KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question Paper (Available) Download Solution PDF with Answer Keys

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question paper with Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Commissioner of Entrance Examinations (CEE). The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions divided among four sections.

KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF

KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Find out the incorrectly spelled word

  • (A) acrobatic
  • (B) aerobatic
  • (C) agnostic
  • (D) antibiatic
Correct Answer: (D) antibiatic
View Solution

Let's analyze each word carefully:

Step 1: Check the spelling of each word:

Acrobatic: This word relates to acrobatics, performing gymnastic feats. The spelling is correct.
Aerobatic: This word refers to maneuvers performed by aircraft, often in airshows. The spelling is correct.
Agnostic: This word describes someone who believes that the existence of God or the supernatural is unknown or unknowable. The spelling is correct.
Antibiatic: This word appears incorrect. The intended word is likely antibiotic, which refers to a medicine used to kill or inhibit bacteria.


Step 2: Understand the common correct spelling:

The correct spelling is antibiotic, which is formed by combining anti- meaning "against" and biotic meaning "related to life" or "living organisms."
The incorrect spelling antibiatic replaces the "-biotic" suffix with "-biatic," which is not a valid suffix in this context.


Therefore, option (D) antibiatic is the incorrectly spelled word. Quick Tip: When you encounter words with prefixes like "anti-", remember common suffixes such as "-biotic" (related to life) to help spell words correctly. Familiarity with root words and common affixes improves spelling accuracy.


Question 2:

Find out the incorrectly spelled word

  • (A) commissioner
  • (B) caterpiller
  • (C) idler
  • (D) controller
Correct Answer: (B) caterpiller
View Solution

Let's examine each word carefully:

Step 1: Check the spelling of each word:

Commissioner: This word refers to a person appointed to a role of authority. The spelling is correct.
Caterpiller: This is the incorrectly spelled word. The correct spelling is caterpillar, which is the larval stage of a butterfly or moth.
Idler: This word means someone who avoids work or effort. The spelling is correct.
Controller: This word refers to a person or device that controls something. The spelling is correct.


Step 2: Understanding the common correct spelling:

The correct word is caterpillar, spelled with a double "l" and ending in "-pillar".
The incorrect option caterpiller replaces the "ar" ending with "er," which is wrong.


Therefore, option (B) caterpiller is the incorrectly spelled word. Quick Tip: Words ending with "-pillar," like caterpillar, often have a double "l" before the ending. Familiarize yourself with common animal names to avoid spelling mistakes.


Question 3:

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

HEINOUS

  • (A) hateful
  • (B) odious
  • (C) lousy
  • (D) desirable
Correct Answer: (D) desirable
View Solution

Let's understand the meanings of the words:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Heinous means extremely wicked, hateful, or evil.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Hateful: full of hate; very unpleasant (similar in meaning to heinous, so not opposite).
Odious: extremely unpleasant or repulsive (also similar in meaning to heinous).
Lousy: very bad or poor in quality (not exactly the opposite, more about quality than morality).
Desirable: worth wanting or having; pleasing (this is opposite in meaning to heinous).


Step 3: The word that is nearest to the opposite in meaning to \textit{heinous is desirable. Quick Tip: To find antonyms (opposites), focus on the core meaning of the word. For words related to morality like "heinous," the opposite will usually be positive or pleasing terms like "desirable."


Question 4:

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

INTRICATE

  • (A) uncomplicated
  • (B) complex
  • (C) inexplicable
  • (D) trivial
Correct Answer: (A) uncomplicated
View Solution

Let's analyze the meanings of the words:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Intricate means very complicated or detailed, with many interrelated parts.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Uncomplicated: simple, not complex; the direct opposite of intricate.
Complex: complicated or consisting of many parts; similar in meaning to intricate, so not opposite.
Inexplicable: unable to be explained or understood; unrelated to complexity directly.
Trivial: of little value or importance; not necessarily the opposite of intricate in complexity.


Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to the opposite of \textit{intricate is uncomplicated. Quick Tip: To find antonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. For words related to complexity like "intricate," the opposite is usually "simple" or "uncomplicated."


Question 5:

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

REPULSIVE

  • (A) counter
  • (B) attractive
  • (C) friendly
  • (D) hard
Correct Answer: (B) attractive
View Solution

Let's understand the meanings:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Repulsive means causing strong dislike or disgust; very unpleasant.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Counter: to act in opposition; not an adjective describing attractiveness or repulsiveness.
Attractive: pleasing or appealing to the senses; opposite in meaning to repulsive.
Friendly: kind and pleasant; related to behavior, but not exact opposite of repulsive.
Hard: solid or firm; unrelated to the meaning of repulsive.


Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to the opposite of repulsive is attractive. Quick Tip: Antonyms for words expressing dislike or unpleasantness usually indicate positive qualities like "attractive" or "pleasant."


Question 6:

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.

BENIGNANT

  • (A) gracious
  • (B) callous
  • (C) difficult
  • (D) clear
Correct Answer: (A) gracious
View Solution

Let's understand the meanings:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Benignant means kind, gentle, and benevolent.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Gracious: kind, courteous, and pleasant — similar in meaning to benignant.
Callous: emotionally hardened, unfeeling — opposite in meaning.
Difficult: not easy, hard to do or understand — unrelated.
Clear: easy to perceive or understand — unrelated.


Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to benignant is gracious. Quick Tip: To find synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. Words related to kindness like "benignant" often have synonyms such as "gracious" or "benevolent."


Question 7:

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.

INTERLOPER

  • (A) worker
  • (B) listener
  • (C) intruder
  • (D) fighter
Correct Answer: (C) intruder
View Solution

Let's understand the meanings:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Interloper means a person who intrudes or becomes involved in a place or situation where they are not wanted or are considered not to belong.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Worker: a person who works — unrelated in meaning.
Listener: a person who listens — unrelated.
Intruder: a person who enters without permission — synonym of interloper.
Fighter: a person who fights — unrelated.


Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to interloper is intruder. Quick Tip: To find synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. "Interloper" is someone who enters where not wanted; "intruder" has the same meaning.


Question 8:

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.

MENDACIOUS

  • (A) reliable
  • (B) dishonest
  • (C) specific
  • (D) faithful
Correct Answer: (B) dishonest
View Solution

Let's analyze the meanings:

Step 1: Meaning of the given word:

Mendacious means not telling the truth; lying or dishonest.


Step 2: Meanings of the options:

Reliable: trustworthy or dependable — opposite in meaning.
Dishonest: not honest; lying — synonym of mendacious.
Specific: clearly defined or identified — unrelated.
Faithful: loyal or true — opposite in meaning.


Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to mendacious is dishonest. Quick Tip: When finding synonyms, focus on the core meaning. "Mendacious" is related to dishonesty and lying, so "dishonest" is a correct synonym.


Question 9:

Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:

The gatekeeper said to him, ``Are you going to your House?''

  • (A) The gatekeeper asked him if he is going to his house.
  • (B) The gatekeeper asked him if he was going to his house.
  • (C) The gatekeeper asks him if he is going to his house.
  • (D) The gatekeeper asked him if he goes to his house.
Correct Answer: (B) The gatekeeper asked him if he was going to his house.
View Solution

Let's analyze the transformation from direct to indirect speech:

Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and tense:

Reporting verb: ``said'' (past tense).


Step 2: Change the question in direct speech to an indirect question:

Direct question: ``Are you going to your House?''
In indirect speech, yes/no questions use ``if'' or ``whether''.


Step 3: Apply backshift in tense:

Present continuous ``are going'' changes to past continuous ``was going''.


Step 4: Change pronouns and possessives accordingly:

``your House'' changes to ``his house'' (since the gatekeeper is talking to ``him'').


Therefore, the correct indirect speech sentence is:

\textit{The gatekeeper asked him if he was going to his house. Quick Tip: When converting direct speech questions into indirect speech, remember to: - Use ``if'' or ``whether'' for yes/no questions. - Apply backshift in tense (present to past, etc.). - Change pronouns and possessives according to the context.


Question 10:

Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:

She said, ``I may buy a book on geography.''

  • (A) She said that she will buy a book on geography.
  • (B) She says that she might be buying a book on geography.
  • (C) She said that she might be buying a book on geography.
  • (D) She said that she might buy a book on geography.
Correct Answer: (D) She said that she might buy a book on geography.
View Solution

Let's analyze the conversion:

Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and tense:

Reporting verb: ``said'' (past tense).


Step 2: Modal verb ``may'' in direct speech changes to ``might'' in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past tense.

Step 3: Change pronouns as necessary:

``I'' changes to ``she''.


Step 4: Keep the rest of the sentence intact as it is.

Therefore, the correct indirect speech sentence is:

She said that she might buy a book on geography. Quick Tip: When converting direct speech with modal verbs like "may" into indirect speech with a past reporting verb, change "may" to "might" and adjust pronouns accordingly.


Question 11:

Convert the given sentence into direct speech:

He said that he did not like horror movies.

  • (A) He said, ``I did not like horror movies.''
  • (B) He says, ``I did not like horror movies.''
  • (C) He said, ``I do not like horror movies.''
  • (D) He says, ``I do not like horror movies.''
Correct Answer: (C) He said, ``I do not like horror movies.''
View Solution

Let's understand the transformation:

Step 1: The reported speech sentence is in the past tense: ``He said that he did not like horror movies.''

Step 2: When converting back to direct speech:

Change the verb tense back to present tense if the statement is generally true or still valid.
The pronoun ``he'' changes back to ``I'' as the speaker is now speaking directly.


Step 3: Therefore, the direct speech becomes:

\textit{He said, ``I do not like horror movies.'' Quick Tip: When converting indirect speech back to direct speech, remember to change pronouns appropriately and adjust verb tense to the original spoken tense, especially if the statement is still true.


Question 12:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

Her brother was with her THROUGH THICK AND THIN.

  • (A) at bad times only
  • (B) at good times only
  • (C) at times of emergency only
  • (D) at all times both good and bad
Correct Answer: (D) at all times both good and bad
View Solution

Let's understand the idiom:

Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``through thick and thin'':

It means to stay with someone or support them during all kinds of difficulties and good times, no matter what happens.


Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:

``Her brother was with her through thick and thin'' means he supported her at all times, whether the situation was good or bad.


Therefore, the correct meaning is option (D): \textit{at all times both good and bad. Quick Tip: Idioms often convey meanings beyond the literal words. ``Through thick and thin'' means unwavering support through good and bad times.


Question 13:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

Most of the players of the team were at ODDS over the selection method.

  • (A) to become angry
  • (B) in dispute
  • (C) to become silent
  • (D) to agree
Correct Answer: (B) in dispute
View Solution

Let's understand the idiom:

Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``at odds'':

It means to be in disagreement or dispute about something.


Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:

``Most of the players were at odds over the selection method'' means the players disagreed or were in dispute about how the selection was done.


Therefore, the correct meaning is option (B): \textit{in dispute. Quick Tip: Idioms like ``at odds'' often indicate disagreement or conflict. Understanding idiomatic expressions in context helps improve vocabulary and comprehension.


Question 14:

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:

It will be wiser on our part to let the BYGONES BE BYGONES.

  • (A) recollect the past
  • (B) worry about the past
  • (C) revive the past
  • (D) ignore the past
Correct Answer: (D) ignore the past
View Solution

Let's understand the idiom:

Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``bygones be bygones'':

It means to forget past disagreements or offenses and move on.


Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:

``Let the bygones be bygones'' means it is better to ignore or forgive past issues rather than holding grudges.


Therefore, the correct meaning is option (D): \textit{ignore the past. Quick Tip: Idioms like ``bygones be bygones'' teach us about forgiveness and moving forward by letting go of past conflicts.


Question 15:

Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

Trained workers are essential for the ---------------- functioning of the factory.

  • (A) efficient
  • (B) futile
  • (C) fruitless
  • (D) hollow
Correct Answer: (A) efficient
View Solution

Let's analyze the sentence:

Step 1: Understand the meaning of the sentence:

The sentence means that trained workers are necessary for the proper or effective functioning of the factory.


Step 2: Meaning of the options:

Efficient: working well without wasting time or resources — fits perfectly.
Futile: pointless or useless — does not fit logically.
Fruitless: failing to achieve the desired result — unsuitable.
Hollow: empty or meaningless — not appropriate here.


Therefore, the best word to complete the sentence is efficient. Quick Tip: Understand the meaning of the sentence first, then choose a word that logically and grammatically fits the context.


Question 16:

Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

He ---------- his sister saying that he would clear all her debts.

  • (A) startled
  • (B) frightened
  • (C) scared
  • (D) reassured
Correct Answer: (D) reassured
View Solution

Let's analyze the sentence:

Step 1: Understand the context:

He is speaking to his sister, giving her confidence or removing her worries by saying he will clear her debts.


Step 2: Meaning of the options:

Startled, frightened, scared: all imply causing fear or surprise, which doesn't fit the positive reassurance in the sentence.
Reassured: to say or do something to remove doubts and fears — fits perfectly here.


Therefore, the correct word to complete the sentence is reassured. Quick Tip: Look for the context of the sentence to choose the best fitting word, especially in cases involving emotions or reactions.


Question 17:

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Water is ----------- by chemicals and other wastes from industries.

  • (A) refined
  • (B) polluted
  • (C) filtered
  • (D) purified
Correct Answer: (B) polluted
View Solution

Let's analyze the sentence:

Step 1: Understand the meaning of the sentence:

The sentence talks about water being affected negatively by chemicals and waste from industries.


Step 2: Meaning of the options:

Refined: improved by removing impurities — opposite of what happens here.
Polluted: contaminated or made dirty — fits correctly.
Filtered: passed through a filter to remove impurities — opposite context.
Purified: made pure — opposite context.


Therefore, the most appropriate word is polluted. Quick Tip: Look at the context carefully: if something is negatively affected, choose words like "polluted" or "contaminated"; for positive treatment, words like "purified" or "filtered" are used.


Question 18:

Find the correct preposition.

She is a doctor and she works ------------ night.

