KLEE 2024 LLB 5 Year Question Paper (Available) Download Solution PDF with Answer Keys

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

KLEE 2024 LLB 5 Year Question paper with Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Commissioner of Entrance Examinations (CEE). The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions divided among four sections.

KLEE 2024 LLB 5 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF

KLEE 2024 LLB 5 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) rejuvanation
  • (B) excarsion
  • (C) abundance
  • (D) advantagious
Correct Answer: (C) abundance
View Solution

To identify the correctly spelled word, we must examine each option for standard spelling according to English usage.

Option A: ``rejuvanation"

The correct spelling is "rejuvenation" — with an "e" after the "j".

"Rejuvanation" is a common misspelling.

Option B: ``excarsion"

This is an incorrect spelling. The correct word is "excursion", meaning a short journey or trip.


Option C: ``abundance"

This is the correct spelling. It means a large quantity of something.


Option D: ``advantagious"

The correct spelling is "advantageous" — it ends with "eous", not "ious".


Hence, only Option C is spelled correctly. Quick Tip: To identify correctly spelled words:
- Break the word into known roots and suffixes.
- Practice commonly confused suffixes like -tion, -sion, -eous, -ious.
- Use phonetic clues but cross-check with a dictionary if in doubt.


Question 2:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) achievemant
  • (B) supperlative
  • (C) transitive
  • (D) pharmaceutical
Correct Answer: (D) pharmaceutical
View Solution

To identify the correctly spelled word, let us examine each option:

Option A: ``achievemant"

This is a misspelling. The correct word is "achievement" — note the ending is "-ment", not "-mant".


Option B: ``supperlative"

The correct spelling is ``superlative" — with one "p". "Supperlative" is not a valid English word.


Option C: ``transitive"

This word may seem correct, but in the given image, it is spelled as "transitve", which is incorrect. The correct form is "transitive". So this option is incorrect as per the spelling in the image.


Option D: ``pharmaceutical"

This is the correct spelling. It refers to anything related to drugs or pharmacy.


Thus, Option D is the only word spelled correctly. Quick Tip: When identifying correct spellings:
- Be cautious of common suffix errors like "-mant" instead of "-ment".
- Watch for double letters that do not belong (like in "supperlative").
- Familiarize yourself with common academic and scientific terms like "pharmaceutical".
- If a word seems close to a known word but slightly altered, double-check it.


Question 3:

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals?

ABOLISH

  • (A) cancel
  • (B) rescind
  • (C) terminate
  • (D) restore
Correct Answer: (D) restore
View Solution


The word ``abolish” means to formally put an end to a system, practice, or institution.

Option A: ``cancel" — This is a synonym of abolish.

Option B: "rescind" — Also similar in meaning, means to revoke or repeal.

Option C: ``terminate" — Again, similar in meaning; it implies ending something.

Option D: ``restore" — This is the opposite of abolish; it means to bring back or reinstate something.


Therefore, the correct antonym is restore. Quick Tip: To find antonyms, first clearly define the meaning of the word. Then eliminate synonyms among the options and choose the one that reverses the core action or state of the original word.


Question 4:

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals?

AMUSE

  • (A) annoy
  • (B) interest
  • (C) enliven
  • (D) please
Correct Answer: (A) annoy
View Solution




The word ``amuse” means to entertain or delight.


Option A: ``annoy" — This is the opposite, meaning to irritate or bother.

Option B: ``interest" — This is close to amuse in a positive emotional sense.

Option C: ``enliven" — Also similar, means to make more lively or fun.

Option D: ``please" — Also a synonym, means to give pleasure.


Thus, the correct antonym of amuse is annoy. Quick Tip: Antonyms are about emotional or functional opposites. If “amuse” brings joy, its opposite will cause irritation or boredom — like “annoy.”


Question 5:

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals?

INTERFERE

  • (A) counter
  • (B) assist
  • (C) hate
  • (D) fight
Correct Answer: (B) assist
View Solution




“Interfere” means to intervene in a situation without invitation, usually in a disruptive or unwanted manner.


Option A: ``counter" — Not directly opposite; it means to oppose or respond to.

Option B: ``assist" — This is the opposite, implying help or support rather than obstruct.

Option C: ``hate" — Unrelated in meaning.

Option D: ``fight" — Could be related to interference but not an antonym.


Therefore, assist is the correct opposite of interfere. Quick Tip: When looking for antonyms, think about the intent behind the word — "interfere" disrupts, so its opposite would be something that aids or supports, like "assist."


Question 6:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence: The work was A PIECE OF CAKE.

  • (A) very easy to do
  • (B) a hard work
  • (C) difficult to do
  • (D) not possible
Correct Answer: (A) very easy to do
View Solution



The idiom "a piece of cake" means something that is very easy to do or accomplish. It originates from the idea that eating a piece of cake is effortless.


Examples:

- The test was a piece of cake for her.

- Fixing the printer was a piece of cake for the technician.
Quick Tip: Idioms often describe situations using figurative comparisons. "A piece of cake" = something easy.


Question 7:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

Before the performance, the organiser told the artists to BREAK A LEG.

  • (A) give a warning
  • (B) good luck
  • (C) to wind up the programme
  • (D) to speed up the programme
Correct Answer: (B) good luck
View Solution



"Break a leg" is a common idiom used in the performing arts to wish someone good luck in a performance. It is believed that saying "good luck" directly might jinx the outcome.


Example:

- Break a leg! I hope your audition goes well.
Quick Tip: Some idioms have meanings that are opposite to what they literally say — like “break a leg” meaning “good luck.”


Question 8:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

He called me OUT OF THE BLUE to invite me to the meeting.

  • (A) gradually
  • (B) quickly
  • (C) unexpectedly
  • (D) slowly
Correct Answer: (C) unexpectedly
View Solution



The idiom "out of the blue" means something that happens unexpectedly or without warning. It refers to a sudden event with no prior indication.


Example:

- A call from my old friend came out of the blue after ten years.
Quick Tip: “Out of the blue” means a sudden surprise — imagine lightning from a clear blue sky.


Question 9:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

She got COLD FEET and decided not to attend the party.

  • (A) dislike
  • (B) fever
  • (C) laziness
  • (D) nervous
Correct Answer: (D) nervous
View Solution



"Cold feet" refers to losing courage or becoming nervous about a decision, often just before taking action.


Example:

- He got cold feet and canceled the wedding at the last minute.
Quick Tip: “Cold feet” implies hesitation or nervousness, especially before big events like weddings, interviews, etc.


Question 10:

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

He goes to the ----------- every day and studies books in History.

  • (A) market
  • (B) library
  • (C) office
  • (D) town
Correct Answer: (B) library
View Solution



Since the sentence talks about studying books in History, the most appropriate and logical place is a library.


Incorrect options:

- Market: Place to buy goods, unrelated to studying.

- Office: Work-related, not for studying books.

- Town: Too broad, not specific.
Quick Tip: Always choose the word that best fits both context and meaning. “Library” is a place to study books, especially academic ones.


Question 11:

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

The Earth ------------ around the Sun.

  • (A) passes
  • (B) runs
  • (C) revolves
  • (D) stays
Correct Answer: (C) revolves
View Solution




To complete the sentence ``The Earth ------------ around the Sun,'' we need to choose a verb that accurately describes the Earth's motion.


Step 1: Understand the context

The Earth’s movement around the Sun is a well-known astronomical phenomenon.

This is a circular or elliptical motion governed by gravitational forces.


Step 2: Analyze each option

- Option A (passes): This implies moving past something, not motion in an orbit. Hence, it is inappropriate.

- Option B (runs): This is more casual and used for people/animals; not suitable in a scientific context.

- Option C (revolves): This correctly describes orbital motion — the Earth ``revolves'' around the Sun once a year.

- Option D (stays): This implies no movement, which contradicts the actual fact.


Therefore, the only scientifically and grammatically correct word to fill the blank is ``revolves.'' Quick Tip: Remember:
- The Earth ``revolves'' around the Sun (orbital motion).
- The Earth ``rotates'' on its own axis (spinning motion).
Use ``revolve'' for orbiting and ``rotate'' for spinning in place.


Question 12:

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Study hard, ------------ you will fail in the examination.

  • (A) since
  • (B) because
  • (C) so
  • (D) otherwise
Correct Answer: (D) otherwise
View Solution




The sentence is: ``Study hard, ------------ you will fail in the examination.''

To complete it meaningfully, we need a word that expresses a consequence or condition of not studying hard.

Step 1: Understand the sentence structure

This is a conditional sentence. It suggests that something negative will happen if the first part of the sentence is not fulfilled.

In other words, it warns: ``If you do not study hard, then you will fail in the examination.''


Step 2: Analyze each option

- Option A (since): ``Since'' shows a reason or cause, but it doesn’t fit well in a conditional structure like this.

``Study hard, since you will fail'' is grammatically awkward and illogical.

- Option B (because): ``Because'' also indicates a reason.

``Study hard, because you will fail'' makes no sense, as studying hard is supposed to prevent failure.

- Option C (so): ``So'' indicates a result.

``Study hard, so you will fail'' implies studying leads to failure, which contradicts the intended meaning.

- Option D (otherwise): ``Otherwise'' correctly shows the consequence of not doing the action.

``Study hard, otherwise you will fail in the examination'' is both grammatically and logically sound.


Therefore, the correct answer is ``otherwise''. Quick Tip: Use ``otherwise'' when you want to express what will happen if the main action is not taken.
Example: ``Wear a jacket, otherwise you’ll catch a cold.''
This shows the consequence of not wearing a jacket, just like the given sentence shows the consequence of not studying.


Question 13:

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Man struggles hard to ------------ his living.

  • (A) enjoy
  • (B) eat
  • (C) earn
  • (D) spend
Correct Answer: (C) earn
View Solution




The correct phrase is ``earn his living,'' which means to make money to support oneself.


Step 1: Understand the meaning of the sentence

The sentence talks about the efforts a person makes to survive or sustain themselves economically.

Step 2: Analyze each option

- Option A (enjoy): ``Enjoy his living'' is not a commonly used phrase and doesn’t reflect struggle.

- Option B (eat): ``Eat his living'' is grammatically and contextually incorrect.

- Option C (earn): ``Earn his living'' is the correct idiom, indicating that the man works hard to make money for his livelihood.

- Option D (spend): ``Spend his living'' makes no logical or grammatical sense.


Hence, the most meaningful and idiomatic choice is ``earn.'' Quick Tip: The phrase ``earn a living'' is a common English idiom meaning ``to work to support oneself financially.''


Question 14:

Find out the correct preposition

He passed the undergraduate degree course ------------ the year 1983 with distinction.

  • (A) of
  • (B) in
  • (C) since
  • (D) at
Correct Answer: (B) in
View Solution




We use the preposition ``in'' to refer to a point of time when something occurred, especially with years.

Example: ``He graduated in 1990.''

Therefore, ``He passed the undergraduate degree course in the year 1983'' is the grammatically correct choice.


Why other options are incorrect:

- ``of'' indicates possession or belonging, not time.

- ``since'' indicates a time from which something has continued, and doesn't fit in this sentence.

- ``at'' is used for specific times or places, not years. Quick Tip: Use ``in'' for years, months, and longer time periods.
Example: ``in 2000'', ``in June'', ``in the 19th century''.


Question 15:

Find out the correct preposition

He is a good friend ------------ mine.

  • (A) of
  • (B) off
  • (C) with
  • (D) to
Correct Answer: (A) of
View Solution




The correct expression is ``a friend of mine,'' which is an idiomatic phrase in English.

Step 1: Structure explanation

``A friend of mine'' is a partitive construction, where ``of mine'' refers to someone who belongs to the group of people I call friends.


