternal law as, the divine order or will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach of it."

  • (A) Ambrose
  • (B) Augustine
  • (C) Gregory
  • (D) All the above

Question 21:

'Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one'. Who stated so?

  • (A) Thomas Paine
  • (B) Gregory Peck
  • (C) Jefferson
  • (D) Dicey

Question 22:

The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of tribunals as instruments of quasi-judicial administrative adjudication

  • (A) Art.39(a) and 39(b)
  • (B) Art.323A and 323-B
  • (C) Art.368
  • (D) Art.202A and 202B

Question 23:

Nemojudex in causasua meaning No man shall be a judge in his own cause was first stated by ---------- in Dr. Bonham's Case

  • (A) Lord Grey
  • (B) Lord Heward
  • (C) Lord Coke
  • (D) Lord Moulton

Question 24:

General power of the Bar Council of India to make rules is envisaged under which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961

  • (A) S.15
  • (B) S.49
  • (C) S.II-2
  • (D) S.IV A

Question 25:

Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to

  • (A) Justice Abbot Parry
  • (B) Justice Heward
  • (C) Justice Bhagawathy
  • (D) Justice Grey

Question 26:

Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India

  • (A) 35
  • (B) 37
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 39

Question 27:

S.----- of Advocates Act, 1961 speaks about constitution of Legal Aid Committees

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 9A
  • (D) 10A

Question 28:

S.89 of the Civil Procedure Code was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code Amendment Act of ---------- which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanisms.

  • (A) 1989
  • (B) 1999
  • (C) 1988
  • (D) 2009

Question 29:

In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside India, unless any or all provisions have been excluded by agreement between the parties.

  • (A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A
  • (B) United India Ins. Co. Ltd v. Associated Transport Corpn. Ltd
  • (C) Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd.
  • (D) Ajmera Brother's v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain

Question 30:

Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under S. ---------- of the Legal Services Authority Act of 1987

  • (A) 22B
  • (B) 22A
  • (C) 22(1)
  • (D) 22

Question 31:

Evidences to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts is called as

  • (A) Patent ambiguity
  • (B) Latent ambiguity
  • (C) Both of them
  • (D) None of the above

Question 32:

Original document is the best evidence - Exception to this rule is contained in

  • (A) Indian Evidence Act
  • (B) Criminal Procedure Code
  • (C) Bankers Book Evidence Act
  • (D) None of these

Question 33:

Doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the benefit of an instrument must

  • (A) Not bear the burden
  • (B) Burden is not the subject of election
  • (C) Burden is the subject of election
  • (D) Bear the burden

Question 34:

Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is---------- from the date on which it becomes due.

  • (A) 1 year
  • (B) 5 years
  • (C) 9 years
  • (D) 15 years

Question 35:

Identify the correct order in which the following law making treaties are concluded

1. The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations

2. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

3. The Declaration of Paris

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

  • (A) 1,3,2
  • (B) 3,2,1
  • (C) 2,1,3
  • (D) 1,2,3

Question 36:

Which one of the following doctrine requires that the parties to a treaty are bound to observe its terms in good faith?

  • (A) The Drago doctrine
  • (B) Right of asylum
  • (C) Doctrine of equality
  • (D) Pacta Sunt Servanda

Question 37:

General Assembly adopted the definition of word Aggression through

  • (A) Resolution 3314 XXIX, 1974
  • (B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX, 1973
  • (C) Resolution 2213, 1982
  • (D) None of the above

Question 38:

The admission of a new political entity into the United Nations can be termed as

  • (A) Express recognition
  • (B) Conditional recognition
  • (C) Collective recognition
  • (D) De-facto recognition

Question 39:

"A State is and becomes and international person through recognition only and exclusively." Who stated this?