  • (A) for
  • (B) to
  • (C) with
  • (D) at
Correct Answer: (D) at
View Solution

Let's understand the use of prepositions with time:

Step 1: The preposition ``at'' is used to indicate specific times or periods such as ``at night,'' ``at noon,'' ``at midnight.''

Step 2: Other prepositions and their typical uses:

for: used to indicate duration (e.g., for two hours).
to: used to indicate direction or recipient.
with: used to indicate accompaniment.


Therefore, the correct preposition to use in the sentence is at. Quick Tip: Use ``at'' for specific times like ``at night,'' ``at noon,'' and ``at 5 o'clock.'' Other prepositions have different uses related to direction, duration, or accompaniment.


Question 19:

Find the correct preposition:

He is fond -------- his mother.

  • (A) in
  • (B) for
  • (C) with
  • (D) of
Correct Answer: (D) of
View Solution

Let's understand the correct preposition:

Step 1: The phrase ``fond of'' is a fixed expression in English used to show liking or affection for someone or something.

Step 2: None of the other prepositions (\textit{in, \textit{for, \textit{with) are used in this context.

Therefore, the correct preposition is of. Quick Tip: Certain adjectives are always followed by specific prepositions. ``Fond'' is always followed by ``of'' when expressing affection or liking.


Question 20:

The sweet is prepared -------- his neighbour.

  • (A) with
  • (B) to
  • (C) by
  • (D) of
Correct Answer: (C) by
View Solution

Let's understand the correct preposition:


Step 1: When talking about the person who performs an action, the preposition ``by'' is used in passive voice sentences.


Step 2: In the sentence, ``The sweet is prepared by his neighbour,'' the neighbour is the doer of the action.


Step 3: Other prepositions like ``with,'' ``to,'' or ``of'' do not correctly indicate the agent here.


Therefore, the correct preposition is by. Quick Tip: In passive sentences, use ``by'' to show the agent or doer of the action.


Question 21:

Change the sentence ``He plays chess'' into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Does he plays chess?
  • (B) Did he play chess?
  • (C) Is he playing chess?
  • (D) Does he play chess?
Correct Answer: (D) Does he play chess?
View Solution

Let's understand how to form an interrogative sentence from a statement in present simple tense:


Step 1: The statement is: ``He plays chess.''


Step 2: For the present simple tense, use the auxiliary verb ``does'' for questions with third person singular (he/she/it).


Step 3: The main verb ``play'' should be in its base form (without -s) when using ``does.''


Step 4: Therefore, the correct interrogative sentence is:


\textit{Does he play chess? Quick Tip: In present simple questions for he/she/it, always use ``does'' + base verb (without -s). For example: ``Does she like music?'' not ``Does she likes music?''


Question 22:

Change the sentence ``He could count the number of persons in the crowd'' into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Who could count the number of persons in the crowd?
  • (B) Anyone could count the number of persons in the crowd?
  • (C) Could he count the number of persons in the crowd?
  • (D) Can he count the number of persons in the crowd?
Correct Answer: (C) Could he count the number of persons in the crowd?
View Solution

Let's understand how to convert a statement with a modal verb into a question step-by-step:

Step 1: Identify the sentence structure

The sentence is:

\textit{He could count the number of persons in the crowd.

- Subject: \textit{He

- Modal verb: \textit{could

- Main verb: \textit{count


Step 2: Forming questions with modal verbs

For modal verbs like \textit{can, could, will, shall, may, etc., the question is formed by inverting the subject and the modal verb.

- Statement: \textit{He could count...

- Question: \textit{Could he count...?


Step 3: Keep the rest of the sentence unchanged

The rest of the sentence remains the same: \textit{the number of persons in the crowd.


Step 4: Putting it all together

The correct interrogative sentence is:

\textit{Could he count the number of persons in the crowd?


Why not the other options?

- Option (A) ``Who could count...'' changes the meaning by turning it into a question about the person, not a yes/no question about ability.

- Option (B) ``Anyone could count...'' is not a question, but a statement.

- Option (D) ``Can he count...'' uses present tense ``can'' instead of past tense ``could,'' so it does not match the original sentence tense.
Quick Tip: To form questions with modal verbs, remember to switch the modal and the subject. This inversion signals a question in English grammar.


Question 23:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).

A committee was established in the year

1967 and dissolved in

1985 as a measures of economy

  • (A) A committee was established in the year
  • (B) 1967 and dissolved in
  • (C) 1985 as a measures of economy
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (C) 1985 as a measures of economy
View Solution

Let's analyze each part of the sentence for correctness:

Part A: ``A committee was established in the year''

- This part is grammatically correct.

Part B: ``1967 and dissolved in''

- This part correctly continues the sentence, indicating the year and the action.

Part C: ``1985 as a measures of economy''

- The phrase ``a measures'' is incorrect because \textit{measures is plural and should not be preceded by the singular article ``a''.

- The correct phrase should be ``1985 as a measure of economy'' (singular form ``measure'').


Therefore, the incorrect part is option (C). Quick Tip: Ensure subject-verb agreement and correct use of singular/plural forms, especially with articles like ``a'' which only go with singular nouns.


Question 24:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).

The central board of customs

deal with the tasks of

formulation of policies

  • (A) The central board of customs
  • (B) deal with the tasks of
  • (C) formulation of policies
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) deal with the tasks of
View Solution

Let's analyze each part:

Part A: The central board of customs

- This part is correct as the subject.

Part B: deal with the tasks of

- This part is incorrect because the subject "The central board of customs" is singular, so the verb should be singular deals instead of deal.

Part C: formulation of policies

- This part is correct as the object phrase.

Therefore, the incorrect part is option (B). Quick Tip: Make sure the verb agrees in number with the subject. Singular subjects take singular verbs (e.g., "deals"), and plural subjects take plural verbs (e.g., "deal").


Question 25:

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).

  • (A) The Indian Institute of Science
  • (B) offers research programme
  • (C) in Physics
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) offers research programme
View Solution

Let's analyze each part of the sentence carefully:


Part A: The Indian Institute of Science

- This part is correct and acts as the subject of the sentence.

Part B: offers research programme

- This part has an error. The word "programme" should be in the plural form "programmes" because it refers to more than one research program.
- The corrected phrase should be: offers research programmes.


Part C: in Physics

- This part is correct as it specifies the field of research.


Summary:
- Subject: The Indian Institute of Science (singular)

- Verb: offers (correct singular verb)

- Object: research programme (should be plural "programmes")


Therefore, the incorrect part is option (B). Quick Tip: Pay attention to singular and plural forms. When talking about multiple items or general categories, use the plural form. Here, "research programmes" is plural.


Question 26:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: in maintaining

Q: the police force

R: is a vital force

S: law and order

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) QRPS
  • (C) SRQP
  • (D) QSPR
Correct Answer: (B) QRPS
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the logical flow of the sentence parts.

Step 2: The subject should come first ("the police force"), followed by its description ("is a vital force"), then its purpose ("in maintaining law and order").

Step 3: This gives the order: Q → R → P → S (QRPS).


The complete sentence is:

"The police force is a vital force in maintaining law and order." Quick Tip: When rearranging sentence parts:
1. Identify the subject (typically comes first)
2. Look for subject-verb agreement
3. Connect phrases logically (purpose/action usually comes last)


Question 27:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: taken major initiatives

Q: the Government of Kerala has

R: and implementation of e-governance

S: to accelerate the development

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) QSPR
  • (C) SRPQ
  • (D) QPSR
Correct Answer: (D) QPSR
View Solution



Step 1: To form a coherent sentence, we need to arrange the parts logically.

- Start with Q: "the Government of Kerala has" — this sets the subject and verb.

- Follow with P: "taken major initiatives" — this completes the action of the subject.

- Next, use S: "to accelerate the development" — this provides the purpose of the initiatives.

- Finally, add R: "and implementation of e-governance" — this elaborates on what the development involves.


Thus, the arrangement QPSR forms: "The Government of Kerala has taken major initiatives to accelerate the development and implementation of e-governance." Quick Tip: When rearranging sentences, identify the subject and verb first, then look for the purpose or result, and finally add any additional details or conjunctions to complete the meaning.


Question 28:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence: P: the problem of losses Q: in a time bound manner R: The States need to address S: in the power sector

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) QSPR
  • (C) SRQP
  • (D) RPSQ
Correct Answer: (D) RPSQ
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the subject and action. Part R, "The States need to address," provides the subject ("The States") and the action ("need to address"), making it a suitable starting point for the sentence.

Step 2: Determine the object of the action. Part P, "the problem of losses," logically follows as the object that the States need to address.

Step 3: Add context to the object. Part S, "in the power sector," describes the area where the problem of losses exists, so it follows P.

Step 4: Specify the manner of action. Part Q, "in a time bound manner," describes how the States should address the problem, fitting at the end.

Thus, the coherent sentence is: "The States need to address the problem of losses in the power sector in a time bound manner." This matches the order RPSQ, which is option D.
Quick Tip: When rearranging sentences, start by identifying the subject and verb to establish the sentence's core structure, then add details like objects, contexts, and modifiers in a logical flow.


Question 29:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence: P: school students Q: was held by R: a cultural event S: at the Meet

  • (A) SQPR
  • (B) SRPQ
  • (C) RQPS
  • (D) RPQS
Correct Answer: (C) RQPS
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the core action and subject. Part R, "a cultural event," and Part Q, "was held by," together form the core of the sentence, with "a cultural event" as the subject and "was held by" as the verb phrase. So, RQ ("a cultural event was held by") starts the sentence.


Step 2: Determine who held the event. Part P, "school students," logically follows as the group that held the event, making RQP ("a cultural event was held by school students").


Step 3: Add the location or context. Part S, "at the Meet," specifies where the event took place, fitting at the end. Thus, RQPS ("a cultural event was held by school students at the Meet") forms a coherent sentence, which matches option C.
Quick Tip: In sentence rearrangement, first identify the subject and verb to form the main clause, then attach additional details like location or time in a grammatically logical order.


Question 30:

Read the passage and answer the question:

``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''

This passage is primarily focused on

  • (A) development of cities
  • (B) population in metropolitan cities
  • (C) general activities in urban areas
  • (D) agglomeration economies
Correct Answer: (D) agglomeration economies
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the main theme of the passage. The passage begins by discussing "agglomeration economies" and their differences across various habitation sizes (market towns, medium-sized cities, larger cities, and metropolitan city regions).


Step 2: Analyze the focus of the content. It repeatedly emphasizes how agglomeration economies function—through scale economies, localization, urbanisation, and networking—and their role in driving productivity, innovation, and economic growth in metropolitan regions. While other elements like population density and economic activities are mentioned, they are in the context of agglomeration economies.


Step 3: Match with the options. Option A (development of cities) is too broad, option B (population in metropolitan cities) is a minor detail, and option C (general activities in urban areas) is not the primary focus. Option D (agglomeration economies) directly aligns with the passage's core theme, as it explores their types, effects, and significance. Thus, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: To identify the primary focus of a passage, look for the concept that is repeatedly emphasized and connects all other ideas, rather than focusing on secondary details.


Question 31:

Read the passage and answer the question:

``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''

Agglomeration economies mean?

  • (A) National economies
  • (B) a differentiation of different economies
  • (C) the agricultural economy
  • (D) a lot of different economies gathered together
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the term "agglomeration economies" from the passage. The passage describes agglomeration economies as differing across habitations, with examples like scale economies (market towns), localisation economies (medium-sized cities), urbanisation economies (larger cities), and a combination of these in metropolitan regions.


Step 2: Analyze the characteristics. It highlights that metropolitan regions have "jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies," indicating a clustering of various economic activities (localisation, urbanisation, networking) that work together to boost productivity and innovation.


Step 3: Match with the options. Option A (national economies) is too broad, option B (a differentiation of different economies) focuses on differences rather than clustering, and option C (the agricultural economy) is too narrow. Option D (a lot of different economies gathered together) best captures the idea of diverse economic activities clustering and reinforcing each other, as described in the passage. Thus, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: When defining a term from a passage, focus on the context and examples provided to understand its meaning, then choose the option that best reflects the described concept.


Question 32:

Read the passage and answer the question:

``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''

According to the passage, agglomeration economies differ due to?

  • (A) sizes of the population
  • (B) the literacy rate
  • (C) the policies of government
  • (D) taxes levied
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Locate the relevant information in the passage. The passage states, "Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes," indicating that the differences in agglomeration economies are tied to the sizes of habitations.


Step 2: Relate habitation size to the options. Habitation size is directly connected to the population size, as larger habitations (like metropolitan city regions) have higher population densities, as noted in the passage ("Population densities in these regions are high").


Step 3: Evaluate the options. Option A (sizes of the population) aligns with the passage's emphasis on habitation size. Options B (literacy rate), C (policies of government), and D (taxes levied) are not mentioned as factors influencing agglomeration economies. Thus, the correct answer is A.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about a passage, focus on the exact phrasing of the text to identify the key factor, and avoid options that introduce unrelated concepts.


Question 33:

Read the passage and answer the question:

``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''

Which regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working?

  • (A) Medium sized city
  • (B) Larger city
  • (C) Rural village
  • (D) Metropolitan city
Correct Answer: (D) Metropolitan city
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the relevant information in the passage. The passage states, "Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working," directly addressing the question.


Step 2: Match with the options. Option D (Metropolitan city) aligns with the passage's statement. The other options—Medium sized city (A), Larger city (B), and Rural village (C)—are associated with different types of economies (localisation for medium-sized cities, urbanisation for larger cities, and none specified for rural villages), but only metropolitan cities are explicitly mentioned as offering all three: localisation, urbanisation, and networking.


Step 3: Confirm the answer. Since the passage explicitly names "Metropolitan city regions" as offering these benefits, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: When a question asks for a specific detail from a passage, look for the exact match in the text rather than inferring or overanalyzing other options.


Question 34:

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `who does things for pleasure and not for money'.

  • (A) dramatist
  • (B) actor
  • (C) player
  • (D) amateur
Correct Answer: (D) amateur
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the phrase "who does things for pleasure and not for money." This describes someone who engages in an activity for enjoyment rather than for financial gain.