Why other options are incorrect:

- ``off'' is a misspelling in this context.

- ``with mine'' and ``to mine'' are grammatically incorrect and not used in such contexts. Quick Tip: Use ``of'' with possessive pronouns in partitive constructions like ``a friend of mine,'' ``a cousin of hers,'' etc.


Question 16:

Find out the correct preposition

He saved the goat ------------ killing the snake.

  • (A) into
  • (B) on
  • (C) of
  • (D) by
Correct Answer: (D) by
View Solution




The correct sentence is: ``He saved the goat by killing the snake.''

Here, ``by'' is used to indicate the means through which the action (saving the goat) was accomplished.

Why other options are incorrect:

- ``into'' suggests movement and is grammatically incorrect here.

- ``on'' refers to surface contact, not appropriate in this context.

- ``of'' doesn’t convey causality or method. Quick Tip: Use ``by'' to indicate the means or method used to perform an action. Example: ``He escaped by jumping the fence.''


Question 17:

Change the sentence ``She teaches Mathematics'' into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Does she teach Mathematics?
  • (B) Do she teach Mathematics?
  • (C) Is she a Mathematics teacher?
  • (D) Is Mathematics taught by her?
Correct Answer: (A) Does she teach Mathematics?
View Solution




The correct transformation of an affirmative sentence into an interrogative sentence in simple present tense (with ``she'') uses ``Does.''

``Does she teach Mathematics?'' is grammatically correct.

Why other options are incorrect:

- ``Do she'' is incorrect because ``Do'' is not used with ``she.''

- ``Is she a Mathematics teacher?'' changes the structure and meaning.

- ``Is Mathematics taught by her?'' is passive voice and not the direct interrogative form. Quick Tip: For third-person singular subjects in present simple tense, use ``Does + subject + base verb'' to form interrogative sentences.


Question 18:

Change the sentence ``He will be here in ten minutes'' into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Will he be here in ten minutes?
  • (B) Is he here in ten minutes?
  • (C) Does he be here in ten minutes?
  • (D) He won’t be here in ten minutes
Correct Answer: (A) Will he be here in ten minutes?
View Solution




To form an interrogative in the future tense, use ``Will + subject + base verb.''

Hence, ``Will he be here in ten minutes?'' is correct.

Why other options are incorrect:

- ``Is he here...'' changes the tense.

- ``Does he be...'' is grammatically incorrect.

- ``He won’t...'' is negative, not interrogative. Quick Tip: For future tense questions, use ``Will + subject + verb.'' Example: ``Will you come tomorrow?''


Question 19:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose option (D)

This electronic item / cost ten / thousand rupees / No error

  • (A) This electronic item
  • (B) cost ten
  • (C) thousand rupees
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) cost ten
View Solution




The verb ``cost'' should be in past tense only if the rest of the sentence aligns grammatically.

However, to make it grammatically correct and natural, ``cost'' should be changed to ``costs'' if referring to present habitual or ``costed'' if past action was intended.

In this context, ``costs ten thousand rupees'' is correct. Quick Tip: Check subject-verb agreement and verb tense consistency in sentence fragments.


Question 20:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose option (D)

Remember to switch of / the lights / before leaving the hall / No error

  • (A) Remember to switch of
  • (B) the lights
  • (C) before leaving the hall
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (A) Remember to switch of
View Solution




The phrase ``switch of'' is incorrect. The correct phrasal verb is ``switch off'' (to turn off).

Therefore, the corrected sentence should be: ``Remember to switch off the lights before leaving the hall.'' Quick Tip: Always verify correct usage of phrasal verbs. ``Switch off'' means to turn off a device or light.


Question 21:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose option (D).

To take a decision / in a critical situation / is not easy / No error

  • (A) To take a decision
  • (B) in a critical situation
  • (C) is not easy
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (D) No error
View Solution




Let us break the sentence into its parts:

- ``To take a decision'' is an infinitive phrase acting as the subject.

- ``In a critical situation'' gives context — where or under what condition the action is taking place.

- ``Is not easy'' is the predicate, meaning it is difficult.


All parts of the sentence are grammatically correct. It follows proper syntax and meaning.

Therefore, the sentence has no error. Quick Tip: An infinitive phrase like ``To take a decision'' can act as a noun (subject of the sentence). Always read the full sentence before concluding there's an error.


Question 22:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose option (D).

The Government has / ban the sale of / tobacco / No error

  • (A) The Government has
  • (B) ban the sale of
  • (C) tobacco
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) ban the sale of
View Solution




The phrase ``has ban the sale of'' is incorrect.

When using ``has'' (present perfect tense), the main verb must be in the past participle form.

The past participle of ``ban'' is ``banned.''

So the sentence should be:

``The Government has banned the sale of tobacco.''


Explanation:

- ``Has'' is an auxiliary (helping) verb.

- The verb following it must be in past participle form:

- Correct: has eaten, has spoken, has banned

- Incorrect: has eat, has speak, has ban Quick Tip: In perfect tenses (has/have/had), always use the past participle form of the main verb. ``Ban'' → ``banned''.


Question 23:

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters:

AFFLUENT

  • (A) poor
  • (B) destitute
  • (C) wealthy
  • (D) suffering
Correct Answer: (C) wealthy
View Solution




The word ``affluent'' means having a lot of money, resources, or wealth.

It is commonly used to describe rich individuals or societies.


Word Meaning:

- Affluent = wealthy, prosperous, rich

- Example: ``They live in an affluent neighborhood.''


Other options:

- ``Poor'': lacking money or resources (opposite of affluent)

- ``Destitute'': extremely poor (also opposite)

- ``Suffering'': experiencing pain or hardship, unrelated


Hence, the correct synonym is ``wealthy.'' Quick Tip: Build vocabulary by learning root meanings: ``affluent'' comes from Latin ``affluere'' meaning ``to flow abundantly.'' Think: money flows abundantly = wealthy.


Question 24:

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters:

AUDACIOUS

  • (A) afraid
  • (B) cowardly
  • (C) fearful
  • (D) bold
Correct Answer: (D) bold
View Solution




The word ``audacious'' means bold, daring, or fearless.

It can also mean showing a willingness to take risks or act with confidence.


Examples:

- ``The firefighter made an audacious rescue.''

- ``She made an audacious decision to start a business at 18.''


Other options:

- ``Afraid,'' ``cowardly,'' and ``fearful'' all indicate lack of courage, and are opposites of ``audacious.''

Hence, the word closest in meaning is ``bold.'' Quick Tip: Audacious = bold, daring, brave. Associate it with acts of courage or confidence, even if risky.


Question 25:

A period of time fixed for the isolation and observation of persons, animals or plants is known as

  • (A) quarantine
  • (B) quarter
  • (C) imprisonment
  • (D) custody
Correct Answer: (A) quarantine
View Solution




``Quarantine'' refers to a period during which individuals (people or animals) are kept isolated to prevent the spread of infectious disease.

This term became widely known during health emergencies like the COVID-19 pandemic.


Examples:

- ``The dog was kept in quarantine for 10 days after a bite incident.''

- ``Travelers had to undergo quarantine upon arrival.''


Why other options are wrong:

- ``Quarter'': means a portion or 25%, not related to isolation.

- ``Imprisonment'': forced confinement as punishment by law.

- ``Custody'': being kept or detained, but not specifically for disease control.
Quick Tip: Remember: ``Quarantine = health-related isolation.'' Think of it as a safety measure to prevent disease spread.


Question 26:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: for breakfast

Q: cereal

R: many people

S: eat

  • (A) QRPS
  • (B) PQSR
  • (C) SPRQ
  • (D) RSQP
Correct Answer: (D) RSQP
View Solution




Let's analyze the phrases:

- R: ``many people'' (subject)

- S: ``eat'' (verb)

- Q: ``cereal'' (object)

- P: ``for breakfast'' (additional information)


Arranging them logically:

R (many people) + S (eat) + Q (cereal) + P (for breakfast)

The complete sentence becomes:

``Many people eat cereal for breakfast.''

This is a grammatically and logically correct sentence. Quick Tip: Start with the subject, follow with the verb, then object, and end with prepositional phrases. This helps form coherent sentences.


Question 27:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: and left

Q: their luggage

R: the passengers collected

S: the airport

  • (A) QPSR
  • (B) RQPS
  • (C) SQR P
  • (D) RPQS
Correct Answer: (B) RQPS
View Solution




Let’s determine the logical sequence:

- R: ``the passengers collected'' (subject + verb)

- Q: ``their luggage'' (object of the verb)

- P: ``and left'' (connective + action)

- S: ``the airport'' (place)


Putting it all together:

R (the passengers collected) + Q (their luggage) + P (and left) + S (the airport)

The full sentence is:

``The passengers collected their luggage and left the airport.''

This forms a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. Quick Tip: First identify the subject-verb pair, then add object and modifiers like location or time. Use connectors carefully (e.g., ``and'').


Question 28:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: meet

Q: the ministers

R: the chief minister

S: every Monday

  • (A) RPQS
  • (B) QRPS
  • (C) SPRQ
  • (D) QPRS
Correct Answer: (D) QPRS
View Solution




Understanding the context:

We want to describe a routine action involving a subject, object, verb, and time.

- Q: ``the ministers'' (subject)

- P: ``meet'' (verb)

- R: ``the chief minister'' (object)

- S: ``every Monday'' (time expression)


Arranged logically:

Q (the ministers) + P (meet) + R (the chief minister) + S (every Monday)

Final sentence: ``The ministers meet the chief minister every Monday.'' Quick Tip: In sentence rearrangement, start with the subject, add the verb, then object, and finally time or place modifiers.


Question 29:

Read the passage and answer the question:


The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches, doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well-balanced meal and try to avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

\medskip
This passage is primarily focused on?

  • (A) drugs to be given to sportsmen
  • (B) physical fitness of the Olympic participants
  • (C) safety of the Indian contingents
  • (D) balanced diet to be given to Olympic participant
Correct Answer: (D) balanced diet to be given to Olympic participant
View Solution




Let’s analyze the passage to find its main focus.


Step 1: Identify the subject of the passage

The passage talks about the Indian Olympic contingent, the support team that includes doctors and a nutritionist, and how diet and nutrition are important for athletes.


Step 2: Focus on the repeated idea

The repeated theme throughout the paragraph is the need for a ``well-balanced meal'' and how participants need guidance from a nutritionist, especially when they are abroad and unfamiliar with the food.

Details are given about the dining arrangements and the importance of eating familiar food or suitable alternatives.


Step 3: Eliminate the wrong options

- Option A: ``drugs to be given to sportsmen'' – this is never mentioned.

- Option B: ``physical fitness of the Olympic participants'' – physical fitness is related, but the passage focuses specifically on nutrition, not exercise or training.

- Option C: ``safety of the Indian contingents'' – again, no mention of threats or protection.

- Option D: ``balanced diet to be given to Olympic participant'' – this matches perfectly with the repeated content in the paragraph.


Hence, Option D is the correct answer. Quick Tip: To find the main idea of a passage, look for the concept or phrase that is mentioned or explained repeatedly. Here, ``nutrition,'' ``well-balanced meal,'' and ``diet guidance'' all point to the idea of a ``balanced diet.''


Question 30:

Read the passage and answer the question:


The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches, doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well-balanced meal and try to avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

\medskip
Which one of the following is a correct statement?

  • (A) 110 Indian participants are staying in the Olympic Village.
  • (B) Doctors are to take part in Olympic Games.
  • (C) Indian dishes will be supplied to Indian participants.
  • (D) Coaches will give training and guidance to the player.
Correct Answer: (D) Coaches will give training and guidance to the player.
View Solution




Let’s carefully evaluate each statement in light of the passage.

