KLEE 2023 LLB 5 Year Question paper with Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Commissioner of Entrance Examinations (CEE). The question paper comprised a total of 200 questions divided among four sections.
KLEE 2023 LLB 5 Year Question Paper with Solution PDF
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Question 1:
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
To find the incorrectly spelled word, we need to check the spelling of each option carefully.
Step 1: Check Option A - Conscientous
The correct spelling is ``Conscientious,'' which means wishing to do one's work or duty well and thoroughly.
``Conscientous'' is a misspelling missing the letter 'i' before ``ous.''
Hence, Option A is spelled incorrectly.
Step 2: Check Option B - Peculiar
``Peculiar'' is correctly spelled. It means strange or odd; unusual.
Step 3: Check Option C - Accommodate
``Accommodate'' is correctly spelled. It means to provide lodging or sufficient space for.
Step 4: Check Option D - Repetition
``Repetition'' is correctly spelled. It means the action of repeating something.
Therefore, the only incorrectly spelled word is Option A: ``Conscientous.''
Quick Tip: To identify incorrect spellings:
- Break the word into syllables and check familiar roots and suffixes.
- Refer to common spelling rules like ``i before e except after c,'' and suffix formation.
- Practice frequently misspelled words such as ``conscientious,'' ``accommodate,'' and others.
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Check each option for correct spelling:
Step 1: Option A - Separrate
The correct spelling is ``Separate.''
Option A has an extra 'r', so it is spelled incorrectly.
Step 2: Option B - Sufficient
Correctly spelled. Means adequate or enough.
Step 3: Option C - Deceive
Correctly spelled. Means to mislead or trick.
Step 4: Option D - Ambiguous
Correctly spelled. Means unclear or having multiple meanings.
Thus, Option A is the incorrect spelling.
Quick Tip: To remember spelling:
- The word ``Separate'' has only one 'r' in the middle.
- Break words into syllables to spot extra or missing letters.
- Commonly misspelled words include ``Separate,'' ``Definitely,'' ``Recommend.''
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Check each option:
Step 1: Option A - Rendezvous
Correctly spelled. Means a meeting at an agreed time and place.
Step 2: Option B - Definite
Correctly spelled. Means clear or certain.
Step 3: Option C - Paralell
Correct spelling is ``Parallel.''
Option C has an extra 'l' at the end, making it incorrect.
Step 4: Option D - Consequence
Correctly spelled. Means result or effect.
Therefore, Option C is the misspelled word.
Quick Tip: Remember:
- ``Parallel'' ends with one 'l' after double 'l' in the middle, not two 'l's at the end.
- Look out for double letters and their correct placement.
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Check each word:
Step 1: Option A - Perseverance
Correctly spelled. Means persistence in doing something despite difficulty.
Step 2: Option B - Labyrinth
Correctly spelled. Means a complicated maze or network of paths.
Step 3: Option C - Diligent
Correctly spelled. Means showing care and effort in work or duties.
Step 4: Option D - Recomendation
Correct spelling is ``Recommendation'' with double 'm'.
Option D is missing one 'm' and is thus incorrect.
Hence, Option D is misspelled.
Quick Tip: To spell ``Recommendation'' correctly:
- Remember it has double 'm' in the middle.
- Break it down as ``Re-com-men-da-tion.''
- Watch out for repeated consonants in English words.
Find out the incorrectly spelled word
View Solution
Check spelling carefully:
Step 1: Option A - Accomplish
Correctly spelled. Means to successfully complete something.
Step 2: Option B - Mischevious
Correct spelling is ``Mischievous.''
Option B has an extra 'i' after 'ch' and incorrect vowel placement.
Step 3: Option C - Dilemma
Correctly spelled. Means a situation requiring a choice between options.
Step 4: Option D - Subtle
Correctly spelled. Means delicate or not obvious.
Therefore, Option B is the incorrect spelling.
Quick Tip: To remember ``Mischievous'' spelling:
- The correct spelling has only three syllables: mis-chie-vous.
- Avoid adding extra vowels like 'i' after 'ch'.
- Practice commonly misspelled words by breaking into syllables.
Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. OSTENTATIOUS
View Solution
The word ``Ostentatious'' means characterized by vulgar or pretentious display; designed to impress or attract notice.
Step 1: Understand the meaning of the options
- (A) Disgusting: causing disgust; unpleasant.
- (B) Modest: unassuming or moderate in the estimation of one's abilities or achievements; not showy.
- (C) Shameful: deserving or causing shame or disgrace.
- (D) Extravagant: lacking restraint in spending money or using resources; excessively showy.
Step 2: Find the opposite meaning
The opposite of ``Ostentatious'' is something simple, humble, or modest, which is option (B).
Quick Tip: To find antonyms:
- Understand the exact meaning of the key word.
- Look for options that convey the opposite sense, especially in tone and usage.
- ``Ostentatious'' relates to showiness; its opposite is ``Modest'' meaning simple and humble.
Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. EBULLIENT
View Solution
``Ebullient'' means cheerful and full of energy.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Foolish: lacking good sense or judgment.
- (B) Filthy: very dirty.
- (C) Depressed: in a state of unhappiness or despondency.
- (D) Gentle: mild in temperament or behavior.
Step 2: Find opposite meaning
The opposite of being cheerful and energetic is being sad or low in spirits, i.e., ``Depressed'' (option C).
Quick Tip: For antonyms:
- Understand emotional or descriptive tone of the word.
- ``Ebullient'' is positive and lively; opposite is negative mood like ``Depressed.''
Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. CONSTERNATION
View Solution
``Consternation'' means feelings of anxiety or dismay, typically at something unexpected.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Cheerfulness: the quality or state of being noticeably happy and optimistic.
- (B) Calmness: the state or quality of being free from agitation or strong emotion.
- (C) Loneliness: sadness because one has no friends or company.
- (D) Joyful: feeling, expressing, or causing great pleasure and happiness.
Step 2: Find the best opposite
The opposite of anxiety and dismay is a state of peace and tranquility, i.e., ``Calmness'' (option B).
Quick Tip: When searching for antonyms of emotional words:
- Identify the core feeling in the word (e.g., anxiety, joy, sadness).
- Opposite emotions are usually peaceful, calm, or happy states.
Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. INTRANSIGENT
View Solution
``Intransigent'' means unwilling or refusing to change one's views or to agree about something; stubborn.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Magnificent: very beautiful and impressive.
- (B) Mysterious: difficult or impossible to understand, explain.
- (C) Aggressive: ready or likely to attack or confront.
- (D) Flexible: capable of bending easily without breaking; willing to change or compromise.
Step 2: Find opposite
The opposite of being stubborn and inflexible is being ``Flexible,'' so option (D) is correct.
Quick Tip: Antonyms:
- Identify if the key word implies rigidity or flexibility.
- ``Intransigent'' means inflexible, so opposite is ``Flexible.''
Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. EFFICACIOUS
View Solution
``Efficacious'' means effective; producing the desired result.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Ineffective: not producing any significant or desired effect.
- (B) Ugly: unpleasant to look at.
- (C) Careless: not giving sufficient attention or thought.
- (D) Uncooperative: unwilling to work with others.
Step 2: Find opposite
The opposite of ``Efficacious'' (effective) is ``Ineffective'' (not effective), so option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: When looking for antonyms of descriptive words:
- Understand the positive or negative trait conveyed.
- ``Efficacious'' is positive; its opposite is ``Ineffective.''
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who is excessively concerned about their health
View Solution
A ``Hypochondriac'' is a person who is excessively worried about their health, often fearing serious illness without medical evidence.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Altruist: a person unselfishly concerned for others.
- (B) Extrovert: a person who is outgoing and sociable.
- (C) Hypochondriac: a person excessively concerned about health.
- (D) Skeptic: a person inclined to doubt accepted opinions.
Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: To find correct word:
- Understand the key phrase in the question.
- Look for specific terms related to the description.
- ``Hypochondriac'' relates specifically to excessive health concern.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. She was WALKING ON THIN ICE.
View Solution
The idiom ``walking on thin ice'' means doing something risky or dangerous that could lead to trouble.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Walking carefully on a thin surface: literal meaning, not idiomatic.
- (B) Engaging in risky behavior: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (C) In a dangerous or precarious situation: close but broader than idiomatic use.
- (D) Walking gracefully on a slippery surface: incorrect meaning.
Thus, the idiomatic meaning is best captured by option (B).
Quick Tip: To understand idioms:
- Focus on figurative meanings rather than literal.
- ``Walking on thin ice'' implies risk or danger, not just physical walking.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. He had to FACE THE MUSIC for his actions.
View Solution
The idiom ``face the music'' means to accept the unpleasant consequences of one's actions.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Listen to music as punishment: literal, incorrect.
- (B) Attend a concert as punishment: incorrect.
- (C) Take responsibility and face consequences: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (D) Enjoy success: opposite meaning.
Therefore, option (C) is the correct meaning.
Quick Tip: When interpreting idioms:
- Avoid literal meanings.
- Understand the cultural or contextual usage.
- ``Face the music'' means accepting responsibility.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The team WENT THE EXTRA MILE to ensure customer satisfaction.
View Solution
The idiom ``went the extra mile'' means to do more than what is expected or required to achieve something.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Exceeded expectations and put in additional effort: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (B) Traveled a long distance: literal meaning, incorrect.
- (C) Completed task within limit: opposite of extra effort.
- (D) Reached destination before others: unrelated meaning.
Thus, option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: For idioms:
- Identify if the phrase suggests going beyond a normal limit or requirement.
- ``Went the extra mile'' means putting in additional effort.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The comedian had the audience IN STITCHES.
View Solution
The idiom ``in stitches'' means laughing uncontrollably or hysterically.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Physical injury: literal, incorrect.
- (B) Magic tricks: unrelated.
- (C) Laugh uncontrollably: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (D) Serious performance: opposite meaning.
Option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: To understand idioms:
- Look for figurative meanings related to emotions or reactions.
- ``In stitches'' means intense laughter.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. He has a CHIP ON HIS SHOULDER.
View Solution
The idiom ``chip on his shoulder'' means having a grudge or being easily angered or provoked.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Physical chip: literal, incorrect.
- (B) Negative attitude, easily provoked: correct meaning.
- (C) Carrying chips: unrelated.
- (D) Peaceful discussions: opposite meaning.
Hence, option (B) is correct.
Quick Tip: For idioms about attitudes:
- Understand if the phrase indicates anger, resentment, or calmness.
- ``Chip on shoulder'' indicates resentment or readiness to argue.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The politician BEAT AROUND THE BUSH when journalists met him.