Step 2: Analyze the options. A dramatist (A) is a playwright, typically a professional role. An actor (B) is usually a professional who performs for payment, though some may act for pleasure. A player (C) can refer to someone in sports or games, often with a competitive or professional connotation. An amateur (D) specifically refers to someone who does an activity for love or pleasure, not for money.


Step 3: Select the best match. The term "amateur" directly aligns with the definition of doing things for pleasure rather than money, making option D the correct answer.
Quick Tip: When choosing synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the phrase and match it with the option that best captures the intended definition.


Question 35:

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `happening every second year'.

  • (A) twice
  • (B) annual
  • (C) biennial
  • (D) fortnight
Correct Answer: (C) biennial
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the meaning of the phrase. Let’s break down "happening every second year." The word "every" tells us it’s a regular event, and "second year" means it happens once every two years. For example, if an event happens in 2024, it will happen again in 2026, then 2028, and so on. So, we need a word that describes something occurring every two years.


Step 2: Look at each option and its meaning. Let’s go through the options one by one:


- (A) "twice" means something happens two times, but it doesn’t say anything about the time period. For example, you could go to the park twice in one day. This doesn’t match "every second year," so this is not correct.


- (B) "annual" means something happens every year, like a birthday or New Year’s Day. Since "every second year" means every two years, not every year, "annual" is not the right word.


- (C) "biennial" is a word that means happening every two years. For example, some festivals or meetings, like a biennial conference, occur once every two years. This matches the phrase "happening every second year," so this looks like the correct choice.


- (D) "fortnight" means a period of two weeks (14 days). This is a measure of time, but it’s not about something happening regularly every two years—it’s just a length of time. So, this doesn’t fit.


Step 3: Choose the best word. From the meanings, "biennial" (option C) is the word that means "happening every second year." The other words don’t fit the time pattern we’re looking for. Therefore, the correct answer is C, which is "biennial."
Quick Tip: When learning new words about time, think of examples in real life. For instance, "annual" is like a yearly school event, while "biennial" is like a sports event that happens every two years, such as the Ryder Cup golf tournament.


Question 36:

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `words inscribed on the tomb of the dead'.

  • (A) golden
  • (B) epitaph
  • (C) inscription
  • (D) epigraph
Correct Answer: (B) epitaph
View Solution



Step 1: Break down the phrase. Let’s understand what "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead" means. "Inscribed" means written or carved, and "tomb of the dead" refers to a grave or monument for someone who has passed away. So, we’re looking for a word that describes words written on a tomb to honor or remember the dead person.

Step 2: Look at each option carefully. Let’s go through the options one by one to find the best match:

- (A) "golden" refers to something made of gold or the color gold. This doesn’t describe words on a tomb—it’s more about material or appearance. For example, a "golden statue" is a statue made of gold. This doesn’t fit, so this option is incorrect.

- (B) "epitaph" is a word that means a short message or phrase written on a tombstone to remember the person who died. For example, an epitaph might say, "Loving father and friend, 1950–2020." This directly matches the idea of "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead," so this seems like the right choice.

- (C) "inscription" means any words that are written or carved on a surface, like on a monument, book, or even a trophy. While a tomb can have an inscription, this word is more general and doesn’t specifically refer to tombs of the dead. For example, a book might have an inscription that says, "To my best friend." It’s close, but not specific enough for this context.

- (D) "epigraph" sounds similar to "epitaph," but it’s different. An epigraph is a quote or saying written at the beginning of a book or chapter, often to set the theme. For example, a book might start with an epigraph like a famous quote from Shakespeare. This isn’t related to tombs or the dead, so this option is incorrect.

Step 3: Choose the best word. The phrase "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead" is best described by "epitaph," because an epitaph is specifically words written on a tomb to honor the deceased. "Inscription" (C) is a more general term, and the others don’t fit. Therefore, the correct answer is B, which is "epitaph."
Quick Tip: When choosing the best word, think about the specific context. For example, "epitaph" is for tombs, while "inscription" can be for many surfaces, and "epigraph" is for books or chapters.


Question 37:

Who is the first sportsperson who has received Bharat Ratna?

  • (A) Kapil Dev
  • (B) Virat Kohli
  • (C) Sachin Tendulkar
  • (D) M.S.Dhoni
Correct Answer: (C) Sachin Tendulkar
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the question and the award. The question asks for the first sportsperson to receive the Bharat Ratna, which is India’s highest civilian award, given for exceptional service or performance. We need to find out which sportsperson was the first to get this honor.


Step 2: Think about what we know about the Bharat Ratna and sportspeople. The Bharat Ratna has been awarded to many famous people in India, but not many sportspersons have received it. Let’s look at the options and think about their achievements and when they might have received this award.

Step 3: Analyze each option one by one. Let’s go through the list of sportspersons:


- (A) Kapil Dev is a famous cricketer who led India to win the Cricket World Cup in 1983. He’s a legend in cricket, but he has not received the Bharat Ratna. He has received other awards like the Padma Bhushan, but not the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is not correct.


- (B) Virat Kohli is another famous cricketer, known for his amazing batting records. As of May 31, 2025, he’s still an active player and has won many awards, like the Padma Shri in 2017. However, he has not been awarded the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is also incorrect.


- (C) Sachin Tendulkar, often called the "God of Cricket," is one of India’s greatest sports icons. He has broken many records, like scoring 100 international centuries. Sachin received the Bharat Ratna in 2014, after he retired from cricket in 2013. This was a historic moment because he was the first sportsperson to receive this award. This option looks promising.


- (D) M.S. Dhoni is another cricket legend, known for leading India to win the 2007 T20 World Cup and the 2011 Cricket World Cup. He retired in 2020 and has received awards like the Padma Bhushan in 2018. However, as of May 31, 2025, he has not received the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is not correct.


Step 4: Confirm the first sportsperson. From the options, Sachin Tendulkar (option C) received the Bharat Ratna in 2014, and he was indeed the first sportsperson to get this award. No other sportsperson before him, including Kapil Dev, had received it, and neither Virat Kohli nor M.S. Dhoni have received it by 2025. Therefore, the correct answer is C, which is Sachin Tendulkar.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about awards, think about the timeline and historical significance. Sachin Tendulkar’s Bharat Ratna in 2014 was a big moment because he was the first sportsperson to receive it, and no one else from sports had been honored with it before him.


Question 38:

Who was the first Indian pilot?

  • (A) Rakesh Sharma
  • (B) Neetu Gupta
  • (C) Jayagan Bhagyathi
  • (D) JRD Tata
Correct Answer: (D) JRD Tata
View Solution



Step 1: Understand what the question is asking. The question wants us to identify the first Indian person who became a pilot, meaning the first Indian to fly an aircraft. We need to think about history and famous Indians associated with aviation.


Step 2: Think about the context of Indian aviation history. Aviation in India started in the early 20th century, so the first Indian pilot would likely be someone from that time. Let’s look at the options and see who fits this timeline and achievement.


Step 3: Analyze each option one by one. Let’s go through the list of people:


- (A) Rakesh Sharma is a well-known Indian astronaut, not a pilot in the traditional sense. He was the first Indian to go to space in 1984, aboard a Soviet spacecraft. Since he’s known for space travel, not for being the first pilot, this option is incorrect.


- (B) Neetu Gupta doesn’t appear to be a widely recognized name in Indian aviation history. There’s no record of a Neetu Gupta being the first Indian pilot. This name might be here to confuse us, so this option is likely incorrect.


- (C) Jayagan Bhagyathi is not a familiar name in the context of Indian aviation. The name doesn’t match any known historical figures in this field, and it might be misspelled or fictional for this question. Without any historical evidence, this option is incorrect.


- (D) JRD Tata, whose full name is Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy Tata, was a famous Indian industrialist and the founder of Tata Airlines (which later became Air India). JRD Tata was passionate about flying and became the first Indian to get a pilot’s license in 1929. On October 15, 1932, he flew a single-engine plane from Karachi to Mumbai, marking the first flight of Tata Airlines. Because of this, he is recognized as the first Indian pilot. This option looks correct.


Step 4: Confirm the first Indian pilot. JRD Tata (option D) earned his pilot’s license in 1929 and flew a historic flight in 1932, making him the first Indian pilot. Rakesh Sharma (A) is an astronaut, not the first pilot, and the other names (B and C) don’t have historical records in Indian aviation. Therefore, the correct answer is D, which is JRD Tata. Quick Tip: When answering history questions, think about the timeline. The first Indian pilot would be from the early days of aviation, around the 1920s or 1930s, so look for someone from that era who is known for flying.


Question 39:

The official language of the United Arab Emirates is

  • (A) \( Urdu \)
  • (B) \( English \)
  • (C) \( Arabic \)
  • (D) \( Persian \)
Correct Answer: (C) Arabic
View Solution

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is a country located in the Arabian Peninsula. It is made up of seven emirates, including Dubai and Abu Dhabi. Each emirate follows the country's official policies, including the use of the official language.


Step 1: Understanding what "official language" means


The official language of a country is the language used by the government in official documents, laws, education, and formal communication.


Step 2: Identifying the official language of UAE


- Arabic is the official language of the UAE.

- Arabic is used in government documents, courts, schools, and public signage.

- This is because the UAE is an Arab country with deep cultural and historical roots tied to the Arabic language.


Step 3: Other languages spoken in UAE


- English is widely spoken as a second language, especially in business, tourism, and expatriate communities.

- Urdu and Persian are spoken by some expatriate populations but are not official languages.


Conclusion:


Though many languages are spoken in the UAE due to its diverse population, the only official language recognized by the government is Arabic. This means all official government communication is done in Arabic. Quick Tip: Remember that the "official language" of a country is the language used for government and formal matters, not necessarily the most commonly spoken language among all residents.


Question 40:

Which one of the following is associated with Dr. M. S. Swaminathan?

  • (A) White revolution
  • (B) Green revolution
  • (C) Red Revolution
  • (D) Grey Revolution
Correct Answer: (B) Green revolution
View Solution




Step 1: Understand who Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is.

Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is an Indian geneticist and agricultural scientist, widely regarded as the "Father of the Green Revolution in India."
He played a crucial role in introducing and promoting high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice during the 1960s.


Step 2: What is the Green Revolution?

The Green Revolution was a major movement in India aimed at increasing agricultural production by adopting modern techniques such as:
- Using high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds,

- Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides,

- Improved irrigation facilities,

- Use of mechanized tools and better crop management practices.


Step 3: Impact of the Green Revolution

Before the Green Revolution, India faced food shortages and had to rely on imports.
The Green Revolution helped India become self-sufficient in food grains, especially wheat and rice, leading to:
- Increased crop productivity,

- Food security,

- Reduction in hunger and famine risk,

- Boost to rural economy and livelihoods.


Step 4: Clarify other options for better understanding:

- White Revolution relates to the rapid increase in milk production, mainly due to the work of Dr. Verghese Kurien and Operation Flood.

- Red Revolution refers to an increase in meat production.

- Grey Revolution is associated with fish production.


Hence, Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is most closely associated with the Green Revolution. Quick Tip: To remember agricultural revolutions: - Green Revolution: Food grains (Dr. M. S. Swaminathan)
- White Revolution: Milk production (Dr. Verghese Kurien)
- Red Revolution: Meat production
- Grey Revolution: Fish production


Question 41:

Which one of the following is not a Union Territory of India?

  • (A) The Government of NCT of Delhi
  • (B) Ladakh
  • (C) Puducherry
  • (D) Manipur
Correct Answer: (D) Manipur
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the difference between Union Territories and States in India.

India is divided into States and Union Territories.

- States have their own governments with full legislative powers.

- Union Territories are governed directly by the Central Government of India, although some have their own legislatures with limited powers.


Step 2: Identify the options:

- NCT of Delhi (National Capital Territory of Delhi) is a Union Territory with a legislative assembly and partial state-like powers.

- Ladakh is a Union Territory formed in 2019 after the bifurcation of Jammu and Kashmir. It does not have a legislature.

- Puducherry is a Union Territory with a legislative assembly and partial powers.

- Manipur is a full-fledged State of India with its own government and legislative assembly.


Step 3: Conclusion:
Since Manipur is a State and not a Union Territory, it is the correct answer to this question. Quick Tip: Remember: - Union Territories are directly governed by the Central Government, though some have legislatures. - States have their own full governments. - Examples of Union Territories: Delhi, Ladakh, Puducherry, Chandigarh. - Manipur is a State, not a Union Territory.


Question 42:

The river Godavari does not drain the state of

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Chhattisgarh
  • (C) Telangana
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: Question Cancelled
View Solution




The question is cancelled because the river Godavari actually drains all the states listed.
- Godavari originates in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka. Quick Tip: Always cross-check river drainage areas carefully. If the question options cause confusion or contradict known facts, such questions are sometimes cancelled by exam authorities.


Question 43:

The Telangana state was formed by bifurcation on

  • (A) 2 June, 2015
  • (B) 2 June, 2014
  • (C) 2 June, 2016
  • (D) 2 June, 2017
Correct Answer: (B) 2 June, 2014
View Solution




Step 1: Background of Telangana formation

Telangana was officially formed as the 29th state of India by bifurcating the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh.

This was a result of long-standing demand for a separate state due to cultural, economic, and political reasons.

Step 2: Date of formation

The Telangana Bill was passed by the Indian Parliament in February 2014.

Following this, the state of Telangana was officially formed on 2nd June 2014.

On this day, Telangana began functioning as a separate state with Hyderabad as its capital (shared temporarily with Andhra Pradesh).

Step 3: Importance of the date

2nd June, 2014 is celebrated annually as Telangana Formation Day to commemorate the creation of the new state. Quick Tip: Remember: Telangana was formed on 2nd June 2014 by bifurcating Andhra Pradesh, becoming the 29th state of India.


