KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question paper with Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Commissioner of Entrance Examinations (CEE). The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions divided among four sections.
KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF
| KLEE 2024 LLB 3 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF | Download PDF | Check Solutions |

Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Let's analyze each word carefully:
Step 1: Check the spelling of each word:
Acrobatic: This word relates to acrobatics, performing gymnastic feats. The spelling is correct.
Aerobatic: This word refers to maneuvers performed by aircraft, often in airshows. The spelling is correct.
Agnostic: This word describes someone who believes that the existence of God or the supernatural is unknown or unknowable. The spelling is correct.
Antibiatic: This word appears incorrect. The intended word is likely antibiotic, which refers to a medicine used to kill or inhibit bacteria.
Step 2: Understand the common correct spelling:
The correct spelling is antibiotic, which is formed by combining anti- meaning "against" and biotic meaning "related to life" or "living organisms."
The incorrect spelling antibiatic replaces the "-biotic" suffix with "-biatic," which is not a valid suffix in this context.
Therefore, option (D) antibiatic is the incorrectly spelled word. Quick Tip: When you encounter words with prefixes like "anti-", remember common suffixes such as "-biotic" (related to life) to help spell words correctly. Familiarity with root words and common affixes improves spelling accuracy.
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Let's examine each word carefully:
Step 1: Check the spelling of each word:
Commissioner: This word refers to a person appointed to a role of authority. The spelling is correct.
Caterpiller: This is the incorrectly spelled word. The correct spelling is caterpillar, which is the larval stage of a butterfly or moth.
Idler: This word means someone who avoids work or effort. The spelling is correct.
Controller: This word refers to a person or device that controls something. The spelling is correct.
Step 2: Understanding the common correct spelling:
The correct word is caterpillar, spelled with a double "l" and ending in "-pillar".
The incorrect option caterpiller replaces the "ar" ending with "er," which is wrong.
Therefore, option (B) caterpiller is the incorrectly spelled word. Quick Tip: Words ending with "-pillar," like caterpillar, often have a double "l" before the ending. Familiarize yourself with common animal names to avoid spelling mistakes.
Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
HEINOUS
View Solution
Let's understand the meanings of the words:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Heinous means extremely wicked, hateful, or evil.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Hateful: full of hate; very unpleasant (similar in meaning to heinous, so not opposite).
Odious: extremely unpleasant or repulsive (also similar in meaning to heinous).
Lousy: very bad or poor in quality (not exactly the opposite, more about quality than morality).
Desirable: worth wanting or having; pleasing (this is opposite in meaning to heinous).
Step 3: The word that is nearest to the opposite in meaning to \textit{heinous is desirable. Quick Tip: To find antonyms (opposites), focus on the core meaning of the word. For words related to morality like "heinous," the opposite will usually be positive or pleasing terms like "desirable."
Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
INTRICATE
View Solution
Let's analyze the meanings of the words:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Intricate means very complicated or detailed, with many interrelated parts.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Uncomplicated: simple, not complex; the direct opposite of intricate.
Complex: complicated or consisting of many parts; similar in meaning to intricate, so not opposite.
Inexplicable: unable to be explained or understood; unrelated to complexity directly.
Trivial: of little value or importance; not necessarily the opposite of intricate in complexity.
Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to the opposite of \textit{intricate is uncomplicated. Quick Tip: To find antonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. For words related to complexity like "intricate," the opposite is usually "simple" or "uncomplicated."
Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
REPULSIVE
View Solution
Let's understand the meanings:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Repulsive means causing strong dislike or disgust; very unpleasant.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Counter: to act in opposition; not an adjective describing attractiveness or repulsiveness.
Attractive: pleasing or appealing to the senses; opposite in meaning to repulsive.
Friendly: kind and pleasant; related to behavior, but not exact opposite of repulsive.
Hard: solid or firm; unrelated to the meaning of repulsive.
Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to the opposite of repulsive is attractive. Quick Tip: Antonyms for words expressing dislike or unpleasantness usually indicate positive qualities like "attractive" or "pleasant."
Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
BENIGNANT
View Solution
Let's understand the meanings:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Benignant means kind, gentle, and benevolent.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Gracious: kind, courteous, and pleasant — similar in meaning to benignant.
Callous: emotionally hardened, unfeeling — opposite in meaning.
Difficult: not easy, hard to do or understand — unrelated.
Clear: easy to perceive or understand — unrelated.
Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to benignant is gracious. Quick Tip: To find synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. Words related to kindness like "benignant" often have synonyms such as "gracious" or "benevolent."
Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
INTERLOPER
View Solution
Let's understand the meanings:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Interloper means a person who intrudes or becomes involved in a place or situation where they are not wanted or are considered not to belong.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Worker: a person who works — unrelated in meaning.
Listener: a person who listens — unrelated.
Intruder: a person who enters without permission — synonym of interloper.
Fighter: a person who fights — unrelated.
Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to interloper is intruder. Quick Tip: To find synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word. "Interloper" is someone who enters where not wanted; "intruder" has the same meaning.
Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
MENDACIOUS
View Solution
Let's analyze the meanings:
Step 1: Meaning of the given word:
Mendacious means not telling the truth; lying or dishonest.
Step 2: Meanings of the options:
Reliable: trustworthy or dependable — opposite in meaning.
Dishonest: not honest; lying — synonym of mendacious.
Specific: clearly defined or identified — unrelated.
Faithful: loyal or true — opposite in meaning.
Step 3: The word nearest in meaning to mendacious is dishonest. Quick Tip: When finding synonyms, focus on the core meaning. "Mendacious" is related to dishonesty and lying, so "dishonest" is a correct synonym.
Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:
The gatekeeper said to him, ``Are you going to your House?''
View Solution
Let's analyze the transformation from direct to indirect speech:
Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and tense:
Reporting verb: ``said'' (past tense).
Step 2: Change the question in direct speech to an indirect question:
Direct question: ``Are you going to your House?''
In indirect speech, yes/no questions use ``if'' or ``whether''.
Step 3: Apply backshift in tense:
Present continuous ``are going'' changes to past continuous ``was going''.
Step 4: Change pronouns and possessives accordingly:
``your House'' changes to ``his house'' (since the gatekeeper is talking to ``him'').
Therefore, the correct indirect speech sentence is:
\textit{The gatekeeper asked him if he was going to his house. Quick Tip: When converting direct speech questions into indirect speech, remember to: - Use ``if'' or ``whether'' for yes/no questions. - Apply backshift in tense (present to past, etc.). - Change pronouns and possessives according to the context.
Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:
She said, ``I may buy a book on geography.''
View Solution
Let's analyze the conversion:
Step 1: Identify the reporting verb and tense:
Reporting verb: ``said'' (past tense).
Step 2: Modal verb ``may'' in direct speech changes to ``might'' in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past tense.
Step 3: Change pronouns as necessary:
``I'' changes to ``she''.
Step 4: Keep the rest of the sentence intact as it is.
Therefore, the correct indirect speech sentence is:
She said that she might buy a book on geography. Quick Tip: When converting direct speech with modal verbs like "may" into indirect speech with a past reporting verb, change "may" to "might" and adjust pronouns accordingly.
Convert the given sentence into direct speech:
He said that he did not like horror movies.
View Solution
Let's understand the transformation:
Step 1: The reported speech sentence is in the past tense: ``He said that he did not like horror movies.''
Step 2: When converting back to direct speech:
Change the verb tense back to present tense if the statement is generally true or still valid.
The pronoun ``he'' changes back to ``I'' as the speaker is now speaking directly.
Step 3: Therefore, the direct speech becomes:
\textit{He said, ``I do not like horror movies.'' Quick Tip: When converting indirect speech back to direct speech, remember to change pronouns appropriately and adjust verb tense to the original spoken tense, especially if the statement is still true.
Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
Her brother was with her THROUGH THICK AND THIN.
View Solution
Let's understand the idiom:
Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``through thick and thin'':
It means to stay with someone or support them during all kinds of difficulties and good times, no matter what happens.
Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:
``Her brother was with her through thick and thin'' means he supported her at all times, whether the situation was good or bad.
Therefore, the correct meaning is option (D): \textit{at all times both good and bad. Quick Tip: Idioms often convey meanings beyond the literal words. ``Through thick and thin'' means unwavering support through good and bad times.
Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
Most of the players of the team were at ODDS over the selection method.
View Solution
Let's understand the idiom:
Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``at odds'':
It means to be in disagreement or dispute about something.
Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:
``Most of the players were at odds over the selection method'' means the players disagreed or were in dispute about how the selection was done.
Therefore, the correct meaning is option (B): \textit{in dispute. Quick Tip: Idioms like ``at odds'' often indicate disagreement or conflict. Understanding idiomatic expressions in context helps improve vocabulary and comprehension.
Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
It will be wiser on our part to let the BYGONES BE BYGONES.
View Solution
Let's understand the idiom:
Step 1: Meaning of the idiom ``bygones be bygones'':
It means to forget past disagreements or offenses and move on.
Step 2: Analyzing the sentence:
``Let the bygones be bygones'' means it is better to ignore or forgive past issues rather than holding grudges.
Therefore, the correct meaning is option (D): \textit{ignore the past. Quick Tip: Idioms like ``bygones be bygones'' teach us about forgiveness and moving forward by letting go of past conflicts.
Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.
Trained workers are essential for the ---------------- functioning of the factory.
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence:
Step 1: Understand the meaning of the sentence:
The sentence means that trained workers are necessary for the proper or effective functioning of the factory.
Step 2: Meaning of the options:
Efficient: working well without wasting time or resources — fits perfectly.
Futile: pointless or useless — does not fit logically.
Fruitless: failing to achieve the desired result — unsuitable.
Hollow: empty or meaningless — not appropriate here.
Therefore, the best word to complete the sentence is efficient. Quick Tip: Understand the meaning of the sentence first, then choose a word that logically and grammatically fits the context.
Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.
He ---------- his sister saying that he would clear all her debts.
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence:
Step 1: Understand the context:
He is speaking to his sister, giving her confidence or removing her worries by saying he will clear her debts.
Step 2: Meaning of the options:
Startled, frightened, scared: all imply causing fear or surprise, which doesn't fit the positive reassurance in the sentence.
Reassured: to say or do something to remove doubts and fears — fits perfectly here.
Therefore, the correct word to complete the sentence is reassured. Quick Tip: Look for the context of the sentence to choose the best fitting word, especially in cases involving emotions or reactions.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Water is ----------- by chemicals and other wastes from industries.
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence:
Step 1: Understand the meaning of the sentence:
The sentence talks about water being affected negatively by chemicals and waste from industries.
Step 2: Meaning of the options:
Refined: improved by removing impurities — opposite of what happens here.
Polluted: contaminated or made dirty — fits correctly.
Filtered: passed through a filter to remove impurities — opposite context.
Purified: made pure — opposite context.
Therefore, the most appropriate word is polluted. Quick Tip: Look at the context carefully: if something is negatively affected, choose words like "polluted" or "contaminated"; for positive treatment, words like "purified" or "filtered" are used.
Find the correct preposition.
She is a doctor and she works ------------ night.
View Solution
Let's understand the use of prepositions with time:
Step 1: The preposition ``at'' is used to indicate specific times or periods such as ``at night,'' ``at noon,'' ``at midnight.''
Step 2: Other prepositions and their typical uses:
for: used to indicate duration (e.g., for two hours).
to: used to indicate direction or recipient.
with: used to indicate accompaniment.