View Solution
The idiom ``beat around the bush'' means to avoid talking about what is important or to evade giving a direct answer.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Physical exercise: literal, incorrect.
- (B) Avoid direct answer: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (C) Literally beat a bush: literal, incorrect.
- (D) Straightforward response: opposite meaning.
Option (B) is correct.
Quick Tip: When interpreting idioms:
- Focus on metaphorical meanings.
- ``Beat around the bush'' means evading the main topic.
Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The project HIT A SNAG when the funding was unexpectedly cut.
View Solution
The idiom ``hit a snag'' means to encounter an unexpected problem or obstacle that delays progress.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Physical obstacle: literal but less common meaning.
- (B) Made progress smoothly: opposite meaning.
- (C) Delay or setback: correct idiomatic meaning.
- (D) Received additional support: opposite meaning.
Thus, option (C) is correct.
Quick Tip: For idioms about difficulties:
- Look for meanings related to obstacles or setbacks.
- ``Hit a snag'' means facing an unexpected problem.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. A good education is the foundation for a ....................future.
View Solution
To complete the sentence meaningfully, we need to select the word that naturally fits with ``future'' and expresses a positive outcome.
Step 1: Understand the sentence
The sentence says, ``A good education is the foundation for a .......... future.'' This means that education helps build or create a certain kind of future. The blank needs to describe what kind of future education leads to.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Better: This is a comparative adjective, used to compare two things. Saying ``a better future'' implies comparing one future to another, but the sentence does not provide any comparison context.
- (B) Best: This is a superlative adjective, meaning the highest quality among many. ``A best future'' is grammatically incorrect because superlative adjectives need ``the'' before them (i.e., ``the best future''). So, option B is incorrect.
- (C) Bright: This adjective means full of hope and promise. ``A bright future'' is a very common phrase used to express a hopeful and successful future. It fits naturally in the sentence.
- (D) Brilliant: This means very bright or impressive, but it is less commonly used with ``future'' in this context. It can sound slightly more formal or exaggerated.
Step 3: Choose the best option
Option (C) ``Bright'' is the most natural and commonly used adjective to complete the sentence, expressing optimism and promise for the future.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Bright.
Quick Tip: To choose the correct word to fill blanks:
- Look for common phrases or collocations, like ``bright future.''
- Understand the meaning of adjectives and how they fit grammatically in the sentence.
- Remember that superlatives like ``best'' need the article ``the'' before them.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. It is important to have a balanced ....................for a healthy lifestyle.
View Solution
This sentence is about what is essential for a healthy lifestyle. The blank should be filled with a word that relates to something that needs to be balanced for health.
Step 1: Understand the sentence
The phrase says, ``It is important to have a balanced ........... for a healthy lifestyle.'' The word after ``balanced'' should be something that can be balanced and is related to health.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Diet: This means the kinds of food a person eats regularly. A balanced diet means eating the right kinds and amounts of food to stay healthy. This fits perfectly here.
- (B) Exercise: Physical activity is important, but we don't usually say ``a balanced exercise.'' Exercise is something you do regularly but not something you balance in the same way as diet.
- (C) Routine: A routine is a regular way of doing things. Although you can have a balanced routine, it is less specific than diet in the context of a healthy lifestyle.
- (D) Regimen: This means a prescribed course of medical treatment or diet or exercise. It could work but is a more formal or technical term, and not as commonly used as ``diet'' in everyday language.
Step 3: Choose the best option
Option (A) ``Diet'' is the most common and appropriate choice to express the importance of balanced food intake for health.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Diet.
Quick Tip: When filling in blanks about health:
- Think about common phrases like ``balanced diet,'' which means healthy food habits.
- Understand the difference between related words: diet (food), exercise (physical activity), routine (habit), regimen (medical plan).
- Choose the word that fits best both grammatically and contextually.
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence parts:
Step 1: Read the full sentence
Combining parts A, B, and C: ``The child ran across the street without looking for oncoming traffic.''
Step 2: Identify the error
- Part (A) is grammatically correct: ``The child ran across'' is a proper subject and verb phrase.
- Part (B) ``the street without'' is incomplete but connects correctly to the rest.
- Part (C) ``looking for oncoming traffic'' is incorrect because it implies the child did look for traffic, but the sentence says ``without'' doing something.
- The correct phrase should be ``looking at oncoming traffic'' or ``checking for oncoming traffic.'' Also, the phrase ``looking for'' means searching, which is not the right expression here.
- So, part (C) is the incorrect part because the phrase ``looking for oncoming traffic'' is not appropriate after ``without.'' It would be better to say ``without looking at oncoming traffic.''
Step 3: Correct sentence
``The child ran across the street without looking at oncoming traffic.''
Conclusion:
The error is in part (C).
Quick Tip: When checking sentence errors:
- Read the full sentence to understand the meaning.
- Check if prepositions and phrases correctly match the context.
- After ``without,'' use the correct verb form and prepositions.
- Common mistake: confusing ``looking for'' (searching) with ``looking at'' (observing).
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence parts:
Step 1: Read the full sentence
The combined sentence is: ``The team celebrated their victory by doing a victory dance.''
Step 2: Check each part
- (A) ``The team celebrated'' is correct.
- (B) ``their victory'' properly complements the verb celebrated.
- (C) ``by doing a victory dance'' explains how the celebration happened.
- The sentence is grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.
Step 3: Conclusion
No error found; therefore, option (D) is correct.
Quick Tip: For error spotting:
- Always read the whole sentence first.
- Check subject-verb agreement, phrase structure, and meaning.
- If no mistakes, choose ``No error.''
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Analyze the sentence: ``He apologized for his mistake and promised not to repeat on it.''
Step 1: Identify the error
- Part (A) and (B) are correct.
- Part (C) has an error in the phrase ``repeat on it.'' The verb ``repeat'' does not need the preposition ``on'' after it.
- Correct phrase is ``not to repeat it.'' The preposition ``on'' is unnecessary and incorrect here.
Step 2: Correct sentence
``He apologized for his mistake and promised not to repeat it.''
Conclusion
Error is in part (C).
Quick Tip: - Remember that some verbs do not need prepositions after them.
- ``Repeat'' is followed directly by the object (e.g., repeat it).
- Avoid adding unnecessary prepositions.
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Analyze the sentence: ``The teacher asked the students to hand in their assignments on tomorrow.''
Step 1: Identify the error
- Parts (A) and (B) are correct.
- Part (C) has the phrase ``on tomorrow,'' which is incorrect.
- We do not use the preposition ``on'' before ``tomorrow.'' The correct phrase is simply ``their assignments tomorrow.''
Step 2: Correct sentence
``The teacher asked the students to hand in their assignments tomorrow.''
Conclusion
Error is in part (C).
Quick Tip: - Avoid using ``on'' before ``tomorrow,'' ``yesterday,'' ``today,'' etc.
- These words function as adverbs of time and do not need prepositions.
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Analyze the sentence: ``She opened the fridge and found delicious cake to surprise her guests with.''
Step 1: Identify the error
- Part (A) is correct.
- Part (B) is incorrect because it says ``found delicious cake'' without an article.
- We need an article ``a'' before ``delicious cake'' since we are talking about some cake.
- It should be ``found a delicious cake.''
Step 2: Correct sentence
``She opened the fridge and found a delicious cake to surprise her guests with.''
Conclusion
Error is in part (B).
Quick Tip: - Remember to use articles ``a,'' ``an,'' or ``the'' before singular countable nouns.
- ``Cake'' here is countable in this context (a piece or a whole cake).
- Without an article, the sentence sounds incomplete or incorrect.
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Let's analyze the sentence: ``She wore a beautiful dress to the party and impressed everyone present.''
Step 1: Check each part
- (A) ``She wore a beautiful dress'' is a correct subject-verb-object phrase.
- (B) ``to the party'' correctly indicates the place or event where the dress was worn.
- (C) ``and impressed everyone present'' is a correct phrase showing the result or effect.
Step 2: Check overall grammar and meaning
The sentence is grammatically correct and makes sense. There are no errors in any part.
Conclusion
Option (D) ``No error'' is correct.
Quick Tip: - Read the entire sentence to ensure it flows naturally.
- Check for subject-verb agreement and proper phrase connections.
- When all parts are correct, select ``No error.''
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Analyze the sentence: ``The student studied hardly for the exam but still failed to pass.''
Step 1: Identify error
- The adverb ``hardly'' means barely or scarcely, which is not correct here.
- The correct word is ``hard,'' meaning with effort.
- So, it should be ``The student studied hard for the exam.''
Step 2: Correct sentence
``The student studied hard for the exam but still failed to pass.''
Conclusion
Error is in part (B).
Quick Tip: - ``Hardly'' means scarcely or barely, not with effort.
- ``Hard'' is the correct adverb to describe effort in studying.
- Pay attention to word meanings to avoid confusion.
A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
View Solution
Analyze the sentence: ``The dog chased after the ball and fetched it back.''
Step 1: Check each part
- (A) ``The dog chased'' is correct.
- (B) ``after the ball'' is a proper phrase showing what the dog chased.
- (C) ``and fetched it back'' correctly indicates what happened next.
Step 2: Confirm correctness
The sentence is grammatically correct and makes sense. No errors found.
Conclusion
Option (D) ``No error'' is correct.
Quick Tip: - Read the full sentence to check flow and meaning.
- Confirm that all parts are connected properly.
- If everything is correct, choose ``No error.''
Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. The movie was so captivating that the audience .................................
View Solution
The sentence talks about a movie that was captivating, meaning it held the audience's attention strongly.
Step 1: Check tense and meaning
- (A) ``Can't stop'' is present tense, which doesn't fit with ``was'' (past tense) in the first part of the sentence.
- (B) ``Couldn't stop'' matches past tense and expresses that the audience was so captivated that they kept talking about the movie.
- (C) ``Not stop'' is grammatically incorrect without an auxiliary verb.
- (D) ``Should stop'' has a different meaning, suggesting the audience needs to stop talking, which doesn't fit the context.
Step 2: Choose the best option
Option (B) fits best because of tense agreement and meaning.
Conclusion
Correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: - Match the verb tenses in a sentence to maintain consistency.
- Use auxiliary verbs like ``couldn't'' for past tense negative expressions.
- Understand the meaning conveyed by each option.
Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. They ran so fast that they .................................
View Solution
The sentence says: ``They ran so fast that they ...'' meaning their speed led them to a result.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) ``May have won'' is uncertain and does not fit well with the definite tone of the sentence.
- (B) ``Won the race'' is simple past tense, clearly stating the outcome of their fast running.
- (C) ``Winning the race'' is a present participle phrase and does not fit grammatically.