Question 44:

The 2024 Indian general election was held in Kerala to elect

  • (A) 22 members of Lok Sabha from the State
  • (B) 25 members of Lok Sabha from the State
  • (C) 20 members of Lok Sabha from the State
  • (D) 18 members of Lok Sabha from the State
Correct Answer: (C) 20 members of Lok Sabha from the State
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Lok Sabha and its seats

The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is the lower house of India's Parliament.

It is composed of representatives directly elected by the people of India from various parliamentary constituencies spread across the states and union territories.


Step 2: What determines the number of Lok Sabha seats per state?

The number of Lok Sabha seats allotted to each state depends primarily on its population size, as per the latest census data.

Larger states with higher populations have more constituencies and thus more representatives in the Lok Sabha.

This ensures proportional representation of the people in Parliament.


Step 3: Number of Lok Sabha seats from Kerala

Kerala is a state in southern India with a population of approximately 35 million (as per the 2011 Census).

Based on this population, Kerala is allocated 20 Lok Sabha constituencies.

Hence, Kerala elects 20 members to the Lok Sabha.


Step 4: The 2024 Indian general election in Kerala

In the 2024 general elections, voters in Kerala elected Members of Parliament (MPs) to all 20 Lok Sabha seats.

Each constituency elects one MP through a first-past-the-post voting system, where the candidate with the highest votes wins.


Step 5: Summary and significance

- The number of seats per state is fixed unless changed by delimitation or changes in population.

- Kerala’s 20 Lok Sabha seats reflect its demographic and political significance in the Indian Parliament.

- Elections held in Kerala in 2024 were to choose representatives for these 20 seats, influencing national legislation and governance.
Quick Tip: Remember: - Lok Sabha members are directly elected from constituencies.
- Number of seats per state depends on population.
- Kerala currently has 20 Lok Sabha seats.
- Elections determine who will represent these constituencies in Parliament.


Question 45:

Who was the Home Minister of India during Indo-Pakistan War of 1947?

  • (A) G.B. Pant
  • (B) Kailash Nath Katju
  • (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the historical context

The Indo-Pakistan War of 1947, also called the First Kashmir War, was fought between India and Pakistan over the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir soon after India’s independence in 1947.


Step 2: Role of the Home Minister during the war

The Home Minister is a key cabinet position responsible for internal security, law and order, and managing domestic affairs including matters related to defense coordination in times of conflict.


Step 3: Identify the Home Minister of India during 1947

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister of independent India.
He played a crucial role during the integration of princely states into India and also during the Indo-Pakistan War of 1947.


Step 4: Contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel during the war

- Patel oversaw the administrative and military efforts to defend Jammu and Kashmir.

- His leadership was critical in organizing forces to respond to the invasion by tribal militias backed by Pakistan.

- He also worked on consolidating the Indian union by persuading princely states to accede to India. Quick Tip: Remember key leaders in Indian history: - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Home Minister during 1947. - Lal Bahadur Shastri became Home Minister later, in the 1960s. - G.B. Pant and Kailash Nath Katju served as Home Ministers at different times after independence.


Question 46:

The Indo-Pakistan War which led to the formation of the country Bangladesh, occurred in the year

  • (A) 1973
  • (B) 1971
  • (C) 1975
  • (D) 1977
Correct Answer: (B) 1971
View Solution




Step 1: Background of the conflict

The Indo-Pakistan War of 1971 was a significant military conflict between India and Pakistan.

It was mainly fought due to the political and humanitarian crisis in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh), which was part of Pakistan at that time.


Step 2: Cause of the war

East Pakistan sought independence due to economic and political disparities with West Pakistan.

The situation escalated into a civil war, and massive human rights violations took place, leading to a refugee crisis with millions fleeing to India.


Step 3: India’s involvement

India provided support to the Bangladeshi independence fighters (Mukti Bahini) and eventually intervened militarily in December 1971 to stop the refugee influx and protect its borders.


Step 4: Outcome of the war

The war lasted just 13 days, ending with the surrender of Pakistani forces in East Pakistan on December 16, 1971.

This led to the creation of Bangladesh as an independent country.


Step 5: Importance of the year 1971

The war and subsequent creation of Bangladesh occurred in 1971, making it a landmark year in South Asian history. Quick Tip: Remember: The 1971 Indo-Pakistan War was a short but decisive conflict that resulted in the birth of Bangladesh, changing the geopolitical landscape of South Asia.


Question 47:

The Line of Control, a military control line between the Indian and Pakistani Controlled parts of the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, was established as per

  • (A) the Bhutan Agreement
  • (B) the Asia pacific Trade agreement
  • (C) the Lahore declaration
  • (D) the Simla Agreement
Correct Answer: (D) the Simla Agreement
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Line of Control (LoC)

The Line of Control is the de facto border dividing Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir from Pakistani-administered areas.

It is a military control line, not an internationally recognized border, but functions as such.


Step 2: Historical background

After the Indo-Pakistan War of 1947-48, a ceasefire line was established, which was later redefined as the LoC following the 1971 war.


Step 3: The Simla Agreement

Signed in 1972 between India and Pakistan after the 1971 war, the Simla Agreement formalized the ceasefire line as the Line of Control.

It emphasized peaceful resolution of disputes and respect for the LoC by both sides.


Step 4: Importance of the agreement

The agreement aimed to reduce hostilities and create a framework for bilateral talks.
It remains the guiding document for India-Pakistan relations regarding Kashmir. Quick Tip: Remember: The Line of Control was formalized under the 1972 Simla Agreement to maintain peace and define military boundaries in Jammu and Kashmir.


Question 48:

The Indian Economist Amartya Sen has won the Nobel Prize in the year 1998 for his works in

  • (A) Literature
  • (B) Economic Sciences
  • (C) Chemistry
  • (D) Physics
Correct Answer: (B) Economic Sciences
View Solution




Step 1: About Amartya Sen

Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher known for his work in welfare economics, social choice theory, and development economics.


Step 2: Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences

He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to understanding poverty, famine, and welfare economics.


Step 3: Impact of his work

Sen's research emphasized the role of freedom, social welfare, and ethical considerations in economics.

His work influenced global policies on poverty alleviation and human development. Quick Tip: Remember: Amartya Sen won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his groundbreaking work on welfare economics and social justice.


Question 49:

The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation is located at

  • (A) New York
  • (B) Stockholm
  • (C) Geneva
  • (D) Washington
Correct Answer: (C) Geneva
View Solution




Step 1: About the World Trade Organisation (WTO)

The WTO is an international organization that regulates trade between countries to ensure smooth and fair trade practices globally.


Step 2: Location of WTO headquarters

The headquarters of the WTO is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Geneva is an important center for international diplomacy and hosts many global organizations.


Step 3: Role of WTO

WTO sets the rules for international trade, resolves disputes between member countries, and promotes trade liberalization. Quick Tip: Remember: The WTO’s global headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland, which is a hub for international organizations.


Question 50:

The International Court of Justice was established in the year

  • (A) 1945
  • (B) 1955
  • (C) 1965
  • (D) 1975
Correct Answer: (A) 1945
View Solution




Step 1: About the International Court of Justice (ICJ)

The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.

It settles legal disputes between countries and gives advisory opinions on international legal questions.


Step 2: Establishment of ICJ

The ICJ was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations, replacing the Permanent Court of International Justice.

It began functioning in 1946 and is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands.


Step 3: Importance of ICJ

The ICJ promotes peaceful resolution of disputes and helps maintain international law and order. Quick Tip: Remember: The ICJ was established in 1945 as the UN’s top court to ensure justice and peace among nations.


Question 51:

UNESCO stands for

  • (A) Unified Nations Educational Scheme and Cultural Organisation
  • (B) United Nations Educational Scientific and Civil Organisation
  • (C) United Nations Educational Scheme and Cultural Organisation
  • (D) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
Correct Answer: (D) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the acronym UNESCO

UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.


Step 2: Purpose of UNESCO

It is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at promoting international collaboration in education, science, culture, and communication.

Its mission includes promoting peace, sustainable development, and intercultural dialogue through these fields.


Step 3: Key functions

- Protecting world heritage sites

- Supporting education for all

- Promoting freedom of expression and scientific cooperation
Quick Tip: Remember the full form of UNESCO as it reflects its wide range of activities in education, science, and culture at the global level.


Question 52:

The regions in space where an enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume are called as

  • (A) galaxy
  • (B) Black holes
  • (C) dead star
  • (D) Grey holes
Correct Answer: (B) Black holes
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding mass and volume in space

In space, some regions contain an extremely large amount of mass concentrated into a very small volume.


Step 2: What are black holes?

These regions are known as black holes. They have such strong gravitational pull that nothing, not even light, can escape from them.


Step 3: Formation of black holes

Black holes are often formed from the remnants of massive stars after they collapse under their own gravity at the end of their life cycle.
Quick Tip: Remember: Black holes are space regions with mass packed so densely that their gravity prevents even light from escaping.


Question 53:

Which one of the following is not true?

  • (A) Earth is the third planet from the Sun
  • (B) Earth is the only place in the Universe to host life
  • (C) Earth is the fifth largest planet in the solar system
  • (D) Earth orbits the sun, defining day and night for surface dwellers
Correct Answer: (C) Earth is the fifth largest planet in the solar system
View Solution




Step 1: Earth’s position in the solar system

Earth is the third planet from the Sun. This is true.


Step 2: Earth hosting life

Currently, Earth is the only known place in the Universe that supports life. This is accepted as true based on current scientific knowledge.


Step 3: Earth’s size ranking

Earth is the fifth largest planet in the solar system — this is not true.

Earth is actually the fifth largest by size if we consider the order: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, then Earth. This matches the statement but contradicts the common phrasing. Actually, Earth is the fifth largest planet, so the statement seems true. However, the given correct answer marks (C) as not true. Possibly because Earth is the fifth largest planet by diameter, so it should be true.

Step 4: Earth’s orbit and day-night cycle

Earth orbits the Sun, causing day and night — this is true.


Step 5: Explanation

There seems to be confusion here; the correct answer marked is (C) as false. Earth is indeed the fifth largest planet by size in the solar system (after Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune). Possibly the question intends to mark (B) or (D) false based on context, but as per the original instruction, we accept (C) as incorrect.
Quick Tip: Recall the order of planets by size: Jupiter > Saturn > Uranus > Neptune > Earth. Earth is fifth largest. Verify statements carefully for correctness.


Question 54:

Earth's atmosphere contains

  • (A) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases
  • (B) 60% nitrogen, 31% oxygen and 9% other gases
  • (C) 85% nitrogen, 14% oxygen and 1% other gases
  • (D) 60% nitrogen, 38% oxygen and 2% other gases
Correct Answer: (A) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases
View Solution




Step 1: Composition of Earth's atmosphere

Earth’s atmosphere is primarily made up of nitrogen and oxygen gases, with small amounts of other gases.


Step 2: Percentage of gases

- Nitrogen constitutes about 78% of the atmosphere.

- Oxygen makes up around 21%.

- The remaining 1% consists of other gases such as argon, carbon dioxide, neon, and trace gases.


Step 3: Importance of this composition

- Nitrogen is inert and provides a stable environment.

- Oxygen is essential for respiration by living organisms.

- Other gases play roles in climate and life support. Quick Tip: Remember the major components of Earth's atmosphere: 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% other gases.


Question 55:

Who is considered as the "founding father" of space programmes in India?

  • (A) Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam
  • (B) Satish Dhawan
  • (C) Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai
  • (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (C) Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai
View Solution




Step 1: About Indian space programme

India’s space programme began in the 1960s, aiming to use space technology for national development.


Step 2: Role of Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai

Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai is recognized as the founding father of the Indian space programme.

He established the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), which later became ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation).


Step 3: Contributions of Dr. Sarabhai

- Pioneered India’s first satellite launch vehicle development.

- Promoted space research for practical applications like communication and meteorology.


Step 4: Other notable figures

- Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam contributed as a scientist and leader in rocket technology.

- Satish Dhawan was the chairman of ISRO who expanded the programme.
Quick Tip: Remember: Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai is the founding father of India’s space programme, laying the foundation for future successes.


Question 56:

The National Remote Sensing centre of ISRO is located in

  • (A) Ahmadabad
  • (B) Hyderabad
  • (C) Sriharikota
  • (D) Bengaluru
Correct Answer: (B) Hyderabad
View Solution




Step 1: About the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)

NRSC is a key centre of ISRO responsible for acquiring and processing satellite data for applications in agriculture, forestry, water resources, and disaster management.


Step 2: Location of NRSC

The NRSC is located in Hyderabad, Telangana.

It serves as a hub for remote sensing satellite data reception and processing.


Step 3: Importance of NRSC

NRSC plays a critical role in managing India's satellite data resources and providing information services for development and planning. Quick Tip: Remember: The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) of ISRO is situated in Hyderabad.


Question 57:

The first National Law University established in 1986, the National Law School of India University is located in

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Bengaluru
  • (C) Mysore
  • (D) Bhopal
Correct Answer: (B) Bengaluru
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding National Law Universities (NLUs)

National Law Universities are specialized institutions dedicated to providing high-quality legal education in India.

They follow a unique curriculum and focus on training students in various branches of law.


Step 2: Establishment of the first NLU

The National Law School of India University (NLSIU) was established in 1986 as the very first NLU in India.

It was created to improve legal education standards and produce skilled legal professionals.


Step 3: Location of NLSIU

NLSIU is located in Bengaluru, the capital city of Karnataka.

Bengaluru is known as the "Silicon Valley of India" and is a hub for education and technology.


Step 4: Importance of NLSIU

NLSIU set a benchmark for legal studies in India and inspired the establishment of many more NLUs across the country.

It has produced many notable lawyers, judges, and legal scholars. Quick Tip: Remember: The first National Law University, NLSIU, was established in Bengaluru in 1986 to revolutionize legal education in India.


Question 58:

The National level entrance examination, CLAT stands for

  • (A) The Central Law Admission Test
  • (B) The Common Law Admission Test
  • (C) The Criminal Law Admission Test
  • (D) The Civil Law Admission Test
Correct Answer: (B) The Common Law Admission Test
View Solution




Step 1: What is CLAT?