Option A: ``110 Indian participants are staying in the Olympic Village.''

The passage states ``more than 110 participants'' are staying, not exactly 110. Therefore, this statement is inaccurate.

Option B: ``Doctors are to take part in Olympic Games.''

This is incorrect. Doctors are part of the supporting team (medical staff), not participants in the Games.

Option C: ``Indian dishes will be supplied to Indian participants.''

The passage mentions that if Indian dishes are not available, the nutritionist can suggest close alternatives. It does not say Indian dishes will be supplied directly. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Option D: ``Coaches will give training and guidance to the player.''

This is correct. The passage states that a team of coaches is accompanying the participants. It is their role to guide and train the players. Quick Tip: Be careful with absolute words like ``will'' and specific numbers. If the passage says ``more than 110,'' then ``110'' is not correct. Also, understand the roles of supporting staff (like coaches, doctors, nutritionists).


Question 31:

Read the passage and answer the question:


The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches, doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well-balanced meal and try to avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

\medskip
Psychologists refer to persons

  • (A) who study the activities of sportsmen
  • (B) who study the human mind, emotions and behaviour
  • (C) who arrange facilities to sportsmen
  • (D) who regulate the movements of sportsmen
Correct Answer: (B) who study the human mind, emotions and behaviour
View Solution




While the passage briefly lists ``psychologists'' as part of the support team accompanying Indian athletes, it doesn't define their role in detail. However, based on general knowledge, we can deduce what psychologists do.


Understanding the role of a psychologist:

Psychologists are professionals who study and understand the human mind, emotions, and behaviors.

In the context of sports, they help athletes with:

- Mental focus and stress management

- Confidence and motivation

- Dealing with performance anxiety and pressure


Option Analysis:

- (A) ``who study the activities of sportsmen'': This is more relevant to coaches or trainers.

- (B) ``who study the human mind, emotions and behaviour'': This is the correct definition of psychologists.

- (C) ``who arrange facilities to sportsmen'': This is a task for managers or coordinators.

- (D) ``who regulate the movements of sportsmen'': This refers to physiotherapists or coaches.


Thus, the correct answer is (B). Quick Tip: Psychologists focus on the mental and emotional well-being of individuals. In sports, they help athletes stay calm, focused, and mentally prepared for competition.


Question 32:

Change the sentence into indirect speech:

He said, ``I go to park every day''

  • (A) He says that he went to park every day
  • (B) He said that he may go to park every day
  • (C) He said that he had gone to park every day
  • (D) He said that he went to park every day
Correct Answer: (D) He said that he went to park every day
View Solution




Let’s understand how to convert direct speech to indirect speech.

Direct: He said, ``I go to park every day.''

Reporting verb: ``said'' — this is in the past tense.

Reported speech: ``I go to park every day'' — simple present tense.


When converting direct speech to indirect speech and the reporting verb is in the past tense (``said''), the tense of the reported speech must also change:

- Present simple (go) \(\rightarrow\) Past simple (went)


Also, ``I'' becomes ``he'' (to match the subject of the reporting verb).


So the sentence becomes:

``He said that he went to park every day.''


Why others are incorrect:

- Option A: ``He says...'' – changes the reporting verb tense (not correct).

- Option B: ``may go'' – modal verb use is incorrect here.

- Option C: ``had gone'' – changes it to past perfect, which is too advanced and inaccurate for this structure. Quick Tip: When the reporting verb is in the past tense, change the verb tense in the reported speech accordingly:
Present \(\rightarrow\) Past, Past \(\rightarrow\) Past Perfect.


Question 33:

Change the sentence into indirect speech:

She says, ``I study Mathematics and English''

  • (A) She said that she has studied Mathematics and English
  • (B) She says that she studies Mathematics and English
  • (C) She says that she study Mathematics and English
  • (D) She said that she had studied Mathematics and English
Correct Answer: (B) She says that she studies Mathematics and English
View Solution




Let’s analyze the sentence:

Direct: She says, ``I study Mathematics and English''

Reporting verb: ``says'' – this is in present tense.

When the reporting verb is in the present tense, we do not change the tense of the reported speech.


Step-by-step conversion:

- ``I'' becomes ``she''

- ``study'' remains ``studies'' (third-person singular)

Final sentence:

``She says that she studies Mathematics and English.''

Why others are incorrect:

- Option A: ``has studied'' – present perfect, changes the meaning.

- Option C: ``she study'' – subject-verb agreement error (should be ``studies'').

- Option D: ``she said... had studied'' – past perfect; changes both reporting verb and verb tense incorrectly. Quick Tip: When the reporting verb is in present or future tense, the tense of the reported speech does not change. Only pronouns and references are adjusted.


Question 34:

Change the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech:

She told that she had eaten two eggs.

  • (A) She says, ``I have eaten two eggs''
  • (B) She says, ``I had eaten two eggs''
  • (C) She said, ``I have eaten two eggs''
  • (D) She says, ``I ate two eggs''
Correct Answer: (C) She said, ``I have eaten two eggs''
View Solution




To convert from indirect speech to direct speech:

Indirect: ``She told that she had eaten two eggs.''

We bring it back to the actual words spoken by her. Since the indirect sentence uses ``had eaten'', the original direct speech likely used present perfect: ``have eaten''.


Hence, correct direct speech: ``She said, 'I have eaten two eggs'.'' Quick Tip: When converting from indirect to direct speech, identify the tense and pronouns. ``Had eaten'' in indirect often comes from ``have eaten'' in direct if reporting verb is past.


Question 35:

Identify the word which is not a verb.

  • (A) offer
  • (B) borrow
  • (C) write
  • (D) book
Correct Answer: (D) book
View Solution




Though ``book'' can function as a verb (e.g., to book a ticket), it is most commonly a noun.

In this context, the intent is to pick the word that is not commonly used as a verb.

Whereas ``offer,'' ``borrow,'' and ``write'' are clear verbs, ``book'' is more often recognized as a noun meaning a set of written pages. Quick Tip: Words can have multiple meanings. Identify the most frequent grammatical usage. ``Book'' is mainly known as a noun.


Question 36:

Identify the verb in the sentence: ``The committee members will meet tomorrow''

  • (A) committee
  • (B) members
  • (C) will meet
  • (D) tomorrow
Correct Answer: (C) will meet
View Solution




A verb describes an action or state of being.

In this sentence: ``will meet'' is the verb phrase in future tense.

- ``committee'' and ``members'' are nouns.

- ``tomorrow'' is an adverb indicating time. Quick Tip: To find the verb, ask ``What is the action or event happening in the sentence?'' Here, it's ``will meet.''


Question 37:

The United Arab Emirates is formed from a federation of

  • (A) Seven Emirates
  • (B) Six Emirates
  • (C) Eight Emirates
  • (D) Nine Emirates
Correct Answer: (A) Seven Emirates
View Solution




The UAE (United Arab Emirates) is a country in the Middle East made up of 7 emirates:

Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Fujairah, Ras Al Khaimah, and Umm Al Quwain.

These emirates united in 1971 to form one nation. Quick Tip: The word ``Emirates'' in UAE stands for its seven states. Remember this general knowledge fact for geography-based MCQs.


Question 38:

The Indus river flows through India and finally falls in the

  • (A) Bay of Bengal
  • (B) Indian Ocean
  • (C) Arabian Sea
  • (D) Pacific Ocean
Correct Answer: (C) Arabian Sea
View Solution




The Indus River originates in Tibet, flows through India (Ladakh region), and primarily through Pakistan.

It finally drains into the Arabian Sea near Karachi.

Bay of Bengal is on India’s eastern coast, while the Arabian Sea is on the west. Quick Tip: Know the direction and end point of major Indian rivers: Indus \(\rightarrow\) Arabian Sea, Ganga \(\rightarrow\) Bay of Bengal.


Question 39:

India is the

  • (A) seventh largest country in the world
  • (B) eighth largest country in the world
  • (C) fifth largest country in the world
  • (D) tenth largest country in the world
Correct Answer: (A) seventh largest country in the world
View Solution




By total land area, India is the 7th largest country in the world.

Countries ranked by area:

1. Russia

2. Canada

3. USA

4. China

5. Brazil

6. Australia

7. India Quick Tip: Remember India's rank in terms of area (7th) and population (now 1st, overtaking China in 2023).


Question 40:

The Yamuna river merges with the river Ganges at

  • (A) Triveni Sangam, Allahabad
  • (B) Kanpur
  • (C) Lucknow
  • (D) Ayodhya
Correct Answer: (A) Triveni Sangam, Allahabad
View Solution




The Yamuna is one of the major rivers of northern India and a key tributary of the Ganges.

It flows through states such as Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, and Uttar Pradesh.

The point where the Yamuna meets the Ganga (Ganges) is known as the Triveni Sangam. This confluence is located in Allahabad, which is now officially called Prayagraj.


The word ``Sangam'' means ``confluence'' or meeting point.

At Triveni Sangam, three rivers are believed to meet:

Ganga (Ganges) — visible
Yamuna — visible
Saraswati — mythical river, believed to flow underground


This site holds deep religious importance in Hinduism and is also the site for the grand religious gathering called the Kumbh Mela.

Why other options are incorrect:

Kanpur — a city on the Ganga, but not where Yamuna meets it.
Lucknow — located on the Gomti River.
Ayodhya — on the Sarayu River, not related to Yamuna-Ganga confluence. Quick Tip: The confluence of Ganga, Yamuna, and Saraswati is called the Triveni Sangam and is located in Allahabad (Prayagraj). This is an important site for both geography and religious traditions.


Question 41:

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on

  • (A) April 13, 1929
  • (B) April 13, 1919
  • (C) April 13, 1939
  • (D) April 13, 1909
Correct Answer: (B) April 13, 1919
View Solution




The Jallianwala Bagh massacre is one of the most tragic and significant events in Indian history.

It occurred on April 13, 1919, in the city of Amritsar, Punjab.

Thousands of people, including men, women, and children, had gathered peacefully at Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the Rowlatt Act, which allowed the British government to arrest Indians without trial.

What happened:

British Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered troops to block the only exit of the garden.
Without any warning, he commanded the soldiers to open fire on the unarmed crowd.
The firing lasted about 10 minutes; around 1,650 rounds were fired.
Hundreds of people were killed, and many were injured. Some even jumped into a well to escape the bullets.


Impact:

The massacre shocked the entire nation and world.
It marked a turning point in the Indian independence movement.
Many Indians lost faith in the British government.
Mahatma Gandhi began advocating for complete independence (Purna Swaraj) more strongly after this.


Why other options are incorrect:

1929 — the Lahore Session of Congress (not related to the massacre)
1939 — the year WWII started, not related
1909 — too early; massacre hadn’t occurred yet Quick Tip: Remember: \textbf{Jallianwala Bagh massacre = April 13, 1919}. It is a key event in the freedom struggle. General Dyer’s actions led to strong nationalist reactions across India.


Question 42:

Gandhiji started his Dandi March in the year 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram

  • (A) to oppose the British Rule in general
  • (B) to show his mass strength
  • (C) to break the salt law
  • (D) to protest against the Simon commission
Correct Answer: (C) to break the salt law
View Solution




The Dandi March, also known as the Salt March, was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.

He walked about 240 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat, to make salt from seawater, thereby breaking the British monopoly on salt production and sales.


The British had imposed a law that Indians could not make or sell salt, and everyone had to buy it from the British government with heavy taxes. Gandhi saw this as unfair and used salt—a common necessity—as a symbol of resistance.