Therefore, the correct preposition to use in the sentence is at. Quick Tip: Use ``at'' for specific times like ``at night,'' ``at noon,'' and ``at 5 o'clock.'' Other prepositions have different uses related to direction, duration, or accompaniment.
Find the correct preposition:
He is fond -------- his mother.
View Solution
Let's understand the correct preposition:
Step 1: The phrase ``fond of'' is a fixed expression in English used to show liking or affection for someone or something.
Step 2: None of the other prepositions (\textit{in, \textit{for, \textit{with) are used in this context.
Therefore, the correct preposition is of. Quick Tip: Certain adjectives are always followed by specific prepositions. ``Fond'' is always followed by ``of'' when expressing affection or liking.
The sweet is prepared -------- his neighbour.
View Solution
Let's understand the correct preposition:
Step 1: When talking about the person who performs an action, the preposition ``by'' is used in passive voice sentences.
Step 2: In the sentence, ``The sweet is prepared by his neighbour,'' the neighbour is the doer of the action.
Step 3: Other prepositions like ``with,'' ``to,'' or ``of'' do not correctly indicate the agent here.
Therefore, the correct preposition is by. Quick Tip: In passive sentences, use ``by'' to show the agent or doer of the action.
Change the sentence ``He plays chess'' into an interrogative sentence.
View Solution
Let's understand how to form an interrogative sentence from a statement in present simple tense:
Step 1: The statement is: ``He plays chess.''
Step 2: For the present simple tense, use the auxiliary verb ``does'' for questions with third person singular (he/she/it).
Step 3: The main verb ``play'' should be in its base form (without -s) when using ``does.''
Step 4: Therefore, the correct interrogative sentence is:
\textit{Does he play chess? Quick Tip: In present simple questions for he/she/it, always use ``does'' + base verb (without -s). For example: ``Does she like music?'' not ``Does she likes music?''
Change the sentence ``He could count the number of persons in the crowd'' into an interrogative sentence.
View Solution
Let's understand how to convert a statement with a modal verb into a question step-by-step:
Step 1: Identify the sentence structure
The sentence is:
\textit{He could count the number of persons in the crowd.
- Subject: \textit{He
- Modal verb: \textit{could
- Main verb: \textit{count
Step 2: Forming questions with modal verbs
For modal verbs like \textit{can, could, will, shall, may, etc., the question is formed by inverting the subject and the modal verb.
- Statement: \textit{He could count...
- Question: \textit{Could he count...?
Step 3: Keep the rest of the sentence unchanged
The rest of the sentence remains the same: \textit{the number of persons in the crowd.
Step 4: Putting it all together
The correct interrogative sentence is:
\textit{Could he count the number of persons in the crowd?
Why not the other options?
- Option (A) ``Who could count...'' changes the meaning by turning it into a question about the person, not a yes/no question about ability.
- Option (B) ``Anyone could count...'' is not a question, but a statement.
- Option (D) ``Can he count...'' uses present tense ``can'' instead of past tense ``could,'' so it does not match the original sentence tense.
Quick Tip: To form questions with modal verbs, remember to switch the modal and the subject. This inversion signals a question in English grammar.
A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).
A committee was established in the year
1967 and dissolved in
1985 as a measures of economy
View Solution
Let's analyze each part of the sentence for correctness:
Part A: ``A committee was established in the year''
- This part is grammatically correct.
Part B: ``1967 and dissolved in''
- This part correctly continues the sentence, indicating the year and the action.
Part C: ``1985 as a measures of economy''
- The phrase ``a measures'' is incorrect because \textit{measures is plural and should not be preceded by the singular article ``a''.
- The correct phrase should be ``1985 as a measure of economy'' (singular form ``measure'').
Therefore, the incorrect part is option (C). Quick Tip: Ensure subject-verb agreement and correct use of singular/plural forms, especially with articles like ``a'' which only go with singular nouns.
A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).
The central board of customs
deal with the tasks of
formulation of policies
View Solution
Let's analyze each part:
Part A: The central board of customs
- This part is correct as the subject.
Part B: deal with the tasks of
- This part is incorrect because the subject "The central board of customs" is singular, so the verb should be singular deals instead of deal.
Part C: formulation of policies
- This part is correct as the object phrase.
Therefore, the incorrect part is option (B). Quick Tip: Make sure the verb agrees in number with the subject. Singular subjects take singular verbs (e.g., "deals"), and plural subjects take plural verbs (e.g., "deal").
A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the sentence, choose the option (D).
View Solution
Let's analyze each part of the sentence carefully:
Part A: The Indian Institute of Science
- This part is correct and acts as the subject of the sentence.
Part B: offers research programme
- This part has an error. The word "programme" should be in the plural form "programmes" because it refers to more than one research program.
- The corrected phrase should be: offers research programmes.
Part C: in Physics
- This part is correct as it specifies the field of research.
Summary:
- Subject: The Indian Institute of Science (singular)
- Verb: offers (correct singular verb)
- Object: research programme (should be plural "programmes")
Therefore, the incorrect part is option (B). Quick Tip: Pay attention to singular and plural forms. When talking about multiple items or general categories, use the plural form. Here, "research programmes" is plural.
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: in maintaining
Q: the police force
R: is a vital force
S: law and order
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze the logical flow of the sentence parts.
Step 2: The subject should come first ("the police force"), followed by its description ("is a vital force"), then its purpose ("in maintaining law and order").
Step 3: This gives the order: Q → R → P → S (QRPS).
The complete sentence is:
"The police force is a vital force in maintaining law and order." Quick Tip: When rearranging sentence parts:
1. Identify the subject (typically comes first)
2. Look for subject-verb agreement
3. Connect phrases logically (purpose/action usually comes last)
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: taken major initiatives
Q: the Government of Kerala has
R: and implementation of e-governance
S: to accelerate the development
View Solution
Step 1: To form a coherent sentence, we need to arrange the parts logically.
- Start with Q: "the Government of Kerala has" — this sets the subject and verb.
- Follow with P: "taken major initiatives" — this completes the action of the subject.
- Next, use S: "to accelerate the development" — this provides the purpose of the initiatives.
- Finally, add R: "and implementation of e-governance" — this elaborates on what the development involves.
Thus, the arrangement QPSR forms: "The Government of Kerala has taken major initiatives to accelerate the development and implementation of e-governance." Quick Tip: When rearranging sentences, identify the subject and verb first, then look for the purpose or result, and finally add any additional details or conjunctions to complete the meaning.
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence: P: the problem of losses Q: in a time bound manner R: The States need to address S: in the power sector
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the subject and action. Part R, "The States need to address," provides the subject ("The States") and the action ("need to address"), making it a suitable starting point for the sentence.
Step 2: Determine the object of the action. Part P, "the problem of losses," logically follows as the object that the States need to address.
Step 3: Add context to the object. Part S, "in the power sector," describes the area where the problem of losses exists, so it follows P.
Step 4: Specify the manner of action. Part Q, "in a time bound manner," describes how the States should address the problem, fitting at the end.
Thus, the coherent sentence is: "The States need to address the problem of losses in the power sector in a time bound manner." This matches the order RPSQ, which is option D.
Quick Tip: When rearranging sentences, start by identifying the subject and verb to establish the sentence's core structure, then add details like objects, contexts, and modifiers in a logical flow.
Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence: P: school students Q: was held by R: a cultural event S: at the Meet
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the core action and subject. Part R, "a cultural event," and Part Q, "was held by," together form the core of the sentence, with "a cultural event" as the subject and "was held by" as the verb phrase. So, RQ ("a cultural event was held by") starts the sentence.
Step 2: Determine who held the event. Part P, "school students," logically follows as the group that held the event, making RQP ("a cultural event was held by school students").
Step 3: Add the location or context. Part S, "at the Meet," specifies where the event took place, fitting at the end. Thus, RQPS ("a cultural event was held by school students at the Meet") forms a coherent sentence, which matches option C.
Quick Tip: In sentence rearrangement, first identify the subject and verb to form the main clause, then attach additional details like location or time in a grammatically logical order.
Read the passage and answer the question:
``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''
This passage is primarily focused on
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the main theme of the passage. The passage begins by discussing "agglomeration economies" and their differences across various habitation sizes (market towns, medium-sized cities, larger cities, and metropolitan city regions).
Step 2: Analyze the focus of the content. It repeatedly emphasizes how agglomeration economies function—through scale economies, localization, urbanisation, and networking—and their role in driving productivity, innovation, and economic growth in metropolitan regions. While other elements like population density and economic activities are mentioned, they are in the context of agglomeration economies.
Step 3: Match with the options. Option A (development of cities) is too broad, option B (population in metropolitan cities) is a minor detail, and option C (general activities in urban areas) is not the primary focus. Option D (agglomeration economies) directly aligns with the passage's core theme, as it explores their types, effects, and significance. Thus, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: To identify the primary focus of a passage, look for the concept that is repeatedly emphasized and connects all other ideas, rather than focusing on secondary details.
Read the passage and answer the question:
``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''
Agglomeration economies mean?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the term "agglomeration economies" from the passage. The passage describes agglomeration economies as differing across habitations, with examples like scale economies (market towns), localisation economies (medium-sized cities), urbanisation economies (larger cities), and a combination of these in metropolitan regions.
Step 2: Analyze the characteristics. It highlights that metropolitan regions have "jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies," indicating a clustering of various economic activities (localisation, urbanisation, networking) that work together to boost productivity and innovation.
Step 3: Match with the options. Option A (national economies) is too broad, option B (a differentiation of different economies) focuses on differences rather than clustering, and option C (the agricultural economy) is too narrow. Option D (a lot of different economies gathered together) best captures the idea of diverse economic activities clustering and reinforcing each other, as described in the passage. Thus, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: When defining a term from a passage, focus on the context and examples provided to understand its meaning, then choose the option that best reflects the described concept.
Read the passage and answer the question:
``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and networking. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''
According to the passage, agglomeration economies differ due to?
View Solution
Step 1: Locate the relevant information in the passage. The passage states, "Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes," indicating that the differences in agglomeration economies are tied to the sizes of habitations.
Step 2: Relate habitation size to the options. Habitation size is directly connected to the population size, as larger habitations (like metropolitan city regions) have higher population densities, as noted in the passage ("Population densities in these regions are high").
Step 3: Evaluate the options. Option A (sizes of the population) aligns with the passage's emphasis on habitation size. Options B (literacy rate), C (policies of government), and D (taxes levied) are not mentioned as factors influencing agglomeration economies. Thus, the correct answer is A.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about a passage, focus on the exact phrasing of the text to identify the key factor, and avoid options that introduce unrelated concepts.
Read the passage and answer the question:
``Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs. Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in these regions are high.''
Which regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working?
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the relevant information in the passage. The passage states, "Metropolitan city regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working," directly addressing the question.
Step 2: Match with the options. Option D (Metropolitan city) aligns with the passage's statement. The other options—Medium sized city (A), Larger city (B), and Rural village (C)—are associated with different types of economies (localisation for medium-sized cities, urbanisation for larger cities, and none specified for rural villages), but only metropolitan cities are explicitly mentioned as offering all three: localisation, urbanisation, and networking.
Step 3: Confirm the answer. Since the passage explicitly names "Metropolitan city regions" as offering these benefits, the correct answer is D.