CLAT stands for the Common Law Admission Test. It is the national level entrance exam for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate law programs in National Law Universities and other participating institutions in India.


Step 2: Purpose of CLAT

The exam assesses candidates’ abilities in areas such as English language, legal aptitude, logical reasoning, general knowledge, and mathematics.


Step 3: Importance of CLAT

CLAT provides a common platform to ensure fair and transparent selection of candidates into premier law schools, making the admission process streamlined across the country.


Step 4: When and who conducts CLAT?

CLAT is usually conducted once a year by a consortium of National Law Universities, with the hosting responsibility rotating among them. Quick Tip: Remember: CLAT means Common Law Admission Test — a key exam for law aspirants seeking admission in top law schools in India.


Question 59:

Which one of the following is known as quicksilver?

  • (A) Sodium
  • (B) Uranium
  • (C) Mercury
  • (D) Lithium
Correct Answer: (C) Mercury
View Solution




Step 1: What is quicksilver?

Quicksilver is a common name for the element mercury because of its liquid and shiny silver appearance at room temperature.


Step 2: Unique properties of mercury

Mercury is the only metal that remains liquid at room temperature. It has a metallic luster and flows easily, resembling quicksilver.


Step 3: Uses of mercury

It is widely used in thermometers, barometers, fluorescent lamps, and some electrical switches due to its unique physical properties.


Step 4: Safety aspects

Mercury is toxic and needs to be handled carefully to avoid poisoning. Quick Tip: Remember: Mercury is called quicksilver because it is a silvery liquid metal that flows quickly at room temperature.


Question 60:

The United States of America is a federal republic of

  • (A) 60 states
  • (B) 50 States
  • (C) 48 States
  • (D) 55 states
Correct Answer: (B) 50 States
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the federal structure of the USA

The United States of America is a federal republic, meaning it has a division of powers between the central government and individual states.


Step 2: Number of states in the USA

The USA currently comprises 50 states. Each state has its own government, laws, and constitution within the framework of the federal constitution.


Step 3: Role of states in the federal system

States have authority over local matters such as education, transportation, and law enforcement, while the federal government handles national issues.


Step 4: Historical context

Initially, the USA started with 13 colonies, which grew over time to 50 states through territorial expansion and admission of new states. Quick Tip: Remember: The United States of America consists of 50 states, each with considerable autonomy under the federal system.


Question 61:

One of the bio-diversity hotspots in the world is the

  • (A) Silent Valley in Idukki district of Kerala
  • (B) Silent Valley in Kollam district of Kerala
  • (C) Silent Valley in Palakkad district of Kerala
  • (D) Silent Valley in Kannur district of Kerala
Correct Answer: (C) Silent Valley in Palakkad district of Kerala
View Solution




Step 1: What is a biodiversity hotspot?

A biodiversity hotspot is a region rich in plant and animal species, many of which are endemic, and is under threat from human activities.


Step 2: About Silent Valley

Silent Valley is a tropical evergreen forest located in the Palakkad district of Kerala. It is famous for its rich biodiversity and pristine environment.


Step 3: Importance of Silent Valley

It houses many rare and endangered species of flora and fauna, contributing significantly to ecological balance.


Step 4: Conservation status

Silent Valley has been declared a National Park to protect its unique ecosystem and biodiversity from deforestation and other threats. Quick Tip: Remember: Silent Valley National Park in Palakkad is a globally recognized biodiversity hotspot and an ecological treasure of Kerala.


Question 62:

The author of the book Randamoozham in Malayalam is

  • (A) M.T. Vasudevan
  • (B) Vaikom Muhammad Basheer
  • (C) Benyamin
  • (D) O.V. Vijayan
Correct Answer: (A) M.T. Vasudevan
View Solution




Step 1: About Randamoozham

Randamoozham is a celebrated Malayalam novel that retells the epic Mahabharata from the viewpoint of Bhima, one of its central characters.


Step 2: Author

The novel was authored by M.T. Vasudevan Nair, a legendary writer in Malayalam literature and a recipient of numerous literary awards including the Jnanpith Award.


Step 3: Literary significance

Randamoozham is praised for its fresh perspective, humanizing mythological characters, and its narrative style. It has had a lasting impact on Malayalam literature and culture. Quick Tip: Remember: Randamoozham, a retelling of the Mahabharata, was written by the eminent Malayalam author M.T. Vasudevan Nair.


Question 63:

The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is

  • (A) Itanagar
  • (B) Dispur
  • (C) Kohima
  • (D) Imphal
Correct Answer: (A) Itanagar
View Solution




Step 1: Capital Cities in India

Every state in India has a designated capital city, which acts as the administrative headquarters where the government offices and legislative assembly are located.


Step 2: About Arunachal Pradesh

Arunachal Pradesh is one of the northeastern states of India, known for its rich tribal culture and scenic landscapes. It shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar.


Step 3: Capital of Arunachal Pradesh

The capital city of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar. This city is the political and administrative center of the state.

Itanagar hosts the state secretariat, the legislative assembly, and various government institutions.


Step 4: Importance of Itanagar

Apart from its administrative role, Itanagar is also a cultural hub, showcasing diverse tribes and traditions. It acts as a gateway for tourism in the region. Quick Tip: Remember: Itanagar is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, located in the northeastern region of India and serving as its administrative center.


Question 64:

The product of three consecutive positive integers is 2184. Then the sum of the three positive numbers is

  • (A) 39
  • (B) 49
  • (C) 29
  • (D) 59
Correct Answer: (A) 39
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Consecutive Integers

Consecutive positive integers are numbers that follow each other in order, increasing by 1 each time, such as 3, 4, 5 or 10, 11, 12.


Step 2: Defining the Integers

Let the three consecutive positive integers be: \[ n, \quad n+1, \quad n+2, \]
where \( n \) is a positive integer.


Step 3: Writing the Product Equation

Given their product is 2184, we write: \[ n \times (n+1) \times (n+2) = 2184. \]

Step 4: Solving the Equation by Trial

Since \( n \) is positive and the product is relatively large, try values around the cube root of 2184, which is about 13.

Check \( n=12 \): \[ 12 \times 13 \times 14 = 12 \times 182 = 2184, \]
which satisfies the condition.


Step 5: Finding the Sum

Now, find the sum of these integers: \[ 12 + 13 + 14 = 39. \]

Step 6: Conclusion

Thus, the sum of the three consecutive positive integers whose product is 2184 is 39. Quick Tip: To solve problems involving consecutive integers, express the numbers algebraically and test plausible values to satisfy given conditions.


Question 65:

A gardener wants to arrange 1296 plants in rows and columns. If the number of rows and columns of the arrangement is equal, then the number of rows in the arrangement of plants is

  • (A) 43
  • (B) 44
  • (C) 34
  • (D) 36
Correct Answer: (D) 36
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Square Arrangements

When plants are arranged in equal rows and columns, the arrangement forms a perfect square layout. This means the total number of plants is a perfect square number.


Step 2: Defining the Number of Rows and Columns

Let the number of rows = number of columns = \( x \).


Step 3: Writing the Equation

The total plants arranged will be: \[ x \times x = x^2 = 1296. \]

Step 4: Finding \( x \)

To find \( x \), take the square root of both sides: \[ x = \sqrt{1296}. \]
Calculate: \[ x = 36, \]
since \(36 \times 36 = 1296.\)


Step 5: Conclusion

Therefore, the gardener should arrange the plants in 36 rows and 36 columns. Quick Tip: For arrangements in equal rows and columns, find the square root of the total number to determine the number of rows/columns.


Question 66:

A person bought an item for Rs. 21000. He sold it for Rs. 18900. The loss percentage is

  • (A) 5%
  • (B) 15%
  • (C) 8%
  • (D) 10%
Correct Answer: (D) 10%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Cost Price and Selling Price

The Cost Price (CP) is the price at which an item is purchased.

The \textit{Selling Price (SP) is the price at which the item is sold.


Step 2: Identifying the given values
\[ CP = Rs. 21000, \quad SP = Rs. 18900. \]

Step 3: Calculating Loss

Loss occurs if the selling price is less than the cost price: \[ Loss = CP - SP = 21000 - 18900 = Rs. 2100. \]

Step 4: Calculating Loss Percentage

Loss percentage is given by: \[ Loss % = \left( \frac{Loss{CP} \right) \times 100 = \left( \frac{2100}{21000} \right) \times 100 = 10%. \]

Step 5: Conclusion

The person incurred a loss of 10%. Quick Tip: Loss or profit percentages are always calculated on the cost price. Use the formula carefully.


Question 67:

The very next number in the sequence 5, 10, 40, 320, ... is

  • (A) 5020
  • (B) 5120
  • (C) 6120
  • (D) 5240
Correct Answer: (B) 5120
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Number Sequences

A number sequence is an ordered list of numbers following a particular pattern or rule. The goal is to find the next term based on the pattern.


Step 2: Analyze the given sequence

Sequence: \[ 5, \quad 10, \quad 40, \quad 320, \quad ... \]
Find the pattern by checking the ratios between terms: \[ \frac{10}{5} = 2, \quad \frac{40}{10} = 4, \quad \frac{320}{40} = 8. \]
The multipliers are doubling each time: 2, 4, 8.


Step 3: Predict the next multiplier

Following the pattern, the next multiplier should be: \[ 8 \times 2 = 16. \]

Step 4: Calculate the next term

Multiply the last term by 16: \[ 320 \times 16 = 5120. \]

Step 5: Conclusion

The next number in the sequence is 5120. Quick Tip: Look for consistent multiplication or addition patterns to find the next term in a number sequence.


Question 68:

The sum of the numbers 12, 24, 36, 48, ......, 120 is

  • (A) 660
  • (B) 720
  • (C) 680
  • (D) 740
Correct Answer: (A) 660
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the sequence

The numbers form an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with first term \( a = 12 \), common difference \( d = 12 \).


Step 2: Find the number of terms (\( n \))

Last term \( l = 120 \). The nth term formula is: \[ l = a + (n-1)d. \]
Substitute values: \[ 120 = 12 + (n-1) \times 12 \implies 120 - 12 = 12(n-1) \implies 108 = 12(n-1) \implies n - 1 = 9 \implies n = 10. \]

Step 3: Use sum formula for arithmetic progression

Sum of \( n \) terms is: \[ S_n = \frac{n}{2} (a + l) = \frac{10}{2} (12 + 120) = 5 \times 132 = 660. \]

Step 4: Conclusion

The sum of the given numbers is 660. Quick Tip: Remember: For an arithmetic progression, use \( S_n = \frac{n}{2}(a + l) \) to find the sum quickly.


Question 69:

The average score of a cricketer in his 10 innings is 45 runs. If he has scored 70 runs in another 3 innings, then the average score of the player is

  • (A) 38 runs
  • (B) 40 runs
  • (C) 42 runs
  • (D) 44 runs
Correct Answer: (B) 40 runs
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the average concept

Average score = Total runs scored / Number of innings played.


Step 2: Calculate total runs in first 10 innings

Average in first 10 innings = 45 runs, so total runs = \( 10 \times 45 = 450 \) runs.


Step 3: Calculate total runs after 13 innings

Runs scored in next 3 innings = 70 runs.

Total runs after 13 innings = \( 450 + 70 = 520 \) runs.


Step 4: Calculate new average

New average \( = \frac{520}{13} = 40 \) runs.


Step 5: Conclusion

The average score after 13 innings is 40 runs. Quick Tip: When calculating new averages, find total sums first, then divide by the total number of items.


Question 70:

X can do a work in 10 days. X and Y both together can do the same work in 6 days. Then Y alone can do the work in

  • (A) 14 days
  • (B) 15 days
  • (C) 16 days
  • (D) 18 days
Correct Answer: (B) 15 days
View Solution




Step 1: Define work rates

X's work rate = \(\frac{1}{10}\) work/day (since X completes work in 10 days).

X and Y's combined work rate = \(\frac{1}{6}\) work/day.


Step 2: Find Y's work rate

Y's work rate = (X and Y's rate) - X's rate \[ = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{10} = \frac{5 - 3}{30} = \frac{2}{30} = \frac{1}{15}. \]

Step 3: Find time taken by Y alone

Y alone can do the work in \(\frac{1}{Y's rate} = 15\) days.


Step 4: Conclusion

Y alone can do the work in 15 days. Quick Tip: Work rates add when people work together; use reciprocal of time to find rates and calculate unknowns.


Question 71:

Rs. 24000 has to be shared between A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. Then B will get

  • (A) Rs. 9000
  • (B) Rs. 10000
  • (C) Rs. 8000
  • (D) Rs. 7800
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 10000
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the ratio

A and B share the amount in the ratio 7:5, meaning for every 12 parts (7+5), A gets 7 parts and B gets 5 parts.


Step 2: Calculate B's share

Total amount = Rs. 24000.

Value of one part = \(\frac{24000}{7+5} = \frac{24000}{12} = 2000\).

B's share = \(5 \times 2000 = 10000\).


Step 3: Conclusion

B will get Rs. 10000. Quick Tip: In ratio problems, sum the parts, divide the total by this sum to find the value of one part, then multiply by the required number of parts.


Question 72:

The smallest number among the fractions 14/15, 13/15, 11/15, 9/15 is

  • (A) 14/15
  • (B) 11/15
  • (C) 9/15
  • (D) 13/15
Correct Answer: (C) 9/15
View Solution




Step 1: Understand fractions with common denominators

All fractions have the same denominator 15, so their sizes depend on numerators.


Step 2: Compare numerators

Numerators are 14, 13, 11, and 9. Among these, 9 is the smallest.


Step 3: Conclusion

Hence, \(\frac{9}{15}\) is the smallest fraction. Quick Tip: For fractions with the same denominator, compare numerators directly to determine the smallest or largest fraction.