- (D) ``Had won the race'' is past perfect tense, which is used for an action completed before another past action; unnecessary here.
Step 2: Choose best option
Option (B) is the most straightforward and grammatically correct choice.
Conclusion
Correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: - Use simple past tense to express definite past events.
- Avoid mixing tenses unnecessarily in a sentence.
- Understand the meaning of each option and choose what fits best.
Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. He spoke so confidently that he .......................
View Solution
The sentence talks about someone's confident speech and its result.
Step 1: Understand the sentence structure
The phrase ``He spoke so confidently that he ...'' means the confidence led to some outcome. The correct verb form must express what he was able to do due to confidence.
Step 2: Analyze options
- (A) ``Could convince anyone'': This means he was able to persuade anyone, which fits logically and grammatically.
- (B) ``Was convinced anyone'': Incorrect form; passive voice does not fit here.
- (C) ``Convincing anyone'': Incorrect as a filler; lacks auxiliary verbs.
- (D) ``Should convince anyone'': Suggests obligation, which doesn't fit the context.
Step 3: Choose the best option
Option (A) is correct because it expresses ability caused by confidence.
Quick Tip: - Use modal verbs like ``could'' to express ability in the past.
- Match verb forms correctly with sentence structure.
- Understand the meaning each option conveys before choosing.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: COMPASSIONATE
View Solution
The word ``compassionate'' means showing sympathy and concern for others' suffering.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Ordinary: means usual or normal; unrelated.
- (B) Benevolent: means kind and well-meaning, similar to compassionate.
- (C) Apathetic: means showing no interest or emotion; opposite meaning.
- (D) Charismatic: means having charm or influence; unrelated.
Step 2: Choose closest meaning
Option (B) ``Benevolent'' is the closest synonym to ``compassionate.''
Quick Tip: - Understand word meanings and synonyms.
- Look for words expressing kindness and concern for others.
- Eliminate options with opposite or unrelated meanings.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: ADVERSARY
View Solution
The word ``adversary'' means an opponent or enemy.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Wanderer: one who travels; unrelated.
- (B) Outsider: someone not part of a group; unrelated.
- (C) Antagonist: opponent or enemy, similar to adversary.
- (D) Militant: aggressive activist; related but not exact synonym.
Step 2: Choose closest synonym
Option (C) ``Antagonist'' matches the meaning of ``adversary.''
Quick Tip: - Know the meanings of words related to conflict or opposition.
- Synonyms have similar meanings, while related words may differ slightly.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: EXEMPLARY
View Solution
The word ``exemplary'' means serving as a desirable model; very good or outstanding.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Yielding: giving way; opposite of exemplary.
- (B) Reserved: restrained or quiet; unrelated.
- (C) Outstanding: excellent, which matches exemplary.
- (D) Hesitant: unsure or indecisive; unrelated.
Step 2: Choose closest synonym
Option (C) ``Outstanding'' is the best synonym for ``exemplary.''
Quick Tip: - Focus on the core meaning of the word to find synonyms.
- Eliminate options with opposite or unrelated meanings.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: TENACIOUS
View Solution
The word ``tenacious'' means holding firm, persistent, or determined.
Step 1: Analyze options
- (A) Weak-willed: opposite meaning.
- (B) Persistent: similar meaning, showing determination.
- (C) Average: neutral meaning; unrelated.
- (D) Specialized: focused on a particular area; unrelated.
Step 2: Choose closest synonym
Option (B) ``Persistent'' matches the meaning of ``tenacious.''
Quick Tip: - Understand the key meaning of words before selecting synonyms.
- Match words with similar meanings to improve vocabulary skills.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: VERSATILE
View Solution
The word ``versatile'' describes someone or something that can do many different things well or can be used in many different ways.
Step 1: Understand the meaning of ``versatile''
It means flexible, adaptable, or capable of changing easily to suit different situations.
Step 2: Analyze each option
- (A) Adaptable: means able to adjust to different conditions or uses. This is very similar in meaning to versatile.
- (B) Agreeable: means pleasant or willing to agree, which is unrelated to versatility.
- (C) Lethargic: means lacking energy or slow, which is the opposite of being versatile.
- (D) Timid: means shy or lacking confidence, unrelated to versatility.
Step 3: Conclusion
The best synonym for ``versatile'' is (A) Adaptable because it expresses flexibility and the ability to adjust, which is what versatile means.
Quick Tip: - When learning synonyms, focus on the core meaning of the word.
- Think about what the word describes—qualities, actions, or characteristics.
- Compare each option with the original word to see which matches best.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: CONTEMPLATE
View Solution
The word ``contemplate'' means to think deeply or carefully about something.
Step 1: Understand the meaning
To contemplate means to spend time considering or reflecting on something thoughtfully.
Step 2: Examine options
- (A) Neglect means to ignore or fail to care for something, which is opposite in meaning.
- (B) Disregard means to pay no attention to, also opposite in meaning.
- (C) Ponder means to think about something carefully, which matches contemplate closely.
- (D) Retain means to keep or hold, which is unrelated.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is (C) Ponder because it shares the meaning of careful thought.
Quick Tip: - Think about what the word implies: careful thought, reflection, or ignoring.
- Choose the word that means careful thinking if the original word means the same.
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: ABANDON
View Solution
The word ``abandon'' means to leave something completely or to give up on it.
Step 1: Understand the meaning
To abandon means to leave behind or stop doing something permanently.
Step 2: Analyze options
- (A) Forsake means to give up or leave someone or something, similar to abandon.
- (B) Keep means to hold or continue having something, which is the opposite.
- (C) Hover means to stay in one place in the air, unrelated meaning.
- (D) Observe means to watch carefully, unrelated meaning.
Step 3: Conclusion
The best synonym for abandon is (A) Forsake because both mean to leave or give up.
Quick Tip: - Look for words that express leaving or giving up when you see ``abandon.''
- Exclude words that mean the opposite or unrelated actions.
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A sudden and dramatic change or event
View Solution
The phrase describes a change that is sudden and dramatic, not gradual or small.
Step 1: Understand the meaning
- Upheaval means a violent or sudden change, like a big disruption.
- Transition means changing from one state to another, usually gradually.
- Evolution means slow and natural development over time.
- Alteration means a change, but not necessarily sudden or dramatic.
Step 2: Compare options
Only (A) Upheaval fits the idea of a sudden, dramatic event. The others imply slow or minor changes.
Step 3: Conclusion
The best word is (A) Upheaval.
Quick Tip: - Sudden changes are dramatic and often disruptive.
- Gradual changes happen slowly over time.
- Choose the word that matches the intensity described.
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who opposes war or violence
View Solution
The question asks for a word describing someone who is against war and violence.
Step 1: Understand options
- Belligerent means hostile or aggressive, the opposite of opposing war.
- Pacifist means a person who believes in peace and opposes war or violence.
- Activist means a person who campaigns for a cause but doesn't necessarily oppose war.
Step 2: Compare meanings
Only (B) Pacifist correctly fits the description of opposing war and violence.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is (B) Pacifist.
Quick Tip: - Learn words that describe attitudes towards peace and conflict.
- Belligerent means aggressive, pacifist means peaceful.
- Choose the word that best matches the given description.
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who is excessively focused on their own needs and desires
View Solution
The question asks for a word describing someone who focuses too much on themselves and their own desires.
Step 1: Understand the options
- Empath: someone who understands and shares the feelings of others; opposite of self-focused.
- Optimist: someone who expects the best; unrelated to self-focus.
- Pessimist: someone who expects the worst; unrelated to self-focus.
- Egotist: someone who is self-centered and overly focused on themselves.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (D) ``Egotist'' is the correct answer because it means a person excessively concerned with their own importance.
Quick Tip: - Remember that ``egotist'' means self-centered person.
- Empath is someone who cares deeply about others, opposite of egotist.
- Focus on the main trait described in the question.
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A temporary halt or suspension of activity
View Solution
The question describes a break or pause in activity.
Step 1: Understand the options
- Continuum: continuous sequence; opposite of a break.
- Hiatus: a pause or break in continuity; fits the description perfectly.
- Catalyst: something that speeds up a reaction; unrelated.
- Resurgence: a revival or increase after a decline; opposite of a pause.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (B) ``Hiatus'' is correct as it means a temporary pause or gap.
Quick Tip: - Learn words describing breaks and continuity.
- ``Hiatus'' is used for pauses or breaks in activities.
- Eliminate words meaning continuous or revival.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The sun was shining brightly, casting a warm ...................... on the beach.
View Solution
The sentence talks about the sun shining and casting something warm on the beach.
Step 1: Understand options
- Light: general term for visible illumination, could fit but is less descriptive.
- Ray: refers to a narrow beam of light; less appropriate for the warm ambiance.
- Glow: a soft and steady light that suggests warmth; best fits the sentence.
- Shine: verb meaning to emit light, not a noun to fill the blank.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (C) ``Glow'' is the best choice as it conveys warmth and gentle light.
Quick Tip: - Focus on the context: warmth and brightness together.
- Choose words that best match the mood or feeling.
- Remember parts of speech: the blank needs a noun here.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Her success is a result of her hard work, determination, and unwavering ................
View Solution
The sentence talks about qualities leading to success, emphasizing continued effort.
Step 1: Understand options
- Faith: trust or confidence, often religious; related but less precise.
- Belief: acceptance that something is true; less about effort.
- Commitment: dedication and willingness to work hard consistently; fits best.
- Conviction: strong belief or opinion; less about sustained effort.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (C) ``Commitment'' best describes unwavering dedication leading to success.
Quick Tip: - Focus on words that show sustained effort or dedication.
- Understand subtle differences in similar words.
- ``Commitment'' is often linked to achieving goals through hard work.
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The team worked together in perfect ...................... to achieve their goal.
View Solution
The sentence describes a team working together smoothly to achieve a goal.
Step 1: Understand options
- Unity: being one or undivided; related but not the best fit here.
- Harmony: working together in agreement and without conflict; best fit.
- Synchronization: timing things to happen at the same time; less about agreement.
- Collaboration: working jointly, but ``harmony'' emphasizes peaceful cooperation.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (B) ``Harmony'' best expresses smooth, agreeable teamwork.
Quick Tip: - Choose words that best capture the idea of smooth, peaceful cooperation.
- Understand subtle differences: unity means oneness, harmony means agreement.
- Read the sentence carefully to pick the best fit word.
Convert the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech.
She told me that she had already finished her work.
View Solution
In indirect speech, tenses often shift back in time (backshifting). Here, ``had finished'' is the past perfect tense used in indirect speech.