Other options:

- Option A: The march was against a specific law, not general rule.

- Option B: It was not about showing strength, but about civil disobedience.

- Option D: The Simon Commission protest happened earlier (in 1928).
Quick Tip: The Dandi March = Salt March = protest against British salt laws. It was a key event in the Civil Disobedience Movement.


Question 43:

Which planet is known as the morning star?

  • (A) Mars
  • (B) Jupiter
  • (C) Mercury
  • (D) Venus
Correct Answer: (D) Venus
View Solution




Venus is often called the ``Morning Star'' or ``Evening Star'' because it is the brightest object in the sky after the Sun and Moon.

It appears in the eastern sky just before sunrise (hence morning star) or in the western sky just after sunset.


This brightness is due to its thick clouds that reflect sunlight very well.

Why not others?

- Mars: known as the ``Red Planet''

- Jupiter: largest planet, not very bright in comparison

- Mercury: also visible at times but not as bright as Venus
Quick Tip: Venus is the brightest planet and appears at dawn or dusk—earning it the name “morning star” or “evening star.”


Question 44:

Greenland island has its own extensive local government, but it is also a part of

  • (A) Indonesia
  • (B) United Kingdom
  • (C) Denmark (as autonomous territory)
  • (D) Canada
Correct Answer: (C) Denmark (as autonomous territory)
View Solution




Greenland is the world's largest island and although it governs many of its internal affairs, it is politically and administratively part of the Kingdom of Denmark.

It became a Danish colony in 1721, but since 2009 it has gained ``self-rule'' status—meaning it governs itself on most matters except foreign affairs and defense. Quick Tip: Greenland is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark—not a fully independent country.


Question 45:

The Suez Canal connects

  • (A) Pacific Sea to China Sea
  • (B) Arabian Sea to Coral Sea
  • (C) Mediterranean Sea to Black Sea
  • (D) Mediterranean Sea to Red Sea
Correct Answer: (D) Mediterranean Sea to Red Sea
View Solution




The Suez Canal is a man-made waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea (north) with the Red Sea (south).

It is one of the most important trade routes in the world, allowing ships to travel between Europe and Asia without sailing around Africa.


Why not others?

- Option A: Pacific and China seas are in Asia, far from the Suez Canal.

- Option B: Arabian Sea and Coral Sea are in different hemispheres.

- Option C: Mediterranean and Black Sea are connected by the Bosporus Strait in Turkey, not the Suez Canal.
Quick Tip: The Suez Canal is located in Egypt and connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. It shortens the sea route between Europe and Asia.


Question 46:

The first Indian to win Nobel Prize is

  • (A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
  • (B) C V Raman
  • (C) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (D) Mother Teresa
Correct Answer: (C) Rabindranath Tagore
View Solution




Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize in 1913.

He received the Nobel Prize in Literature for his famous book \textit{Gitanjali, a collection of poems translated into English.

He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature.

Other options:

- C V Raman: won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930

- Dr. Radhakrishnan: was the second President of India, but not a Nobel laureate

- Mother Teresa: won Nobel Peace Prize in 1979, but she was of Albanian origin (naturalized Indian)



\begin{quicktipbox
Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913, making him the first Indian Nobel laureate.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913, making him the first Indian Nobel laureate.


Question 47:

The headquarters of the Security Council of the United Nations is at

  • (A) New York
  • (B) Paris
  • (C) Berlin
  • (D) Rome
Correct Answer: (A) New York
View Solution




The Security Council is one of the six main organs of the United Nations.

Its headquarters is located at the UN Headquarters in New York City, USA.

It is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.


Why not others?

- Paris: UNESCO is headquartered here

- Berlin and Rome are not associated with the UN's main organs



\begin{quicktipbox
All major UN bodies, including the Security Council, are headquartered in New York City.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: All major UN bodies, including the Security Council, are headquartered in New York City.


Question 48:

The National Bird of India is

  • (A) Dove
  • (B) the Indian Peacock
  • (C) Parrot
  • (D) Eagle
Correct Answer: (B) the Indian Peacock
View Solution




The Indian Peacock, known for its colorful and attractive feathers, was declared the National Bird of India in 1963.

It symbolizes grace, beauty, and elegance, and it is also deeply rooted in Indian culture and mythology.


\begin{quicktipbox
The Indian Peacock is the National Bird of India, admired for its vibrant plumage and cultural significance.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The Indian Peacock is the National Bird of India, admired for its vibrant plumage and cultural significance.


Question 49:

In India, the State with the lowest infant mortality rate is

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Karnataka
  • (D) Kerala
Correct Answer: (D) Kerala
View Solution




Kerala consistently ranks highest in India for healthcare indicators, including having the lowest infant mortality rate.

This is due to better health facilities, maternal care, and higher literacy levels.


Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): It is the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1000 live births.


\begin{quicktipbox
Kerala leads India in healthcare and education, resulting in the lowest infant mortality rate in the country.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Kerala leads India in healthcare and education, resulting in the lowest infant mortality rate in the country.


Question 50:

Among the top ten countries with the largest aquaculture production, India occupies second position next to

  • (A) China
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) Bangladesh
  • (D) Russia
Correct Answer: (A) China
View Solution




Aquaculture refers to the farming of aquatic organisms such as fish, shrimp, and crabs.

China is the world leader in aquaculture production.

India ranks second, owing to its vast inland water resources and coastline.


\begin{quicktipbox
India is the second-largest producer of fish through aquaculture, after China.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: India is the second-largest producer of fish through aquaculture, after China.


Question 51:

Which Sanctuary in Kerala is a premier haven for Peacocks?

  • (A) Thattekkad Bird Sanctuary
  • (B) Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary
  • (C) Kadalundi Bird Sanctuary
  • (D) Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary
Correct Answer: (D) Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary
View Solution




Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary, also known as Mayiladumpara, is located in Palakkad district of Kerala.

It is the only sanctuary in Kerala dedicated specifically to peafowls.

It provides a natural habitat where peacocks roam freely in large numbers.


\begin{quicktipbox
Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary in Kerala is famous for its natural population of peacocks.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary in Kerala is famous for its natural population of peacocks.


Question 52:

Which waterfalls in Kerala is nicknamed as Niagara of India?

  • (A) Athirappilly waterfalls
  • (B) Attukad waterfalls
  • (C) Kanthanpara waterfalls
  • (D) Adyanpara waterfalls
Correct Answer: (A) Athirappilly waterfalls
View Solution




Athirappilly Waterfalls, located in the Thrissur district of Kerala, is the largest waterfall in the state and is often referred to as the ``Niagara of India'' due to its size and breathtaking view.

It drops from a height of about 80 feet and is located on the Chalakudy River.


\begin{quicktipbox
Athirappilly is the largest waterfall in Kerala and is nicknamed the ``Niagara of India'' due to its grandeur.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Athirappilly is the largest waterfall in Kerala and is nicknamed the ``Niagara of India'' due to its grandeur.


Question 53:

In the T20 World Cup 2024, India won the world cup in the final match against

  • (A) Australia
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) England
  • (D) South Africa
Correct Answer: (D) South Africa
View Solution




In the T20 World Cup 2024, the Indian cricket team emerged victorious in the final match against South Africa.

India's performance in the tournament was exceptional and the win in the final marked a historic victory.


\begin{quicktipbox
Stay updated with current affairs in sports, especially major tournaments like the Cricket World Cup.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Stay updated with current affairs in sports, especially major tournaments like the Cricket World Cup.


Question 54:

BRICS stands for

  • (A) Brazil, Russia, Iraq, Canada and South Africa
  • (B) Brazil, Russia, Iran, China and South Africa
  • (C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
  • (D) Bangladesh, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Correct Answer: (C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
View Solution




BRICS is an acronym representing five major emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.

These countries collaborate in political and economic areas and hold annual summits to discuss global issues.


\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: BRICS = Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa — major emerging economies in the world.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: BRICS = Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa — major emerging economies in the world.


Question 55:

SARS stands for

  • (A) Severe Actual Respiratory Syndrome
  • (B) Self Acute Respiratory System
  • (C) Severe Acute Respiratory System
  • (D) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
Correct Answer: (D) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
View Solution




SARS is an infectious disease caused by the SARS coronavirus.

It first appeared in China in 2002 and spread to many countries.

SARS stands for Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome, indicating it affects the lungs and causes difficulty in breathing.


\begin{quicktipbox
SARS is a viral respiratory illness: ``Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome'' — first identified in 2002.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: SARS is a viral respiratory illness: ``Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome'' — first identified in 2002.


Question 56:

Which one of the following is widely used as fuel to produce nuclear energy?

  • (A) Sodium
  • (B) Uranium
  • (C) Sulfur
  • (D) Lithium
Correct Answer: (B) Uranium
View Solution




Uranium is a radioactive element widely used as fuel in nuclear reactors.

Its isotope, Uranium-235, undergoes nuclear fission, releasing a large amount of energy used to generate electricity.


\begin{quicktipbox
Uranium-235 is the key fuel used in nuclear power plants for generating electricity.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Uranium-235 is the key fuel used in nuclear power plants for generating electricity.


Question 57:

Which one of the following planets is a terrestrial planet?

  • (A) Uranus
  • (B) Mars
  • (C) Saturn
  • (D) Neptune
Correct Answer: (B) Mars
View Solution




Terrestrial planets are planets made of solid, rocky surfaces.

The terrestrial planets in our solar system are: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Mars is known as the Red Planet and is similar to Earth in several ways.

Other options: Uranus, Saturn, and Neptune are gas giants, not terrestrial.


\begin{quicktipbox
Terrestrial planets = rocky planets: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars. Gas giants = Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Terrestrial planets = rocky planets: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars. Gas giants = Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.


Question 58:

The Solar System has

  • (A) nine planets
  • (B) seven planets
  • (C) eleven planets
  • (D) eight planets
Correct Answer: (D) eight planets
View Solution




The Solar System is made up of the Sun and everything that orbits around it, including planets, moons, asteroids, and comets.

Originally, textbooks taught that the Solar System had 9 planets. However, in 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) redefined what it means to be a planet. According to this new definition, Pluto was reclassified as a ``dwarf planet,'' leaving us with 8 planets.


The 8 planets (in order from the Sun):

1. Mercury

2. Venus

3. Earth

4. Mars

5. Jupiter

6. Saturn

7. Uranus

8. Neptune


Why Pluto is not included: Pluto does not clear its orbital path of other debris, which is a requirement in the updated definition of a planet. Therefore, it is not counted among the main planets anymore.


\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the 8 planets using the mnemonic:

``My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Noodles'' – for Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the 8 planets using the mnemonic:
``My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Noodles'' – for Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.


Question 59:

The capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is

  • (A) Bambooflat
  • (B) Diglipur
  • (C) Port Blair
  • (D) Rangat
Correct Answer: (C) Port Blair
View Solution




The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of islands located in the Bay of Bengal. They form one of the Union Territories of India.

Port Blair is the capital city and the main administrative center of this Union Territory. It is located on South Andaman Island.


Port Blair is not only the gateway to other islands but also holds historical significance because of the Cellular Jail, also known as ``Kala Pani,'' where Indian freedom fighters were imprisoned during the British rule.


Other options:

- Bambooflat, Diglipur, and Rangat are towns or localities in the Andaman Islands but not the capital.


\begin{quicktipbox
Port Blair = capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It's known for the historic Cellular Jail and is the main entry point for tourists.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Port Blair = capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It's known for the historic Cellular Jail and is the main entry point for tourists.


Question 60:

India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep consists of

  • (A) 46 Islands
  • (B) 26 Islands
  • (C) 16 Islands
  • (D) 36 Islands
Correct Answer: (D) 36 Islands
View Solution




Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, both in terms of area and population. It is located in the Arabian Sea, southwest of the Indian mainland.