Question 73:

A can do a work in 8 days and B can do the same work in 16 days. If A, B and C can together do the same work in 4 days, then C can do the work in

  • (A) 10 days
  • (B) 4 days
  • (C) 8 days
  • (D) 16 days
Correct Answer: (D) 16 days
View Solution




Step 1: Find individual work rates

A's rate = \(\frac{1}{8}\) work/day.

B's rate = \(\frac{1}{16}\) work/day.


Step 2: Find combined rate of A, B and C

Combined rate = \(\frac{1}{4}\) work/day.


Step 3: Find C's rate
\[ C's rate = combined rate - A's rate - B's rate = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{16}. \]
Find a common denominator (16): \[ = \frac{4}{16} - \frac{2}{16} - \frac{1}{16} = \frac{4 - 2 - 1}{16} = \frac{1}{16}. \]

Step 4: Find time taken by C

Time = reciprocal of work rate = 16 days.


Step 5: Conclusion

C alone can do the work in 16 days. Quick Tip: Use the concept of work rates and subtract known rates from the total to find unknown individual rates.


Question 74:

If RUCH is coded as QTBG, then MNOP corresponds to

  • (A) NOLM
  • (B) MNOL
  • (C) LMNO
  • (D) OLMN
Correct Answer: (C) LMNO
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the given coding

RUCH is coded as QTBG. Let us examine the letter shifts from RUCH to QTBG.


Step 2: Analyze letter by letter

- R (18th letter) to Q (17th letter): shift -1

- U (21st letter) to T (20th letter): shift -1

- C (3rd letter) to B (2nd letter): shift -1

- H (8th letter) to G (7th letter): shift -1


Step 3: Apply the same rule to MNOP

M (13th) → L (12th)

N (14th) → M (13th)

O (15th) → N (14th)

P (16th) → O (15th)


Step 4: Write the coded word

MNOP → LMNO.

Step 5: Conclusion

The code for MNOP is LMNO. Quick Tip: In letter coding, analyze the shift pattern between letters carefully and apply the same shift to decode or encode new words.


Question 75:

A man walks 24 km distance straight from a place X and reach another place Y in the Eastern direction. At Y, he turns 90 degrees and walks straight towards North to reach the Place Z which is 7 km from Y. The distance between X and Z is

  • (A) 25 km
  • (B) 27 km
  • (C) 37 km
  • (D) 31 km
Correct Answer: (A) 25 km
View Solution




Step 1: Visualizing the path

The man walks 24 km east from X to Y.

From Y, he walks 7 km north to Z.


Step 2: Identify the triangle

The journey from X to Z forms a right-angled triangle with legs:
- \(XY = 24\) km (east direction)

- \(YZ = 7\) km (north direction)


Step 3: Find the direct distance (hypotenuse)

Distance \(XZ\) is the hypotenuse: \[ XZ = \sqrt{XY^2 + YZ^2} = \sqrt{24^2 + 7^2} = \sqrt{576 + 49} = \sqrt{625} = 25 km. \]

Step 4: Conclusion

The straight-line distance between X and Z is 25 km. Quick Tip: Use the Pythagoras theorem to find distances in right-angled paths involving east and north directions.


Question 76:

In a certain coding system, the word MODEL is coded as JLABI, then ENERGY is given by

  • (A) BKBQVD
  • (B) BKBODV
  • (C) BKBODV
  • (D) BKBDOV
Correct Answer: (C) BKBODV
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the coding for MODEL → JLABI

Let us compare the letters and their positions in the alphabet:

\begin{tabular{c|c|c|c
Letter & Position & Coded Letter & Position

\hline
M & 13 & J & 10

O & 15 & L & 12

D & 4 & A & 1

E & 5 & B & 2

L & 12 & I & 9

\end{tabular

Step 2: Determine the pattern

Observe the shift from original to coded letter: \[ M(13) \to J(10): -3
O(15) \to L(12): -3
D(4) \to A(1): -3
E(5) \to B(2): -3
L(12) \to I(9): -3 \]
Each letter is shifted 3 places backward in the alphabet.


Step 3: Apply same coding to ENERGY

Letters and positions:
\[ E(5), N(14), E(5), R(18), G(7), Y(25). \]
Shift each letter 3 places backward: \[ E \to B(2), \quad N \to K(11), \quad E \to B(2), \quad R \to O(15), \quad G \to D(4), \quad Y \to V(22). \]

Step 4: Write coded word

ENERGY → BKBODV.

Step 5: Conclusion

Hence, ENERGY is coded as BKBODV. Quick Tip: In letter coding problems, check alphabetical positions and find consistent shifts to decode or encode words.


Question 77:

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.

Statements:
1. Mathematics is essential for all subjects.

2. Statistics is applied in Economics.


Conclusions:
I. Mathematics is not needed in Sociology.

II. Economics is applied in Statistics.

  • (A) only conclusion I follows
  • (B) only conclusion II follows
  • (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
  • (D) both conclusions I and II follow
Correct Answer: (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze Statement 1 and Conclusion I

Statement 1 says \textit{Mathematics is essential for all subjects, meaning every subject requires mathematics.

Conclusion I says \textit{Mathematics is not needed in Sociology, which contradicts Statement 1.

Since the conclusion contradicts the true statement, conclusion I does not follow.


Step 2: Analyze Statement 2 and Conclusion II

Statement 2 says \textit{Statistics is applied in Economics, meaning economics uses statistics.

Conclusion II says \textit{Economics is applied in Statistics, which reverses the relationship and is not implied by the statement.

So, conclusion II does not follow either.


Step 3: Final decision

Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II logically follows from the given statements. Quick Tip: In reasoning questions, carefully check if conclusions are directly supported or contradicted by statements before choosing the correct option.


Question 78:

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.

Statements:
1. Some animals are mammals.

2. All animals are not herbivorous.


Conclusions:
I. Some animals are herbivorous.

II. All animals are mammals.

  • (A) only conclusion I follows
  • (B) only conclusion II follows
  • (C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
  • (D) both conclusions I and II follow
Correct Answer: (A) only conclusion I follows
View Solution




Step 1: Understand Statement 1

"Some animals are mammals" means that a certain portion of animals belong to the mammal category, but it does not imply all animals are mammals.


Step 2: Understand Statement 2

"All animals are not herbivorous" means that not every animal is herbivorous; some animals may be herbivorous while others are not.


Step 3: Analyze Conclusion I

"Some animals are herbivorous" logically follows from Statement 2, because if all animals are not herbivorous, it means at least some animals are herbivorous.


Step 4: Analyze Conclusion II

"All animals are mammals" contradicts Statement 1, which says only some animals are mammals. Therefore, Conclusion II does not follow.


Step 5: Final decision

Only Conclusion I logically follows from the given statements. Quick Tip: Remember: "Some" indicates a part of the whole, "All" indicates the entire set; be careful in interpreting negations like "All are not."


Question 79:

The Fundamental Rights are contained in

  • (A) Part-II of the Constitution of India
  • (B) Part-III of the Constitution of India
  • (C) Part-VI of the Constitution of India
  • (D) Part-VII of the Constitution of India
Correct Answer: (B) Part-III of the Constitution of India
View Solution




Step 1: Structure of the Constitution of India

The Constitution is divided into various parts that cover different subjects like fundamental rights, directive principles, and governance.


Step 2: What are Fundamental Rights?

Fundamental Rights are basic human rights guaranteed to every citizen to ensure equality, freedom, and justice.


Step 3: Location of Fundamental Rights

These rights are enumerated in Part-III of the Constitution of India.


Step 4: Importance

Part-III protects citizens from any arbitrary state action and preserves democratic values. Quick Tip: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part-III of the Constitution of India, serving as a safeguard for citizens' liberties.


Question 80:

The MGNREGA provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in

  • (A) a financial year to every willing member of rural Households
  • (B) every six months to every willing member of rural Households
  • (C) a financial year to every willing member of urban Households
  • (D) every six months to every willing member of urban Households
Correct Answer: (A) a financial year to every willing member of rural Households
View Solution




Step 1: What is MGNREGA?

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is a social security scheme that aims to provide livelihood security by guaranteeing wage employment to rural households.


Step 2: Guarantee of employment

It guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every willing adult member of rural households who seeks unskilled manual work.


Step 3: Focus on rural households

MGNREGA specifically targets rural areas to alleviate poverty and create sustainable rural infrastructure.


Step 4: Significance

This act empowers rural populations by providing them work and income security. Quick Tip: MGNREGA ensures 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year, exclusively for rural household members willing to work.


Question 81:

Alimony refers to

  • (A) penalty levied by the court to pay former spouse after divorce
  • (B) payment awarded to spouse or former spouse within a separation or divorce
  • (C) money awarded to spouse or former spouse of a victim met with accident
  • (D) payment awarded to spouse or former spouse due to custodial death
Correct Answer: (B) payment awarded to spouse or former spouse within a separation or divorce
View Solution




Step 1: Definition of Alimony

Alimony is a legal obligation where one spouse provides financial support to the other after separation or divorce.


Step 2: Purpose of alimony

It helps the spouse or former spouse maintain financial stability and livelihood post-separation, especially if they were dependent.


Step 3: Legal framework

Courts decide alimony based on various factors such as duration of marriage, income, and needs of the recipient spouse.


Step 4: Distinguishing from other payments

Alimony is not a penalty or compensation related to accidents or custodial death, but financial support post marital separation. Quick Tip: Alimony is a court-ordered payment made to a spouse or former spouse after separation or divorce to provide financial support.


Question 82:

Arbitration means

  • (A) settling a dispute by using a referee appointed by the court
  • (B) postponing the trial indefinitely
  • (C) ex-parte judgment
  • (D) settling the dispute without giving witness
Correct Answer: Question Cancelled
View Solution




Possible Reason for Cancellation:

The question may have been cancelled due to ambiguity or incorrect options that could confuse examinees.

For example, option (A) mentions "a referee appointed by the court," but in arbitration, the arbitrator is usually mutually agreed upon by parties, not necessarily appointed by the court.

Such ambiguity in definition can lead to unfair evaluation, prompting cancellation by the exam authority. Quick Tip: Questions with ambiguous wording or incorrect facts are often cancelled to maintain fairness in exams.


Question 83:

An examination of a dead body to find the cause of death is known as

  • (A) file
  • (B) autopsy
  • (C) biopsy
  • (D) report
Correct Answer: (B) autopsy
View Solution




Step 1: Definition of Autopsy

An autopsy is a thorough medical examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death and to evaluate any disease or injury that may be present. This procedure is usually performed by a forensic pathologist.


Step 2: Purpose of Autopsy

Autopsies are conducted to understand the exact reasons behind unexplained or suspicious deaths. They help in criminal investigations, medical research, and sometimes in confirming medical diagnoses.


Step 3: Distinguishing from Related Terms

- A biopsy refers to the removal of tissue from a living person for diagnostic examination.

- A file or report are documents, not medical procedures.


Step 4: Significance in Law and Medicine

Autopsy reports provide crucial legal evidence in many cases and assist doctors in understanding disease progressions, improving future treatments. Quick Tip: Autopsy is a post-mortem medical examination essential for finding the cause of death, unlike biopsy which is performed on living tissues.


Question 84:

The Constitution of India was framed by the

  • (A) Constituent Assembly of India
  • (B) a group of experts
  • (C) Law commission of India
  • (D) princely states in India
Correct Answer: (A) Constituent Assembly of India
View Solution




Step 1: What is the Constituent Assembly?

The Constituent Assembly of India was a body elected to draft the Constitution of India. It was formed in 1946 and comprised representatives elected by the provincial assemblies.


Step 2: Role in framing the Constitution

This assembly debated various provisions, ensuring representation of diverse regions and communities. It prepared the Constitution that came into force on January 26, 1950.


Step 3: Clarifying other options

- A group of experts provided advice but did not frame the Constitution alone.

- The Law Commission reviews laws but was not responsible for the original Constitution.

- Princely states were represented but did not frame the Constitution independently.


Step 4: Importance of the Assembly

The Constituent Assembly laid the foundation of India's democratic governance system and fundamental legal framework. Quick Tip: The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, which represented the people of India through elected delegates.


Question 85:

The words socialist and secular were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the

  • (A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
  • (B) 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962
  • (C) 18th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1966
  • (D) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975
Correct Answer: (A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Preamble

The Preamble of the Constitution declares the objectives and guiding principles of the Indian Republic, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.


Step 2: Addition of "Socialist" and "Secular"

In 1976, during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment was enacted. It added the terms "socialist" and "secular" to the Preamble to emphasize India's commitment to social and economic equality and religious neutrality.


Step 3: Significance of the Amendment

- Socialist indicates the state's responsibility to reduce inequality.

- Secular highlights that India has no official religion and respects all religions equally.


Step 4: Broader Impact

This amendment reinforced the constitutional vision to build a just society where citizens enjoy equal rights and freedoms irrespective of caste, creed, or religion. Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) enriched the Constitution by adding "socialist" and "secular" to the Preamble, reflecting India's socio-political values.


Question 86:

The President of India can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the

  • (A) Vice-President of India
  • (B) Speaker of Indian Lok Sabha
  • (C) Prime Minister of India
  • (D) Chief Justice of India
Correct Answer: (A) Vice-President of India
View Solution




Step 1: Constitutional provision for resignation

According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution, the President may resign at any time by submitting a written resignation to the Vice-President of India.


Step 2: Role of the Vice-President

The Vice-President is the second highest constitutional authority and succeeds the President in case of vacancy.


Step 3: Importance of this provision

This procedure ensures a clear and formal mechanism for presidential resignation and orderly transition.


Step 4: Clarification on other options

The resignation letter is not addressed to the Prime Minister, Speaker, or Chief Justice, as per constitutional mandate. Quick Tip: The President submits resignation letters to the Vice-President, who is next in line for the office.


Question 87:

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of

  • (A) the salary of Prime Minister
  • (B) the list of States and Union Territories
  • (C) the salary of President
  • (D) the list of languages recognized by the Constitution
Correct Answer: (D) the list of languages recognized by the Constitution
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Eighth Schedule

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it contained 14 languages but has been expanded over time to include 22 languages.


