AIBE 12 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set A)

The First constitutional amendment was enacted in

• (A) 1950
• (B) 1951
• (C) 1967
• (D) 1975

A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts

• (A) Section 107 IPC
• (B) Section 120(B) of IPC
• (C) Section 114 of IPC
• (D) Section 144 of IPC

A land mark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is

• (A) Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala
• (B) Golaknath V.s State of Punjab
• (C) MC Mehta V/s. Union of India
• (D) ADM Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla

Examination in Chief is conducted by the

• (A) Chief Examiner of the court
• (B) A lawyer appointed by the accused
• (C) A lawyer appointed by the government
• (D) Presiding judge in the court

The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of

• (A) The Stockholm Conference
• (B) The Nairobi Conference
• (C) The Vienna Conference
• (D) The Rio De Janeiro Conference

Who is a protected workman

• (A) Workman given police protection during labour strike
• (B) Workman protected by insurance coverage
• (C) Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
• (D) Workman protected from being arrested by a court order

A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of

• (A) A word
• (B) A device
• (C) A label
• (D) All the above

The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of

• (A) Legal Service Corporation Act, 1974
• (B) Legal aid and advice Act, 1949
• (C) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
• (D) None

Shah Bano case was related to

• (A) Dowry demand
• (B) Harassment at work place
• (C) Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
• (D) Triple divorce of Muslim Women

Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court,

• (A) Any public spirited person
• (B) NGO or Association with public spirit
• (C) Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
• (D) All the above

Doctrine of 'Pleasure' applies to

• (A) Legislative
• (B) Civil servants
• (C) Judges
• (D) Cabinet Ministers

Section 24 A of Advocates Act 1961 provides the

• (A) Appointment of Attorney General
• (B) Regular attendance at Law College
• (C) Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
• (D) Election to state Bar Council

Articles of a company can be altered by

• (A) The directors of the company
• (B) The official of the company
• (C) Share holders by passing an ordinary resolution
• (D) Share holders by passing a special resolution

Article 361 provides

• (A) Authority to Union government to dismiss the state governments
• (B) Authority to the state governments to pass legislation
• (C) Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts
• (D) None of the above

Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with

• (A) Section 298 of IPC
• (B) Section 296 IPC
• (C) Section 297
• (D) None of the above

Under Section 320(1), Cr.P.C for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable

• (A) 503
• (B) 504
• (C) 505
• (D) 506

Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism

• (A) Bar Council of India
• (B) Election Commission
• (C) Comptroller and Auditor General
• (D) Lok Adalat

Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor

• (A) Father
• (B) Brother
• (C) The executor appointed by father
• (D) Grand father

Who is garnishee

• (A) A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
• (B) A borrower arrested for defaulting
• (C) A person who cannot repay a bank loan
• (D) A person who mortgaged his farm land

Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the court

• (A) The Tahsildar
• (B) The Sub Collector
• (C) The Deputy Collector
• (D) The Collector

For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in

• (A) 3 years
• (B) 3 months
• (C) 6 months
• (D) No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract

Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under

• (A) Wealth Tax
• (B) GST
• (C) Income Tax Act 1961
• (D) Finance Act 1992

A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is _________

• (A) Irregular
• (B) Void
• (C) Voidable
• (D) None of these

Section 10 of the CPC provides for

• (A) Stay of the suit
• (B) Summoning witness
• (C) Examination of witness
• (D) Sentencing the judgement

Who is prevented from being testified u/s 118 of Indian Evidence Act

• (A) A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
• (B) Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
• (C) A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
• (D) All the above

Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai V/s. Union of India,

• (A) Relating to the President Rule in state
• (B) Relating to the illegal detention
• (C) Relating to the right to clean environment
• (D) None of the above

Recovery of specific immovable property is defined

• (A) Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act
• (B) Section 120 (B) of IPC
• (C) Under section 10 of Sale of goods Act
• (D) None of the Above

Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with

• (A) Revision petition in division bench of High Court
• (B) Appeal in Supreme Court
• (C) Return of Wealth Tax
• (D) None of the above

The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate ____________ of any correction made in the award to all the persons included

• (A) Approval
• (B) Stay
• (C) Announcement
• (D) Notice

Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected

• (A) Under Section 151 of CPC
• (B) Under Section 152 of CPC
• (C) Under Section 153 of CPC
• (D) Under Section 153 A of CPC

Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is

• (A) Admissible
• (B) Not admissible
• (C) Challengeable
• (D) None of the above

Supreme court has decided in Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala, that

• (A) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution
• (B) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
• (C) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
• (D) None of the above

Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?