It comprises a total of 36 islands, which include:

- 10 inhabited islands

- 17 uninhabited islands

- 5 submerged reefs

- 4 newly formed islets


Out of these, only 10 islands are inhabited by people. The rest are either uninhabited or used for ecological purposes. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti.


Why other options are incorrect:

There are neither 26, 16, nor 46 officially counted islands in Lakshadweep. The correct and recognized number is 36.


\begin{quicktipbox
Lakshadweep = smallest Union Territory of India with 36 islands. Only 10 of them are inhabited. Capital = Kavaratti.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Lakshadweep = smallest Union Territory of India with 36 islands. Only 10 of them are inhabited. Capital = Kavaratti.


Question 61:

The people in Minicoy island of the Union Territory Lakshadweep speak mainly in

  • (A) Mahi
  • (B) Malayalam
  • (C) Urdu
  • (D) Hindi
Correct Answer: Question Cancelled
View Solution

N/A Quick Tip: Minicoy Island is culturally close to the Maldives. The native language is ``Mahl,'' a dialect of Dhivehi.


Question 62:

The capital city of Assam is

  • (A) Tezpur
  • (B) Guwahati
  • (C) Jorhat
  • (D) Dibrugarh
Correct Answer: Question Cancelled
View Solution

N/A Quick Tip: Dispur is the official capital of Assam. It is located within the larger metropolitan area of Guwahati.


Question 63:

The Mizoram State shares a border with neighbouring countries

  • (A) Bangladesh and Myanmar
  • (B) China and Bhutan
  • (C) Nepal and China
  • (D) Bhutan and Nepal
Correct Answer: (A) Bangladesh and Myanmar
View Solution




Mizoram is a state located in the northeastern region of India. It shares international borders with two countries: Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Specifically:

Mizoram shares a 318 km border with Bangladesh on the west.
It also shares a 510 km border with Myanmar on the east and south.


It is one of the ``Seven Sister States'' of Northeast India and is bordered by three Indian states: Tripura, Assam, and Manipur.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) China and Bhutan – Mizoram does not touch either of these countries.
(C) Nepal and China – These are located farther north; not near Mizoram.
(D) Bhutan and Nepal – Again, Mizoram does not share borders with either.



\begin{quicktipbox
To learn Indian geography better, focus on border states in the northeast. Mizoram touches only Bangladesh and Myanmar, not Nepal or China.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To learn Indian geography better, focus on border states in the northeast. Mizoram touches only Bangladesh and Myanmar, not Nepal or China.


Question 64:

The product of three consecutive positive integers is 120. Then the sum of the three positive numbers is?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (C) 15
View Solution




Let the three consecutive positive integers be: \( x - 1, x, x + 1 \).

Their product is: \( (x - 1)(x)(x + 1) = x(x^2 - 1) = x^3 - x \).


We are told this product equals 120:
\[ x^3 - x = 120 \]

Try values of \( x \) that satisfy this: \[ x = 5 \Rightarrow 5^3 - 5 = 125 - 5 = 120 \Rightarrow Valid! \]

So the three consecutive numbers are: \[ x - 1 = 4, \quad x = 5, \quad x + 1 = 6 \]

Sum of these numbers: \( 4 + 5 + 6 = \boxed{15} \)


\begin{quicktipbox
For problems involving consecutive integers with a known product, try factoring small numbers or set the middle number as \( x \) to simplify.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For problems involving consecutive integers with a known product, try factoring small numbers or set the middle number as \( x \) to simplify.


Question 65:

If you divide the number 1003 by 5, then the remainder is equal to

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (D) 3
View Solution




To find the remainder when 1003 is divided by 5, we perform: \[ 1003 \div 5 \]

Divide: \[ 5 \times 200 = 1000 \quad \Rightarrow Quotient is 200 \] \[ Remainder = 1003 - 1000 = \boxed{3} \]

So, 1003 divided by 5 leaves a remainder of 3.


\begin{quicktipbox
To find the remainder when dividing by 5, check the last digit:
- If it ends in 1, remainder is 1; 2 means remainder 2; etc.
Here, 1003 ends in 3, so remainder is 3.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find the remainder when dividing by 5, check the last digit: - If it ends in 1, remainder is 1; 2 means remainder 2; etc. Here, 1003 ends in 3, so remainder is 3.


Question 66:

A person bought an item for Rs. 1350 and spent Rs.150 towards transportation of the item. Then he sold it for Rs.1800. The profit percentage is

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 15%
  • (C) 20%
  • (D) 10%
Correct Answer: (C) 20%
View Solution




Step 1: Find the total cost price (C.P.)

The person bought the item for Rs. 1350 and spent Rs. 150 on transportation.

Total C.P. = Rs. 1350 + Rs. 150 = Rs. 1500


Step 2: Find the selling price (S.P.)

He sold the item for Rs. 1800. So,

S.P. = Rs. 1800


Step 3: Calculate the profit

Profit = S.P. - C.P. = Rs. 1800 - Rs. 1500 = Rs. 300


Step 4: Calculate profit percentage

Profit% = \( \frac{Profit}{C.P.} \times 100 = \frac{300}{1500} \times 100 = 20% \)
Quick Tip: Always include all additional costs (like transportation, tax, etc.) in the cost price before calculating profit or loss.


Question 67:

The average marks of 15 students in a subject is 65. If another student has scored 97 marks in the same subject, then the average marks of the 16 students is

  • (A) 69
  • (B) 71
  • (C) 68
  • (D) 67
Correct Answer: (D) 67
View Solution




Step 1: Find total marks of 15 students

Average = 65, Number of students = 15

Total marks = \( 65 \times 15 = 975 \)

Step 2: Add the marks of the new student

New student scored 97

New total marks = \( 975 + 97 = 1072 \)

Step 3: Find the new average

Total students = 16

Average = \( \frac{1072}{16} = \boxed{67} \)


\begin{quicktipbox
When adding a new value to an average, multiply the original average by number of students, add the new score, then divide by new total.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When adding a new value to an average, multiply the original average by number of students, add the new score, then divide by new total.


Question 68:

The area of a vacant land in the form of a square is 36100 square metres. Then the length of the side of the land is

  • (A) 160 metres
  • (B) 180 metres
  • (C) 190 metres
  • (D) 210 metres
Correct Answer: (C) 190 metres
View Solution




Step 1: Use formula for area of square

Area = \( side^2 \), so side = \( \sqrt{Area} \)

Step 2: Take square root of 36100
\[ \sqrt{36100} = \sqrt{361 \times 100} = \sqrt{361} \times \sqrt{100} = 19 \times 10 = \boxed{190} \]


\begin{quicktipbox
If area of a square is given, take the square root to get the side. Break large numbers into known squares.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: If area of a square is given, take the square root to get the side. Break large numbers into known squares.


Question 69:

The smallest positive number which is divisible by the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is

  • (A) 840
  • (B) 1260
  • (C) 210
  • (D) 420
Correct Answer: (D) 420
View Solution




We are asked to find the smallest number divisible by: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

This is the LCM (Least Common Multiple) of these numbers.

Step 1: Find prime factorizations

2 = 2

3 = 3

4 = \( 2^2 \)

5 = 5

6 = \( 2 \times 3 \)

7 = 7

Step 2: Take highest powers of all primes

LCM = \( 2^2 \times 3 \times 5 \times 7 = 4 \times 3 \times 5 \times 7 = 420 \)


\begin{quicktipbox
To find smallest number divisible by multiple numbers, calculate LCM using highest powers of each prime factor.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find smallest number divisible by multiple numbers, calculate LCM using highest powers of each prime factor.


Question 70:

A can do a work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. Both together can do the same work in

  • (A) 4 days
  • (B) 5 days
  • (C) 6 days
  • (D) 8 days
Correct Answer: (C) 6 days
View Solution




Let total work = 1 unit (we assume 1 full job to be done)

Step 1: Work done by A in 1 day = \( \frac{1}{10} \)

Work done by B in 1 day = \( \frac{1}{15} \)

Step 2: Total work done together in 1 day
\[ \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3 + 2}{30} = \frac{5}{30} = \frac{1}{6} \]

Step 3: Total time to finish 1 job together
\[ Time = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{6}} = \boxed{6 days} \]


\begin{quicktipbox
When two people work together, add their work rates. Then take the reciprocal to find total time to finish the work.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When two people work together, add their work rates. Then take the reciprocal to find total time to finish the work.


Question 71:

Rs. 21600 has to be divided and paid to A and B in the ratio 2 : 7. Then B will get

  • (A) Rs.14600
  • (B) Rs.16800
  • (C) Rs.16400
  • (D) Rs.14800
Correct Answer: (B) Rs.16800
View Solution




Step 1: Add the parts of the ratio

Ratio = 2 : 7, total parts = \( 2 + 7 = 9 \)


Step 2: Find the value of one part

Total amount = Rs.21600

Value of 1 part = \( \frac{21600}{9} = 2400 \)


Step 3: Multiply by B's share (7 parts)

B’s share = \( 7 \times 2400 = \boxed{16800} \)


\begin{quicktipbox
To divide an amount in a ratio, add the ratio parts to find total parts, then multiply each share accordingly.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To divide an amount in a ratio, add the ratio parts to find total parts, then multiply each share accordingly.


Question 72:

Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 9?

  • (A) 94896
  • (B) 84996
  • (C) 68949
  • (D) 98967
Correct Answer: (D) 98967
View Solution




Divisibility rule for 9: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.


Option D: 9 + 8 + 9 + 6 + 7 = 39 (Not divisible by 9)


Other options:

(A) 9+4+8+9+6 = 36 \(\Rightarrow\) divisible

(B) 8+4+9+9+6 = 36 \(\Rightarrow\) divisible

(C) 6+8+9+4+9 = 36 \(\Rightarrow\) divisible


\begin{quicktipbox
Use the digit-sum rule for 9: if sum of digits is divisible by 9, so is the number.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use the digit-sum rule for 9: if sum of digits is divisible by 9, so is the number.


Question 73:

The smallest number among the fractions 3/5, 5/9, 7/11, 9/13 is

  • (A) 3/5
  • (B) 5/9
  • (C) 7/11
  • (D) 9/13
Correct Answer: (B) 5/9
View Solution




Convert each to decimal:

3/5 = 0.60

5/9 ≈ 0.555

7/11 ≈ 0.636

9/13 ≈ 0.692


Clearly, \( \boxed{5/9} \) is the smallest.


\begin{quicktipbox
To compare fractions, convert to decimals or find a common denominator. Smaller decimal = smaller fraction.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To compare fractions, convert to decimals or find a common denominator. Smaller decimal = smaller fraction.


Question 74:

If HKNQ corresponds to LORU, then BEHK corresponds to

  • (A) FLOI
  • (B) FILO
  • (C) DGJM
  • (D) DJMG
Correct Answer: (B) FILO
View Solution




Check position of letters:

H (8) → L (12): +4

K (11) → O (15): +4

N (14) → R (18): +4

Q (17) → U (21): +4


Same pattern to be applied:

B (2) → F (6)

E (5) → I (9)

H (8) → L (12)

K (11) → O (15)


So BEHK → \boxed{FILO


\begin{quicktipbox
Check the alphabetical positions (A=1, B=2...). Look for consistent pattern like +4 or -3.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Check the alphabetical positions (A=1, B=2...). Look for consistent pattern like +4 or -3.