Step 1: Identify the original direct speech
- The original statement likely was: ``I have already finished my work.''
Step 2: Understand backshifting
- In indirect speech, ``have finished'' becomes ``had finished.''
- When converting back to direct speech, we restore the original tense.
Step 3: Choose the correct direct speech
- Option (A) correctly restores the present perfect tense as spoken originally.
- Other options change pronouns or tenses incorrectly.
Quick Tip: - When converting indirect to direct speech, restore the original tense.
- Pay attention to pronouns and time expressions.
- Present perfect in direct speech becomes past perfect in indirect speech, so reverse that when converting back.
Convert the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech.
Sheila said that she would come to the party.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand pronouns and tense shifts
- In indirect speech, ``I will'' changes to ``she would.''
- When converting back to direct speech, change ``she'' back to ``I'' and ``would'' back to ``will.''
Step 2: Analyze options
- Option (C) is correct as it restores the original pronoun ``I'' and the future tense ``will.''
- Option (A) keeps ``she'' instead of ``I,'' which is incorrect in direct speech.
- Option (B) incorrectly keeps ``would'' in direct speech.
- Option (D) changes tense to present ``says,'' which is incorrect.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct direct speech is option (C).
Quick Tip: - Remember to switch pronouns appropriately when changing speech forms.
- Convert back the tense changes (e.g., would → will).
- Keep the reported speech consistent with the original.
Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below:
A person who is skilled in decorative handwriting or lettering.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the question
- The question describes someone skilled in decorative handwriting.
Step 2: Analyze options
- Artist: general term for creative people; too broad.
- Sculptor: creates sculptures; unrelated to handwriting.
- Illustrator: creates drawings or images; not handwriting.
- Calligrapher: specializes in beautiful, decorative handwriting; perfect fit.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (D) ``Calligrapher'' is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: - Learn specific one-word terms for professions or skills.
- Calligraphy means beautiful handwriting.
- Match the skill with the most specific term.
Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:
The Great Barrier Reef is not only visually stunning but also incredibly diverse. It is home to a vast array of marine life, including more than 1,500 species of fish, 600 species of coral, and numerous other animals such as turtles, dolphins, and sharks. The vibrant colors of the coral and the teeming schools of fish create a truly mesmerizing underwater spectacle. This magnificent ecosystem serves as an important breeding ground and nursery for many marine species. It provides shelter, food, and protection for countless organisms, making it a crucial part of the ocean's delicate balance. In addition to its ecological significance, the Great Barrier Reef is also a popular destination for tourists, who come from all over the world to witness its beauty firsthand. Unfortunately, this natural wonder is facing numerous challenges. Climate change, pollution, and over-fishing are some of the major threats to the reef's health. Rising sea temperatures have led to coral bleaching, causing significant damage to the delicate coral structures. Efforts are being made to mitigate these impacts and protect the reef, including the establishment of marine protected areas and the promotion of sustainable fishing practices. Preserving the Great Barrier Reef is not only essential for the future of this unique ecosystem but also for the well-being of our planet as a whole. It serves as a stark reminder of the importance of conservation and the need to protect our natural heritage. By taking action to address the threats it faces, we can ensure that future generations will be able to enjoy and appreciate this awe-inspiring wonder of nature.
What is the main purpose of establishing marine protected areas and promoting sustainable fishing practices for the Great Barrier Reef?
View Solution
The passage highlights the importance of the Great Barrier Reef and the challenges it faces, including climate change, pollution, and over-fishing.
Step 1: Understand the threats
- Rising sea temperatures cause coral bleaching, damaging coral.
- Pollution and over-fishing threaten the reef’s delicate ecosystem.
Step 2: Identify the purpose of protective measures
- The establishment of marine protected areas and sustainable fishing is meant to reduce these threats.
- The goal is to protect the health of the reef against damage from human and environmental factors.
Step 3: Analyze options
- Option (A) talks about tourism, which is important but not the main reason for protection.
- Option (B) correctly states the aim to reduce negative impacts on reef health.
- Option (C) mentions enhancing biodiversity, which is a benefit but not the direct goal.
- Option (D) talks about restoring coral and preventing bleaching, which are outcomes but rely on mitigation of causes.
Step 4: Conclusion
Option (B) is the best answer as it directly addresses the main purpose mentioned in the passage.
Quick Tip: - When answering comprehension questions, focus on the main idea or purpose stated in the passage.
- Differentiate between causes, effects, and goals in the text.
- Eliminate options that are benefits or side effects rather than main objectives.
Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence: ``She was ..... by the news of her friend's sudden death.''
View Solution
The sentence requires a past participle adjective describing how ``she'' felt after hearing the news.
Step 1: Analyze options
- Shocked: past participle adjective meaning affected by shock; correct usage here.
- Shocking: present participle adjective meaning causing shock; incorrect here.
- Shock: noun or verb, not an adjective; incorrect in this context.
- Shockingly: adverb; incorrect as it cannot describe ``she'' directly.
Step 2: Choose the best fit
Option (A) ``Shocked'' correctly describes her emotional state.
Quick Tip: - Use past participle adjectives (shocked, surprised) to describe feelings caused by events.
- Use present participle adjectives (shocking) to describe something that causes feelings.
- Match the part of speech to the sentence structure.
Read the passage and answer the question following it:
``Malala Yousafzai was born on July 12, 1997, in Mingora, Pakistan. As a child, she became an advocate for girls’ education, which resulted in the Taliban issuing a death threat against her. On October 9, 2012, a gunman shot Malala when she was traveling home from school. She survived and has continued to speak out on the importance of education. She was nominated for a Nobel Peace Prize in 2013. In 2014, she was nominated again and won, becoming the youngest person to receive the Nobel Peace Prize.''
What is the genre of above passage?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the genre options
- Biography: a written account of someone's life by another person; fits this passage.
- Autobiography: a person's life story written by themselves; not the case here.
- Memoir: a collection of memories by the person or about a specific time; more personal and detailed.
- Fantasy: a genre involving imaginative or magical elements; not applicable here.
Step 2: Analyze the passage
- The passage describes Malala's life events objectively without personal narrative.
- It is written by someone else, so it is a biography.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (A) Biography is the correct genre.
Quick Tip: - Biography = life story written by someone else.
- Autobiography = life story written by the person themselves.
- Memoir = focuses on specific memories or periods in life.
- Always check who is the author or narrator to determine genre.
Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence: ``He ...... about his new job.''
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the meaning
- The sentence talks about how ``he'' felt regarding his new job.
- The correct phrase should express an emotion or feeling.
Step 2: Analyze options
- (A) ``had exciting'' is grammatically incorrect as ``exciting'' is an adjective and can't follow ``had'' without a noun.
- (B) ``was excited'' correctly uses the past tense of the verb ``to be'' plus the past participle ``excited'' to show feeling.
- (C) ``was exciting'' means ``he'' was causing excitement, which changes the meaning.
- (D) ``is excitement'' uses a noun in place of an adjective, incorrect in this structure.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (B) is the correct choice to express feeling about the job.
Quick Tip: - Use ``excited'' to describe feelings or emotions experienced by a person.
- Use ``exciting'' to describe something that causes excitement.
- Pay attention to verb tense and sentence meaning.
Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence:
The teacher was very ...... with the students’ progress and praised them for their hard work.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the context
- The teacher feels positively about the students' progress.
- The blank should be filled with an adjective expressing positive reaction.
Step 2: Analyze options
- (A) ``impressed'' means feeling admiration, fitting here perfectly.
- (B) ``depressing'' means causing sadness, opposite meaning.
- (C) ``expressive'' means showing feelings clearly, unrelated here.
- (D) ``aggressive'' means hostile or forceful, unrelated.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (A) is the best fit as it matches the positive sentiment.
Quick Tip: - Choose adjectives that fit the tone and meaning of the sentence.
- Understand the subtle differences between words with similar roots.
- ``Impressed'' describes a positive feeling towards something.
Identify the error in the following sentence: ``She is more smarter than her brother.''
View Solution
Step 1: Understand comparative forms
- Adjectives like ``smart'' form the comparative by adding ``-er'' (smarter).
- Using ``more'' before ``smarter'' is redundant and incorrect.
Step 2: Identify the error
- ``more smarter'' combines two comparative forms incorrectly.
- Correct usage: ``smarter'' without ``more.''
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (C) is the error because it uses a double comparative.
Quick Tip: - Use either ``-er'' or ``more'' for comparatives, not both.
- For one-syllable adjectives, add ``-er'' (taller, smarter).
- For longer adjectives, use ``more'' (more beautiful).
Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition:
``He is very good ...... playing chess.''
View Solution
Step 1: Identify common prepositions with ``good''
- The phrase ``good at'' is commonly used to indicate skill in an activity.
Step 2: Analyze options
- (A) ``at'' correctly fits to show proficiency.
- (B), (C), and (D) do not fit this phrase properly.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (A) ``at'' is the correct preposition to use with ``good.''
Quick Tip: - Remember the phrase ``good at'' to indicate skill.
- Other prepositions change meaning or are incorrect in this context.
- Practice common adjective + preposition collocations.
Read the passage and answer the question that follows:
``The Taj Mahal is one of the most famous monuments in India. It was built by Shah Jahan, a Mughal emperor, in memory of his beloved wife, Mumtaz Mahal, who died in 1631. The Taj Mahal is located on the banks of the Yamuna river in Agra, Uttar Pradesh. It is made of white marble and decorated with precious stones and intricate carvings. The Taj Mahal is considered a masterpiece of Mughal architecture and a symbol of eternal love.''
What is the main purpose of this passage?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the passage
- The passage provides factual information about the Taj Mahal’s origin, location, materials, and significance.
- It focuses on delivering knowledge rather than persuading, entertaining, or comparing.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Persuading readers to visit would involve more emotive or persuasive language.
- (B) Informing readers with facts about history and features matches the passage content.
- (C) Entertaining with a story is not the focus; the passage is factual and informative.
- (D) There is no comparison with other monuments in the passage.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (B) is correct as the main purpose is to inform readers about the Taj Mahal.
Quick Tip: - Identify the tone and intent of a passage to find its main purpose.
- Informative passages provide facts; persuasive passages aim to convince.
- Look for keywords indicating comparison or storytelling for other purposes.
Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:
Photography has witnessed a remarkable evolution with the advent of digital technology. The accessibility of high-quality cameras, smartphone advancements, and advanced image editing software has democratized the art form, allowing aspiring photographers to experiment with diverse techniques and styles. Social media platforms have further revolutionized the landscape by providing a global platform to showcase and share photographs, fostering a sense of community among photography enthusiasts. However, the digital age also presents challenges to photographers. The oversaturation of images on social media has led to a constant struggle for attention and recognition. Standing out amidst the sea of visual content requires photographers to not only demonstrate technical prowess but also develop a unique artistic vision and storytelling ability. Crafting compelling narratives through images and cultivating a distinctive visual style are essential in capturing viewers' attention and creating a lasting impact. Furthermore, the proliferation of image editing tools has sparked debates about the authenticity and ethical boundaries of photography. The ease of manipulating images has raised concerns about the representation of reality and the potential for misleading or deceptive visual storytelling. Photographers must navigate these ethical considerations and maintain transparency and integrity in their work.
Question: In the digital age, one of the skills that is essential for photographers to stand out and create a lasting impact is to?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the passage
- The passage explains how digital technology has changed photography, making it accessible but also creating challenges.
- Photographers need more than just technical skill; they must develop a unique artistic vision and storytelling ability to stand out.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Quantity over quality is discouraged as oversaturation is a problem.
- (B) Cultivating a unique artistic perspective aligns with standing out and creating impact.
- (C) Using editing as a secret is not encouraged due to ethical concerns mentioned.
- (D) Limiting techniques goes against experimentation and diversity highlighted in the passage.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (B) is correct because developing a unique artistic perspective helps photographers capture attention and make a lasting impression.
Quick Tip: - Focus on quality and creativity over quantity in digital work.
- Understand the ethical responsibilities involved in digital art and photography.
- Artistic perspective and storytelling help differentiate your work in a crowded field.
Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:
Space exploration has captured the imagination of humankind for centuries. Advancements in technology have allowed us to expand our understanding of the universe and our place within it. Through missions and telescopic observations, scientists have made remarkable discoveries about distant planets, galaxies, and celestial phenomena. Space exploration not only deepens our scientific knowledge but also inspires innovation and technological advancements here on Earth. The quest to explore the cosmos has led to the development of cutting-edge technologies, such as satellite communication, GPS systems, and medical advancements in life support and radiation shielding. Additionally, space exploration has fostered international collaborations and cooperation, transcending national boundaries and bringing together scientists and engineers from around the world. Moreover, the study of space has ignited a sense of wonder and curiosity among people of all ages, encouraging the pursuit of scientific careers and inspiring future generations to push the boundaries of human knowledge.
Question: What is one of the indirect benefits of space exploration?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the passage
- Space exploration has led to many discoveries and technological advances.
- The passage mentions technologies like satellite communication, GPS, and medical advancements as indirect benefits.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Matches the passage's mention of technological advancements.
- (B) Is incorrect since the passage emphasizes collaboration, not competition or boundary expansion.
- (C) Is not mentioned as a benefit in the passage.
- (D) Is not discussed as a benefit in the passage.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (A) is correct as it aligns with the passage's explanation of technological advancements as indirect benefits.
Quick Tip: - Indirect benefits are positive effects that happen as a result of an action, even if not the main goal.
- Look for examples or details that show these benefits clearly.
- Eliminate options not supported by the passage.
Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:
The concept of sustainable agriculture has gained significant attention in recent years as the global population continues to grow, placing increasing pressure on food production systems. Sustainable agriculture aims to minimize environmental impact, conserve natural resources, and promote long-term ecological balance while meeting the food demands of a growing population. It emphasizes the use of organic farming practices, crop rotation, soil conservation techniques, and integrated pest management. By reducing reliance on synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, sustainable agriculture seeks to maintain soil fertility, protect biodiversity, and safeguard the health of both farmers and consumers. Additionally, it encourages local food systems, reducing the carbon footprint associated with transportation and supporting local economies. Embracing sustainable agricultural practices is crucial for ensuring food security, promoting environmental stewardship, and building resilient farming communities.
Question: What is one of the key targets of sustainable agriculture?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the passage
- Sustainable agriculture aims to reduce environmental harm and promote ecological balance.
- It focuses on organic practices, soil conservation, pest management, and biodiversity protection.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) Is opposite to the passage; sustainable agriculture reduces synthetic fertilizer use.
- (B) Is incorrect; the passage promotes organic farming, not minimizes it.
- (C) Matches the passage’s emphasis on ecological balance and soil conservation.
- (D) Is incorrect; monoculture and intensive farming contradict sustainable practices.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (C) correctly reflects the key target of sustainable agriculture as described in the passage.
Quick Tip: - Carefully identify the main goals highlighted in the passage.
- Watch out for options that contradict the passage’s focus on sustainability.
- Sustainable agriculture means protecting the environment, not harming it.
Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:
I woke up early in the morning, feeling a sense of excitement coursing through my veins. Today was the day I had been preparing for---the marathon race. Months of training, countless hours of pushing my limits, and overcoming mental barriers had led me to this moment. As I laced up my running shoes and stepped outside, I took a deep breath, ready to face the challenge ahead. The racecourse stretched out before me, a daunting yet exhilarating path that would test my endurance and determination. With every step, the crowd's cheers resonated in my ears, fueling my motivation. The miles seemed to blur together as I settled into a rhythm, focusing on my breathing and maintaining a steady pace. Fatigue began to set in, but I pushed through, drawing strength from the sheer willpower within me. As I approached the finish line, a surge of energy surged through my body, propelling me forward. Crossing that finish line was a moment of triumph, a culmination of perseverance and resilience. It was a testament to the power of the human spirit and the limitless potential within us all.
Question: What is the main theme of the passage?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the passage
- The passage describes the experience of preparing for and running a marathon.
- It highlights the excitement, training, pushing limits, mental barriers, fatigue, and final triumph.
Step 2: Analyze the options
- (A) The joy of running is mentioned but is not the main focus.
- (B) Teamwork is not discussed in the passage.
- (C) Matches the passage’s emphasis on overcoming physical and mental challenges.
- (D) History and significance of marathon races are not mentioned.
Step 3: Conclusion
Option (C) best captures the central theme of the passage, which is overcoming challenges during the marathon.
Quick Tip: - Identify the main message or theme the passage conveys.
- Look for repeated ideas like overcoming obstacles or perseverance.
- Eliminate options that mention topics not covered in the passage.
Who has been appointed as India's second Chief of Defence Staff?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the position
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the highest-ranking military officer in India. The CDS acts as a single point of coordination between the Army, Navy, and Air Force, helping to integrate their efforts for national security. It is a very important and prestigious role.
Step 2: The first CDS
General Bipin Rawat was the first Chief of Defence Staff in India, appointed in January 2020.
Step 3: The second CDS
After General Bipin Rawat passed away in a helicopter crash, the next person appointed to this position was General Anil Chauhan.
Step 4: About other options
The other names listed are not known to have held this position.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (C) Anil Chauhan.
Quick Tip: The Chief of Defence Staff is a relatively new post in India, started in 2020 to unify military operations. Keep an eye on current affairs for such key appointments.
Who among the following won the 2022 Golden Globe Race?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Golden Globe Race
The Golden Globe Race is a solo non-stop round-the-world yacht race without assistance, originally held in 1968-69 and revived in 2018 to commemorate the original race.
Step 2: The 2022 Golden Globe Race
In 2022, the race was completed by Kirsten Neuschäfer, who became the first woman to win this challenging solo round-the-world sailing race.
Step 3: About other contenders
- Abhilash Tomy is a well-known Indian sailor but did not win the 2022 Golden Globe Race.
- Michael Guggenberge and Elliott Smith are also sailors who participated but were not winners.
Step 4: Why is this significant?
Winning the Golden Globe Race requires extreme endurance, sailing skills, and mental strength due to its non-stop, unsupported nature, making Kirsten’s win historic and inspiring.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (A) Kirsten Neuschäfer.
Quick Tip: Remember notable winners in major sporting events and races like the Golden Globe Race, especially record-breaking achievements such as the first woman winner in 2022.
Which film won the Best Picture Oscar in 2023?
View Solution
Step 1: About the Best Picture Oscar
The Best Picture Oscar is the highest honor awarded by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences at the annual Academy Awards (Oscars), recognizing the overall best film of the year.
Step 2: Films nominated in 2023
In 2023, several notable films were nominated for Best Picture including ``Everything Everywhere All at Once,'' ``The Whale,'' ``Avatar 2: The Way of the Water,'' and ``All Quiet on the Western Front.''
Step 3: Winner announcement
The film ``Everything Everywhere All at Once'' won the Best Picture Oscar in 2023, praised for its originality, storytelling, and performances.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (A).
\begin{quicktipbox
Keep updated with major cultural events like the Oscars as they highlight significant achievements in film and entertainment.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Keep updated with major cultural events like the Oscars as they highlight significant achievements in film and entertainment.
Which nation has announced construction of ``The Line'' - world's first vertical city in the world?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding ``The Line''
``The Line'' is a futuristic urban development project aiming to build a linear vertical city designed to minimize environmental impact and promote sustainable living.
Step 2: Location
This ambitious project has been announced by Saudi Arabia as part of its NEOM initiative to build a high-tech city with minimal carbon footprint.
Step 3: Why Saudi Arabia?
Saudi Arabia is investing in diversifying its economy and transforming urban living through innovation, and ``The Line'' is a key example of this vision.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (B).
\begin{quicktipbox
When learning about global projects, associate innovative initiatives like ``The Line'' with the countries leading sustainable development efforts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When learning about global projects, associate innovative initiatives like ``The Line'' with the countries leading sustainable development efforts.
National Highway Authority of India created a world record by making 75 kms of road between Amravati and Akola in 5 days in which state?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the achievement
The National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) set a world record by constructing 75 km of road between Amravati and Akola in just 5 days.
Step 2: Location of Amravati and Akola
Both Amravati and Akola are cities located in the state of Maharashtra, India.
Step 3: Importance
This rapid construction reflects India’s commitment to improving infrastructure and connectivity efficiently.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (D).
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember key infrastructure milestones as they reflect development progress in different states of India.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember key infrastructure milestones as they reflect development progress in different states of India.
Which district recently became the first Open Defecation Free Plus (ODF+) district in India?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding ODF+ status
Open Defecation Free Plus (ODF+) is an upgraded status given to districts that not only achieve open defecation free conditions but also ensure sustained sanitation and solid waste management.
Step 2: Wayanad district
Wayanad, a district in Kerala, became the first in India to achieve the ODF+ certification, reflecting high sanitation standards and community efforts.
Step 3: Significance
This achievement highlights the district’s commitment to hygiene, health, and environmental sustainability.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (D).
\begin{quicktipbox
Understand government sanitation initiatives and their impact on public health and environmental sustainability.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Understand government sanitation initiatives and their impact on public health and environmental sustainability.
