AIBE 11 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set B)

Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by

• (A) Bank Tribunal
• (B) Consumer Forum
• (C) Magistrate Court
• (D) Sessions Court

Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the 'oral statement' means

• (A) All statements made before the Court by the witness
• (B) All statements made before the police by the accused
• (C) All statements of facts which a witness heard to say
• (D) All of the above

Under the Evidence Act, 'Court' includes

• (A) All Judges
• (B) All Magistrates
• (C) All Arbitrators
• (D) (a) and (b)

Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions

• (A) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
• (B) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
• (C) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
• (D) None of the above

Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act

• (A) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
• (B) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
• (C) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
• (D) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi

Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

• (A) Possession of driving licence while driving
• (B) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
• (C) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is detected
• (D) State government's power to control the road transport

The term 'Tort' is a

• (A) Latin Word
• (B) French Word
• (C) English word
• (D) Italian word

In Tort, what is 'vicarious liability'?

• (A) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
• (B) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
• (C) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
• (D) None of the above

Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, 'defect' is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in ________________ in relation to the goods

• (A) Quality and Quantity
• (B) Potency
• (C) Purity or standard
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God

• (A) Storm and cyclone
• (B) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
• (C) Lightning and thunder
• (D) All of the above

Income Tax Act was enacted in

• (A) 1951
• (B) 1961
• (C) 1971
• (D) None of the above

'Income' is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act, as

• (A) Profits and gains
• (B) Dividend
• (C) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
• (D) All of the above

Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on

• (A) The High Court
• (B) The Court of civil judge
• (C) The district judge
• (D) All of the above

Temporary Injunction can be granted

• (A) Suo moto
• (B) Ex parte
• (C) Hearing both parties
• (D) None of the above

Right to Appeal is a

• (A) Natural Right
• (B) Inherent right
• (C) Statutory right
• (D) Delegated right

The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in

• (A) 2000
• (B) 2001
• (C) 2002
• (D) 2004

Which is the correct statement:

• (A) There can be a will without a codicil
• (B) There can be a codicil without a will
• (C) Every will has a codicil
• (D) A codicil proceeds a will

As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by

• (A) By two witnesses
• (B) By two or more witnesses
• (C) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
• (D) None of the above

'Iddat' under Mohammadan law refers to

• (A) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
• (B) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
• (C) Attaining of puberty
• (D) None of the above

Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by

• (A) State government
• (B) The Central government
• (C) The Clergyman of the Church
• (D) High Court judges

Which one is not a fundamental right?

• (A) Right to Freedom of Assembly
• (B) Right to Property
• (C) Right to equality
• (D) Right to freedom of speech and Expression

In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that

• (A) Confiscation of Passport was correct
• (B) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
• (C) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of Passport is not accordance to the law
• (D) Right to go abroad is part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21

Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement

• (A) In the interest of general public
• (B) In the interest of political leaders
• (C) In the interest of women safety
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following can claim Article 19 of Constitution

• (A) A company
• (B) A corporation
• (C) Only citizens
• (D) Citizens and aliens

Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be

• (A) An accused
• (B) A witness
• (C) A witness against himself
• (D) Hostile witness

Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as

• (A) Judges Transfer Case
• (B) Illegal Detention case
• (C) Mandal Commission case
• (D) Constitutional case

Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted

• (A) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
• (B) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
• (C) P V. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
• (D) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand

What is meant by Homicide ?

• (A) Suicide by human being not at home
• (B) Suicide at home
• (C) Killing of a human being by another human being
• (D) Killing of human being by animal

Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence

• (A) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
• (B) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
• (C) Under Section 272-273 of IPC
• (D) None of the above

Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is

• (A) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
• (B) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
• (C) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
• (D) Death sentence

Offences relating to elections are

• (A) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
• (B) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
• (C) Are not covered by IPC
• (D) None of the above

Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on

• (A) Wrongful restraint
• (B) Wrongful confinement
• (C) Outrage the modesty of a woman
• (D) Maintenance to the divorced women

Which of the following is not of civil nature

• (A) Right to take out procession
• (B) Right to Worship in a temple
• (C) Right to Caste and Religion
• (D) All of the above

