AIBE 19 question paper with answer key pdf (Set D) is available for download here. AIBE 19 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on March 6, 2024. The question paper comprised a total of 100 questions.
AIBE 19 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set D)
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______ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 04 workers without providing any compensation. The termination was because of the misconduct on the part of the workers. The company issued a show cause notice and the disciplinary enquiry conducted against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee the services which was rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection the workers have filed a of these employees were terminated. The workers claimed the retrenchment compensation complaint in the Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer -
Malti, a small business owner, runs an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers' personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident.
Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under The Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020?
(1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
Mr K is owner of a building containing a large number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which erected after the occupation by Mr K. Owing to noise and smoke of the mill several rooms remain vacated that results into loss for Mr K. Examine relevant tort for the case.
There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the government and another was a private bus. Wherein private bus was coming from wrong side and government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing down his bus after seeing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.
The term "Income" is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under ...........
Mr. X deposits ₹65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Agricultural Income is Exempt from Tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961.
Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeds Basic Exemption Limit and Agricultural Income exceeds ₹5000/- is determined by Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.
Ms J, a banker refuses to honour cheque of Ms F. Though she was having sufficient balance yet it doesn't suffer any loss to Ms F. Ms F can file the case under which scenario?
Mr B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr A. When Mr A refused then Mr B collected some of his workmen who mustered round Mr A. They tucking up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff's neck, he did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr A can file the case?
Ms J knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr T was under the influence of alcohol. Consequently, car met with an accident and Ms J got injuries and she has filed the case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?
"A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", the owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay ₹50 lakhs in advance and the remaining ₹1 crore within six months. In return, "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land.
However, after receiving the advance payment, "B" refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law.
"A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that "B" shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years.
Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of ₹50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark "Insufficient Funds."
Rent-Free Accommodation provided by an employer to employee is ............ .
An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under ............ .
The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections ..... .
According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for:
(i) Strategic purpose.
(ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects.
(iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.
Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app's name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app's source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "FitLyfe", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers.
Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to ........ .
How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?
Which section of the Law of Contract defines, "A proposal may be revoked at any time, before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards?"
Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338A providing for the reservation of seats for women in the house of people.
(iii) It also adds Article 334A which states in that the said amendment will commence after the first census have been taken after the commencement of the said Act.
(iv) The above stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from search commencement.
The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024", which includes the following provisions:
(1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender.
(2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of ₹10,000 for discrimination.
(3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years.
A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law.
What principle did the court apply in this decision?
The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ......... .
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?
In which case did the Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be "Criminal Force":
According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under section 182(1)?
According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed?
(1) Robbery
(2) House-breaking after sunset
(3) Theft, mischief or house trespass
Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt.
Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?
Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay.
Which of the following offenses has Amit committed?
Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:
Mr. Patel, being a police officer, receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of a bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following:
The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when -
(1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel.
(2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested.
(3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away.
(4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat, or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances.
Which of the above is/are the correct statement?
BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offence irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as ............
The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least .......... year.
Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram.
Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
A new offense of 'Snatching' has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines 'Snatching' as an offense?
Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is Biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?
What is the term for a court's power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in ............
In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as a?
Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
According to section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?
....... of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?
Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?
As per section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
Under section 146 of the BSA 2023, when the leading questions are permissible in the court proceedings?
Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
Nisha and Aakash are separated, and they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890. Which of the following factors will the court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?
Match the following:
% Requires: \usepackage{array
\begin{table[h]
\centering
\caption{Placeholder Caption
\label{tab:placeholder_label
\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
a. Spoken words & i. Sunnat-ul-Qaul
\hline
b. Deepika vs. CAT & ii. Customary Law
\hline
c. Silence & iii. Sunnat-ul - Taqrir
\hline
d. Aas Kaur vs. Kartar Singha & iv. Atypical Relationships
\hline
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI & v. Triple Talaq
\hline
& vi. Maintenance
\hline
\end{tabular
\end{table
\flushleft
\newpage
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the cases and terms.
Each item corresponds to a specific aspect of Islamic law or landmark case law. The terms relate to different concepts and legal precedents.
Step 2: Matching the terms with the cases.
a. Spoken words: This corresponds to (i) Sunnat-ul-Qual, which refers to verbal declarations in Islamic law.
b. Deepika vs. CAT: This case corresponds to (v) Triple Talaq, as it deals with the legality of triple talaq, a practice under Islamic law.
c. Silence: This corresponds to (iii) Sunnat-ul-Taqrir, which deals with silence or lack of objection in Islamic law.
d. As Kaur vs. Kartar Singha: This relates to (ii) Customary Law, as the case involves non-standard relationships under the law.
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI: This case corresponds to (v) Triple Talaq, as it deals with the issue of triple talaq and its constitutionality.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) a-i, b-v, c-iii, d-ii, e-v, as it correctly matches the terms with their respective legal concepts and cases.
Quick Tip: When matching legal concepts and cases, focus on the core issue of each case, such as maintenance or customary law, to guide the matching process.
Which sections discusses with regard to "sapinda relationships" under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
Under section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the divorced person, to marry again ..............
Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decides to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Which of the following statements is true regarding the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there and one of the following views of the Court was sustained in the said case, identify from the following-
Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: In PIL cases, the court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases.
Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq. Fatima is now seeking maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance. Under Muslim law, which of the following statements is true regarding Fatima's claim for maintenance?
The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section ............. of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
In which case a prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture, which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?
Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action?
(1) Illegality
(2) Irrationality
(3) Proportionality
(4) Public opinion
What does "conflict of interest" refer to in professional ethics?
Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y's interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option -
The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct:
(1) Criminal in nature
(2) Neither civil nor criminal
(3) Quasi-criminal in nature
(4) Civil in nature
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of "locus standi" is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves.
Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?
In 2020 at Dharodo village the Panchayat elections could not happen due to the covid pandemic while the tenure, of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh, represented the people that year at the Panchayat post dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayatraj Act of the state to restrict their economic activities per day to ₹ 100 only.... In which of the following case this is allowed or restricted?
A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as "X" has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Local farmers and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation and daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Despite multiple complaints to the local pollution control board, no action has been taken against the company. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer -
Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary?
(1) Cyber Cafes
(2) Telecom Regulators
(3) Social Media Platforms
(4) Internet Service Providers
Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards?
(1) Act in a fraudulent manner
(2) Providing peer-review of valuation, if necessary
(3) Non-Disclosures of any prior association with the client
(4) Non-Disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest
As per Section 2(84) Share means share in the share capital of a Company and includes ..........
(1) Debentures
(2) Preference Shares
(3) Stocks
(4) Bonds
Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for ...........
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