Question 75:

From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the word:

MAINTENANCE

  • (A) mean
  • (B) team
  • (C) neat
  • (D) tail
Correct Answer: (D) tail
View Solution




Word: MAINTENANCE

Check if all letters in each option are present:

Option D: tail – needs ‘L’

Letter 'L' is not in MAINTENANCE. So this word cannot be formed.


Other words:

- mean – all letters present

- team – all letters present

- neat – all letters present


\begin{quicktipbox
Look for missing letters carefully. If even one letter is not present in the original word, the word cannot be formed.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for missing letters carefully. If even one letter is not present in the original word, the word cannot be formed.


Question 76:

A man walks 5 km distance straight from a place X and reaches another place Y in the western direction. At Y, he turns 90 degrees and walks straight towards North to reach the Place Z which is 12 km from Y. The distance between X and Z is

  • (A) 14 km
  • (B) 17 km
  • (C) 13 km
  • (D) 16 km
Correct Answer: (C) 13 km
View Solution




Step 1: Draw a right-angled triangle

From X to Y = 5 km (westward), and

From Y to Z = 12 km (northward), forming a right angle at point Y.

We want the distance between X and Z, which is the hypotenuse.


Step 2: Use the Pythagorean Theorem

Let distance XZ be \( d \):
\[ d = \sqrt{(XY)^2 + (YZ)^2} = \sqrt{5^2 + 12^2} = \sqrt{25 + 144} = \sqrt{169} = 13 \]

So, the distance between X and Z is \(\boxed{13 km}\)


\begin{quicktipbox
Whenever movement is in two perpendicular directions (like north and west), use the Pythagorean theorem to find the shortest (straight-line) distance.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Whenever movement is in two perpendicular directions (like north and west), use the Pythagorean theorem to find the shortest (straight-line) distance.


Question 77:

Two statements are given:

1. All snakes are reptiles

2. Some tigers eat grass


Conclusions:

I. No snake is a reptile

II. All tigers eat grass

  • (A) only conclusion I follows
  • (B) only conclusion II follows
  • (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
  • (D) both conclusions I and II follow
Correct Answer: (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
View Solution




Given:

- All snakes are reptiles (universal positive statement).

- Some tigers eat grass (particular affirmative).

Conclusion I: No snake is reptile.

This contradicts the first statement directly, so it is false.

Conclusion II: All tigers eat grass.

This generalizes the second statement, which only says "Some tigers..." – so it is also false.

Therefore, neither conclusion logically follows from the given statements.


\begin{quicktipbox
Be careful with the scope of statements. "All", "some", and "no" have very specific logical meanings. Don't overgeneralize!
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Be careful with the scope of statements. "All", "some", and "no" have very specific logical meanings. Don't overgeneralize!


Question 78:

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.


Statements:

1. Some balls are red in colour

2. All boxes are empty


Conclusions:

I. Some balls are red in colour

II. Some boxes are not empty

  • (A) only conclusion I follows
  • (B) only conclusion II follows
  • (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
  • (D) both conclusions I and II follow
Correct Answer: (A) only conclusion I follows
View Solution




We are given two statements and two conclusions. Let's evaluate the validity of each conclusion based on the statements alone.


Step 1: Analyze Conclusion I — “Some balls are red in colour”

This conclusion directly restates the first statement: “Some balls are red in colour.”

Since this is explicitly stated in the statements, Conclusion I logically follows.


Step 2: Analyze Conclusion II — “Some boxes are not empty”

This is the opposite of the second statement, which says “All boxes are empty.”

If all boxes are empty, then no box is non-empty.

So, the statement "Some boxes are not empty" contradicts the given information.

Therefore, Conclusion II does not logically follow.


Hence, only Conclusion I follows. Quick Tip: In such logical reasoning questions, focus on what is directly stated and treat the given statements as absolute truth.
A conclusion that contradicts any of the given statements cannot be accepted.
Statements like "some", "all", and "none" must be interpreted precisely.
"All boxes are empty" leaves no room for "some boxes are not empty" to be true.


Question 79:

Which statement of the following is not related to the Principles of Natural Justice?

  • (A) No one should be the judge in his/her own case
  • (B) Each party should be given the opportunity to be heard
  • (C) fairness, equity and equality
  • (D) any decision unilaterally taken
Correct Answer: (D) any decision unilaterally taken
View Solution




The Principles of Natural Justice are foundational rules of fair procedure in legal and administrative decisions. They include:


1. Nemo judex in causa sua — No one should be a judge in their own case.

2. Audi alteram partem — Each party must be given the opportunity to be heard.


Let’s analyze the options:


- Option A: Directly represents the first principle of natural justice.

- Option B: Reflects the second principle of natural justice.

- Option C: Fairness, equity, and equality are values upheld in natural justice procedures.

- Option D: “Any decision unilaterally taken” goes against the very concept of natural justice, which demands fairness and hearing both sides. Hence, this is not related to the principles of natural justice.
Quick Tip: Remember the two core principles of natural justice: no bias (impartiality) and the right to be heard. Any process that bypasses these—like unilateral decisions—violates natural justice.


Question 80:

Actus Reus means

  • (A) not punishable
  • (B) forgiveness under law
  • (C) the guilty act that comprises the physical component of a crime
  • (D) act under the influence of alcohol
Correct Answer: (C) the guilty act that comprises the physical component of a crime
View Solution




Actus Reus is a Latin term used in criminal law. It refers to the “guilty act” — the physical action or conduct that constitutes a crime.


To establish criminal liability, two elements are necessary:

- Actus Reus (guilty act)

- Mens Rea (guilty mind or intent)


Analysis of options:

- Option A: Incorrect. “Not punishable” does not define any criminal element.

- Option B: Incorrect. Forgiveness is unrelated to the definition of Actus Reus.

- Option C: Correct. It accurately describes the physical component of a crime.

- Option D: Incorrect. “Act under the influence of alcohol” may be a type of Actus Reus in some contexts but is not the definition itself.
Quick Tip: In criminal law, always remember:
- \textbf{Actus Reus} = Physical Act
- \textbf{Mens Rea} = Mental Intent
Both must be proven to establish guilt in most criminal cases.


Question 81:

One of the essential elements of the offence of theft is that the property shall be

  • (A) a moveable property
  • (B) gold only
  • (C) cattles only
  • (D) currency notes only
Correct Answer: (A) a moveable property
View Solution




According to Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code, theft is defined as the dishonest taking of "moveable property" out of the possession of any person without their consent.


Step 1: Understand what theft requires

For an act to qualify as theft, the property involved must be capable of being moved (i.e., moveable).


Step 2: Analyze the options

- Option (A): “a moveable property” is a generic term that includes all tangible objects like goods, cattle, and currency. This fits the legal definition.

- Option (B): “gold only” is specific and too narrow; theft can apply to many kinds of property, not just gold.

- Option (C): “cattles only” are moveable, but again, too limited in scope.

- Option (D): “currency notes only” also fall under moveable property but do not encompass all items subject to theft.


Therefore, only option (A) correctly expresses the essential element in general terms. Quick Tip: In legal terminology, theft always involves “moveable property.” Look for broader, inclusive legal definitions in such questions.


Question 82:

An agreement made by a minor is

  • (A) a valid document when the minor becomes major
  • (B) a valid document in law
  • (C) absolutely void
  • (D) valid when the minor is of sound mind
Correct Answer: (C) absolutely void
View Solution




Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a person must be of the age of majority to enter into a contract.

Section 11 specifies that a minor is not competent to contract.


Step 1: Understand legal capacity

Any agreement made by a minor is considered “void ab initio,” meaning it is void from the outset and has no legal standing.


Step 2: Analyze the options

- Option (A): Incorrect — an agreement made during minority doesn't automatically become valid on attaining majority.

- Option (B): Incorrect — it’s not valid in law at any point.

- Option (C): Correct — such agreements are absolutely void.

- Option (D): Incorrect — being of sound mind doesn't override age requirements for contracting.
Quick Tip: Remember: In Indian law, contracts made by minors are not legally binding and are considered null and void from the beginning.


Question 83:

Interlocutory means

  • (A) not final
  • (B) illegal
  • (C) legal
  • (D) valid
Correct Answer: (A) not final
View Solution




“Interlocutory” is a term used in the context of law to refer to orders or judgments that are temporary and not final in nature.


Step 1: Definition

An interlocutory order is passed during the pendency of a case and does not conclude the legal rights or the entire suit.


Step 2: Analyze options

- Option (A): Correct — reflects the temporary or intermediate nature.

- Option (B), (C), (D): These are unrelated to the definition and are distractors.
Quick Tip: Think of "interlocutory" as “in-between” decisions — they do not decide the whole case, just temporary steps in the process.


Question 84:

The Constitution of India came into force on

  • (A) 25th January, 1950
  • (B) 26th January, 1950
  • (C) 26th November, 1949
  • (D) 26th November, 1950
Correct Answer: (B) 26th January, 1950
View Solution




The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly.

However, it came into force on 26th January 1950, marking the transition of India to a Republic.


Why 26th January?

- The date was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj (complete independence) declaration made by the Indian National Congress in 1930.


Option analysis:

- Option (A): Incorrect — one day before Republic Day.

- Option (B): Correct — actual enforcement date.

- Option (C): Incorrect — date of adoption, not enforcement.

- Option (D): Incorrect — historically inaccurate.
Quick Tip: Remember:
- Adopted: 26th November, 1949
- Enforced: 26th January, 1950 (Republic Day of India)


Question 85:

The constitutional head of the Executive of the Union is the

  • (A) Prime Minister
  • (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • (C) President
  • (D) Chief of Army
Correct Answer: (C) President
View Solution




The Constitution of India clearly divides the functions of the Union Government into three parts — the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary.


According to Article 53 of the Constitution:

“The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him.”


Step 1: Understand the term "Executive"

- The Executive is responsible for the implementation of laws and the administration of the country.


Step 2: Constitutional vs. Real Head

- The President is the nominal or constitutional head of the Executive, meaning he performs ceremonial duties.

- The Prime Minister is the real executive authority who advises the President and leads the Cabinet.


Step 3: Analyze other options

- Option (A): Prime Minister is the real head, not the constitutional head.

- Option (B): Speaker of Lok Sabha is part of the Legislature, not the Executive.

- Option (D): Chief of Army is under the Ministry of Defence, not the constitutional head.


Hence, the correct answer is (C) President. Quick Tip: Always distinguish between the real head (Prime Minister) and the constitutional head (President) when reading Indian polity questions.


Question 86:

As per Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the council of the Parliament of the Union consists of

  • (A) the President and the two Houses known as the council of States and the House of the People
  • (B) the two Houses known as the council of States and the House of the People
  • (C) the President and the Prime Minister
  • (D) the council of States only
Correct Answer: (A) the President and the two Houses known as the council of States and the House of the People
View Solution




Article 79 of the Constitution defines the structure of the Indian Parliament:

"There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses — the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha)."


Step-by-step Explanation:

- The President is part of the Parliament because all bills passed by both Houses require his assent to become law.

- The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Council of States).

- The Lok Sabha is the Lower House (House of the People).


Option Analysis:

- Option (A): Matches the definition in Article 79 — Correct.

- Option (B): Excludes the President — Incorrect.

- Option (C): Prime Minister is not part of Parliament structure — Incorrect.

- Option (D): Only mentions one House — Incomplete — Incorrect.
Quick Tip: Parliament of India = President + Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha (Article 79). Don't forget the President is part of the legislative process.


Question 87:

The first Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of

  • (A) the salary of Prime Minister
  • (B) the list of States and Union Territories
  • (C) the salary of President
  • (D) the list of languages
Correct Answer: (B) the list of States and Union Territories
View Solution




The Constitution of India contains 12 Schedules, each covering specific matters.


First Schedule:

- Lists the names of all States and Union Territories of India.