In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies

• (A) The suit is liable to be dismissed
• (B) The suit is liable to be stayed
• (C) Both (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

Under Section 16, CPC, a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a Court whose local jurisdiction is

• (A) Where the property is situated
• (B) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
• (C) Both (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

Pleading means

• (A) Plaint and written statement
• (B) Plaint only
• (C) Written statement
• (D) Oral statement by the pleader

On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII rule 10 of CPC the Court may

• (A) pass any other order
• (B) Order for striking off the decree
• (C) May pronounce the judgement at once
• (D) Any of the above

Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the Government

• (A) Section 5
• (B) Section 6
• (C) Section 7
• (D) Section 8

The Patent Act became a law in

• (A) 1970
• (B) 1975
• (C) 1996
• (D) 1966

A Public Interest litigation can be filed under

• (A) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32 Constitution
• (B) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
• (C) (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India AIR 1982, SC 149, decided

• (A) Free Legal Aid
• (B) Bonded labours
• (C) Judges Transfer
• (D) Illegal detention

Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved,

• (A) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
• (B) Public Trust doctrine
• (C) Separation of power doctrine
• (D) Public Interest doctrine

Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to

• (A) Sexual harassment at workplace
• (B) Protection of civil rights
• (C) Uniform civil code
• (D) None of the above

Court's power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act

• (A) Under Section 20
• (B) Under Section 21
• (C) (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act

• (A) By the opinion of Experts
• (B) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
• (C) After police verification
• (D) (a) and (b)

Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides

• (A) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
• (B) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
• (C) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
• (D) (a) and (c)

The term 'Evidence' means and includes

• (A) Oral evidence
• (B) Documentary evidence
• (C) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
• (D) All of the above

Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC

• (A) State government
• (B) Central government
• (C) Supreme Court of India
• (D) (a) and (b)

A decree can be

• (A) Final
• (B) Preliminary
• (C) Only Preliminary not final
• (D) Either preliminary or final

Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC

• (A) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
• (B) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
• (C) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
• (D) None of the above

Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999, defines the meaning of

• (A) Licence
• (B) Trade Mark
• (C) Registration
• (D) Cancellation

Outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC

• (A) Section 376 (a)
• (B) Section 376 (b)
• (C) Section 354
• (D) Section 498

Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of

• (A) House breaking
• (B) Dishonest misappropriation of property
• (C) Forgery
• (D) Forgery with cheating

Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under

• (A) Section 503 to 506
• (B) Section 509 to 516
• (C) Section 319 to 329
• (D) None of the above

The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to

• (A) Water pollution
• (B) Air and water pollution
• (C) Noise and air pollution
• (D) Water and noise pollution

What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation

• (A) Impose a fine
• (B) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
• (C) Suspension from practice
• (D) All of the above

On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to

• (A) High Court
• (B) Supreme Court
• (C) Bar Council of India
• (D) Indian Law Commission

Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates

• (A) Section 29
• (B) Section 35
• (C) Section 37
• (D) All of the above

Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with

• (A) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the bar
• (B) Qualification to become the Advocate General
• (C) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
• (D) (b) and (c)

Under the Workmen's Compensation Act, which is helpful decide the extent of injury for compensation

• (A) Insurance certificate
• (B) Medical examination
• (C) Medical Certificate
• (D) (b) and (c)

Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of

• (A) A Court
• (B) A Tribunal
• (C) A quasi judicial form
• (D) All of the above

The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is

• (A) Industrial peace and economic justice
• (B) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
• (C) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
• (D) All of the above

Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of

• (A) Lock Out
• (B) Lay Off
• (C) Strike
• (D) Hartal

The Land Acquisition Act came into force from

• (A) 1st March 1955
• (B) 1st March 1986
• (C) 1st March 1994
• (D) 1st March 1894

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the 'arable land' means

• (A) Useful for residential purpose
• (B) Useful for commercial purpose
• (C) Useful for cultivation
• (D) Useful for industrial purpose

The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under

• (A) Article 310
• (B) Article 315
• (C) Article 320
• (D) Article 325

Right to Personal liberty includes

• (A) Right against custodial violence
• (B) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
• (C) Right against Public hanging
• (D) All of the above