  • (A) L. Oppenheim
  • (B) Hobbes
  • (C) Fenwick
  • (D) Starke

Question 40:

The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in

  • (A) 1997
  • (B) 1998
  • (C) 1996
  • (D) 2013

Question 41:

Section 3 of Information Technology Act,2000 which was originally "Digital Signature" was renamed as ---------- in ITAA-2008

  • (A) "Digital Signature and Electronic Signature"
  • (B) "Digital Signature and E- Signature"
  • (C) "Digital and Electronic Signature
  • (D) "Electronic Signature"

Question 42:

Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?

  • (A) M/s. Safescript
  • (B) M/s. NCERT
  • (C) M/s. MTL
  • (D) All the above

Question 43:

Section 43 of the Information Technology Act deals with

  • (A) Criminal liability
  • (B) Civil liability
  • (C) Both the above
  • (D) None of the above

Question 44:

"Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected." Which section of the Information Technology Amendment Act, 2008 envisages so

  • (A) 43
  • (B) 43A
  • (C) 43B
  • (D) 43C

Question 45:

R obtained a sum of Rs.50,000/- from D by putting D in fear of death. Here R commits

  • (A) Extortion
  • (B) Cheating
  • (C) Mischief
  • (D) Robbery

Question 46:

What is the period of limitation to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment?

  • (A) 2 years
  • (B) 3 years
  • (C) 12 years
  • (D) 1year

Question 47:

As per S.19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 if any payment is made on account of a debt, before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or by his agent duly authorized in that behalf a fresh period of limitation starts running from the

  • (A) Time when suit was filed
  • (B) When the payment was made
  • (C) When the creditor demands
  • (D) None of the above

Question 48:

Under the Companies Act, 2013, any company having a net worth of rupees 500 crore or more or a turnover of rupees 1,000 crore or more or a net profit of rupees 5 crore or more should mandatorily spend ---------- of their net profits per fiscal on Corporate Social Responsibility activities

  • (A) 3%
  • (B) 5%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 2%

Question 49:

The ---------- Guidelines constitute one of the most comprehensive CSR tools available to companies.

  • (A) OECD
  • (B) OACF
  • (C) OECG
  • (D) ASEAN

Question 50:

Conditions of Hindu Marriage have been laid down under ---------- of Hindu Marriage Act

  • (A) Sec. 9
  • (B) Sec. 10
  • (C) Sec. 5
  • (D) Sec. 13

Question 51:

The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005,

  • (A) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with daughter
  • (B) Allows sons of the deceased equal rights with widows
  • (C) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with wife
  • (D) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with sons

Question 52:

The Fuller/Hart Debate could be summarized as a debate between which two jurisprudential approaches/positions

  • (A) Positivism and utilitarianism
  • (B) Natural Law and Positivism
  • (C) Positivism and Liberalism
  • (D) Marxism and liberal feminism

Question 53:

In bailment if the goods are lent free of cost to the bailee for his use it is known as bailment by

  • (A) Deposition
  • (B) Pledge
  • (C) Commodation
  • (D) None of the above

Question 54:

Where the proposal and acceptance is through letters, the contract is made at the place where

  • (A) The acceptance is received
  • (B) The letter of acceptance is posted
  • (C) Both the above answers
  • (D) None of the above

Question 55:

The surety stands discharged by

  • (A) Death
  • (B) Revocation
  • (C) Variance in the terms of the contract without his consent
  • (D) None of the above

Question 56:

All contracts which are unlawful and void are known as

  • (A) Illegal contracts
  • (B) Nugatory contracts
  • (C) Voidable contracts
  • (D) None of the above

Question 57:

S.------ of the Negotiable instruments Act deals with 'noting'.

  • (A) 100
  • (B) 101
  • (C) 102
  • (D) 99

Question 58:

Cancellation of crossing is also called

  • (A) Marking
  • (B) Opening of crossing
  • (C) Cancellation
  • (D) None of the above

Question 59:

Negotiable claim issued by a bank in return for a term deposit is called

  • (A) Share certificate
  • (B) Certificate of incorporation
  • (C) Certificate of deposit
  • (D) Term deposit

Question 60:

Wager relate with

  • (A) Present event
  • (B) Past event
  • (C) Future event
  • (D) Any of the above

Question 61:

In the judgment of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by ---------- to prepare a case management formula.