- Also mentions the territories of each state.


Option Analysis:

- Option (A) and (C): Salaries of dignitaries are covered in the Second Schedule.

- Option (D): List of languages is given in the Eighth Schedule.

- Option (B): Correct as per the content of the First Schedule.
Quick Tip: First Schedule = List of States and Union Territories.
Second Schedule = Salaries.
Eighth Schedule = Languages. Memorize Schedules for polity questions.


Question 88:

The President of India must have completed

  • (A) 35 years of age
  • (B) 45 years of age
  • (C) 55 years of age
  • (D) 25 years of age
Correct Answer: (A) 35 years of age
View Solution




According to Article 58 of the Constitution:

To be eligible to become the President of India, a person must:

- Be a citizen of India

- Have completed the age of 35 years

- Be qualified to be a member of the Lok Sabha


Option Analysis:

- Option (A): 35 years — Correct age requirement.

- Option (B) and (C): Higher than required.

- Option (D): 25 years is for Lok Sabha — Incorrect here.
Quick Tip: Remember minimum age:
- President/Vice President: 35 years
- Lok Sabha: 25 years
- Rajya Sabha: 30 years


Question 89:

Identify the wrong statement in respect of powers of Vice-President of India.

  • (A) Vice-President is elected by both the Houses
  • (B) Vice-President holds office for 5 years
  • (C) Vice-President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  • (D) Vice-President has right to vote in the Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: (D) Vice-President has right to vote in the Rajya Sabha
View Solution




Vice-President of India:

- Elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.

- Term: 5 years.

- Serves as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

- Can vote only in case of a tie — called a casting vote.


Option D is wrong because he cannot vote in normal proceedings of the Rajya Sabha.
Quick Tip: The Vice-President has no regular vote in Rajya Sabha — only a casting vote in case of a tie. That’s what makes Option D incorrect.


Question 90:

The Prime Minister of India should be a member of

  • (A) the Lok Sabha
  • (B) the Rajya Sabha
  • (C) Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
  • (D) a national political party
Correct Answer: (C) Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
View Solution




According to Article 75 of the Constitution:

The Prime Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament — Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

Even if not a member at the time of appointment, he/she must get elected to either House within 6 months.


Option Analysis:

- Option (A) and (B): Each is partially correct.

- Option (C): Correct and complete.

- Option (D): Being from a political party is not a constitutional requirement.
Quick Tip: The Prime Minister can be from either House of Parliament.
If not already a member, he/she must be elected to either House within 6 months.


Question 91:

The repugnancy arises

  • (A) when two laws are identical
  • (B) when the judgment of two judges are contrary
  • (C) when provisions of two laws are contrary
  • (D) when judgments are delayed
Correct Answer: (C) when provisions of two laws are contrary
View Solution




In constitutional law, repugnancy refers to a conflict between two laws — typically between a central and a state law on a subject in the Concurrent List.


Step-by-step Explanation:

- Article 254 of the Indian Constitution deals with repugnancy.

- If a state law is inconsistent with a central law on the same subject, the central law prevails, unless the state law has received Presidential assent.

- Such a situation arises when the provisions of the two laws contradict each other.


Therefore, repugnancy arises when provisions of two laws are contrary. Quick Tip: Repugnancy = Legal contradiction between laws. It occurs when State and Central laws clash on Concurrent List subjects.


Question 92:

Identify the wrong statement.

  • (A) The Supreme Court of India is the guardian of the Constitution
  • (B) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeal
  • (C) The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi
  • (D) The Supreme Court of India has a Branch in Mumbai
Correct Answer: (D) The Supreme Court of India has a Branch in Mumbai
View Solution




The Supreme Court of India is the apex judicial authority in the country and:

- Is the final court of appeal

- Has original jurisdiction in constitutional matters

- Is located in New Delhi

- Does not have branches in other cities


Option D is incorrect as there is only one Supreme Court in India and it is located in New Delhi.
Quick Tip: Supreme Court = One and only one, headquartered in New Delhi. No branch courts exist.


Question 93:

The Indian High Court Judges remain in office till the age of

  • (A) 65
  • (B) 60
  • (C) 62
  • (D) 63
Correct Answer: (C) 62
View Solution




Article 217 of the Indian Constitution states that a Judge of a High Court shall hold office until the age of 62 years.


Note:

- Supreme Court Judges retire at 65.

- High Court Judges retire at 62.
Quick Tip: Remember: High Court Judges retire at 62, Supreme Court Judges at 65.


Question 94:

The Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is created by

  • (A) the Constitution of India
  • (B) the Union Government
  • (C) Prime Minister of India
  • (D) the district collector
Correct Answer: (A) the Constitution of India
View Solution




Article 148 of the Constitution establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.


CAG’s Role:

- Audits accounts of the Union and State Governments.

- Ensures accountability in public expenditure.
Quick Tip: CAG is a constitutional post established under Article 148. Not created by government orders.


Question 95:

The Election Commission of India was established in the year

  • (A) 1947
  • (B) 1950
  • (C) 1949
  • (D) 1951
Correct Answer: (B) 1950
View Solution




The Election Commission of India was established on 25th January 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution.


Key Facts:

- It supervises elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and President/Vice-President posts.

- 25th January is celebrated as National Voters’ Day in India.
Quick Tip: Remember: Election Commission = Established on 25th January 1950. That’s why this date is marked as National Voters' Day.


Question 96:

The Examinations for appointment to the various Civil Services of India are conducted by

  • (A) the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India
  • (B) the Union Public Service Commission
  • (C) the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
  • (D) the Staff Selection Commission
Correct Answer: (B) the Union Public Service Commission
View Solution




The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.


UPSC conducts exams for:

- IAS, IPS, IFS and other prestigious Group A and B central services.


Option Analysis:

- Option A: DOPT is a coordinating agency, not the examiner.

- Option B: Correct. UPSC conducts the Civil Services Examination.

- Option C: Ministry of Home Affairs administers IPS once selected — not the exam body.

- Option D: SSC conducts exams for lower posts, not Civil Services.
Quick Tip: UPSC = Civil Services (IAS/IPS/etc.)
SSC = Lower-level Central Government posts. Don’t confuse their roles.


Question 97:

The Chairperson of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes shall be appointed by

  • (A) the Chief Justice of India
  • (B) the Vice-President of India
  • (C) the President of India
  • (D) the Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: (C) the President of India
View Solution




The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is a constitutional body set up under Article 338A of the Indian Constitution.


Step-by-step explanation:

- Article 338A states that the President of India will appoint the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members of this commission.

- This body works to safeguard the rights of Scheduled Tribes and monitor various schemes and laws concerning them.


Option Analysis:

- (A) Chief Justice of India: Has no role in such appointments.

- (B) Vice-President of India: Not responsible for appointments to constitutional commissions.

- (C) President of India: Correct. Has constitutional authority to make the appointment.

- (D) Prime Minister: May be consulted, but final appointment is by the President.
Quick Tip: Remember: Constitutional and statutory body appointments are usually made by the President of India under the relevant Articles.


Question 98:

The names of States in India can be altered by

  • (A) the Chief Justice of India
  • (B) the Parliament following certain procedures in this regard
  • (C) the President of India
  • (D) the Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: (B) the Parliament following certain procedures in this regard
View Solution




According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the power to alter state boundaries or rename states lies with the Parliament.


Process:

- A bill is introduced in either House of Parliament.

- The President must first refer it to the concerned state legislature for its opinion (though their view is not binding).

- After that, Parliament can pass the law with a simple majority.


Option Analysis:

- (A) Chief Justice has no legislative powers.

- (B) Correct — Parliament has the authority.

- (C) President gives assent after the bill is passed but does not make the change alone.

- (D) Prime Minister has no direct authority to change state names.
Quick Tip: Changes to state names, borders, or creation of new states are done through laws passed by Parliament under Article 3.


Question 99:

In the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala judgment, the Supreme Court of India asserted its right

  • (A) to strike down amendments to the Constitution
  • (B) to strike down the appointment to the Constitutional posts
  • (C) to strike down the election conducted in a State
  • (D) to strike down the election of Chief Minister of a State
Correct Answer: (A) to strike down amendments to the Constitution
View Solution




The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) is one of the most important constitutional judgments in India.


Main outcome:

- The Supreme Court introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine, which says that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot change its “basic structure.”


Basic structure includes:

- Rule of law,

- Separation of powers,

- Fundamental rights,

- Judicial review, etc.


So, the Court gained the power to strike down any constitutional amendment that violates the basic structure. Quick Tip: Kesavananda Bharati case = "Basic Structure Doctrine"
This doctrine protects the core principles of the Constitution.


Question 100:

Who was the First Chief Justice of India?

  • (A) Justice Hiralal J. Kania
  • (B) Justice Saiyid Fazl Ali
  • (C) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
  • (D) Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan
Correct Answer: (A) Justice Hiralal J. Kania
View Solution




Justice Hiralal J. Kania was appointed as the first Chief Justice of independent India.

He assumed office on 26th January 1950, the day India became a Republic and the Constitution came into force.


He served until 6th November 1951. Quick Tip: First Chief Justice of India = Hiralal J. Kania (appointed on 26th Jan 1950).
Memorize “firsts” — they are often asked in exams.


Question 101:

An Advocate-on-Record of the Supreme Court of India is

  • (A) entitled to file an appearance or act for party in the Supreme Court
  • (B) allowed only in the constitutional matters
  • (C) allowed only in Writ Petitions
  • (D) allowed only in the criminal cases
Correct Answer: (A) entitled to file an appearance or act for party in the Supreme Court
View Solution




An Advocate-on-Record (AOR) is a special class of advocate who is permitted to:

- File cases and documents

- Represent clients officially in the Supreme Court


Only AORs can officially act and plead on behalf of a party.


To become an AOR, a lawyer must:

- Have 4 years’ experience as an advocate

- Work under an existing AOR for 1 year

- Pass the AOR exam conducted by the Supreme Court


Option A is correct — the AOR is the only advocate authorized to officially act for a party in the Supreme Court. Quick Tip: To act in the Supreme Court officially, an advocate must qualify as an Advocate-on-Record and pass the AOR exam.


Question 102:

Public Interest Litigation is a system through which

  • (A) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in theft matters
  • (B) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in his native district civil matters
  • (C) Indian citizen can move a Writ Petition in matters of the public interest
  • (D) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in personal civil matters
Correct Answer: (C) Indian citizen can move a Writ Petition in matters of the public interest
View Solution




Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a legal process that allows any Indian citizen or group of citizens to approach the courts to seek legal remedies in cases where public interest is at stake.


Why PIL?

- Sometimes, poor or underprivileged people may not have the means or awareness to go to court.

- In such cases, any concerned citizen can file a PIL on their behalf to address issues that affect society as a whole (like pollution, corruption, poor health care, etc.).


Where can it be filed?

- In the Supreme Court under Article 32

- In the High Court under Article 226


Important Point: The matter should not be about personal grievances but about the broader public good. Quick Tip: PIL empowers ordinary citizens to fight for justice in issues that affect the larger public — even without being directly affected.


Question 103:

Number of High Courts in India is

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 22
  • (D) 28
Correct Answer: (A) 25
View Solution




India has 25 High Courts as of 2024.

These courts are the highest judicial bodies at the state level.

Important facts:

- Some High Courts serve multiple states.

E.g., Bombay High Court serves Maharashtra and Goa.

- Each High Court deals with constitutional and civil/criminal matters within its jurisdiction.

The number may increase if new states are formed or separate courts are created. Quick Tip: Memorize the number: 25 High Courts in India. Some serve more than one state or Union Territory.