Quick Tip: When a question asks for a specific detail from a passage, look for the exact match in the text rather than inferring or overanalyzing other options.
Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `who does things for pleasure and not for money'.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the phrase "who does things for pleasure and not for money." This describes someone who engages in an activity for enjoyment rather than for financial gain.
Step 2: Analyze the options. A dramatist (A) is a playwright, typically a professional role. An actor (B) is usually a professional who performs for payment, though some may act for pleasure. A player (C) can refer to someone in sports or games, often with a competitive or professional connotation. An amateur (D) specifically refers to someone who does an activity for love or pleasure, not for money.
Step 3: Select the best match. The term "amateur" directly aligns with the definition of doing things for pleasure rather than money, making option D the correct answer.
Quick Tip: When choosing synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the phrase and match it with the option that best captures the intended definition.
Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `happening every second year'.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the meaning of the phrase. Let’s break down "happening every second year." The word "every" tells us it’s a regular event, and "second year" means it happens once every two years. For example, if an event happens in 2024, it will happen again in 2026, then 2028, and so on. So, we need a word that describes something occurring every two years.
Step 2: Look at each option and its meaning. Let’s go through the options one by one:
- (A) "twice" means something happens two times, but it doesn’t say anything about the time period. For example, you could go to the park twice in one day. This doesn’t match "every second year," so this is not correct.
- (B) "annual" means something happens every year, like a birthday or New Year’s Day. Since "every second year" means every two years, not every year, "annual" is not the right word.
- (C) "biennial" is a word that means happening every two years. For example, some festivals or meetings, like a biennial conference, occur once every two years. This matches the phrase "happening every second year," so this looks like the correct choice.
- (D) "fortnight" means a period of two weeks (14 days). This is a measure of time, but it’s not about something happening regularly every two years—it’s just a length of time. So, this doesn’t fit.
Step 3: Choose the best word. From the meanings, "biennial" (option C) is the word that means "happening every second year." The other words don’t fit the time pattern we’re looking for. Therefore, the correct answer is C, which is "biennial."
Quick Tip: When learning new words about time, think of examples in real life. For instance, "annual" is like a yearly school event, while "biennial" is like a sports event that happens every two years, such as the Ryder Cup golf tournament.
Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for `words inscribed on the tomb of the dead'.
View Solution
Step 1: Break down the phrase. Let’s understand what "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead" means. "Inscribed" means written or carved, and "tomb of the dead" refers to a grave or monument for someone who has passed away. So, we’re looking for a word that describes words written on a tomb to honor or remember the dead person.
Step 2: Look at each option carefully. Let’s go through the options one by one to find the best match:
- (A) "golden" refers to something made of gold or the color gold. This doesn’t describe words on a tomb—it’s more about material or appearance. For example, a "golden statue" is a statue made of gold. This doesn’t fit, so this option is incorrect.
- (B) "epitaph" is a word that means a short message or phrase written on a tombstone to remember the person who died. For example, an epitaph might say, "Loving father and friend, 1950–2020." This directly matches the idea of "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead," so this seems like the right choice.
- (C) "inscription" means any words that are written or carved on a surface, like on a monument, book, or even a trophy. While a tomb can have an inscription, this word is more general and doesn’t specifically refer to tombs of the dead. For example, a book might have an inscription that says, "To my best friend." It’s close, but not specific enough for this context.
- (D) "epigraph" sounds similar to "epitaph," but it’s different. An epigraph is a quote or saying written at the beginning of a book or chapter, often to set the theme. For example, a book might start with an epigraph like a famous quote from Shakespeare. This isn’t related to tombs or the dead, so this option is incorrect.
Step 3: Choose the best word. The phrase "words inscribed on the tomb of the dead" is best described by "epitaph," because an epitaph is specifically words written on a tomb to honor the deceased. "Inscription" (C) is a more general term, and the others don’t fit. Therefore, the correct answer is B, which is "epitaph."
Quick Tip: When choosing the best word, think about the specific context. For example, "epitaph" is for tombs, while "inscription" can be for many surfaces, and "epigraph" is for books or chapters.
Who is the first sportsperson who has received Bharat Ratna?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the question and the award. The question asks for the first sportsperson to receive the Bharat Ratna, which is India’s highest civilian award, given for exceptional service or performance. We need to find out which sportsperson was the first to get this honor.
Step 2: Think about what we know about the Bharat Ratna and sportspeople. The Bharat Ratna has been awarded to many famous people in India, but not many sportspersons have received it. Let’s look at the options and think about their achievements and when they might have received this award.
Step 3: Analyze each option one by one. Let’s go through the list of sportspersons:
- (A) Kapil Dev is a famous cricketer who led India to win the Cricket World Cup in 1983. He’s a legend in cricket, but he has not received the Bharat Ratna. He has received other awards like the Padma Bhushan, but not the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is not correct.
- (B) Virat Kohli is another famous cricketer, known for his amazing batting records. As of May 31, 2025, he’s still an active player and has won many awards, like the Padma Shri in 2017. However, he has not been awarded the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is also incorrect.
- (C) Sachin Tendulkar, often called the "God of Cricket," is one of India’s greatest sports icons. He has broken many records, like scoring 100 international centuries. Sachin received the Bharat Ratna in 2014, after he retired from cricket in 2013. This was a historic moment because he was the first sportsperson to receive this award. This option looks promising.
- (D) M.S. Dhoni is another cricket legend, known for leading India to win the 2007 T20 World Cup and the 2011 Cricket World Cup. He retired in 2020 and has received awards like the Padma Bhushan in 2018. However, as of May 31, 2025, he has not received the Bharat Ratna. So, this option is not correct.
Step 4: Confirm the first sportsperson. From the options, Sachin Tendulkar (option C) received the Bharat Ratna in 2014, and he was indeed the first sportsperson to get this award. No other sportsperson before him, including Kapil Dev, had received it, and neither Virat Kohli nor M.S. Dhoni have received it by 2025. Therefore, the correct answer is C, which is Sachin Tendulkar.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about awards, think about the timeline and historical significance. Sachin Tendulkar’s Bharat Ratna in 2014 was a big moment because he was the first sportsperson to receive it, and no one else from sports had been honored with it before him.
Who was the first Indian pilot?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand what the question is asking. The question wants us to identify the first Indian person who became a pilot, meaning the first Indian to fly an aircraft. We need to think about history and famous Indians associated with aviation.
Step 2: Think about the context of Indian aviation history. Aviation in India started in the early 20th century, so the first Indian pilot would likely be someone from that time. Let’s look at the options and see who fits this timeline and achievement.
Step 3: Analyze each option one by one. Let’s go through the list of people:
- (A) Rakesh Sharma is a well-known Indian astronaut, not a pilot in the traditional sense. He was the first Indian to go to space in 1984, aboard a Soviet spacecraft. Since he’s known for space travel, not for being the first pilot, this option is incorrect.
- (B) Neetu Gupta doesn’t appear to be a widely recognized name in Indian aviation history. There’s no record of a Neetu Gupta being the first Indian pilot. This name might be here to confuse us, so this option is likely incorrect.
- (C) Jayagan Bhagyathi is not a familiar name in the context of Indian aviation. The name doesn’t match any known historical figures in this field, and it might be misspelled or fictional for this question. Without any historical evidence, this option is incorrect.
- (D) JRD Tata, whose full name is Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy Tata, was a famous Indian industrialist and the founder of Tata Airlines (which later became Air India). JRD Tata was passionate about flying and became the first Indian to get a pilot’s license in 1929. On October 15, 1932, he flew a single-engine plane from Karachi to Mumbai, marking the first flight of Tata Airlines. Because of this, he is recognized as the first Indian pilot. This option looks correct.
Step 4: Confirm the first Indian pilot. JRD Tata (option D) earned his pilot’s license in 1929 and flew a historic flight in 1932, making him the first Indian pilot. Rakesh Sharma (A) is an astronaut, not the first pilot, and the other names (B and C) don’t have historical records in Indian aviation. Therefore, the correct answer is D, which is JRD Tata. Quick Tip: When answering history questions, think about the timeline. The first Indian pilot would be from the early days of aviation, around the 1920s or 1930s, so look for someone from that era who is known for flying.
The official language of the United Arab Emirates is
View Solution
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is a country located in the Arabian Peninsula. It is made up of seven emirates, including Dubai and Abu Dhabi. Each emirate follows the country's official policies, including the use of the official language.
Step 1: Understanding what "official language" means
The official language of a country is the language used by the government in official documents, laws, education, and formal communication.
Step 2: Identifying the official language of UAE
- Arabic is the official language of the UAE.
- Arabic is used in government documents, courts, schools, and public signage.
- This is because the UAE is an Arab country with deep cultural and historical roots tied to the Arabic language.
Step 3: Other languages spoken in UAE
- English is widely spoken as a second language, especially in business, tourism, and expatriate communities.
- Urdu and Persian are spoken by some expatriate populations but are not official languages.
Conclusion:
Though many languages are spoken in the UAE due to its diverse population, the only official language recognized by the government is Arabic. This means all official government communication is done in Arabic. Quick Tip: Remember that the "official language" of a country is the language used for government and formal matters, not necessarily the most commonly spoken language among all residents.
Which one of the following is associated with Dr. M. S. Swaminathan?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand who Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is.
Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is an Indian geneticist and agricultural scientist, widely regarded as the "Father of the Green Revolution in India."
He played a crucial role in introducing and promoting high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice during the 1960s.
Step 2: What is the Green Revolution?
The Green Revolution was a major movement in India aimed at increasing agricultural production by adopting modern techniques such as:
- Using high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds,
- Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides,
- Improved irrigation facilities,
- Use of mechanized tools and better crop management practices.
Step 3: Impact of the Green Revolution
Before the Green Revolution, India faced food shortages and had to rely on imports.
The Green Revolution helped India become self-sufficient in food grains, especially wheat and rice, leading to:
- Increased crop productivity,
- Food security,
- Reduction in hunger and famine risk,
- Boost to rural economy and livelihoods.
Step 4: Clarify other options for better understanding:
- White Revolution relates to the rapid increase in milk production, mainly due to the work of Dr. Verghese Kurien and Operation Flood.
- Red Revolution refers to an increase in meat production.
- Grey Revolution is associated with fish production.
Hence, Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is most closely associated with the Green Revolution. Quick Tip: To remember agricultural revolutions: - Green Revolution: Food grains (Dr. M. S. Swaminathan)
- White Revolution: Milk production (Dr. Verghese Kurien)
- Red Revolution: Meat production
- Grey Revolution: Fish production
Which one of the following is not a Union Territory of India?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the difference between Union Territories and States in India.
India is divided into States and Union Territories.
- States have their own governments with full legislative powers.
- Union Territories are governed directly by the Central Government of India, although some have their own legislatures with limited powers.
Step 2: Identify the options:
- NCT of Delhi (National Capital Territory of Delhi) is a Union Territory with a legislative assembly and partial state-like powers.
- Ladakh is a Union Territory formed in 2019 after the bifurcation of Jammu and Kashmir. It does not have a legislature.
- Puducherry is a Union Territory with a legislative assembly and partial powers.
- Manipur is a full-fledged State of India with its own government and legislative assembly.
Step 3: Conclusion:
Since Manipur is a State and not a Union Territory, it is the correct answer to this question. Quick Tip: Remember: - Union Territories are directly governed by the Central Government, though some have legislatures. - States have their own full governments. - Examples of Union Territories: Delhi, Ladakh, Puducherry, Chandigarh. - Manipur is a State, not a Union Territory.