• (A) Section 40
• (B) Section 41
• (C) Section 42
• (D) Section 37

"A" is at work with a hatchel: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in

• (A) Section 80 of IPC
• (B) Section 84 of IPC
• (C) Section 81 of IPC
• (D) Section 85 of IPC

Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v/s. Union Of India (1995) 1 SC 14, In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court,

• (A) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
• (B) Abolition of child labour
• (C) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
• (D) Poor salary of maid servants

Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature

• (A) Chapter III
• (B) Chapter IV
• (C) Chapter IX
• (D) Chapter IX and X

The FIR gives information of

• (A) Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
• (B) Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
• (C) The commission of a cognizable crime
• (D) None of the above

Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section'

• (A) Section 2(1)(b)
• (B) Section 20
• (C) Section 21
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the code of civil procedure?

• (A) Order 12, Rule 1
• (B) Order 17, Rule 10
• (C) Order 33, Rule 18
• (D) Order 35 Rule 1

Which is not the Private Right

• (A) Rights of property
• (B) Right of freedom
• (C) Rights to Education
• (D) All the above

Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C?

• (A) It is milder form of process
• (B) It is for appearance
• (C) It is for producing documents or thing
• (D) All of them

The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of Punjab is a leading case on

• (A) Dying Declaration
• (B) Admission
• (C) Confession
• (D) None of the above

What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act

• (A) Recovery of stolen property
• (B) Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
• (C) Recovery of the cheque amount incase cheque issued by the payer is bounced
• (D) None of the above

Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes

• (A) Process of Conciliation
• (B) Process of Arbitration
• (C) Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
• (D) All of the above

Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article

• (A) 19
• (B) 21
• (C) 48-A
• (D) 50

In-camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under section

• (A) 302 IPC
• (B) 307 IPC
• (C) 376 IPC
• (D) 498-A-IPC

The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:

• (A) Handa v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
• (B) Dr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
• (C) Peter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
• (D) None of the above

Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act 1961 by

• (A) Section 25
• (B) Section 33
• (C) Section 35
• (D) None of the above

Which one is a case of public interest

• (A) Vishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
• (B) Minerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
• (C) Municipal Council, Ratlam V.s. Vardichand AIR 1980
• (D) All the above

Under section 239 Cr.PC, the Magistrate can

• (A) Frame charges against the accused person
• (B) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless.
• (C) Open trial for evidence
• (D) Convict the accused if pleaded guilty

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances

• (A) When the state legislature is not in session
• (B) During the course of legislature session
• (C) On the recommendation of the state cabinet
• (D) With the permission of the union government

A person arrested should not be detained more than

• (A) 48 hours
• (B) 24 hours
• (C) 14 days
• (D) 90 days

Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance

• (A) Son who is a minor
• (B) Daughter who is not married
• (C) Grand parents
• (D) An Illegitimate son

In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on

• (A) The Petitioner
• (B) The respondents
• (C) The state government
• (D) The Court

In which of the following of Section 59 Cr. P. C the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?

• (A) On his own bond
• (B) On bail
• (C) Under special order of the Magistrate
• (D) All of them

Financial Relations between the state and centre are defined in constitution

• (A) Between Article 245-255
• (B) Between Article 256-263
• (C) Between 264 to 293
• (D) None of the above

Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s 124(A) of IPC for

• (A) Calling Hartal
• (B) Breaching public peace and tranquillity
• (C) Sedition and disaffection to the government
• (D) None of the above

Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/s. 109 and 110 of Cr.PC from

• (A) Habitual offenders
• (B) White collar criminals
• (C) Jail inmates
• (D) None of the above

Dayabhaga school Presumes that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property"

• (A) This statement is correct
• (B) This presumption is under Mitakshara school
• (C) This statement is incorrect
• (D) None of these

Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is

• (A) Dispute between employers and employers
• (B) Dispute between employers and workman
• (C) Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non-employment
• (D) All the above

English case Ryland V/s. Fletcher laid down a very important rule

• (A) Absolute Liability
• (B) Vicarious liability
• (C) Indirect liability
• (D) Financial liability

Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:

• (A) The parties must be competent to contract
• (B) There must be mental consent
• (C) There must be a transfer of property
• (D) There must be an agreement to sell

"Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law". In which case supreme court made this remark,

• (A) A.K. Gopalan V/s. State of Madras
• (B) M.C. Mehta V/s. Union of India
• (C) D.K. Basu V/s. State of Bengal
• (D) Visakha V/s. State of Rajasthan

A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is

• (A) 3 year's from the date of sentencing the judgement
• (B) 3 year's from the date of release from imprisonment
• (C) 3 year's from the date of commencing the imprisonment
• (D) 1 year when the imprisonment ends

Rule of Law is defined by

• (A) Jeremy Bentham
• (B) Sir John Salmond
• (C) A.Y.Diecy
• (D) Prof. Aristotle

What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR

• (A) Within 24 hours
• (B) Within 48 hours
• (C) Within 14 days of the offence
• (D) No time limit is specified

Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?