  • (A) Justice.Bhagwathi
  • (B) Justice Muralidhar
  • (C) Justice Raveendran
  • (D) Justice Jagannandha Rao

Question 62:

The 2013 Companies Act has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to

  • (A) 100
  • (B) 200
  • (C) 300
  • (D) 150

Question 63:

The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the 2013 Act and would be subject to notification by the

  • (A) NFRA
  • (B) NRFA
  • (C) NARF
  • (D) SEBI

Question 64:

Qui facit per alium facit per se, means

  • (A) act of an agent is the act of principal
  • (B) act of an agent is not an act of principal
  • (C) principal and agent are liable jointly
  • (D) agent must not act in contravention of the act of principal

Question 65:

The concept of 'privity of contract' was rejected in

  • (A) Winterbottom v. Wright
  • (B) Donoghue v. Stevenson
  • (C) Longmeid v. Holiday
  • (D) Heaven v. Pender

Question 66:

---------- is observed as the World Consumer Rights Day.

  • (A) 15th of March
  • (B) 16th of March
  • (C) 12th of March
  • (D) 11th of March

Question 67:

Accountability of medical professional and the need for qualitative change in the attitude of the medical service provided by the hospitals was emphasized by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases

  • (A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A
  • (B) Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha and Ors
  • (C) Manekha Gandhi v. Union of India
  • (D) Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K.Gupta

Question 68:

Renewal of driving licenses is envisaged under S.--- of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 22
  • (D) 15

Question 69:

S.82 IPC is an illustration for

  • (A) Presumption of fact
  • (B) Presumption of law
  • (C) Presumption of fact and presumption of law
  • (D) None of the above.

Question 70:

Meaning Of Nemo moriturus praesumuntur mentiri

  • (A) A dying man can never speak truth
  • (B) A dying man can never speak falsehood
  • (C) A dying man can speak truth
  • (D) A dying man may not speak falsehood

Question 71:

If a court lower to the Sessions Court tries a murder case that court is called as

  • (A) Coram sub judice
  • (B) Coram non judice
  • (C) Coram non subjudice
  • (D) Coram judice

Question 72:

SFIO stands for

  • (A) Serious Fraud Investigation Office
  • (B) Serious Force Institution Office
  • (C) Serious Form Investigation Office
  • (D) Serious File Investigation Office

Question 73:

Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 discusses about the issue of bonus shares out of its free reserves or the securities premium account or the capital redemption reserve account, subject to the compliance with certain conditions such as authorization by the articles, approval in the general meeting

  • (A) S.36
  • (B) S.43
  • (C) S.63
  • (D) S.33

Question 74:

The question whether the Fundamental Rights can be amended under Art.368 came for consideration first time in

  • (A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  • (B) Keshavananda Bharati v. Union of India
  • (C) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
  • (D) None of the above

Question 75:

A law which violates fundamental rights is not nullity or void-ab-initio but becomes only unenforceable, this doctrine is called as

  • (A) Doctrine of severability
  • (B) Doctrine of 3 points
  • (C) Tornado doctrine
  • (D) Doctrine of eclipse

Question 76:

Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reasons, It was observed by apex court in

  • (A) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
  • (B) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
  • (C) AIR India v. Nargesh Mirza
  • (D) All the above

Question 77:

An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behavior from habitual offenders for a period not more than

  • (A) 6 months
  • (B) 1 year
  • (C) 2 years
  • (D) 3 years

Question 78:

S.167 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the nature of custody can be altered from judicial custody to police custody and vice-versa this alteration can be done during the period of first

  • (A) 15 days
  • (B) 16 days
  • (C) 14 days
  • (D) 12 days

Question 79:

Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable

  • (A) S.150
  • (B) S.105
  • (C) S.50
  • (D) S.510

Question 80:

S.41-B is inserted in to the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions

  • (A) Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dhani
  • (B) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
  • (C) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
  • (D) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

Question 81:

Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a clinical Psychologist/Psychiatrist. However by virtue of S.-------the aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of head of Psychiatry and faculty of Medical College

  • (A) 328
  • (B) 328 1A
  • (C) 329
  • (D) 346

Question 82:

What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts?