The river Godavari does not drain the state of
View Solution
The question is cancelled because the river Godavari actually drains all the states listed.
- Godavari originates in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka. Quick Tip: Always cross-check river drainage areas carefully. If the question options cause confusion or contradict known facts, such questions are sometimes cancelled by exam authorities.
The Telangana state was formed by bifurcation on
View Solution
Step 1: Background of Telangana formation
Telangana was officially formed as the 29th state of India by bifurcating the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh.
This was a result of long-standing demand for a separate state due to cultural, economic, and political reasons.
Step 2: Date of formation
The Telangana Bill was passed by the Indian Parliament in February 2014.
Following this, the state of Telangana was officially formed on 2nd June 2014.
On this day, Telangana began functioning as a separate state with Hyderabad as its capital (shared temporarily with Andhra Pradesh).
Step 3: Importance of the date
2nd June, 2014 is celebrated annually as Telangana Formation Day to commemorate the creation of the new state. Quick Tip: Remember: Telangana was formed on 2nd June 2014 by bifurcating Andhra Pradesh, becoming the 29th state of India.
The 2024 Indian general election was held in Kerala to elect
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Lok Sabha and its seats
The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is the lower house of India's Parliament.
It is composed of representatives directly elected by the people of India from various parliamentary constituencies spread across the states and union territories.
Step 2: What determines the number of Lok Sabha seats per state?
The number of Lok Sabha seats allotted to each state depends primarily on its population size, as per the latest census data.
Larger states with higher populations have more constituencies and thus more representatives in the Lok Sabha.
This ensures proportional representation of the people in Parliament.
Step 3: Number of Lok Sabha seats from Kerala
Kerala is a state in southern India with a population of approximately 35 million (as per the 2011 Census).
Based on this population, Kerala is allocated 20 Lok Sabha constituencies.
Hence, Kerala elects 20 members to the Lok Sabha.
Step 4: The 2024 Indian general election in Kerala
In the 2024 general elections, voters in Kerala elected Members of Parliament (MPs) to all 20 Lok Sabha seats.
Each constituency elects one MP through a first-past-the-post voting system, where the candidate with the highest votes wins.
Step 5: Summary and significance
- The number of seats per state is fixed unless changed by delimitation or changes in population.
- Kerala’s 20 Lok Sabha seats reflect its demographic and political significance in the Indian Parliament.
- Elections held in Kerala in 2024 were to choose representatives for these 20 seats, influencing national legislation and governance.
Quick Tip: Remember: - Lok Sabha members are directly elected from constituencies.
- Number of seats per state depends on population.
- Kerala currently has 20 Lok Sabha seats.
- Elections determine who will represent these constituencies in Parliament.
Who was the Home Minister of India during Indo-Pakistan War of 1947?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the historical context
The Indo-Pakistan War of 1947, also called the First Kashmir War, was fought between India and Pakistan over the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir soon after India’s independence in 1947.
Step 2: Role of the Home Minister during the war
The Home Minister is a key cabinet position responsible for internal security, law and order, and managing domestic affairs including matters related to defense coordination in times of conflict.
Step 3: Identify the Home Minister of India during 1947
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister of independent India.
He played a crucial role during the integration of princely states into India and also during the Indo-Pakistan War of 1947.
Step 4: Contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel during the war
- Patel oversaw the administrative and military efforts to defend Jammu and Kashmir.
- His leadership was critical in organizing forces to respond to the invasion by tribal militias backed by Pakistan.
- He also worked on consolidating the Indian union by persuading princely states to accede to India. Quick Tip: Remember key leaders in Indian history: - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Home Minister during 1947. - Lal Bahadur Shastri became Home Minister later, in the 1960s. - G.B. Pant and Kailash Nath Katju served as Home Ministers at different times after independence.
The Indo-Pakistan War which led to the formation of the country Bangladesh, occurred in the year
View Solution
Step 1: Background of the conflict
The Indo-Pakistan War of 1971 was a significant military conflict between India and Pakistan.
It was mainly fought due to the political and humanitarian crisis in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh), which was part of Pakistan at that time.
Step 2: Cause of the war
East Pakistan sought independence due to economic and political disparities with West Pakistan.
The situation escalated into a civil war, and massive human rights violations took place, leading to a refugee crisis with millions fleeing to India.
Step 3: India’s involvement
India provided support to the Bangladeshi independence fighters (Mukti Bahini) and eventually intervened militarily in December 1971 to stop the refugee influx and protect its borders.
Step 4: Outcome of the war
The war lasted just 13 days, ending with the surrender of Pakistani forces in East Pakistan on December 16, 1971.
This led to the creation of Bangladesh as an independent country.
Step 5: Importance of the year 1971
The war and subsequent creation of Bangladesh occurred in 1971, making it a landmark year in South Asian history. Quick Tip: Remember: The 1971 Indo-Pakistan War was a short but decisive conflict that resulted in the birth of Bangladesh, changing the geopolitical landscape of South Asia.
The Line of Control, a military control line between the Indian and Pakistani Controlled parts of the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, was established as per
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Line of Control (LoC)
The Line of Control is the de facto border dividing Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir from Pakistani-administered areas.
It is a military control line, not an internationally recognized border, but functions as such.
Step 2: Historical background
After the Indo-Pakistan War of 1947-48, a ceasefire line was established, which was later redefined as the LoC following the 1971 war.
Step 3: The Simla Agreement
Signed in 1972 between India and Pakistan after the 1971 war, the Simla Agreement formalized the ceasefire line as the Line of Control.
It emphasized peaceful resolution of disputes and respect for the LoC by both sides.
Step 4: Importance of the agreement
The agreement aimed to reduce hostilities and create a framework for bilateral talks.
It remains the guiding document for India-Pakistan relations regarding Kashmir. Quick Tip: Remember: The Line of Control was formalized under the 1972 Simla Agreement to maintain peace and define military boundaries in Jammu and Kashmir.
The Indian Economist Amartya Sen has won the Nobel Prize in the year 1998 for his works in
View Solution
Step 1: About Amartya Sen
Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher known for his work in welfare economics, social choice theory, and development economics.
Step 2: Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences
He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to understanding poverty, famine, and welfare economics.
Step 3: Impact of his work
Sen's research emphasized the role of freedom, social welfare, and ethical considerations in economics.
His work influenced global policies on poverty alleviation and human development. Quick Tip: Remember: Amartya Sen won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his groundbreaking work on welfare economics and social justice.
The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation is located at
View Solution
Step 1: About the World Trade Organisation (WTO)
The WTO is an international organization that regulates trade between countries to ensure smooth and fair trade practices globally.
Step 2: Location of WTO headquarters
The headquarters of the WTO is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Geneva is an important center for international diplomacy and hosts many global organizations.
Step 3: Role of WTO
WTO sets the rules for international trade, resolves disputes between member countries, and promotes trade liberalization. Quick Tip: Remember: The WTO’s global headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland, which is a hub for international organizations.
The International Court of Justice was established in the year
View Solution
Step 1: About the International Court of Justice (ICJ)
The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
It settles legal disputes between countries and gives advisory opinions on international legal questions.
Step 2: Establishment of ICJ
The ICJ was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations, replacing the Permanent Court of International Justice.
It began functioning in 1946 and is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands.
Step 3: Importance of ICJ
The ICJ promotes peaceful resolution of disputes and helps maintain international law and order. Quick Tip: Remember: The ICJ was established in 1945 as the UN’s top court to ensure justice and peace among nations.
UNESCO stands for
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the acronym UNESCO
UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.
Step 2: Purpose of UNESCO
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at promoting international collaboration in education, science, culture, and communication.
Its mission includes promoting peace, sustainable development, and intercultural dialogue through these fields.
Step 3: Key functions
- Protecting world heritage sites
- Supporting education for all
- Promoting freedom of expression and scientific cooperation
Quick Tip: Remember the full form of UNESCO as it reflects its wide range of activities in education, science, and culture at the global level.
The regions in space where an enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume are called as
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding mass and volume in space
In space, some regions contain an extremely large amount of mass concentrated into a very small volume.
Step 2: What are black holes?
These regions are known as black holes. They have such strong gravitational pull that nothing, not even light, can escape from them.
Step 3: Formation of black holes
Black holes are often formed from the remnants of massive stars after they collapse under their own gravity at the end of their life cycle.
Quick Tip: Remember: Black holes are space regions with mass packed so densely that their gravity prevents even light from escaping.
Which one of the following is not true?
View Solution
Step 1: Earth’s position in the solar system
Earth is the third planet from the Sun. This is true.
Step 2: Earth hosting life
Currently, Earth is the only known place in the Universe that supports life. This is accepted as true based on current scientific knowledge.
Step 3: Earth’s size ranking
Earth is the fifth largest planet in the solar system — this is not true.
Earth is actually the fifth largest by size if we consider the order: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, then Earth. This matches the statement but contradicts the common phrasing. Actually, Earth is the fifth largest planet, so the statement seems true. However, the given correct answer marks (C) as not true. Possibly because Earth is the fifth largest planet by diameter, so it should be true.
Step 4: Earth’s orbit and day-night cycle
Earth orbits the Sun, causing day and night — this is true.
Step 5: Explanation
There seems to be confusion here; the correct answer marked is (C) as false. Earth is indeed the fifth largest planet by size in the solar system (after Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune). Possibly the question intends to mark (B) or (D) false based on context, but as per the original instruction, we accept (C) as incorrect.
Quick Tip: Recall the order of planets by size: Jupiter > Saturn > Uranus > Neptune > Earth. Earth is fifth largest. Verify statements carefully for correctness.
Earth's atmosphere contains
View Solution
Step 1: Composition of Earth's atmosphere
Earth’s atmosphere is primarily made up of nitrogen and oxygen gases, with small amounts of other gases.
Step 2: Percentage of gases
- Nitrogen constitutes about 78% of the atmosphere.
- Oxygen makes up around 21%.
- The remaining 1% consists of other gases such as argon, carbon dioxide, neon, and trace gases.
Step 3: Importance of this composition
- Nitrogen is inert and provides a stable environment.
- Oxygen is essential for respiration by living organisms.
- Other gases play roles in climate and life support. Quick Tip: Remember the major components of Earth's atmosphere: 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% other gases.
Who is considered as the "founding father" of space programmes in India?
View Solution
Step 1: About Indian space programme
India’s space programme began in the 1960s, aiming to use space technology for national development.
Step 2: Role of Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai
Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai is recognized as the founding father of the Indian space programme.
He established the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), which later became ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation).
Step 3: Contributions of Dr. Sarabhai
- Pioneered India’s first satellite launch vehicle development.
- Promoted space research for practical applications like communication and meteorology.
Step 4: Other notable figures
- Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam contributed as a scientist and leader in rocket technology.
- Satish Dhawan was the chairman of ISRO who expanded the programme.
Quick Tip: Remember: Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai is the founding father of India’s space programme, laying the foundation for future successes.
The National Remote Sensing centre of ISRO is located in
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Step 1: About the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
NRSC is a key centre of ISRO responsible for acquiring and processing satellite data for applications in agriculture, forestry, water resources, and disaster management.
Step 2: Location of NRSC
The NRSC is located in Hyderabad, Telangana.