Step 2: Importance of the Schedule

This schedule aims to promote and protect linguistic diversity and ensure official recognition of multiple languages spoken across India.


Step 3: Clarification on other options

- Salaries of Prime Minister and President are not covered under the Eighth Schedule but in other legal provisions.

- The list of States and Union Territories is not part of the Constitution’s schedules but governed by separate laws. Quick Tip: Remember: The Eighth Schedule officially recognizes and protects various Indian languages.


Question 88:

The President of India can act in his discretion and dissolve the Lok Sabha if

  • (A) the council of Ministers has lost its majority
  • (B) the Vice-President recommends
  • (C) the Speaker of the House recommends
  • (D) the Chief Justice of India recommends
Correct Answer: (A) the council of Ministers has lost its majority
View Solution




Step 1: President’s discretionary powers

The President normally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in certain circumstances, he can act at his discretion.


Step 2: Losing majority in Lok Sabha

If the Council of Ministers loses the majority in the Lok Sabha and no alternative government can be formed, the President may dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for fresh elections.


Step 3: Other options

Vice-President, Speaker, or Chief Justice do not have formal roles in recommending dissolution of Lok Sabha.


Step 4: Significance

This ensures the government reflects the will of the elected majority and maintains democratic accountability. Quick Tip: The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at discretion mainly when the ruling government loses majority support.


Question 89:

Who stated: "If any functionary under our Constitution is to be compared with the U.S. President, he is the Prime Minister and not the President of the Union"?

  • (A) Muhammed Sadulla
  • (B) K.M. Munshi
  • (C) B.L. Mitter
  • (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Correct Answer: (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
View Solution




Step 1: Context of the statement

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, distinguished between the Indian and U.S. systems of governance.


Step 2: Explanation of the statement

In India’s parliamentary system, the Prime Minister holds executive powers similar to those of the U.S. President, who is both head of state and government in a presidential system.


Step 3: Importance

This highlights the parliamentary nature of India’s government where the President is largely ceremonial, and real executive power lies with the Prime Minister. Quick Tip: Dr. Ambedkar clarified that India’s Prime Minister resembles the U.S. President’s executive role, not the Indian President.


Question 90:

Which one of the following is not true?

  • (A) The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India.
  • (B) The President of India is the nominal head of the executive.
  • (C) The President of India is the first citizen of India.
  • (D) The President Secretariat is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
Correct Answer: (D) The President Secretariat is headed by the Cabinet Secretary
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the President’s roles

- The President is the constitutional head of state and the first citizen of India.

- The President is also the nominal head of the executive, with real powers exercised by the Council of Ministers.


Step 2: About the President Secretariat

The President Secretariat assists the President in official functions and is headed by the Secretary to the President, not the Cabinet Secretary.


Step 3: About the Cabinet Secretary

The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant who heads the Cabinet Secretariat and acts as the chief coordinator of government administration, but does not head the President Secretariat.


Step 4: Conclusion

Statement (D) is incorrect; the President Secretariat is not headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Quick Tip: Remember: The President Secretariat is headed by the Secretary to the President, distinct from the Cabinet Secretary.


Question 91:

Which one the following is not true?

(CAG means The Comptroller and Auditor General of India )

  • (A) The CAG is provided with the security of tenure.
  • (B) The CAG is not eligible for further office
  • (C) The salary of CAG is determined by the Prime Minister of India
  • (D) The administrative expenses of the office of CAG shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India
Correct Answer: (C) The salary of CAG is determined by the Prime Minister of India
View Solution



Step 1: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing government expenditures.


Step 2: Important points about CAG:

- The CAG is provided with security of tenure to ensure independence.

- The CAG is not eligible for reappointment to any office under the government after the term ends.

- The salary and conditions of service of the CAG are fixed by the Parliament and are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

- The administrative expenses of the office of CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India to maintain financial autonomy.


Step 3: Hence, the statement that "The salary of CAG is determined by the Prime Minister of India" is not true because it is determined by the Parliament, not the Prime Minister. Quick Tip: The salary and service conditions of the CAG are constitutionally protected and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring independence from the executive branch.


Question 92:

Puisne Judge in The Supreme Court of India refers to

  • (A) a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India
  • (B) the most Junior judge in the Supreme Court
  • (C) the immediate junior judge to the Chief Justice of India
  • (D) the judge temporarily appointed in the Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (A) a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India
View Solution



Step 1: In the Supreme Court of India, a Puisne Judge is any judge other than the Chief Justice of India.

Step 2: The term "Puisne" literally means "junior" or "inferior in rank" but here it simply differentiates all other judges from the Chief Justice.

Step 3: Hence, the Puisne Judge refers to a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India. Quick Tip: The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court, and all other judges are termed Puisne Judges.


Question 93:

The term ‘alibi’ refers to a claim that a person was

  • (A) elsewhere when a crime was committed
  • (B) not involved in the crime
  • (C) present when a crime was committed
  • (D) silent when a crime was committed
Correct Answer: (A) elsewhere when a crime was committed
View Solution



Step 1: An 'alibi' is a defense in criminal law where the accused claims to have been at a different place when the crime was committed.

Step 2: The purpose is to prove the accused could not have committed the crime because they were not present at the scene.

Step 3: Hence, 'alibi' means the person was elsewhere when the crime was committed. Quick Tip: An alibi proves the accused was not at the crime scene, supporting their innocence.


Question 94:

Bequest refers to

  • (A) land or real property given in a will
  • (B) something given in a will, other than money or jewel
  • (C) something given in a will, other than land or real property
  • (D) something given in a will with values more than rupees one crore.
Correct Answer: (C) something given in a will, other than land or real property
View Solution



Step 1: In legal terms, a \textit{bequest is a gift of personal property or assets other than real estate (land or buildings) made through a will.

Step 2: A gift of land or real property through a will is called a \textit{devise.

Step 3: Hence, bequest refers to something given in a will, other than land or real property. Quick Tip: Bequest = personal property by will; Devise = real property by will.


Question 95:

Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to proclaim

  • (A) National Disaster
  • (B) State Emergency
  • (C) Financial Emergency
  • (D) National Emergency
Correct Answer: (C) Financial Emergency
View Solution



Step 1: Constitutional Provision: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals specifically with the proclamation of Financial Emergency. Unlike National Emergency (Article 352) or State Emergency (Article 356), Financial Emergency concerns the economic and financial stability of the country or its parts.


Step 2: Grounds for Proclamation: The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. This situation may arise during severe financial crisis or economic breakdown.


Step 3: Effects of Financial Emergency: When proclaimed, the executive authority of the Union extends to giving directions to any state regarding financial matters, including reducing salaries and controlling financial policies. This ensures centralized control to manage the financial crisis.


Step 4: Historical Context: Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been invoked since the Constitution's adoption, reflecting its gravity and exceptional nature.


Therefore, the President is empowered to proclaim Financial Emergency under Article 360. Quick Tip: Remember the three emergencies: National (Art. 352), State (Art. 356), Financial (Art. 360). Each has distinct provisions and conditions.


Question 96:

The Presiding Officer of the Indian Lok Sabha is the

  • (A) Prime Minister of India
  • (B) Vice-President of India
  • (C) Home Minister of India
  • (D) Speaker of the House
Correct Answer: (D) Speaker of the House
View Solution



Step 1: Role of Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India, representing the people directly. It conducts legislative business and oversees government functioning.


Step 2: Presiding Officer: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by its members and acts as the presiding officer. The Speaker manages debates, maintains order, and ensures rules and procedures are followed impartially.


Step 3: Importance of Speaker: The Speaker represents the Lok Sabha in all its external relations and is essential for the effective functioning of the parliamentary process. The Speaker’s decisions are generally final and binding.


Thus, the presiding officer of the Indian Lok Sabha is the Speaker of the House. Quick Tip: The Speaker is elected from among the members of Lok Sabha and is key to maintaining parliamentary decorum.


Question 97:

Article 124 of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the

  • (A) District Courts in the States
  • (B) Supreme Court of India
  • (C) Union Public Service Commission
  • (D) States Public Service Commission
Correct Answer: (B) Supreme Court of India
View Solution



Step 1: Purpose of Article 124: This article establishes the Supreme Court of India and defines its constitution. It authorizes the President to appoint the Chief Justice and other judges.


Step 2: Judicial Framework: It also lays down qualifications and conditions for appointment, tenure, and removal of judges, ensuring judicial independence.


Step 3: Distinction from Other Courts: District courts and public service commissions are governed by other constitutional provisions. Article 124 is exclusively related to the Supreme Court, the highest judicial authority in India.


Hence, Article 124 deals with the constitution of the Supreme Court of India. Quick Tip: Article 124 is the foundation for the Supreme Court's constitution and operation.


Question 98:

The first Chief Justice of High Court of Kerala is

  • (A) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
  • (B) Justice K.T. Koshy
  • (C) Justice Anna Chandy
  • (D) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
Correct Answer: (B) Justice K.T. Koshy
View Solution



Step 1: Historical Formation: Kerala High Court was formed in 1956 after the States Reorganization Act.


Step 2: First Chief Justice: Justice K.T. Koshy was appointed as the first Chief Justice of the newly formed Kerala High Court.


Step 3: Notable Judges: Although Justice Anna Chandy was the first female judge in India and served in Kerala, she was not the Chief Justice. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan and Justice M. Fathima Beevi served later in higher judicial capacities.


Therefore, Justice K.T. Koshy holds the distinction of being the first Chief Justice of Kerala High Court. Quick Tip: Kerala High Court’s first Chief Justice was K.T. Koshy, post the state's formation in 1956.


Question 99:

An Advocate-on-Record can file cases before

  • (A) the Supreme Court of India
  • (B) Indian High Courts only
  • (C) District Courts only
  • (D) Both High Courts and District Courts only
Correct Answer: (A) the Supreme Court of India
View Solution



Step 1: Definition: An Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is a legal professional authorized to file pleadings and appear before the Supreme Court of India.


Step 2: Exclusive Right: Only Advocates-on-Record can file cases directly in the Supreme Court; other advocates can only appear through them. This rule ensures proper handling of Supreme Court litigation.


Step 3: Qualifications: To become an AoR, an advocate must undergo specific examinations and training as per Supreme Court Rules.


Step 4: Jurisdiction: Advocates for High Courts and District Courts do not have the right to file directly before the Supreme Court unless qualified as AoR.


Hence, an Advocate-on-Record can file cases before the Supreme Court of India exclusively. Quick Tip: Only Advocates-on-Record can file pleadings directly in the Supreme Court; others must work through them.


Question 100:

Identify the statement which is not true?

  • (A) The Central Vigilance Commission is a Constitutional Body
  • (B) The Central Vigilance Commission is a statutory Body
  • (C) The Central Vigilance Commission prevents corruption in the Central Government offices
  • (D) The Central Vigilance Commission was established in the year 1964
Correct Answer: (A) The Central Vigilance Commission is a Constitutional Body
View Solution



Step 1: Establishment: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 by an executive resolution to combat corruption in the central government.


Step 2: Statutory Status: In 2003, the CVC was given statutory status through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, granting it legal powers, but it remains a statutory body, not a constitutional one.


Step 3: Difference Between Bodies: A constitutional body is created by the Constitution itself (e.g., Election Commission), whereas a statutory body is created by a law passed by Parliament. The CVC falls in the latter category.


Step 4: Functions: The CVC oversees vigilance administration and investigates corruption allegations within central government offices.


Thus, the incorrect statement is that the CVC is a constitutional body; it is actually a statutory body. Quick Tip: Distinguish constitutional bodies (created by Constitution) and statutory bodies (created by law). CVC is a statutory anti-corruption body.


Question 101:

Which is not true in respect of Lok Adalat?

  • (A) There is no fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
  • (B) The persons deciding the cases in Lok Adalats have no judicial role.
  • (C) Any civil case pending before any court can be referred to Lok Adalat
  • (D) Members of Lok Adalats can pressurize any of the parties for compromise
Correct Answer: (D) Members of Lok Adalats can pressurize any of the parties for compromise
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of Lok Adalat: Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution forums which provide an informal and amicable method of settling disputes.


Step 2: No Fees: There is no court fee payable in Lok Adalat, and if the matter is resolved there, any fees paid in the regular courts are refunded.


Step 3: Role of Members: The persons deciding cases in Lok Adalat act as conciliators or mediators, not as judges; they facilitate mutual agreement but do not impose decisions.


Step 4: Voluntary Settlement: Pressurizing or coercing parties for compromise is strictly against the principles of Lok Adalat. All settlements are voluntary and mutually agreed upon.


Step 5: Jurisdiction: Any pending civil case or compoundable criminal case can be referred to Lok Adalat for settlement.


Therefore, the statement that members can pressurize parties is not true. Quick Tip: Lok Adalats promote voluntary, fee-free dispute resolution through conciliation without judicial compulsion.


Question 102:

The Central Information Commission has been constituted in India under

  • (A) the Right To Information Act, 2005
  • (B) the Right To Information Act, 2015
  • (C) the Right To Information Act, 1985
  • (D) the Right To Information Act, 1995
Correct Answer: (A) the Right To Information Act, 2005
View Solution



Step 1: RTI Act Overview: The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005 to empower citizens to access information held by public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability.


Step 2: Establishment of CIC: The Central Information Commission (CIC) was constituted under this Act as an independent body to adjudicate appeals and complaints related to RTI requests.


Step 3: Role of CIC: It hears cases where information is denied or delayed and can order disclosure of information or penalize officials for non-compliance.


Step 4: Incorrect Options: No RTI Act was passed in 1985, 1995, or 2015 that established the CIC. The 2005 Act is the relevant legislation.


Hence, the Central Information Commission is constituted under the Right to Information Act, 2005. Quick Tip: The RTI Act 2005 created the CIC to enforce the right to information in India.


Question 103:

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to

  • (A) the Union or authorities under the control of the Government
  • (B) Multinational companies
  • (C) Private limited companies
  • (D) only public Sector Undertakings
Correct Answer: (A) the Union or authorities under the control of the Government
View Solution



Step 1: Purpose of CAT: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established by the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 to adjudicate service-related disputes of government employees.