Acronym KFON stands for?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the acronym KFON
KFON stands for Kerala Fiber Optic Network, a state initiative aimed at providing high-speed internet access to all households, particularly in rural areas of Kerala.
Step 2: Purpose of KFON
This network uses fiber optic technology to ensure reliable and fast broadband connectivity, improving digital inclusion and supporting education, business, and government services.
Thus, Option (C) is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
When you encounter acronyms, try to relate them to their purpose or the sector they belong to (e.g., KFON relates to internet connectivity in Kerala).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When you encounter acronyms, try to relate them to their purpose or the sector they belong to (e.g., KFON relates to internet connectivity in Kerala).
Who was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Indian National Congress (INC)
The INC is one of India’s major political parties and played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement.
Step 2: Historical significance of Sarojini Naidu
Sarojini Naidu was a renowned poet and freedom fighter, and she became the first Indian woman to preside over the Indian National Congress session in 1925.
Step 3: Other options
- Annie Besant was a British supporter of Indian self-rule but was not the first Indian woman INC president.
- Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first woman president of the United Nations General Assembly, not INC.
- Indira Gandhi was a Prime Minister of India, not the first INC woman president.
Thus, Option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Focus on key historical personalities and their firsts in Indian political history for general knowledge.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Focus on key historical personalities and their firsts in Indian political history for general knowledge.
Who was the first Indian woman to become a Chief Minister of an Indian State?
View Solution
Step 1: Role of Chief Minister
The Chief Minister is the head of the government of an Indian state, responsible for administration and governance.
Step 2: Sucheta Kripalani's significance
Sucheta Kripalani became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office in Uttar Pradesh in 1963.
She was a freedom fighter and played an important role in India’s independence movement.
Step 3: Clarification of other options
- Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was a diplomat and politician but never a Chief Minister.
- Mayawati and J. Jayalalithaa became Chief Ministers later but were not the first.
Thus, Option (A) is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember notable firsts in Indian political history, especially pioneering women leaders and their contributions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember notable firsts in Indian political history, especially pioneering women leaders and their contributions.
Which two entities were involved in the Battle of Colachel?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the Battle of Colachel
The Battle of Colachel took place in 1741 near Colachel in present-day Tamil Nadu.
Step 2: Participants
It was fought between the forces of the Kingdom of Travancore, led by King Marthanda Varma, and the Dutch East India Company.
Step 3: Significance
This battle marked the first significant defeat of a European colonial power (Dutch) by an Indian kingdom.
It was crucial in establishing Travancore as a dominant regional power in southern India.
Hence, Option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember key battles in Indian history and the colonial powers involved. The Battle of Colachel is notable for being a rare Indian victory over European forces.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember key battles in Indian history and the colonial powers involved. The Battle of Colachel is notable for being a rare Indian victory over European forces.
Who was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom during India's independence?
View Solution
Step 1: Context of India's independence
India gained independence on August 15, 1947.
Step 2: UK Prime Ministers around that time
- Winston Churchill was the British Prime Minister during most of World War II (1940–1945).
- Clement Attlee succeeded Churchill after the 1945 general election and was Prime Minister during India’s independence.
- Ramsay Macdonald and Anthony Eden were earlier or later Prime Ministers, not during this period.
Therefore, Clement Attlee was the UK Prime Minister who oversaw Indian independence.
\begin{quicktipbox
To remember historical timelines, link important global events (like Indian independence) with world leaders of the era.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To remember historical timelines, link important global events (like Indian independence) with world leaders of the era.
Whose writings had a significant impact on Mahatma Gandhi?
View Solution
Step 1: Gandhi’s influences
Mahatma Gandhi was influenced by many thinkers and writings throughout his life.
Step 2: Leo Tolstoy's role
Leo Tolstoy, the Russian writer and thinker, wrote extensively on nonviolence and Christian ethics, which influenced Gandhi’s philosophy of nonviolent resistance (Satyagraha).
Step 3: Other options
- Karl Marx inspired socialist and communist ideas, which differed from Gandhi's approach.
- Bernard Shaw was a playwright and critic but not a direct influence on Gandhi’s philosophy.
- Lenin was the leader of the Bolshevik Revolution and had a different ideology than Gandhi.
Thus, Option (A) is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
When studying influential figures, identify key mentors or writers whose philosophies shaped their actions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When studying influential figures, identify key mentors or writers whose philosophies shaped their actions.
Which event served as the catalyst for the outbreak of World War One?
View Solution
Step 1: Overview of WWI triggers
World War One started in 1914 due to a combination of alliances, militarism, and nationalism.
Step 2: The immediate catalyst
The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand of Austria-Hungary on June 28, 1914, by a Serbian nationalist in Sarajevo is considered the direct trigger that set off the war.
Step 3: Other options
- Germany’s invasion of Poland was a trigger for World War Two, not One.
- The sinking of the Lusitania was a factor for the US entering WWI but not the initial cause.
- The Tsar’s refusal to visit Germany is not a major historic event related to WWI’s outbreak.
Hence, Option (D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Focus on key historic events that directly led to major wars; assassinations often serve as immediate triggers.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Focus on key historic events that directly led to major wars; assassinations often serve as immediate triggers.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern Turkey?
View Solution
Step 1: Background
Mustafa Kemal Pasha, also known as Atatürk, led the Turkish War of Independence and established the Republic of Turkey in 1923.
Step 2: Contributions
He implemented wide-ranging reforms that modernized Turkey politically, socially, and economically, earning him the title "Father of Modern Turkey."
Step 3: Other options
- Celal Bayar and Ismet Inonu were important Turkish leaders but not founders of modern Turkey.
- Cemal Gursel was a later military leader and president.
Thus, Option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember leaders who played foundational roles in nation-building for understanding modern history.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember leaders who played foundational roles in nation-building for understanding modern history.
The headquarters of Pazhassi Raja for a significant period of time, often referred to as the "Aravallis of Malabar", was:
View Solution
Step 1: Who was Pazhassi Raja?
Pazhassi Raja was a prominent freedom fighter and king from the Malabar region in Kerala.
Step 2: Location of headquarters
Puralimala, also known as the "Aravallis of Malabar," was the hill fortress and headquarters of Pazhassi Raja during his resistance against British colonial forces.
Step 3: Significance
Puralimala’s strategic location helped him lead guerilla warfare effectively in the Western Ghats region.
Hence, Option (A) is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
Connect historical figures with their geographical strongholds to remember important resistance movements.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Connect historical figures with their geographical strongholds to remember important resistance movements.
The Khadakwasla Dam is located in which state?
View Solution
Step 1: Location of Khadakwasla Dam
Khadakwasla Dam is located near Pune city in Maharashtra. It is an important source of water for Pune and surrounding areas.
Step 2: Importance
The dam serves irrigation, drinking water supply, and flood control purposes.
Thus, Option (B) Maharashtra is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Associate major dams with their states and nearby cities to remember their locations easily.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate major dams with their states and nearby cities to remember their locations easily.
Rohtang Pass connects which of the following places?
View Solution
Step 1: About Rohtang Pass
Rohtang Pass is a high mountain pass in the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
Step 2: Connection
It connects the Kullu valley to the Lahaul and Spiti valleys, facilitating transportation and trade.
Thus, Option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Learn major Himalayan passes and the valleys or regions they connect to understand northern India's geography.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Learn major Himalayan passes and the valleys or regions they connect to understand northern India's geography.
Which of the following is the largest island in India?
View Solution
Step 1: Islands of India
India has many islands, including those in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
Step 2: Largest island
Great Nicobar Island, part of the Nicobar group, is the largest island in India by area.
Step 3: About others
- Majuli is the largest river island but smaller than Great Nicobar.
- Little Andaman and Pamban Islands are smaller in size.
Thus, Option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Distinguish between river islands (like Majuli) and sea islands (like Great Nicobar) when comparing sizes.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Distinguish between river islands (like Majuli) and sea islands (like Great Nicobar) when comparing sizes.
Which of the following national parks is located in the state of Rajasthan?
View Solution
Step 1: National Parks in India
India has many national parks dedicated to wildlife conservation.
Step 2: Location of Ranthambore
Ranthambore National Park is located in Rajasthan and is famous for its population of Bengal tigers.
Step 3: About others
- Bandhavgarh, Kanha, and Pench are located in Madhya Pradesh.
Thus, Option (D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Associate famous national parks with their states to remember locations easily, especially tiger reserves.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate famous national parks with their states to remember locations easily, especially tiger reserves.
The Strait of Gibraltar separates which two bodies of water?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the Strait of Gibraltar
It is a narrow strait that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean.
Step 2: Location
It lies between southern Spain and northern Morocco.
Step 3: Other options
- Mediterranean and Red Sea are connected by the Suez Canal, not the strait.
- Red Sea and Persian Gulf are separate bodies of water, connected by different routes.
- Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea are connected through the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea, not via the Strait of Gibraltar.
Thus, Option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Memorize important straits and their connecting seas or oceans, as they are key geographic locations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Memorize important straits and their connecting seas or oceans, as they are key geographic locations.
The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is:
View Solution
Step 1: Layers of the atmosphere
The atmosphere has several layers arranged in order from the Earth's surface upwards:
1. Troposphere – where weather occurs and humans live.
2. Stratosphere – contains the ozone layer.
3. Mesosphere – cold layer where meteors burn.
4. Ionosphere – ionized layer important for radio communication.
Step 2: Correct sequence
The correct sequence from Earth’s surface upwards is: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, then Ionosphere.
Thus, Option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember key characteristics of atmospheric layers to place them correctly in order.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember key characteristics of atmospheric layers to place them correctly in order.
Which country is called ``Sugar Bowl of the world"?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the term ``Sugar Bowl of the world''
This title is given to the country known for producing a large amount of sugar, especially from sugarcane cultivation.
Step 2: About Cuba
Cuba is renowned globally for its extensive sugarcane plantations and was historically one of the largest sugar producers in the world, hence called the ``Sugar Bowl of the world.''
Step 3: Other options
- Norway and Sweden are cold countries with no significant sugarcane production.
- India is a major sugar producer but not referred to by this specific title.
Thus, Option (D) Cuba is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Connect country nicknames with their major industries or products for easier recall.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Connect country nicknames with their major industries or products for easier recall.
In which district of Kerala is the Silent Valley National Park situated?
View Solution
Step 1: About Silent Valley National Park
It is a famous national park known for its rich biodiversity and undisturbed tropical rainforest ecosystem.
Step 2: Location
Silent Valley National Park is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala.
Step 3: Importance
The park is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is home to many rare and endangered species.