It serves as a hub for remote sensing satellite data reception and processing.
Step 3: Importance of NRSC
NRSC plays a critical role in managing India's satellite data resources and providing information services for development and planning. Quick Tip: Remember: The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) of ISRO is situated in Hyderabad.
The first National Law University established in 1986, the National Law School of India University is located in
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding National Law Universities (NLUs)
National Law Universities are specialized institutions dedicated to providing high-quality legal education in India.
They follow a unique curriculum and focus on training students in various branches of law.
Step 2: Establishment of the first NLU
The National Law School of India University (NLSIU) was established in 1986 as the very first NLU in India.
It was created to improve legal education standards and produce skilled legal professionals.
Step 3: Location of NLSIU
NLSIU is located in Bengaluru, the capital city of Karnataka.
Bengaluru is known as the "Silicon Valley of India" and is a hub for education and technology.
Step 4: Importance of NLSIU
NLSIU set a benchmark for legal studies in India and inspired the establishment of many more NLUs across the country.
It has produced many notable lawyers, judges, and legal scholars. Quick Tip: Remember: The first National Law University, NLSIU, was established in Bengaluru in 1986 to revolutionize legal education in India.
The National level entrance examination, CLAT stands for
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Step 1: What is CLAT?
CLAT stands for the Common Law Admission Test. It is the national level entrance exam for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate law programs in National Law Universities and other participating institutions in India.
Step 2: Purpose of CLAT
The exam assesses candidates’ abilities in areas such as English language, legal aptitude, logical reasoning, general knowledge, and mathematics.
Step 3: Importance of CLAT
CLAT provides a common platform to ensure fair and transparent selection of candidates into premier law schools, making the admission process streamlined across the country.
Step 4: When and who conducts CLAT?
CLAT is usually conducted once a year by a consortium of National Law Universities, with the hosting responsibility rotating among them. Quick Tip: Remember: CLAT means Common Law Admission Test — a key exam for law aspirants seeking admission in top law schools in India.
Which one of the following is known as quicksilver?
View Solution
Step 1: What is quicksilver?
Quicksilver is a common name for the element mercury because of its liquid and shiny silver appearance at room temperature.
Step 2: Unique properties of mercury
Mercury is the only metal that remains liquid at room temperature. It has a metallic luster and flows easily, resembling quicksilver.
Step 3: Uses of mercury
It is widely used in thermometers, barometers, fluorescent lamps, and some electrical switches due to its unique physical properties.
Step 4: Safety aspects
Mercury is toxic and needs to be handled carefully to avoid poisoning. Quick Tip: Remember: Mercury is called quicksilver because it is a silvery liquid metal that flows quickly at room temperature.
The United States of America is a federal republic of
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the federal structure of the USA
The United States of America is a federal republic, meaning it has a division of powers between the central government and individual states.
Step 2: Number of states in the USA
The USA currently comprises 50 states. Each state has its own government, laws, and constitution within the framework of the federal constitution.
Step 3: Role of states in the federal system
States have authority over local matters such as education, transportation, and law enforcement, while the federal government handles national issues.
Step 4: Historical context
Initially, the USA started with 13 colonies, which grew over time to 50 states through territorial expansion and admission of new states. Quick Tip: Remember: The United States of America consists of 50 states, each with considerable autonomy under the federal system.
One of the bio-diversity hotspots in the world is the
View Solution
Step 1: What is a biodiversity hotspot?
A biodiversity hotspot is a region rich in plant and animal species, many of which are endemic, and is under threat from human activities.
Step 2: About Silent Valley
Silent Valley is a tropical evergreen forest located in the Palakkad district of Kerala. It is famous for its rich biodiversity and pristine environment.
Step 3: Importance of Silent Valley
It houses many rare and endangered species of flora and fauna, contributing significantly to ecological balance.
Step 4: Conservation status
Silent Valley has been declared a National Park to protect its unique ecosystem and biodiversity from deforestation and other threats. Quick Tip: Remember: Silent Valley National Park in Palakkad is a globally recognized biodiversity hotspot and an ecological treasure of Kerala.
The author of the book Randamoozham in Malayalam is
View Solution
Step 1: About Randamoozham
Randamoozham is a celebrated Malayalam novel that retells the epic Mahabharata from the viewpoint of Bhima, one of its central characters.
Step 2: Author
The novel was authored by M.T. Vasudevan Nair, a legendary writer in Malayalam literature and a recipient of numerous literary awards including the Jnanpith Award.
Step 3: Literary significance
Randamoozham is praised for its fresh perspective, humanizing mythological characters, and its narrative style. It has had a lasting impact on Malayalam literature and culture. Quick Tip: Remember: Randamoozham, a retelling of the Mahabharata, was written by the eminent Malayalam author M.T. Vasudevan Nair.
The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is
View Solution
Step 1: Capital Cities in India
Every state in India has a designated capital city, which acts as the administrative headquarters where the government offices and legislative assembly are located.
Step 2: About Arunachal Pradesh
Arunachal Pradesh is one of the northeastern states of India, known for its rich tribal culture and scenic landscapes. It shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar.
Step 3: Capital of Arunachal Pradesh
The capital city of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar. This city is the political and administrative center of the state.
Itanagar hosts the state secretariat, the legislative assembly, and various government institutions.
Step 4: Importance of Itanagar
Apart from its administrative role, Itanagar is also a cultural hub, showcasing diverse tribes and traditions. It acts as a gateway for tourism in the region. Quick Tip: Remember: Itanagar is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, located in the northeastern region of India and serving as its administrative center.
The product of three consecutive positive integers is 2184. Then the sum of the three positive numbers is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Consecutive Integers
Consecutive positive integers are numbers that follow each other in order, increasing by 1 each time, such as 3, 4, 5 or 10, 11, 12.
Step 2: Defining the Integers
Let the three consecutive positive integers be: \[ n, \quad n+1, \quad n+2, \]
where \( n \) is a positive integer.
Step 3: Writing the Product Equation
Given their product is 2184, we write: \[ n \times (n+1) \times (n+2) = 2184. \]
Step 4: Solving the Equation by Trial
Since \( n \) is positive and the product is relatively large, try values around the cube root of 2184, which is about 13.
Check \( n=12 \): \[ 12 \times 13 \times 14 = 12 \times 182 = 2184, \]
which satisfies the condition.
Step 5: Finding the Sum
Now, find the sum of these integers: \[ 12 + 13 + 14 = 39. \]
Step 6: Conclusion
Thus, the sum of the three consecutive positive integers whose product is 2184 is 39. Quick Tip: To solve problems involving consecutive integers, express the numbers algebraically and test plausible values to satisfy given conditions.
A gardener wants to arrange 1296 plants in rows and columns. If the number of rows and columns of the arrangement is equal, then the number of rows in the arrangement of plants is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Square Arrangements
When plants are arranged in equal rows and columns, the arrangement forms a perfect square layout. This means the total number of plants is a perfect square number.
Step 2: Defining the Number of Rows and Columns
Let the number of rows = number of columns = \( x \).
Step 3: Writing the Equation
The total plants arranged will be: \[ x \times x = x^2 = 1296. \]
Step 4: Finding \( x \)
To find \( x \), take the square root of both sides: \[ x = \sqrt{1296}. \]
Calculate: \[ x = 36, \]
since \(36 \times 36 = 1296.\)
Step 5: Conclusion
Therefore, the gardener should arrange the plants in 36 rows and 36 columns. Quick Tip: For arrangements in equal rows and columns, find the square root of the total number to determine the number of rows/columns.
A person bought an item for Rs. 21000. He sold it for Rs. 18900. The loss percentage is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Cost Price and Selling Price
The Cost Price (CP) is the price at which an item is purchased.
The \textit{Selling Price (SP) is the price at which the item is sold.
Step 2: Identifying the given values
\[ CP = Rs. 21000, \quad SP = Rs. 18900. \]
Step 3: Calculating Loss
Loss occurs if the selling price is less than the cost price: \[ Loss = CP - SP = 21000 - 18900 = Rs. 2100. \]
Step 4: Calculating Loss Percentage
Loss percentage is given by: \[ Loss % = \left( \frac{Loss{CP} \right) \times 100 = \left( \frac{2100}{21000} \right) \times 100 = 10%. \]
Step 5: Conclusion
The person incurred a loss of 10%. Quick Tip: Loss or profit percentages are always calculated on the cost price. Use the formula carefully.
The very next number in the sequence 5, 10, 40, 320, ... is
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Number Sequences
A number sequence is an ordered list of numbers following a particular pattern or rule. The goal is to find the next term based on the pattern.
Step 2: Analyze the given sequence
Sequence: \[ 5, \quad 10, \quad 40, \quad 320, \quad ... \]
Find the pattern by checking the ratios between terms: \[ \frac{10}{5} = 2, \quad \frac{40}{10} = 4, \quad \frac{320}{40} = 8. \]
The multipliers are doubling each time: 2, 4, 8.
Step 3: Predict the next multiplier
Following the pattern, the next multiplier should be: \[ 8 \times 2 = 16. \]
Step 4: Calculate the next term
Multiply the last term by 16: \[ 320 \times 16 = 5120. \]
Step 5: Conclusion
The next number in the sequence is 5120. Quick Tip: Look for consistent multiplication or addition patterns to find the next term in a number sequence.
The sum of the numbers 12, 24, 36, 48, ......, 120 is
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the sequence
The numbers form an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with first term \( a = 12 \), common difference \( d = 12 \).
Step 2: Find the number of terms (\( n \))
Last term \( l = 120 \). The nth term formula is: \[ l = a + (n-1)d. \]
Substitute values: \[ 120 = 12 + (n-1) \times 12 \implies 120 - 12 = 12(n-1) \implies 108 = 12(n-1) \implies n - 1 = 9 \implies n = 10. \]
Step 3: Use sum formula for arithmetic progression
Sum of \( n \) terms is: \[ S_n = \frac{n}{2} (a + l) = \frac{10}{2} (12 + 120) = 5 \times 132 = 660. \]
Step 4: Conclusion
The sum of the given numbers is 660. Quick Tip: Remember: For an arithmetic progression, use \( S_n = \frac{n}{2}(a + l) \) to find the sum quickly.
The average score of a cricketer in his 10 innings is 45 runs. If he has scored 70 runs in another 3 innings, then the average score of the player is
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the average concept
Average score = Total runs scored / Number of innings played.
Step 2: Calculate total runs in first 10 innings
Average in first 10 innings = 45 runs, so total runs = \( 10 \times 45 = 450 \) runs.
Step 3: Calculate total runs after 13 innings
Runs scored in next 3 innings = 70 runs.
Total runs after 13 innings = \( 450 + 70 = 520 \) runs.
Step 4: Calculate new average
New average \( = \frac{520}{13} = 40 \) runs.
Step 5: Conclusion
The average score after 13 innings is 40 runs. Quick Tip: When calculating new averages, find total sums first, then divide by the total number of items.
X can do a work in 10 days. X and Y both together can do the same work in 6 days. Then Y alone can do the work in
View Solution
Step 1: Define work rates
X's work rate = \(\frac{1}{10}\) work/day (since X completes work in 10 days).
X and Y's combined work rate = \(\frac{1}{6}\) work/day.