Question 104:

Lok Adalats is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism to arrive at amicable settlement of disputes

  • (A) on the same day of arguments of the case in the court
  • (B) on the same day of markings of document in the court
  • (C) within one month time before the Court
  • (D) outside of Court
Correct Answer: (D) outside of Court
View Solution




Lok Adalat means "People's Court."

It is a non-formal system of dispute resolution where cases are settled outside the court, often in a single sitting.


Features:

- No court fees

- Settlement is voluntary

- Decision is final and binding like a court decree

- Cannot be appealed


It is especially useful for:

- Family disputes

- Money recovery cases

- Cheque bounce cases

- Compoundable criminal cases Quick Tip: Lok Adalat = Simple, fast, and free justice. Used mostly for small or civil matters settled outside traditional courtrooms.


Question 105:

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under

  • (A) Article 123 of the constitution of India
  • (B) Article 223 of the constitution of India
  • (C) Article 23-A of the constitution of India
  • (D) Article 323-A of the constitution of India
Correct Answer: (D) Article 323-A of the constitution of India
View Solution




The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established in 1985 under Article 323-A of the Constitution.


Why it was created?

To provide speedy and specialized justice to central government employees regarding:

- Recruitment

- Promotion

- Transfer

- Disciplinary actions


Jurisdiction: Covers all civil service matters concerning central government employees. Quick Tip: Article 323-A = CAT (for central govt. employee disputes). CAT is independent of regular courts.


Question 106:

The decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal could be challenged

  • (A) by way of Writ Petition before respective High Court
  • (B) by way of Writ Petition before Supreme Court
  • (C) by way of Writ Petition before Principal Bench of the CAT
  • (D) by way of Petition before Union Law Ministry
Correct Answer: (A) by way of Writ Petition before respective High Court
View Solution




Although the CAT was initially seen as final, the Supreme Court clarified in 1997 (L. Chandra Kumar case) that:

Its decisions are subject to judicial review by High Courts.


So, if someone is not satisfied with CAT’s decision, they can file a Writ Petition under Article 226 in the High Court.

Other options are incorrect because:

- Supreme Court review comes only in special situations.

- Principal Bench is not an appeal forum.

- The Law Ministry does not hear such matters. Quick Tip: CAT decisions are not beyond review. High Courts can examine them under Writ jurisdiction (Article 226).


Question 107:

DRT stands for

  • (A) Debentures Recovery Tribunals
  • (B) Debts Recovery Tribunals
  • (C) Demands Recovery Tribunals
  • (D) Deposits Restore Tribunals
Correct Answer: (B) Debts Recovery Tribunals
View Solution




Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) were set up under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.


Purpose:

- Speedy recovery of loans above Rs. 20 lakhs from defaulters.

- Reduce burden on civil courts.


Powers:

- DRT can summon individuals, demand records, and pass final orders.

- Appeals go to DRAT (Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal).


Incorrect Options:

- There are no such tribunals for debentures, deposits, or demands named in those options. Quick Tip: DRT = Debts Recovery Tribunal. It helps banks recover large unpaid loans through a fast-track process.


Question 108:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. Writs are written orders issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts

2. A writ of Mandamus is a Court order that commands a government official to perform an act or to refrain from performing an act

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — A writ is a formal written order issued by the Supreme Court (under Article 32) or High Courts (under Article 226) to protect Fundamental Rights.


Statement 2: True — The writ of Mandamus is used by the courts to direct a government official or body to perform a duty that they are legally obliged to do or stop them from doing something illegal.


Thus, both statements correctly describe writs and the writ of Mandamus. Quick Tip: Remember the 5 writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. Mandamus = "We Command".


Question 109:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. Fundamental Rights are provided to the citizens by the Constitution of India.

2. The Constitution of India guarantees seven Fundamental Rights to the citizens.

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (A) Only (1) is true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) and are enforceable by courts.


Statement 2: False — Originally, there were seven Fundamental Rights. However, the Right to Property was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

Now there are only six Fundamental Rights:

1. Right to Equality

2. Right to Freedom

3. Right against Exploitation

4. Right to Freedom of Religion

5. Cultural and Educational Rights

6. Right to Constitutional Remedies Quick Tip: India now has only six Fundamental Rights — the Right to Property is no longer one of them.


Question 110:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. Lok Sabha of Indian Parliament divides its work into Three Sessions in a year

2. G.V. Mavlankar was the first speaker of the Indian Lok Sabha

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — The Parliament holds three sessions every year:

- Budget Session (Feb–May)

- Monsoon Session (July–August)

- Winter Session (November–December)


Statement 2: True — G.V. Mavlankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha after independence (1952–1956). Quick Tip: Parliament = 3 Sessions: Budget, Monsoon, Winter. G.V. Mavlankar = 1st Lok Sabha Speaker.


Question 111:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. A member of the Lok Sabha should be mentally sound

2. A member of the Lok Sabha should not be a bankrupt

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — A person declared of unsound mind by a competent court is disqualified from becoming a member of the Lok Sabha (Article 102).


Statement 2: True — A person who is an undischarged insolvent (i.e., bankrupt) is also disqualified from being a Lok Sabha member.


These disqualifications are aimed at ensuring only fit and responsible individuals are elected to Parliament. Quick Tip: A Lok Sabha member must be mentally sound and not bankrupt — these are basic eligibility conditions.


Question 112:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous Constitutional Authority

2. The Election Commission of India administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and offices of the President and Vice-President in the country.

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — The Election Commission of India is mentioned in Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.

It is a constitutional body, meaning its powers and existence are guaranteed by the Constitution itself, not just any law or executive order.

It is also autonomous, meaning it works independently without interference from the government, which ensures free and fair elections.


Statement 2: True — The Election Commission is responsible for conducting and supervising elections to the following:

- Lok Sabha (House of the People)

- Rajya Sabha (Council of States)

- State Legislative Assemblies

- Offices of the President and Vice-President of India

It ensures that elections are conducted fairly, free from corruption or influence. Quick Tip: The Election Commission is a constitutional and autonomous body. It conducts elections for Parliament, State Assemblies, President, and Vice-President.


Question 113:

The term abatement means

  • (A) to continue an action legally
  • (B) bringing to an end of an action or suspending an action
  • (C) To suspend a legal action temporarily
  • (D) to go on appeal for the suspended action
Correct Answer: (B) bringing to an end of an action or suspending an action
View Solution




Abatement is a legal term that refers to the ending, termination, or suspension of legal proceedings.

This could happen for various reasons — for example, when a party to the case dies, the lawsuit may come to an end (get abated).


It's not the same as temporarily pausing (which is usually a stay), and it's definitely not continuing (Option A) or appealing (Option D). Quick Tip: Abatement = bringing a case or legal action to an end or stopping it due to some event (like death of a party).


Question 114:

Bankruptcy refers to

  • (A) the legal processes related to insolvency
  • (B) theft in a Bank
  • (C) closure of a bank
  • (D) Loss in the bank
Correct Answer: (A) the legal processes related to insolvency
View Solution




Bankruptcy is the situation where an individual or business cannot repay the debts it owes to creditors.

It is declared through a legal process and is handled under insolvency laws in India (like the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016).


It does not refer to theft, closure, or losses in a bank itself. Instead, it’s about a person or company being unable to pay their debts. Quick Tip: Bankruptcy is a legal declaration that someone cannot pay their debts. It is not related to bank theft or closure.


Question 115:

Bye-laws refer to

  • (A) set of rules and regulations formulated by the General Body of the Association
  • (B) set of rules and regulations formulated by the head of the department
  • (C) set of rules and regulations framed by the landlord
  • (D) set of rules and regulations framed by the Court
Correct Answer: (A) set of rules and regulations formulated by the General Body of the Association
View Solution




Bye-laws are internal rules made by associations or societies. These are approved by the general body (i.e., all members).

They help govern day-to-day affairs such as meetings, voting, maintenance rules, penalties, etc.

They are different from government laws or court rulings — they are applicable only within that organization. Quick Tip: Bye-laws are internal rules made by members of associations or housing societies. They govern internal operations.


Question 116:

A Returning Officer is responsible for the conduct of

  • (A) meeting of Board of Directors of a company
  • (B) meeting of elected members of Legislative Assembly
  • (C) elections in Parliament or Assembly constituency concerned
  • (D) meeting of elected members of Parliament
Correct Answer: (C) elections in Parliament or Assembly constituency concerned
View Solution




A Returning Officer is an official appointed by the Election Commission to supervise elections in a particular constituency.

Their main roles include:

- Overseeing polling and counting

- Declaring election results

- Ensuring fair and proper conduct of elections

They do not conduct meetings — they conduct elections. Quick Tip: Returning Officer = Election Supervisor for one constituency. They manage vote counting and declare results.


Question 117:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements


Statements:

1. Civil cases are filed in courts due to conflicts involving mostly money between people or institutions like businesses

2. Criminal Cases are filed in Courts for offences committed by a group of people.

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (A) Only (1) is true
View Solution




Statement 1: True — Civil cases usually involve private disputes like breach of contract, property issues, or family disputes. They often involve money or personal rights.


Statement 2: False — Criminal cases are not necessarily about "groups". Even one person committing theft, assault, or murder faces criminal trial. The number of offenders is irrelevant. Quick Tip: Civil = personal disputes (like contracts, land, money).
Criminal = law-breaking acts like theft, violence (not limited to group crimes).


Question 118:

The term conciliation means

  • (A) settling the disputes through Police Station
  • (B) settling the dispute through Court
  • (C) filing a court case to challenge a Government order
  • (D) settling the disputes without litigations
Correct Answer: (D) settling the disputes without litigations
View Solution




Conciliation is a form of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). In conciliation, a neutral third party helps the disputing parties to reach a mutually agreeable solution, but unlike a judge, the conciliator does not impose a decision.


It is a voluntary and informal process used to avoid formal court proceedings (litigation).


- It is not conducted through police stations (Option A).

- It is not the same as court settlement (Option B).

- It is also not about challenging government orders (Option C).
Quick Tip: Conciliation = peaceful and voluntary dispute resolution without going to court. Common in labor and civil matters.


Question 119:

A deponent is a person

  • (A) who appears in a court for giving witness for defendant
  • (B) who swears on oath in a Court that a statement is correct
  • (C) who files a case against his neighbour
  • (D) who appears in a court for giving witness for prosecution
Correct Answer: (B) who swears on oath in a Court that a statement is correct
View Solution




A deponent is someone who makes a sworn statement — usually in writing — known as an affidavit or deposition.

This person signs the statement under oath, confirming that the facts given are true to the best of their knowledge.


- The person does not have to be giving witness for defendant or prosecution (Options A and D).

- Filing a case (Option C) is done by a complainant or petitioner, not a deponent.
Quick Tip: A deponent = a person who gives a sworn written statement under oath, such as in an affidavit.


Question 120:

The term interrogatories refer to

  • (A) in a civil case, formal questions from one side which the other side must answer under oath
  • (B) set of questions to be answered only by the plaintiff under oath
  • (C) set of questions to be answered only by the defendant under oath
  • (D) set of questions to be answered only by a witness under oath
Correct Answer: (A) in a civil case, formal questions from one side which the other side must answer under oath
View Solution




Interrogatories are a pre-trial discovery tool in civil cases.

They are written questions sent by one party to the other party, who must respond under oath.

The goal is to gather evidence and facts before trial begins.


It applies to both parties — plaintiff or defendant. It is not restricted to one party (so Options B and C are wrong).

It also doesn't refer only to witnesses (Option D). Quick Tip: Interrogatories = formal written questions in a civil case sent by one party to another, answered under oath before trial.

Comments


No Comments To Show