Thus, Option (C) Palakkad is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember key wildlife sanctuaries and their districts/states to improve geography knowledge.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember key wildlife sanctuaries and their districts/states to improve geography knowledge.
Which of these was selected as a fundamental unit for developing banking infrastructure in the Lead Bank Scheme?
View Solution
Step 1: Lead Bank Scheme
It was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India to coordinate banking development in different regions of India.
Step 2: Fundamental unit
In this scheme, the district was chosen as the fundamental unit for banking infrastructure development. Banks were assigned to districts to lead banking expansion efforts.
Thus, Option (C) District is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Understand banking reforms by their administrative focus units such as district or block.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Understand banking reforms by their administrative focus units such as district or block.
The Laffer curve is the graphical representation of:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Laffer Curve
The Laffer Curve is an economic theory that shows how government tax revenue changes as tax rates change. It suggests there is an optimal tax rate that maximizes revenue.
Step 2: Explanation
- At 0% tax rate, revenue is zero.
- At 100% tax rate, revenue is also zero because no one would work or declare income.
- Somewhere between 0% and 100%, the government collects maximum revenue. This relationship is shown by the Laffer curve.
Step 3: Other options
- Option (A) describes the Phillips curve, not Laffer.
- Option (C) describes the Environmental Kuznets curve.
- Option (D) refers to income inequality concepts.
Thus, Option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Associate economic curves with their correct descriptions and relevant theories to avoid confusion.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate economic curves with their correct descriptions and relevant theories to avoid confusion.
Consider the following statements:
1. The issuance of bonus shares by a company involves converting profits into additional shares.
2. Sweat equity refers to the compensation in lieu of payment for the contribution made to a project.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand Statement 1
Issuance of bonus shares means a company distributes additional shares to existing shareholders by converting its accumulated profits or reserves into share capital. This does not involve fresh funds coming into the company. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Step 2: Understand Statement 2
Sweat equity is the shares or compensation given to employees or contributors in exchange for their work or contribution, instead of monetary payment. This recognizes their efforts and participation. So, Statement 2 is also correct.
Step 3: Conclusion
Both statements are true.
Thus, Option (C) Both 1 \& 2 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Bonus shares increase the number of shares without raising capital, while sweat equity rewards contribution through shares instead of cash.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Bonus shares increase the number of shares without raising capital, while sweat equity rewards contribution through shares instead of cash.
In the World Trade Organization (WTO) framework, the Principle of Reciprocity envisages:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Reciprocity
In international trade, reciprocity means that if one country reduces tariffs or trade barriers, it expects other countries to do the same in return, maintaining fairness and mutual benefit.
Step 2: WTO framework
The WTO promotes this principle to encourage trade liberalization and prevent unfair advantages.
Step 3: Other options
- Option B is about uniformity but not reciprocity.
- Option C relates to TRIPS agreements, not reciprocity.
- Option D is contrary to liberal trade policies.
Thus, Option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Reciprocity in trade means “you do for me, I do for you” to keep international trade balanced.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Reciprocity in trade means “you do for me, I do for you” to keep international trade balanced.
The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called:
View Solution
Step 1: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)
FIIs are investors or investment funds from abroad who invest in financial assets like shares and bonds in Indian companies.
Step 2: Portfolio Investment
This is a type of investment where investors buy securities but do not have control over the companies. They seek returns from dividends and capital gains.
Step 3: Other options
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves direct control or management of businesses.
- NRI Investment refers to investments by Non-Resident Indians.
- Mergers and Acquisitions involve combining or purchasing companies, different from portfolio investment.
Thus, Option (B) Portfolio Investment is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Differentiate between FDI (control/influence) and portfolio investment (financial investment without control).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Differentiate between FDI (control/influence) and portfolio investment (financial investment without control).
What does the term ``dumping'' refer to when it comes to the actions of a seller in global market?
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of Dumping
Dumping happens when a company sells its products in a foreign market at prices lower than in its home market or below production cost to gain market share or eliminate competition.
Step 2: Why is it a problem?
It can harm the domestic industries of the importing country because local producers cannot compete with cheap imported goods.
Step 3: Other options
- Options (A) and (B) are general supply-demand concepts.
- Option (D) is the opposite of dumping.
Thus, Option (C) correctly defines dumping.
\begin{quicktipbox
Understand dumping as unfair trade practice involving selling products abroad at very low prices.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Understand dumping as unfair trade practice involving selling products abroad at very low prices.
Which institution among the following is a Bretton Woods Institution?
View Solution
Step 1: Bretton Woods Institutions
After World War II, the Bretton Woods Conference (1944) led to the creation of two main financial institutions:
- The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- The World Bank
Step 2: About IMF
IMF provides financial support and policy advice to member countries to stabilize economies and facilitate international trade.
Step 3: Other options
- World Economic Forum is a non-governmental organization.
- Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an economic group but not a Bretton Woods institution.
- World Trade Organisation (WTO) regulates global trade but was established later in 1995.
Thus, Option (A) IMF is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember Bretton Woods institutions as IMF and World Bank, formed to rebuild the world economy post-WWII.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember Bretton Woods institutions as IMF and World Bank, formed to rebuild the world economy post-WWII.
Which of the following inventions is NOT attributed to ancient China?
View Solution
Step 1: Inventions attributed to ancient China
Ancient China is credited with important inventions such as gunpowder, paper money, and silk production.
Step 2: Concrete
Concrete was actually developed by the Romans, not ancient China. It is a building material made from cement and aggregates.
Thus, Option (B) Concrete is the correct answer as it is not attributed to ancient China.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember famous inventions by civilizations and separate those unique to specific regions or cultures.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember famous inventions by civilizations and separate those unique to specific regions or cultures.
Which of the following yellow metals is an alloy of copper and zinc?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding alloys
An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals or a metal and another element.
Step 2: Composition of brass
Brass is an alloy made from copper and zinc, which gives it a characteristic yellow color.
Step 3: About other metals
- Gold and silver are pure metals.
- Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
Therefore, Option (D) Brass is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember common alloys and their components: brass (copper + zinc), bronze (copper + tin).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember common alloys and their components: brass (copper + zinc), bronze (copper + tin).
If a metal can be drawn into wires relatively easily, it is called:
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of ductility
Ductility is the property of a metal that allows it to be drawn into thin wires without breaking.
Step 2: Other properties
- Malleability is the ability to be hammered or rolled into sheets.
- Brittleness is the tendency to break easily.
- Conducive relates to conducting electricity or heat but is not the right term here.
Thus, Option (A) Ductile is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: Ductile metals can be drawn into wires; malleable metals can be shaped into sheets.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: Ductile metals can be drawn into wires; malleable metals can be shaped into sheets.
The most abundant organic molecule on the surface of the Earth is:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding organic molecules
Organic molecules contain carbon and are essential components of living organisms.
Step 2: Cellulose
Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate found in plant cell walls and is the most abundant organic molecule on Earth’s surface, forming the structure of plants and trees.
Step 3: Others
- Chitin is found in fungi and exoskeletons of insects.
- DNA carries genetic information but is less abundant.
- Haemoglobin is a protein in blood cells.
Thus, Option (A) Cellulose is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Cellulose is the main component of plants and forms the largest organic reservoir on Earth’s surface.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Cellulose is the main component of plants and forms the largest organic reservoir on Earth’s surface.
Which organization recently developed the ``Real-Time Train Information System (RTIS)'', which provides automatic acquisition of train movement timing?
View Solution
Step 1: What is RTIS?
Real-Time Train Information System (RTIS) is a technology that provides automatic, real-time data about train movement timing using satellite communication.
Step 2: Role of ISRO
ISRO developed RTIS by utilizing its satellite technology to enhance railway operations and provide accurate train information to passengers and authorities.
Step 3: Other organizations
- CRIS and IRISET are related to railways but RTIS development is credited to ISRO.
- BEL is a defense electronics company.
Thus, Option (A) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember ISRO’s contributions to national infrastructure beyond space missions, including transport and communication.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember ISRO’s contributions to national infrastructure beyond space missions, including transport and communication.
What is the name of the technology that allows for secure and transparent record-keeping and data transfer?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding record-keeping problems
In many systems, keeping records safe and accurate is very important. Traditional methods sometimes allow records to be changed without permission or hidden, causing mistrust.
Step 2: What is blockchain?
Blockchain is a special technology that stores data in a way that is very difficult to change. It works like a chain of blocks, where each block contains some data and is linked to the previous one, making the entire record transparent and secure.
Step 3: How does blockchain ensure security?
Because the blocks are connected and stored on many computers worldwide (called decentralization), no single person can change data without others noticing. This creates trust in the system without needing a middleman.
Step 4: Difference from other options
- Cryptocurrency is digital money that uses blockchain, but blockchain itself is the technology behind secure data.
- Neural networks and Generative AI are artificial intelligence technologies used for learning and generating content, not for record-keeping.
Thus, blockchain is the correct answer as it provides secure and transparent record-keeping and data transfer.
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of blockchain as a digital ledger or notebook that everyone shares and agrees on, making cheating or hiding information nearly impossible.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of blockchain as a digital ledger or notebook that everyone shares and agrees on, making cheating or hiding information nearly impossible.
What is the name of a celestial object that results from a supernova explosion?
View Solution
Step 1: What is a supernova?
A supernova is a huge explosion that happens when a massive star reaches the end of its life and collapses under its own gravity.
Step 2: What remains after a supernova?
The core of the star that survives after the explosion can become different types of objects depending on its size and mass. These include:
- Neutron star: An extremely dense object made mostly of neutrons, formed when the star’s core is compressed tightly but not enough to become a black hole.
- Black hole: If the core’s gravity is very strong, it collapses into a black hole, a point with gravity so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it.
- White dwarf: For smaller stars, instead of a supernova, they may become white dwarfs, which are dense, hot remnants of stars but not formed from supernova explosions directly. However, some white dwarfs result from less violent end-of-life processes.
Step 3: Why all options?
Since different types of stars produce different remnants after their life ends, all these celestial objects are connected to star death processes, including supernovae for neutron stars and black holes.
Therefore, Option (D) All of the above is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember that the death of stars can lead to different remnants: neutron stars, black holes, or white dwarfs, depending on star size.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember that the death of stars can lead to different remnants: neutron stars, black holes, or white dwarfs, depending on star size.
What is the name of the process by which stars produce energy?
View Solution
Step 1: Energy production in stars
Stars shine because they produce huge amounts of energy in their cores. This energy comes from a special process where small atoms combine to form bigger atoms, releasing energy.