Step 2: Find Y's work rate
Y's work rate = (X and Y's rate) - X's rate \[ = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{10} = \frac{5 - 3}{30} = \frac{2}{30} = \frac{1}{15}. \]
Step 3: Find time taken by Y alone
Y alone can do the work in \(\frac{1}{Y's rate} = 15\) days.
Step 4: Conclusion
Y alone can do the work in 15 days. Quick Tip: Work rates add when people work together; use reciprocal of time to find rates and calculate unknowns.
Rs. 24000 has to be shared between A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. Then B will get
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the ratio
A and B share the amount in the ratio 7:5, meaning for every 12 parts (7+5), A gets 7 parts and B gets 5 parts.
Step 2: Calculate B's share
Total amount = Rs. 24000.
Value of one part = \(\frac{24000}{7+5} = \frac{24000}{12} = 2000\).
B's share = \(5 \times 2000 = 10000\).
Step 3: Conclusion
B will get Rs. 10000. Quick Tip: In ratio problems, sum the parts, divide the total by this sum to find the value of one part, then multiply by the required number of parts.
The smallest number among the fractions 14/15, 13/15, 11/15, 9/15 is
View Solution
Step 1: Understand fractions with common denominators
All fractions have the same denominator 15, so their sizes depend on numerators.
Step 2: Compare numerators
Numerators are 14, 13, 11, and 9. Among these, 9 is the smallest.
Step 3: Conclusion
Hence, \(\frac{9}{15}\) is the smallest fraction. Quick Tip: For fractions with the same denominator, compare numerators directly to determine the smallest or largest fraction.
A can do a work in 8 days and B can do the same work in 16 days. If A, B and C can together do the same work in 4 days, then C can do the work in
View Solution
Step 1: Find individual work rates
A's rate = \(\frac{1}{8}\) work/day.
B's rate = \(\frac{1}{16}\) work/day.
Step 2: Find combined rate of A, B and C
Combined rate = \(\frac{1}{4}\) work/day.
Step 3: Find C's rate
\[ C's rate = combined rate - A's rate - B's rate = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{16}. \]
Find a common denominator (16): \[ = \frac{4}{16} - \frac{2}{16} - \frac{1}{16} = \frac{4 - 2 - 1}{16} = \frac{1}{16}. \]
Step 4: Find time taken by C
Time = reciprocal of work rate = 16 days.
Step 5: Conclusion
C alone can do the work in 16 days. Quick Tip: Use the concept of work rates and subtract known rates from the total to find unknown individual rates.
If RUCH is coded as QTBG, then MNOP corresponds to
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the given coding
RUCH is coded as QTBG. Let us examine the letter shifts from RUCH to QTBG.
Step 2: Analyze letter by letter
- R (18th letter) to Q (17th letter): shift -1
- U (21st letter) to T (20th letter): shift -1
- C (3rd letter) to B (2nd letter): shift -1
- H (8th letter) to G (7th letter): shift -1
Step 3: Apply the same rule to MNOP
M (13th) → L (12th)
N (14th) → M (13th)
O (15th) → N (14th)
P (16th) → O (15th)
Step 4: Write the coded word
MNOP → LMNO.
Step 5: Conclusion
The code for MNOP is LMNO. Quick Tip: In letter coding, analyze the shift pattern between letters carefully and apply the same shift to decode or encode new words.
A man walks 24 km distance straight from a place X and reach another place Y in the Eastern direction. At Y, he turns 90 degrees and walks straight towards North to reach the Place Z which is 7 km from Y. The distance between X and Z is
View Solution
Step 1: Visualizing the path
The man walks 24 km east from X to Y.
From Y, he walks 7 km north to Z.
Step 2: Identify the triangle
The journey from X to Z forms a right-angled triangle with legs:
- \(XY = 24\) km (east direction)
- \(YZ = 7\) km (north direction)
Step 3: Find the direct distance (hypotenuse)
Distance \(XZ\) is the hypotenuse: \[ XZ = \sqrt{XY^2 + YZ^2} = \sqrt{24^2 + 7^2} = \sqrt{576 + 49} = \sqrt{625} = 25 km. \]
Step 4: Conclusion
The straight-line distance between X and Z is 25 km. Quick Tip: Use the Pythagoras theorem to find distances in right-angled paths involving east and north directions.
In a certain coding system, the word MODEL is coded as JLABI, then ENERGY is given by
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the coding for MODEL → JLABI
Let us compare the letters and their positions in the alphabet:
\begin{tabular{c|c|c|c
Letter & Position & Coded Letter & Position
\hline
M & 13 & J & 10
O & 15 & L & 12
D & 4 & A & 1
E & 5 & B & 2
L & 12 & I & 9
\end{tabular
Step 2: Determine the pattern
Observe the shift from original to coded letter: \[ M(13) \to J(10): -3
O(15) \to L(12): -3
D(4) \to A(1): -3
E(5) \to B(2): -3
L(12) \to I(9): -3 \]
Each letter is shifted 3 places backward in the alphabet.
Step 3: Apply same coding to ENERGY
Letters and positions:
\[ E(5), N(14), E(5), R(18), G(7), Y(25). \]
Shift each letter 3 places backward: \[ E \to B(2), \quad N \to K(11), \quad E \to B(2), \quad R \to O(15), \quad G \to D(4), \quad Y \to V(22). \]
Step 4: Write coded word
ENERGY → BKBODV.
Step 5: Conclusion
Hence, ENERGY is coded as BKBODV. Quick Tip: In letter coding problems, check alphabetical positions and find consistent shifts to decode or encode words.
Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.
Statements:
1. Mathematics is essential for all subjects.
2. Statistics is applied in Economics.
Conclusions:
I. Mathematics is not needed in Sociology.
II. Economics is applied in Statistics.
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze Statement 1 and Conclusion I
Statement 1 says \textit{Mathematics is essential for all subjects, meaning every subject requires mathematics.
Conclusion I says \textit{Mathematics is not needed in Sociology, which contradicts Statement 1.
Since the conclusion contradicts the true statement, conclusion I does not follow.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 2 and Conclusion II
Statement 2 says \textit{Statistics is applied in Economics, meaning economics uses statistics.
Conclusion II says \textit{Economics is applied in Statistics, which reverses the relationship and is not implied by the statement.
So, conclusion II does not follow either.
Step 3: Final decision
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II logically follows from the given statements. Quick Tip: In reasoning questions, carefully check if conclusions are directly supported or contradicted by statements before choosing the correct option.
Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.
Statements:
1. Some animals are mammals.
2. All animals are not herbivorous.
Conclusions:
I. Some animals are herbivorous.
II. All animals are mammals.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand Statement 1
"Some animals are mammals" means that a certain portion of animals belong to the mammal category, but it does not imply all animals are mammals.
Step 2: Understand Statement 2
"All animals are not herbivorous" means that not every animal is herbivorous; some animals may be herbivorous while others are not.
Step 3: Analyze Conclusion I
"Some animals are herbivorous" logically follows from Statement 2, because if all animals are not herbivorous, it means at least some animals are herbivorous.
Step 4: Analyze Conclusion II
"All animals are mammals" contradicts Statement 1, which says only some animals are mammals. Therefore, Conclusion II does not follow.
Step 5: Final decision
Only Conclusion I logically follows from the given statements. Quick Tip: Remember: "Some" indicates a part of the whole, "All" indicates the entire set; be careful in interpreting negations like "All are not."
The Fundamental Rights are contained in
View Solution
Step 1: Structure of the Constitution of India
The Constitution is divided into various parts that cover different subjects like fundamental rights, directive principles, and governance.
Step 2: What are Fundamental Rights?
Fundamental Rights are basic human rights guaranteed to every citizen to ensure equality, freedom, and justice.
Step 3: Location of Fundamental Rights
These rights are enumerated in Part-III of the Constitution of India.
Step 4: Importance
Part-III protects citizens from any arbitrary state action and preserves democratic values. Quick Tip: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part-III of the Constitution of India, serving as a safeguard for citizens' liberties.
The MGNREGA provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in
View Solution
Step 1: What is MGNREGA?
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is a social security scheme that aims to provide livelihood security by guaranteeing wage employment to rural households.
Step 2: Guarantee of employment
It guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every willing adult member of rural households who seeks unskilled manual work.
Step 3: Focus on rural households
MGNREGA specifically targets rural areas to alleviate poverty and create sustainable rural infrastructure.
Step 4: Significance
This act empowers rural populations by providing them work and income security. Quick Tip: MGNREGA ensures 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year, exclusively for rural household members willing to work.
Alimony refers to
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of Alimony
Alimony is a legal obligation where one spouse provides financial support to the other after separation or divorce.
Step 2: Purpose of alimony
It helps the spouse or former spouse maintain financial stability and livelihood post-separation, especially if they were dependent.
Step 3: Legal framework
Courts decide alimony based on various factors such as duration of marriage, income, and needs of the recipient spouse.
Step 4: Distinguishing from other payments
Alimony is not a penalty or compensation related to accidents or custodial death, but financial support post marital separation. Quick Tip: Alimony is a court-ordered payment made to a spouse or former spouse after separation or divorce to provide financial support.
Arbitration means
View Solution
Possible Reason for Cancellation:
The question may have been cancelled due to ambiguity or incorrect options that could confuse examinees.
For example, option (A) mentions "a referee appointed by the court," but in arbitration, the arbitrator is usually mutually agreed upon by parties, not necessarily appointed by the court.
Such ambiguity in definition can lead to unfair evaluation, prompting cancellation by the exam authority. Quick Tip: Questions with ambiguous wording or incorrect facts are often cancelled to maintain fairness in exams.
An examination of a dead body to find the cause of death is known as
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of Autopsy
An autopsy is a thorough medical examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death and to evaluate any disease or injury that may be present. This procedure is usually performed by a forensic pathologist.
Step 2: Purpose of Autopsy
Autopsies are conducted to understand the exact reasons behind unexplained or suspicious deaths. They help in criminal investigations, medical research, and sometimes in confirming medical diagnoses.
Step 3: Distinguishing from Related Terms
- A biopsy refers to the removal of tissue from a living person for diagnostic examination.
- A file or report are documents, not medical procedures.
Step 4: Significance in Law and Medicine
Autopsy reports provide crucial legal evidence in many cases and assist doctors in understanding disease progressions, improving future treatments. Quick Tip: Autopsy is a post-mortem medical examination essential for finding the cause of death, unlike biopsy which is performed on living tissues.
The Constitution of India was framed by the
View Solution
Step 1: What is the Constituent Assembly?
The Constituent Assembly of India was a body elected to draft the Constitution of India. It was formed in 1946 and comprised representatives elected by the provincial assemblies.
Step 2: Role in framing the Constitution
This assembly debated various provisions, ensuring representation of diverse regions and communities. It prepared the Constitution that came into force on January 26, 1950.
Step 3: Clarifying other options
- A group of experts provided advice but did not frame the Constitution alone.
- The Law Commission reviews laws but was not responsible for the original Constitution.
- Princely states were represented but did not frame the Constitution independently.
Step 4: Importance of the Assembly
The Constituent Assembly laid the foundation of India's democratic governance system and fundamental legal framework. Quick Tip: The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, which represented the people of India through elected delegates.
The words socialist and secular were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Preamble
The Preamble of the Constitution declares the objectives and guiding principles of the Indian Republic, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
Step 2: Addition of "Socialist" and "Secular"
In 1976, during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment was enacted. It added the terms "socialist" and "secular" to the Preamble to emphasize India's commitment to social and economic equality and religious neutrality.