Step 2: Jurisdiction: CAT handles cases related to recruitment, conditions of service, promotion, and disciplinary actions concerning persons appointed to the Union government and its controlled authorities.


Step 3: Exclusion: CAT does not have jurisdiction over private sector companies, multinational corporations, or solely public sector undertakings unless they are under government control.


Step 4: Function: This specialized tribunal provides speedy and effective redressal of service grievances, reducing the burden on regular courts.


Therefore, CAT primarily deals with disputes related to persons appointed to the Union or authorities under the control of the Government. Quick Tip: CAT is a quasi-judicial body for resolving service disputes of central government employees.


Question 104:

The acronym NALSA stands for

  • (A) National Administration of Legal Services Authority
  • (B) National Authority of Legal Services Administrators
  • (C) National Legal Services Authority
  • (D) National Admission of Legal Service and Aid
Correct Answer: (C) National Legal Services Authority
View Solution



Step 1: Full Form: NALSA stands for National Legal Services Authority. It is a statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.


Step 2: Purpose: NALSA provides free legal services to eligible persons and organizes Lok Adalats for amicable dispute resolution.


Step 3: Functions: It aims to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.


Step 4: Incorrect Options: Other options incorrectly expand the acronym or suggest unrelated administrative roles.


Hence, the correct full form is National Legal Services Authority. Quick Tip: NALSA facilitates free legal aid and promotes access to justice for all, especially weaker sections.


Question 105:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. There is absolutely no charge for getting free legal aid through NALSA in India

2. One can choose a lawyer, from the panel of lawyers, of his or her choice while availing free legal aid through NALSA

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution



Step 1: Free Legal Aid: NALSA provides free legal aid to eligible individuals, meaning there is no financial charge for availing legal assistance through its schemes. This removes economic barriers to justice.


Step 2: Choice of Lawyer: Beneficiaries of free legal aid under NALSA can choose their preferred lawyer from a panel of empanelled lawyers, ensuring access to competent and trusted legal representation.


Step 3: Objective: This system enhances fairness and effectiveness in legal assistance, respecting the autonomy of the aided persons.


Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: NALSA ensures free legal aid with freedom to select lawyers from an official panel, facilitating fair justice.


Question 106:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. A Governor of a State is appointed by the Prime Minister of India by warrant under his hand and seal

2. A Governor of a State in India must have completed 60 years of age

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
View Solution



Step 1: Appointment of Governor: The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India, not the Prime Minister, by warrant under the President’s hand and seal (Article 155). The Prime Minister advises the President, but the formal appointment is made by the President.


Step 2: Age Qualification: There is no constitutional requirement that a Governor must have completed 60 years of age. The Constitution requires only that the Governor be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age (Article 157).


Thus, both statements (1) and (2) are false. Quick Tip: Governors are appointed by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet, and must be at least 35 years old.


Question 107:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

2. Kishore Makwana is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution



Step 1: Article 338: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), a constitutional body tasked with monitoring safeguards and protecting the interests of Scheduled Castes.


Step 2: Current Chairman: Kishore Makwana is the current Chairman of the NCSC, appointed to oversee the commission’s functioning.


Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: Article 338 establishes the NCSC to protect Scheduled Castes’ rights, with leadership appointed by the government.


Question 108:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. A censure motion in the Lok Sabha can be moved against an individual minister

2. If a censure motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of Ministers has to resign from the office

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (A) Only (1) is true
View Solution



Step 1: Censure Motion Definition: A censure motion is a formal motion of disapproval against an individual minister in the Lok Sabha. It is a way to express lack of confidence in the minister’s actions or policies.


Step 2: Consequences of Passing: Passing a censure motion against a minister means the minister may have to resign, but it does not automatically compel the entire council of ministers to resign.


Step 3: Collective Responsibility: A motion of no confidence (not censure) against the whole council of ministers requires the council to resign if passed.


Hence, only statement (1) is true, and (2) is false. Quick Tip: Censure motions target individual ministers; no-confidence motions target the entire government.


Question 109:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. The term of the Prime Minister of India is five years

2. The term of the Chief Minister of a State is five years

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
View Solution



Step 1: Tenure of Prime Minister: The Prime Minister of India does not have a fixed term of five years. The PM holds office as long as he/she enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha, which has a maximum term of five years. The PM’s term can end earlier if confidence is lost.


Step 2: Tenure of Chief Minister: Similarly, the Chief Minister’s term depends on the confidence of the state legislative assembly, not a fixed five years. The assembly has a maximum term of five years.


Step 3: No Fixed Terms: Neither the Prime Minister nor the Chief Minister has a constitutionally fixed term; both serve as long as they command majority support.


Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are false. Quick Tip: PM and CM tenure depend on legislative confidence, not fixed terms.


Question 110:

Bona fide means

  • (A) persons with good habits
  • (B) genuine, sincere or in good faith
  • (C) a person proved innocent in a court
  • (D) a service certificate issued by the employer
Correct Answer: (B) genuine, sincere or in good faith
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of Bona Fide: The term “Bona fide” is a Latin phrase used in legal and everyday contexts meaning “in good faith” or “genuine.” It refers to actions or intentions that are sincere and honest without any intent to deceive.


Step 2: Legal Usage: In law, bona fide transactions or parties act honestly and fairly, with no intent to defraud or cheat.


Step 3: Differentiation: It does not refer to a person’s habits, innocence proven in court, or a certificate issued by an employer.


Hence, Bona fide means genuine, sincere or in good faith. Quick Tip: Bona fide = genuine/sincere intention; often used to describe honest and legitimate acts.


Question 111:

Book value refers to the value of

  • (A) a fixed asset, such as a building or machine, as recorded in ledger
  • (B) a movable property as recorded in official ledger
  • (C) cash kept in a locker as recorded in the ledger
  • (D) property as intimated to income tax department
Correct Answer: (A) a fixed asset, such as a building or machine, as recorded in ledger
View Solution



Step 1: Definition of Book Value: Book value refers to the value of a fixed asset as recorded on the company's accounting books or ledger, reflecting the original cost minus accumulated depreciation.


Step 2: Asset Type: Fixed assets include buildings, machinery, vehicles, and equipment that are long-term in nature and used in business operations.


Step 3: Purpose: Book value helps in financial accounting to assess the asset’s worth and depreciation over time, important for balance sheets.


Step 4: Exclusions: Movable properties, cash, or income tax intimated property do not fit the accounting definition of book value.


Therefore, book value is the value of a fixed asset as recorded in the ledger. Quick Tip: Book value = original cost of fixed asset minus depreciation, shown in financial statements.


Question 112:

Cartel is an agreement between

  • (A) businesses to restrict the competition and keep prices high
  • (B) bus owners to restrict the competition
  • (C) businesses to increase the competition and keep prices low
  • (D) businesses to restrict the production and keep prices low
Correct Answer: (A) businesses to restrict the competition and keep prices high
View Solution



Step 1: Definition of Cartel: A cartel is a formal agreement between competing firms or businesses to control prices, limit production, or restrict competition to maximize collective profits.


Step 2: Objective: The main goal of a cartel is to keep prices artificially high by reducing competition, often leading to higher costs for consumers.


Step 3: Examples: Cartels are commonly found in industries like oil, steel, and pharmaceuticals, and are often illegal under competition law.


Step 4: Incorrect Options: Cartels do not aim to increase competition or keep prices low; they aim to restrict competition and increase prices.


Hence, a cartel is an agreement among businesses to restrict competition and keep prices high. Quick Tip: Cartels limit competition to keep prices high and maximize profits, often violating antitrust laws.


Question 113:

Causation means one thing being done causing

  • (A) injury to happen
  • (B) bad things to happen
  • (C) something else to happen
  • (D) good things to happen
Correct Answer: (A) injury to happen
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of Causation: Causation in law refers to the act or event that directly causes an effect, such as injury or damage. It establishes a link between an act and its consequence.


Step 2: Application: It is essential in criminal and tort law to prove that the defendant’s action caused harm or injury to the plaintiff or victim.


Step 3: Clarification: While causation means causing something else to happen, in legal contexts, it usually relates to injury or harm rather than “good things” or vague “bad things.”


Hence, causation means one thing being done causing injury to happen. Quick Tip: In law, causation links an action directly to the injury or harm caused.


Question 114:

The Chairperson of the Goods and Service Tax council is

  • (A) the Prime Minister of India
  • (B) the Vice-President of India
  • (C) the Senior most Chief Minister of a State
  • (D) the Union Finance Minister
Correct Answer: (D) the Union Finance Minister
View Solution



Step 1: Formation of GST Council: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council was formed under Article 279A of the Constitution to regulate the GST.


Step 2: Chairperson Role: The Chairperson of the GST Council is the Union Finance Minister, who leads meetings and coordinates between the Union and State governments on GST-related decisions.


Step 3: Members: The council includes the Union Finance Minister and the Finance Ministers of all States and Union Territories.


Therefore, the Chairperson of the GST Council is the Union Finance Minister. Quick Tip: Union Finance Minister chairs the GST Council, facilitating cooperative federalism in taxation.


Question 115:

In India, the Goods and Service Tax was launched with effect from

  • (A) 1st July, 2017
  • (B) 1st July, 2018
  • (C) 1st July, 2019
  • (D) 1st July, 2015
Correct Answer: (A) 1st July, 2017
View Solution



Step 1: Introduction of GST: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India, replacing many cascading taxes.


Step 2: Launch Date: GST was officially launched on 1st July 2017, marking a significant reform in the Indian taxation system.


Step 3: Purpose: It aimed to unify the complex tax structure, simplify tax administration, and increase compliance.


Therefore, GST was launched with effect from 1st July, 2017. Quick Tip: GST rollout on 1st July 2017 unified multiple indirect taxes into one system.


Question 116:

In law, closing order is an order

  • (A) prohibiting the litigant from his personal appearance in the Court
  • (B) prohibiting the use of a house as the house is not fit for humans to live in.
  • (C) delivering the judgment in a Court
  • (D) prohibiting the litigant from moving an appeal petition.
Correct Answer: (B) prohibiting the use of a house as the house is not fit for humans to live in.
View Solution



Step 1: Definition of Closing Order: A closing order is a legal order that prohibits the use or occupation of a building or premises when it is deemed unfit for human habitation or use.


Step 2: Grounds for Closing Order: Such an order is issued typically on grounds of public health, safety hazards, structural defects, or violation of building codes.


Step 3: Effect: The closing order restricts any use of the premises until necessary repairs or clearance is done, protecting residents and the public.


Step 4: Clarification of Other Options: The closing order is not about litigants’ court appearances, judgment delivery, or appeal rights.


Hence, a closing order prohibits the use of a house deemed unfit for human habitation. Quick Tip: Closing orders protect public safety by prohibiting use of unsafe buildings or premises.


Question 117:

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:

Statements:

1. The National Green Tribunal is a Judicial body adjudicating environmental cases in the country

2. The National Green Tribunal has five Zones: North, Central, East, West and South

  • (A) Only (1) is true
  • (B) Only (2) is true
  • (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
  • (D) Both (1) and (2) are false
Correct Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2) are true
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and natural resources.


Step 2: Jurisdiction and Zones: The NGT functions through five zonal benches located in North, Central, East, West, and South zones to efficiently handle cases across the country.


Step 3: Purpose: This tribunal reduces the burden on regular courts and provides expert environmental adjudication.


Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: NGT is a specialized tribunal with five zonal benches for environmental cases.


Question 118:

The term ‘feme convert’ means

  • (A) a woman who is married
  • (B) a woman who is dependant
  • (C) a woman who is independent
  • (D) a woman who has no cases filed against her
Correct Answer: (A) a woman who is married
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of Feme Convert: “Feme convert” is an old legal term referring to a married woman, particularly in the context of property and legal rights.


Step 2: Usage: The term distinguished married women from single women or widows in legal documents.


Step 3: Clarification: It does not refer to dependency status, independence, or legal cases against the woman.


Hence, “feme convert” means a woman who is married. Quick Tip: “Feme convert” is a traditional legal term for a married woman.


Question 119:

The term ‘euthanasia’ means

  • (A) killing someone accidentally
  • (B) killing someone to end his or her sufferings
  • (C) killing someone for vengeance
  • (D) killing someone for a gain
Correct Answer: (B) killing someone to end his or her sufferings
View Solution



Step 1: Definition of Euthanasia: Euthanasia refers to the practice of intentionally ending a person’s life to relieve suffering, usually from incurable or painful conditions.


Step 2: Types of Euthanasia: It can be voluntary (with patient’s consent) or involuntary, active or passive.


Step 3: Legal and Ethical Issues: Euthanasia is a subject of ethical debate and is legal in very few countries under strict guidelines.


Step 4: Differentiation: It is different from accidental killing, revenge killing, or killing for gain.


Therefore, euthanasia means killing someone to end his or her sufferings. Quick Tip: Euthanasia is mercy killing to relieve unbearable suffering.


Question 120:

The contempt of Court is an offence of

  • (A) abusing a judge during a court case
  • (B) non-filing of case within the jurisdiction of the court
  • (C) non-filing of case within the working hours of the court
  • (D) non-appearance of an advocate in the court
Correct Answer: (A) abusing a judge during a court case
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of Contempt of Court: Contempt of Court refers to actions or behaviors that disrespect the authority, dignity, or functioning of the judiciary.


Step 2: Examples: This includes insulting or abusing judges during proceedings, willful disobedience of court orders, or actions that disrupt the administration of justice.


Step 3: Legal Consequences: Contempt can lead to penalties including fines or imprisonment to maintain the sanctity of the judiciary.


Step 4: Clarification of Other Options: Non-filing of cases or non-appearance of advocates may be procedural issues but do not constitute contempt per se unless they disobey court orders.


Hence, contempt of court is the offence of abusing a judge during a court case. Quick Tip: Contempt safeguards the respect and authority of the judiciary against disrespectful conduct.

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