  • (A) Specific performance and injunction
  • (B) Specific performance and damages
  • (C) Specific performance only
  • (D) All the above

Question 83:

'A' resides at Delhi, and 'B' at Agra. B borrows Rs.20,000/- from A at Benares and passes a promissory note to A payable at Benares.B fails to repay the loan. A may sue B at

  • (A) Benares or Agra
  • (B) Benares only
  • (C) Agra only
  • (D) Benares, Agra and Delhi.

Question 84:

The general principle of waiver that provides that failure to raise objection in the court of the first instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent stage and the judgment would not be vitiated on the ground of absence of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil procedure Code

  • (A) S.15
  • (B) S.16
  • (C) S.51
  • (D) S.21

Question 85:

Act of court can do no wrong to any person. Which concept relates to this ideology

  • (A) Precept
  • (B) Caveat
  • (C) Restitution
  • (D) Injunction

Question 86:

Rabindra Kumar Pal @ Dara Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under S.30 of Evidence Act is also well known as

  • (A) Graham Stains Murder case
  • (B) Graham Bells Murder case
  • (C) Graham Street's Murder case
  • (D) Graham Stoits Murder case

Question 87:

Statement by a person who is dead is a relevant fact under ---------- of the Indian Evidence Act

  • (A) S.32(3)
  • (B) S.32(4)
  • (C) S.32(5)
  • (D) S.32(6)

Question 88:

A Charge Sheet filed under S.173 of Cr.P.C is an example of

  • (A) Public document
  • (B) Private document
  • (C) Patent document
  • (D) Latent document

Question 89:

Procedure of investigation of criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code is contained in Chapter

  • (A) XI
  • (B) XII
  • (C) X
  • (D) IX

Question 90:

Frost v.Knight is a leading case on

  • (A) S.32
  • (B) S.33
  • (C) S.34
  • (D) S.39

Question 91:

Which among the following is a law based on equity?

  • (A) Indian Contract Act, 1872
  • (B) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • (C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
  • (D) Specific Relief Act, 1963

Question 92:

Which section of the Specific Relief Act, describes temporary Injunction

  • (A) 45
  • (B) 41
  • (C) 37
  • (D) 36

Question 93:

The maintenance amount which can be transferred is----

  • (A) Future maintenance
  • (B) Right to future maintenance
  • (C) Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date
  • (D) None of the above

Question 94:

The maximum period during which property can be tied up is

  • (A) Only 15 years
  • (B) One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and the minority of an unborn person
  • (C) During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person
  • (D) None of the above.

Question 95:

Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to have inflicted..... on the victim

  • (A) Grievous hurt
  • (B) Hurt
  • (C) Assault
  • (D) None of the above

Question 96:

Personation at Election is an offence under S. --- of the Indian Penal Code

  • (A) 124 A
  • (B) 121 A
  • (C) 153 B
  • (D) 171 D

Question 97:

Raman having found a key of Raju's house which Raju had lost, commits house trespass by entering Raju's house after opening the door with that key. Raman has committed the offence of

  • (A) House trespass
  • (B) Criminal trespass
  • (C) House breaking
  • (D) None of these

Question 98:

---------------- defined crime as "a violation of public rights and duties due to the whole community considered as community."

  • (A) Blackstone
  • (B) Justice Bhagwati
  • (C) V.R.Krishna Iyer
  • (D) Lord Heward

Question 99:

Who among the following is not a 'public servant'?

  • (A) A Liquidator
  • (B) A Civil Judge
  • (C) Secretary of a Co-operative Society
  • (D) None of these

Question 100:

The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (Universal Rural Employment Programme) was launched in 2001 and was implemented through

  • (A) Labour offices
  • (B) Government
  • (C) Panchayati Raj Institutions
  • (D) All the above

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