Step 3: Significance of the Amendment
- Socialist indicates the state's responsibility to reduce inequality.
- Secular highlights that India has no official religion and respects all religions equally.
Step 4: Broader Impact
This amendment reinforced the constitutional vision to build a just society where citizens enjoy equal rights and freedoms irrespective of caste, creed, or religion. Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) enriched the Constitution by adding "socialist" and "secular" to the Preamble, reflecting India's socio-political values.
The President of India can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the
View Solution
Step 1: Constitutional provision for resignation
According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution, the President may resign at any time by submitting a written resignation to the Vice-President of India.
Step 2: Role of the Vice-President
The Vice-President is the second highest constitutional authority and succeeds the President in case of vacancy.
Step 3: Importance of this provision
This procedure ensures a clear and formal mechanism for presidential resignation and orderly transition.
Step 4: Clarification on other options
The resignation letter is not addressed to the Prime Minister, Speaker, or Chief Justice, as per constitutional mandate. Quick Tip: The President submits resignation letters to the Vice-President, who is next in line for the office.
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Eighth Schedule
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it contained 14 languages but has been expanded over time to include 22 languages.
Step 2: Importance of the Schedule
This schedule aims to promote and protect linguistic diversity and ensure official recognition of multiple languages spoken across India.
Step 3: Clarification on other options
- Salaries of Prime Minister and President are not covered under the Eighth Schedule but in other legal provisions.
- The list of States and Union Territories is not part of the Constitution’s schedules but governed by separate laws. Quick Tip: Remember: The Eighth Schedule officially recognizes and protects various Indian languages.
The President of India can act in his discretion and dissolve the Lok Sabha if
View Solution
Step 1: President’s discretionary powers
The President normally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in certain circumstances, he can act at his discretion.
Step 2: Losing majority in Lok Sabha
If the Council of Ministers loses the majority in the Lok Sabha and no alternative government can be formed, the President may dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for fresh elections.
Step 3: Other options
Vice-President, Speaker, or Chief Justice do not have formal roles in recommending dissolution of Lok Sabha.
Step 4: Significance
This ensures the government reflects the will of the elected majority and maintains democratic accountability. Quick Tip: The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at discretion mainly when the ruling government loses majority support.
Who stated: "If any functionary under our Constitution is to be compared with the U.S. President, he is the Prime Minister and not the President of the Union"?
View Solution
Step 1: Context of the statement
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, distinguished between the Indian and U.S. systems of governance.
Step 2: Explanation of the statement
In India’s parliamentary system, the Prime Minister holds executive powers similar to those of the U.S. President, who is both head of state and government in a presidential system.
Step 3: Importance
This highlights the parliamentary nature of India’s government where the President is largely ceremonial, and real executive power lies with the Prime Minister. Quick Tip: Dr. Ambedkar clarified that India’s Prime Minister resembles the U.S. President’s executive role, not the Indian President.
Which one of the following is not true?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the President’s roles
- The President is the constitutional head of state and the first citizen of India.
- The President is also the nominal head of the executive, with real powers exercised by the Council of Ministers.
Step 2: About the President Secretariat
The President Secretariat assists the President in official functions and is headed by the Secretary to the President, not the Cabinet Secretary.
Step 3: About the Cabinet Secretary
The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant who heads the Cabinet Secretariat and acts as the chief coordinator of government administration, but does not head the President Secretariat.
Step 4: Conclusion
Statement (D) is incorrect; the President Secretariat is not headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Quick Tip: Remember: The President Secretariat is headed by the Secretary to the President, distinct from the Cabinet Secretary.
Which one the following is not true?
(CAG means The Comptroller and Auditor General of India )
View Solution
Step 1: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing government expenditures.
Step 2: Important points about CAG:
- The CAG is provided with security of tenure to ensure independence.
- The CAG is not eligible for reappointment to any office under the government after the term ends.
- The salary and conditions of service of the CAG are fixed by the Parliament and are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
- The administrative expenses of the office of CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India to maintain financial autonomy.
Step 3: Hence, the statement that "The salary of CAG is determined by the Prime Minister of India" is not true because it is determined by the Parliament, not the Prime Minister. Quick Tip: The salary and service conditions of the CAG are constitutionally protected and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring independence from the executive branch.
Puisne Judge in The Supreme Court of India refers to
View Solution
Step 1: In the Supreme Court of India, a Puisne Judge is any judge other than the Chief Justice of India.
Step 2: The term "Puisne" literally means "junior" or "inferior in rank" but here it simply differentiates all other judges from the Chief Justice.
Step 3: Hence, the Puisne Judge refers to a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India. Quick Tip: The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court, and all other judges are termed Puisne Judges.
The term ‘alibi’ refers to a claim that a person was
View Solution
Step 1: An 'alibi' is a defense in criminal law where the accused claims to have been at a different place when the crime was committed.
Step 2: The purpose is to prove the accused could not have committed the crime because they were not present at the scene.
Step 3: Hence, 'alibi' means the person was elsewhere when the crime was committed. Quick Tip: An alibi proves the accused was not at the crime scene, supporting their innocence.
Bequest refers to
View Solution
Step 1: In legal terms, a \textit{bequest is a gift of personal property or assets other than real estate (land or buildings) made through a will.
Step 2: A gift of land or real property through a will is called a \textit{devise.
Step 3: Hence, bequest refers to something given in a will, other than land or real property. Quick Tip: Bequest = personal property by will; Devise = real property by will.
Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to proclaim
View Solution
Step 1: Constitutional Provision: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals specifically with the proclamation of Financial Emergency. Unlike National Emergency (Article 352) or State Emergency (Article 356), Financial Emergency concerns the economic and financial stability of the country or its parts.
Step 2: Grounds for Proclamation: The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. This situation may arise during severe financial crisis or economic breakdown.
Step 3: Effects of Financial Emergency: When proclaimed, the executive authority of the Union extends to giving directions to any state regarding financial matters, including reducing salaries and controlling financial policies. This ensures centralized control to manage the financial crisis.
Step 4: Historical Context: Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been invoked since the Constitution's adoption, reflecting its gravity and exceptional nature.
Therefore, the President is empowered to proclaim Financial Emergency under Article 360. Quick Tip: Remember the three emergencies: National (Art. 352), State (Art. 356), Financial (Art. 360). Each has distinct provisions and conditions.
The Presiding Officer of the Indian Lok Sabha is the
View Solution
Step 1: Role of Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India, representing the people directly. It conducts legislative business and oversees government functioning.
Step 2: Presiding Officer: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by its members and acts as the presiding officer. The Speaker manages debates, maintains order, and ensures rules and procedures are followed impartially.
Step 3: Importance of Speaker: The Speaker represents the Lok Sabha in all its external relations and is essential for the effective functioning of the parliamentary process. The Speaker’s decisions are generally final and binding.
Thus, the presiding officer of the Indian Lok Sabha is the Speaker of the House. Quick Tip: The Speaker is elected from among the members of Lok Sabha and is key to maintaining parliamentary decorum.
Article 124 of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the
View Solution
Step 1: Purpose of Article 124: This article establishes the Supreme Court of India and defines its constitution. It authorizes the President to appoint the Chief Justice and other judges.
Step 2: Judicial Framework: It also lays down qualifications and conditions for appointment, tenure, and removal of judges, ensuring judicial independence.
Step 3: Distinction from Other Courts: District courts and public service commissions are governed by other constitutional provisions. Article 124 is exclusively related to the Supreme Court, the highest judicial authority in India.
Hence, Article 124 deals with the constitution of the Supreme Court of India. Quick Tip: Article 124 is the foundation for the Supreme Court's constitution and operation.
The first Chief Justice of High Court of Kerala is
View Solution
Step 1: Historical Formation: Kerala High Court was formed in 1956 after the States Reorganization Act.
Step 2: First Chief Justice: Justice K.T. Koshy was appointed as the first Chief Justice of the newly formed Kerala High Court.
Step 3: Notable Judges: Although Justice Anna Chandy was the first female judge in India and served in Kerala, she was not the Chief Justice. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan and Justice M. Fathima Beevi served later in higher judicial capacities.
Therefore, Justice K.T. Koshy holds the distinction of being the first Chief Justice of Kerala High Court. Quick Tip: Kerala High Court’s first Chief Justice was K.T. Koshy, post the state's formation in 1956.
An Advocate-on-Record can file cases before
View Solution
Step 1: Definition: An Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is a legal professional authorized to file pleadings and appear before the Supreme Court of India.
Step 2: Exclusive Right: Only Advocates-on-Record can file cases directly in the Supreme Court; other advocates can only appear through them. This rule ensures proper handling of Supreme Court litigation.
Step 3: Qualifications: To become an AoR, an advocate must undergo specific examinations and training as per Supreme Court Rules.
Step 4: Jurisdiction: Advocates for High Courts and District Courts do not have the right to file directly before the Supreme Court unless qualified as AoR.
Hence, an Advocate-on-Record can file cases before the Supreme Court of India exclusively. Quick Tip: Only Advocates-on-Record can file pleadings directly in the Supreme Court; others must work through them.
Identify the statement which is not true?
View Solution
Step 1: Establishment: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 by an executive resolution to combat corruption in the central government.
Step 2: Statutory Status: In 2003, the CVC was given statutory status through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, granting it legal powers, but it remains a statutory body, not a constitutional one.
Step 3: Difference Between Bodies: A constitutional body is created by the Constitution itself (e.g., Election Commission), whereas a statutory body is created by a law passed by Parliament. The CVC falls in the latter category.
Step 4: Functions: The CVC oversees vigilance administration and investigates corruption allegations within central government offices.
Thus, the incorrect statement is that the CVC is a constitutional body; it is actually a statutory body. Quick Tip: Distinguish constitutional bodies (created by Constitution) and statutory bodies (created by law). CVC is a statutory anti-corruption body.
Which is not true in respect of Lok Adalat?
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Step 1: Nature of Lok Adalat: Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution forums which provide an informal and amicable method of settling disputes.
Step 2: No Fees: There is no court fee payable in Lok Adalat, and if the matter is resolved there, any fees paid in the regular courts are refunded.
Step 3: Role of Members: The persons deciding cases in Lok Adalat act as conciliators or mediators, not as judges; they facilitate mutual agreement but do not impose decisions.
Step 4: Voluntary Settlement: Pressurizing or coercing parties for compromise is strictly against the principles of Lok Adalat. All settlements are voluntary and mutually agreed upon.
Step 5: Jurisdiction: Any pending civil case or compoundable criminal case can be referred to Lok Adalat for settlement.
Therefore, the statement that members can pressurize parties is not true. Quick Tip: Lok Adalats promote voluntary, fee-free dispute resolution through conciliation without judicial compulsion.
The Central Information Commission has been constituted in India under
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Step 1: RTI Act Overview: The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005 to empower citizens to access information held by public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability.
Step 2: Establishment of CIC: The Central Information Commission (CIC) was constituted under this Act as an independent body to adjudicate appeals and complaints related to RTI requests.
Step 3: Role of CIC: It hears cases where information is denied or delayed and can order disclosure of information or penalize officials for non-compliance.
Step 4: Incorrect Options: No RTI Act was passed in 1985, 1995, or 2015 that established the CIC. The 2005 Act is the relevant legislation.