• (A) They are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
• (B) They must take precedence over Section. 114 or Order. 47
• (C) Both (A) and (B)
• (D) None of these

An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in

• (A) The High Court
• (B) The Supreme Court
• (C) The Central Government
• (D) Not Appealable

Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct

• (A) Ethics Committee
• (B) Professional Development Committee
• (C) Disciplinary Committee
• (D) High Court

Which section of Sale of Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract

• (A) Section 50
• (B) Section 65
• (C) Section 60
• (D) Section 70

Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright act by invoking the provisions

• (A) Section 13-16
• (B) Section 17-27
• (C) Section 63-70
• (D) None of the above

Which section of Indian Registration Act 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties

• (A) Section 11
• (B) Section 13
• (C) Section 17
• (D) None of the above

State government's power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 Under section,

• (A) 67 of MV Act 1988
• (B) 68 of MV Act 1988
• (C) 69 of MV Act 1988
• (D) None of the above

Doctrine of "LIS PENDENS" is given under which section of the transfer of property Act

• (A) 41
• (B) 52
• (C) 53
• (D) 53A

Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?

• (A) It is a true law
• (B) It has vertical structure
• (C) It has well established institutes of governance
• (D) It has formal law enforcing agencies

Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse.

• (A) This statement is true under Sunni law
• (B) This statement is not true
• (C) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
• (D) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse

Dying declaration must be made by

• (A) The dying person in hospital
• (B) The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
• (C) The deceased before death
• (D) Nearest relative of the deceased

Judgement should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court

• (A) By delivering the whole of the judgement
• (B) By reading out the whole of the judgement
• (C) By reading out the operative part of the judgement
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution

• (A) Section 242 Cr.P.C
• (B) Section 264 Cr.P.C
• (C) Section 237 Cr.P.C
• (D) Section 235 Cr.P.C

Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under

• (A) Section 9 of IPC
• (B) Section 8 of IPC
• (C) Section 7 of IPC
• (D) None of the above

Control over sub ordinate courts shall be vested in the

• (A) High Court
• (B) Supreme Court
• (C) Chief Minister
• (D) Governor

Section 34 of the CPC provides

• (A) The Payment of fine imposed by the court
• (B) Payment of compensation to the other party
• (C) Payment of interest
• (D) None of the above

Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called :

• (A) Coercive question
• (B) Confusing question
• (C) Misleading question
• (D) Rhetoric Question

According to clauses (i),(ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety:

• (A) May render himself personally liable
• (B) He may only give a change upon his property
• (C) He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
• (D) All of these

Section 49 of Factories Act 1947 explains about

• (A) Canteen
• (B) Creche
• (C) Welfare officer
• (D) Rest room

The word "case" used in Section. 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and

• (A) It means any state of facts juridically considered
• (B) It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
• (C) Both (A) and (B)
• (D) None of these

"A" finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to "B" and appropriates to his own use. "A" is guilty of

• (A) Criminal breach of trust
• (B) Cheating
• (C) Criminal misappropriation
• (D) Theft

The word “is not possessed of sufficient means“ in Order 33 Rule 1 refer :

• (A) To dower debt due by the petitioner's husband
• (B) To property over which petitioner has actual control
• (C) To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
• (D) None of these

Section 22 B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to

• (A) Abolish Lok Adalat
• (B) Works of Lok Adalat
• (C) Powers of Lok Adalat or permanent Lok Adalat
• (D) None of the above

Indian Evidence Act was enacted in

• (A) 1972
• (B) 1872
• (C) 1955
• (D) 1986

Which is the correct statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer

• (A) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
• (B) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
• (C) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
• (D) All of the above

Droite Administration is a system of administration

• (A) French system
• (B) British system
• (C) American System
• (D) Irish System

Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes

• (A) Indian Telecommunication Act
• (B) Indian Penal Code
• (C) Indian Evidence Act
• (D) Information Technology Act

In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to

• (A) Violate legal right of the victim
• (B) Cause damage to the victim
• (C) Obtain benefit for the combiners
• (D) Perfect the interest of combiners

Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in

• (A) Section 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
• (B) Section of 26 of Specific Relief Act
• (C) Section 31-33 of specific Relief Act
• (D) Sections 36-42 of Specific Relief Act

Unfair labour practice by the employers

• (A) Victimization
• (B) False implication in criminal case
• (C) Untrue allegations of absence without leave
• (D) All the above

The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in

• (A) 1986
• (B) 1988
• (C) 1991
• (D) 1997

Who is lawful guardian

• (A) A person who in law represents the Minor :
• (B) A person who has been appointed by the court
• (C) A person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
• (D) All the above

Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least

• (A) 100 shares
• (B) 20 shares
• (C) 10 shares
• (D) 1 share

GST came into force from

• (A) 1^st January 2017
• (B) 1^st April 2017
• (C) 1^st July 2017
• (D) 1^st August 2017