AIBE 20 Question Paper with Answer key and Solution PDF is available to download here. AIBE 20 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on November 30, 2025. The AIBE question paper comprised a total of 100 questions according to AIBE Syllabus.
AIBE 20 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set D)
| AIBE 20 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF (Set D) | Download PDF | Check Solution |
The grounds for a decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the:
I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.
II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years.
IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year.
As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record, including:
I. telecom service providers.
II. search engines.
III. cyber cafes.
IV. online-auction sites.
Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is \textbf{not} appealable?
Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of:
Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
List I
I. Act of God
II. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria)
III. Statutory Authority
IV. Necessity
List II
1. Vaughan v Taff Vale Rail Co. (1900) 5 H & N 679
2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D 35
3. Nichols v Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D 1
4. Hall’s Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205
The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
In which of the following judgments was the issue of "right to privacy" dealt with by the Supreme Court of India?
I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295)
II. PUC1 v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568)
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)
Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India?
The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly.
Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent'?
In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?
The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as the source of the fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of “Validation of certain Acts \& Regulations”?
Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India:
I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court.
II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted.
III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope.
Select the correct answer:
By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?
The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for:
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages
ii. Punishment of bigamy
iii. Judicial separation
iv. Voidable marriages
List II
1. Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
2. Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
3. Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
4. Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties?
Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States.
Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to “High Court” in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals.
In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
A company, registered under the Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance?
If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?
Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is:
Which person will \emph{not} be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence, including cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death.
Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement:
Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents.
Conclusions:
I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence.
II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent’s conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct?
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license?
If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?
According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?
If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption.
Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee’s fault.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years.
Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender.
In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct?
If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?
Under Section 290-L of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
As per Section 30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?
As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?
According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee?
According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63?
As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?
Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹5,000?
Which of the following situations falls within Section 58(1)(a)(i) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?
How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?
According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?
Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
According to Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:
Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette.
Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person.
Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and supported by conduct showing its truthfulness.
In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?
Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction.
Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received.
In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct?
In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement:
Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it.
Conclusions:
I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act.
II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct?
Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?
After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case?
According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?
According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?
Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days' notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143?
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement:
As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013, every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties.
Conclusions:
I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.
II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest.
Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard.
Read the following Statement and Conclusions, and choose the correct option.
Statement:
According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits ₹15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.
Conclusions:
I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.
Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.
Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
Read the given Statements and choose the correct option.
A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements:
Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications.
Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may arise solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement:
According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.
Conclusions:
I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property.
Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at ₹2,00,000, subject to conditions.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son.
Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct?
As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree’s response to a proposal introduces a new term?
The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring “uncontrolled legislative power” on the administration is known as the doctrine of:
For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?
In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?
Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of ‘Absolute Liability’?
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit:
I. has been finally decided.
II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim.
Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the judgment-debtor:
I. judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court.
II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property.
III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account.
IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay such amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same.
When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
Which of the following statements is \textbf{incorrect} as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if:
I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood.
III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father’s or mother’s brother or of the grandfather’s or grandmother’s brother of the other.
IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister, or of two brothers or of two sisters.
Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
AIBE 20 (2025) Subject-Wise Weightage Analysis (Expected)
| AIBE Subject | Expected No. of Questions (2025) | Weightage Level | What to Expect |
| Constitutional Law | 10–12 | High | Concept-based questions; FRs & DPSP repeated. |
| IPC (Indian Penal Code) | 8–10 | High | Mostly direct, definition-based questions. |
| CrPC | 8–10 | High | Procedural + chronology-based MCQs. |
| Evidence Act | 6–8 | Medium–High | Application-heavy, trickiest part of paper. |
| Contract Act | 8–10 | High | Straightforward examples & legal principles. |
| Tort Law | 4–5 | Medium | Direct theory-based, mostly scoring. |
| Family Law | 6–8 | Medium | Very predictable & easy. |
| Professional Ethics | 6–8 | High | Scoring, repeated questions every year. |
| Public International Law | 4–5 | Medium | Factual & straightforward. |
| Environmental Law | 4–5 | Low–Medium | Direct questions from key acts. |
| Cyber Law | 2–3 | Low | Basic provisions only. |
| Labour Law | 4–6 | Medium | Definitions & simple acts. |
| Property Law | 3–5 | Medium–High | Slightly conceptual. |
| Company Law | 2–3 | Low–Medium | Mostly direct MCQs. |
| Administrative Law | 2–3 | Low | Very straightforward. |
| Human Rights | 2–3 | Low | Memory-based, easy marks. |
| Arbitration & Conciliation | 2–3 | Low–Medium | Direct provisions; high scoring potential. |
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