Hence, the Central Information Commission is constituted under the Right to Information Act, 2005. Quick Tip: The RTI Act 2005 created the CIC to enforce the right to information in India.
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to
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Step 1: Purpose of CAT: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established by the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 to adjudicate service-related disputes of government employees.
Step 2: Jurisdiction: CAT handles cases related to recruitment, conditions of service, promotion, and disciplinary actions concerning persons appointed to the Union government and its controlled authorities.
Step 3: Exclusion: CAT does not have jurisdiction over private sector companies, multinational corporations, or solely public sector undertakings unless they are under government control.
Step 4: Function: This specialized tribunal provides speedy and effective redressal of service grievances, reducing the burden on regular courts.
Therefore, CAT primarily deals with disputes related to persons appointed to the Union or authorities under the control of the Government. Quick Tip: CAT is a quasi-judicial body for resolving service disputes of central government employees.
The acronym NALSA stands for
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Step 1: Full Form: NALSA stands for National Legal Services Authority. It is a statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Step 2: Purpose: NALSA provides free legal services to eligible persons and organizes Lok Adalats for amicable dispute resolution.
Step 3: Functions: It aims to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Step 4: Incorrect Options: Other options incorrectly expand the acronym or suggest unrelated administrative roles.
Hence, the correct full form is National Legal Services Authority. Quick Tip: NALSA facilitates free legal aid and promotes access to justice for all, especially weaker sections.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. There is absolutely no charge for getting free legal aid through NALSA in India
2. One can choose a lawyer, from the panel of lawyers, of his or her choice while availing free legal aid through NALSA
View Solution
Step 1: Free Legal Aid: NALSA provides free legal aid to eligible individuals, meaning there is no financial charge for availing legal assistance through its schemes. This removes economic barriers to justice.
Step 2: Choice of Lawyer: Beneficiaries of free legal aid under NALSA can choose their preferred lawyer from a panel of empanelled lawyers, ensuring access to competent and trusted legal representation.
Step 3: Objective: This system enhances fairness and effectiveness in legal assistance, respecting the autonomy of the aided persons.
Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: NALSA ensures free legal aid with freedom to select lawyers from an official panel, facilitating fair justice.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. A Governor of a State is appointed by the Prime Minister of India by warrant under his hand and seal
2. A Governor of a State in India must have completed 60 years of age
View Solution
Step 1: Appointment of Governor: The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India, not the Prime Minister, by warrant under the President’s hand and seal (Article 155). The Prime Minister advises the President, but the formal appointment is made by the President.
Step 2: Age Qualification: There is no constitutional requirement that a Governor must have completed 60 years of age. The Constitution requires only that the Governor be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age (Article 157).
Thus, both statements (1) and (2) are false. Quick Tip: Governors are appointed by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet, and must be at least 35 years old.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
2. Kishore Makwana is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
View Solution
Step 1: Article 338: Article 338 of the Constitution provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), a constitutional body tasked with monitoring safeguards and protecting the interests of Scheduled Castes.
Step 2: Current Chairman: Kishore Makwana is the current Chairman of the NCSC, appointed to oversee the commission’s functioning.
Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: Article 338 establishes the NCSC to protect Scheduled Castes’ rights, with leadership appointed by the government.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. A censure motion in the Lok Sabha can be moved against an individual minister
2. If a censure motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of Ministers has to resign from the office
View Solution
Step 1: Censure Motion Definition: A censure motion is a formal motion of disapproval against an individual minister in the Lok Sabha. It is a way to express lack of confidence in the minister’s actions or policies.
Step 2: Consequences of Passing: Passing a censure motion against a minister means the minister may have to resign, but it does not automatically compel the entire council of ministers to resign.
Step 3: Collective Responsibility: A motion of no confidence (not censure) against the whole council of ministers requires the council to resign if passed.
Hence, only statement (1) is true, and (2) is false. Quick Tip: Censure motions target individual ministers; no-confidence motions target the entire government.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. The term of the Prime Minister of India is five years
2. The term of the Chief Minister of a State is five years
View Solution
Step 1: Tenure of Prime Minister: The Prime Minister of India does not have a fixed term of five years. The PM holds office as long as he/she enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha, which has a maximum term of five years. The PM’s term can end earlier if confidence is lost.
Step 2: Tenure of Chief Minister: Similarly, the Chief Minister’s term depends on the confidence of the state legislative assembly, not a fixed five years. The assembly has a maximum term of five years.
Step 3: No Fixed Terms: Neither the Prime Minister nor the Chief Minister has a constitutionally fixed term; both serve as long as they command majority support.
Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are false. Quick Tip: PM and CM tenure depend on legislative confidence, not fixed terms.
Bona fide means
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Step 1: Meaning of Bona Fide: The term “Bona fide” is a Latin phrase used in legal and everyday contexts meaning “in good faith” or “genuine.” It refers to actions or intentions that are sincere and honest without any intent to deceive.
Step 2: Legal Usage: In law, bona fide transactions or parties act honestly and fairly, with no intent to defraud or cheat.
Step 3: Differentiation: It does not refer to a person’s habits, innocence proven in court, or a certificate issued by an employer.
Hence, Bona fide means genuine, sincere or in good faith. Quick Tip: Bona fide = genuine/sincere intention; often used to describe honest and legitimate acts.
Book value refers to the value of
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of Book Value: Book value refers to the value of a fixed asset as recorded on the company's accounting books or ledger, reflecting the original cost minus accumulated depreciation.
Step 2: Asset Type: Fixed assets include buildings, machinery, vehicles, and equipment that are long-term in nature and used in business operations.
Step 3: Purpose: Book value helps in financial accounting to assess the asset’s worth and depreciation over time, important for balance sheets.
Step 4: Exclusions: Movable properties, cash, or income tax intimated property do not fit the accounting definition of book value.
Therefore, book value is the value of a fixed asset as recorded in the ledger. Quick Tip: Book value = original cost of fixed asset minus depreciation, shown in financial statements.
Cartel is an agreement between
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Step 1: Definition of Cartel: A cartel is a formal agreement between competing firms or businesses to control prices, limit production, or restrict competition to maximize collective profits.
Step 2: Objective: The main goal of a cartel is to keep prices artificially high by reducing competition, often leading to higher costs for consumers.
Step 3: Examples: Cartels are commonly found in industries like oil, steel, and pharmaceuticals, and are often illegal under competition law.
Step 4: Incorrect Options: Cartels do not aim to increase competition or keep prices low; they aim to restrict competition and increase prices.
Hence, a cartel is an agreement among businesses to restrict competition and keep prices high. Quick Tip: Cartels limit competition to keep prices high and maximize profits, often violating antitrust laws.
Causation means one thing being done causing
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Step 1: Meaning of Causation: Causation in law refers to the act or event that directly causes an effect, such as injury or damage. It establishes a link between an act and its consequence.
Step 2: Application: It is essential in criminal and tort law to prove that the defendant’s action caused harm or injury to the plaintiff or victim.
Step 3: Clarification: While causation means causing something else to happen, in legal contexts, it usually relates to injury or harm rather than “good things” or vague “bad things.”
Hence, causation means one thing being done causing injury to happen. Quick Tip: In law, causation links an action directly to the injury or harm caused.
The Chairperson of the Goods and Service Tax council is
View Solution
Step 1: Formation of GST Council: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council was formed under Article 279A of the Constitution to regulate the GST.
Step 2: Chairperson Role: The Chairperson of the GST Council is the Union Finance Minister, who leads meetings and coordinates between the Union and State governments on GST-related decisions.
Step 3: Members: The council includes the Union Finance Minister and the Finance Ministers of all States and Union Territories.
Therefore, the Chairperson of the GST Council is the Union Finance Minister. Quick Tip: Union Finance Minister chairs the GST Council, facilitating cooperative federalism in taxation.
In India, the Goods and Service Tax was launched with effect from
View Solution
Step 1: Introduction of GST: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India, replacing many cascading taxes.
Step 2: Launch Date: GST was officially launched on 1st July 2017, marking a significant reform in the Indian taxation system.
Step 3: Purpose: It aimed to unify the complex tax structure, simplify tax administration, and increase compliance.
Therefore, GST was launched with effect from 1st July, 2017. Quick Tip: GST rollout on 1st July 2017 unified multiple indirect taxes into one system.
In law, closing order is an order
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Step 1: Definition of Closing Order: A closing order is a legal order that prohibits the use or occupation of a building or premises when it is deemed unfit for human habitation or use.
Step 2: Grounds for Closing Order: Such an order is issued typically on grounds of public health, safety hazards, structural defects, or violation of building codes.
Step 3: Effect: The closing order restricts any use of the premises until necessary repairs or clearance is done, protecting residents and the public.
Step 4: Clarification of Other Options: The closing order is not about litigants’ court appearances, judgment delivery, or appeal rights.
Hence, a closing order prohibits the use of a house deemed unfit for human habitation. Quick Tip: Closing orders protect public safety by prohibiting use of unsafe buildings or premises.
Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. The National Green Tribunal is a Judicial body adjudicating environmental cases in the country
2. The National Green Tribunal has five Zones: North, Central, East, West and South
View Solution
Step 1: Nature of National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and natural resources.
Step 2: Jurisdiction and Zones: The NGT functions through five zonal benches located in North, Central, East, West, and South zones to efficiently handle cases across the country.
Step 3: Purpose: This tribunal reduces the burden on regular courts and provides expert environmental adjudication.
Therefore, both statements (1) and (2) are true. Quick Tip: NGT is a specialized tribunal with five zonal benches for environmental cases.
The term ‘feme convert’ means
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Step 1: Meaning of Feme Convert: “Feme convert” is an old legal term referring to a married woman, particularly in the context of property and legal rights.
Step 2: Usage: The term distinguished married women from single women or widows in legal documents.
Step 3: Clarification: It does not refer to dependency status, independence, or legal cases against the woman.
Hence, “feme convert” means a woman who is married. Quick Tip: “Feme convert” is a traditional legal term for a married woman.
The term ‘euthanasia’ means
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Step 1: Definition of Euthanasia: Euthanasia refers to the practice of intentionally ending a person’s life to relieve suffering, usually from incurable or painful conditions.
Step 2: Types of Euthanasia: It can be voluntary (with patient’s consent) or involuntary, active or passive.
Step 3: Legal and Ethical Issues: Euthanasia is a subject of ethical debate and is legal in very few countries under strict guidelines.
Step 4: Differentiation: It is different from accidental killing, revenge killing, or killing for gain.
Therefore, euthanasia means killing someone to end his or her sufferings. Quick Tip: Euthanasia is mercy killing to relieve unbearable suffering.
The contempt of Court is an offence of
View Solution
Step 1: Meaning of Contempt of Court: Contempt of Court refers to actions or behaviors that disrespect the authority, dignity, or functioning of the judiciary.
Step 2: Examples: This includes insulting or abusing judges during proceedings, willful disobedience of court orders, or actions that disrupt the administration of justice.
Step 3: Legal Consequences: Contempt can lead to penalties including fines or imprisonment to maintain the sanctity of the judiciary.
Step 4: Clarification of Other Options: Non-filing of cases or non-appearance of advocates may be procedural issues but do not constitute contempt per se unless they disobey court orders.
Hence, contempt of court is the offence of abusing a judge during a court case. Quick Tip: Contempt safeguards the respect and authority of the judiciary against disrespectful conduct.





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