The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is

• (A) President
• (B) Prime Minister
• (C) The Defence Minister
• (D) Chief Marshal

Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is

• (A) 62 years
• (B) 60 years
• (C) 58 years
• (D) 65 years

Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of

• (A) Concurrent list
• (B) State list
• (C) Union list
• (D) None of the above

Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in

• (A) Section 2 (a) of Cr.PC
• (B) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
• (C) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
• (D) Section 20 of IPC

Under Section 21 of Cr.PC Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by

• (A) Central Government
• (B) High Court
• (C) Supreme Court
• (D) State Government

Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person,

• (A) U/s. 49 Cr.PC
• (B) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
• (C) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
• (D) U/s. 52 Cr.PC

The Special Court is

• (A) Not subordinate to High Court
• (B) Superior to High Court
• (C) Supplement to High Court
• (D) Equal to Supreme Court

The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be exercised by a Magistrate

• (A) When the police decides not to investigate the case
• (B) When the investigation is still going on
• (C) Both (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial

• (A) For contradicting the witness
• (B) For corroborating the witness
• (C) Incorporating in the charge sheet
• (D) Discharging the accused

Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided

• (A) Under Section 173 Of Criminal Procedure Code
• (B) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
• (C) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
• (D) None of the above

Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. PC

• (A) U/s. 214
• (B) U/s. 215
• (C) U/s. 216
• (D) U/s.210

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption

• (A) Must be a Hindu only
• (B) A Hindu or Jew
• (C) May be Hindu or Christian
• (D) None of the above

Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year

• (A) 1956
• (B) 1954
• (C) 1955
• (D) 1978

Mohan gets married to his sister's daughter Kriti

• (A) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
• (B) The marriage is void
• (C) The marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
• (D) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat permits

Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as

• (A) Includes a river but not a water course
• (B) Includes a water course but not a river
• (C) Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
• (D) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river

The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from

• (A) French administration
• (B) British Administration
• (C) Swedish Administration
• (D) German Administration

Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by

• (A) Central government or State government
• (B) Union Public Service Commission
• (C) State Public commission
• (D) Supreme Court of India

Information Technology Act was enacted in

• (A) 1988
• (B) 1996
• (C) 2000
• (D) 2004

Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective

• (A) To provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
• (B) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the government
• (C) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
• (D) All of the above

The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is

• (A) 5
• (B) 10
• (C) 7
• (D) 2

A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives

• (A) Certification of incorporation
• (B) Letter of intent
• (C) Occupation certificate
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following is not an essential of a Contract of Guarantee

• (A) Concurrence of three parties
• (B) Surety's distinct promise to be answerable
• (C) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
• (D) Existence of only one contract

The term 'Agent' is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section

• (A) 180 of the Act
• (B) 181 of the Act
• (C) 182 of the Act
• (D) 183 of the Act

What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business

• (A) Eight
• (B) Ten
• (C) Twelve
• (D) Sixteen

A person who gives the guarantee is called

• (A) Bailee
• (B) Creditor
• (C) Debtor
• (D) Surety

Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods

• (A) Lien
• (B) Stoppage in transit
• (C) Right of resale
• (D) To ascertain price

Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides

• (A) Injunctions
• (B) Court's discretion on specific performance
• (C) Cancellation of instruments
• (D) None of the above

Section 154 under IT Act is

• (A) For filing return of Income
• (B) For filing return with late fee
• (C) Rectification of mistakes
• (D) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO

Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act,

• (A) Any stock in Trade
• (B) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
• (C) (a) and (b)
• (D) None of the above

The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by

• (A) The Tribunal
• (B) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
• (C) The petitioner
• (D) The Defendant

The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated

• (A) On making of the final award
• (B) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
• (C) When the parties to the dispute agrees to terminate proceedings
• (D) All of the above

Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a

• (A) Order of district collector
• (B) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
• (C) Decree of a Civil Court
• (D) (a) and (b)

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Section 18-27 states

• (A) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
• (B) Receipt and Written Communications
• (C) Extent of judicial intervention
• (D) Awarding final decision