Step 2: What is nuclear fusion?
Nuclear fusion is when two light atomic nuclei (such as hydrogen) combine to make a heavier nucleus (like helium). This process releases a lot of energy in the form of light and heat.
Step 3: Difference from other processes
- Nuclear fission is splitting heavy atoms into smaller parts (used in nuclear reactors).
- Radioactive decay is when unstable atoms lose particles slowly over time.
- Nuclear transmutation is changing one element into another artificially or naturally.
Step 4: Conclusion
The energy powering stars is due to nuclear fusion, making Option (C) correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of stars as giant fusion reactors that fuse hydrogen atoms into helium, releasing the light and heat we receive.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of stars as giant fusion reactors that fuse hydrogen atoms into helium, releasing the light and heat we receive.
Which nation recently increased the age of consent from 13 years old to 16 years old for ensuring the well-being and protection of young individuals?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding age of consent
Age of consent is the legal age when a person can agree to sexual activity. Raising it protects young people from abuse and exploitation.
Step 2: Japan’s recent law change
Japan raised its national age of consent from 13 to 16 years, following concerns for better child protection and international alignment.
Step 3: Importance
This change aims to ensure young individuals’ rights and safety are respected.
Step 4: Other countries
Other countries listed did not recently make this change.
Thus, Option (B) Japan is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Legal age changes show a country’s efforts to protect youth and align with global standards. Keep an eye on such reforms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Legal age changes show a country’s efforts to protect youth and align with global standards. Keep an eye on such reforms.
What is Silent Barker in the context of space technology?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Silent Barker
Silent Barker is a newly developed satellite system by the US Space Force. It consists of multiple satellites working together in space.
Step 2: Purpose
This system is designed to monitor space activity and has the ability to disable or interfere with potentially hostile satellites or space vehicles, enhancing space defense capabilities.
Step 3: Other options
- Option (A) describes communication satellites but Silent Barker focuses on defense.
- Option (B) relates to exploration missions, not defense.
- Option (C) refers to climate monitoring, unrelated here.
Therefore, Option (D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Keep track of new defense technologies in space; space is becoming an important domain for national security.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Keep track of new defense technologies in space; space is becoming an important domain for national security.
What is Operation Karuna which was launched in May 2023?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Operation Karuna
Operation Karuna was launched by the Indian Armed Forces as a humanitarian aid mission. This means India sent help like food, medical supplies, and rescue teams to Myanmar after it was severely affected by a cyclone in May 2023.
Step 2: Why humanitarian aid?
Cyclones are powerful storms that can cause huge damage to people’s homes, health, and infrastructure. Immediate help from neighboring countries can save lives and reduce suffering. India, as a friendly neighbor, responded quickly to assist Myanmar.
Step 3: Importance of such operations
Such missions help build goodwill between countries and show India’s commitment to regional peace and cooperation. It also highlights the humanitarian role of the military beyond just defense.
Step 4: Why other options are incorrect
- Option B refers to rescue operations in Ukraine, unrelated to Myanmar cyclone.
- Option C is about peace initiatives, but Operation Karuna is an aid mission.
- Option D refers to aid to Syria which is not related to this operation.
Hence, Option (A) is the correct answer.
\begin{quicktipbox
Humanitarian operations like Operation Karuna show how countries help neighbors during natural disasters to save lives and strengthen relations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Humanitarian operations like Operation Karuna show how countries help neighbors during natural disasters to save lives and strengthen relations.
What is a cloud kitchen?
View Solution
Step 1: What is a cloud kitchen?
A cloud kitchen is a kitchen set up specifically to prepare food only for delivery, without any dine-in space for customers. Unlike a regular restaurant, customers order online and get food delivered to their homes or offices.
Step 2: Why are cloud kitchens popular?
They save money on restaurant space, staff, and dining area maintenance. This helps businesses focus on cooking quality food and fast delivery. The rise of food delivery apps has boosted cloud kitchens’ popularity.
Step 3: Difference from other options
- It’s not located in mountains or related to cloud computing technology directly.
- It does not serve themed dishes.
Thus, Option (C) is the right choice.
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of cloud kitchens as virtual restaurants: no dining area, just cooking food to deliver orders placed online.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of cloud kitchens as virtual restaurants: no dining area, just cooking food to deliver orders placed online.
What is Euthanasia?
View Solution
Step 1: Meaning of euthanasia
Euthanasia refers to intentionally ending the life of a person who is suffering from a painful or incurable illness, with the goal of relieving their suffering. This is sometimes called ``mercy killing.''
Step 2: Types of euthanasia
- Voluntary euthanasia: With the patient’s consent.
- Non-voluntary euthanasia: When the patient cannot consent.
- Involuntary euthanasia: Without patient’s consent, which is generally considered unethical.
Step 3: Ethical and legal concerns
Euthanasia is a highly debated topic because it involves moral, religious, and legal questions about the right to life and death. Different countries have different laws about it.
Step 4: Why other options are incorrect
- Option A relates to childbirth, not euthanasia.
- Option B relates to mental health treatment, not euthanasia.
- Option D is unrelated legal process.
Thus, Option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Euthanasia means ending life painlessly to reduce suffering; remember it is a serious ethical and legal issue worldwide.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Euthanasia means ending life painlessly to reduce suffering; remember it is a serious ethical and legal issue worldwide.
What is the Rebuild Kerala Initiative?
View Solution
Step 1: Background of Kerala floods
In 2018, Kerala faced devastating floods due to heavy monsoon rains, which caused widespread destruction of homes, roads, bridges, and public infrastructure. Many people were displaced.
Step 2: Purpose of Rebuild Kerala Initiative
This initiative was launched to provide funds and plans for rebuilding damaged infrastructure, restoring livelihoods, and helping affected communities recover. It also focused on better disaster preparedness.
Step 3: Significance
Such rebuilding efforts are vital to help states recover from natural disasters and build resilience against future events.
Step 4: Why other options are incorrect
- Option A is about tourism, which is unrelated.
- Option C is social welfare, but the initiative specifically focuses on rebuilding post-flood.
- Option D is about cultural preservation, also unrelated here.
Thus, Option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember that Rebuild Kerala Initiative is linked to flood rehabilitation efforts, showcasing government’s disaster response.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember that Rebuild Kerala Initiative is linked to flood rehabilitation efforts, showcasing government’s disaster response.
Who is the first Indian meteor astronomer recently honoured by International Astronomical Union by naming a minor planet in his name?
View Solution
Step 1: Who is Aswin Sekhar?
Aswin Sekhar is a well-known Indian astronomer specializing in meteor astronomy, the study of meteors, their origins, and their behavior in space and Earth's atmosphere.
Step 2: Honour by IAU
The International Astronomical Union (IAU) recognized his significant contributions to space science by naming a minor planet (a small celestial body orbiting the Sun) after him. This is a rare and prestigious honour.
Step 3: Importance
This recognition highlights India's growing contribution to astronomy and space research on the global stage.
Step 4: Other options
- Subramanya Chandrasekhar was a Nobel laureate astrophysicist but not the recent honoree.
- Meganath Saha and Jayant Narlikar are renowned scientists but unrelated to this honour.
Thus, Option (B) Aswin Sekhar is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Honours like naming minor planets after scientists celebrate their contributions and encourage young students to pursue science.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Honours like naming minor planets after scientists celebrate their contributions and encourage young students to pursue science.
Find the missing number in the series: 6, 3, 3, 6, 24, ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the series
The series given is: 6, 3, 3, 6, 24, ?. We need to find the next number.
Step 2: Analyze the pattern
Look at the terms carefully:
- From 6 to 3 (6 ÷ 2 = 3)
- Then 3 (repeated)
- From 3 to 6 (3 × 2 = 6)
- From 6 to 24 (6 × 4 = 24)
It seems the series alternates between division and multiplication with increasing factors. Let's test the multipliers and divisors:
- 6 → 3 (÷2)
- 3 → 3 (×1)
- 3 → 6 (×2)
- 6 → 24 (×4)
Now, the multiplication factor seems to be doubling each time: 1, 2, 4,... So the next step could be ×8.
Step 3: Calculate the missing number
24 × 8 = 192
Hence, the missing number is 192.
\begin{quicktipbox
Look for patterns like multiplication or division with changing factors, and test them step-by-step.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for patterns like multiplication or division with changing factors, and test them step-by-step.
John has two pieces of rope, one is 18 meters long and the other is 15 meters long. He wants to cut them into smaller pieces of equal length without any rope left over. How many pieces will he have in total?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the problem
John wants to cut two ropes (18 m and 15 m) into smaller pieces, all equal length, with no leftover pieces.
Step 2: Find the maximum length of each piece
To cut both ropes into equal-length pieces without leftover, the length must be a common divisor of both 18 and 15. The largest such length is the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD).
Step 3: Calculate the GCD of 18 and 15
- Factors of 18: 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18
- Factors of 15: 1, 3, 5, 15
Common factors: 1, 3
Largest common factor = 3
Step 4: Calculate the number of pieces
- Number of pieces from 18 m rope = 18 ÷ 3 = 6
- Number of pieces from 15 m rope = 15 ÷ 3 = 5
Step 5: Total pieces
6 + 5 = 11 pieces
Hence, the answer is 11 pieces in total.
\begin{quicktipbox
For cutting into equal pieces without leftover, find the GCD of lengths and divide each by it.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For cutting into equal pieces without leftover, find the GCD of lengths and divide each by it.
A gardener has 36562 plants. He wants to arrange them in the form of a square with equal number of columns and rows. After arranging, he found some of the plants unused. The remaining plants are?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the problem
The gardener wants to arrange the plants in a perfect square formation. This means the total number of plants arranged should be a perfect square (equal rows and columns). Some plants will be leftover if 36562 is not a perfect square.
Step 2: Find the closest perfect square less than 36562
Calculate the integer part of the square root of 36562:
\(\sqrt{36562} \approx 191.26\)
The closest perfect square less than 36562 is \(191^2\). Calculate:
\(191^2 = 191 \times 191 = 36481\)
Step 3: Calculate leftover plants
Leftover = Total plants - arranged plants
= 36562 - 36481 = 81
Step 4: Conclusion
So, 81 plants remain unused after arranging in square form.
Hence, Option (C) 81 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Use the square root to find the closest perfect square for arranging items in square form and subtract to find leftovers.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use the square root to find the closest perfect square for arranging items in square form and subtract to find leftovers.
The average score of a batsman after his 30th match was 25.5. After the 40th match, his average score increased by 3.2. What is his average score in the last ten matches?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand given data
- Average after 30 matches = 25.5
- Average after 40 matches = 25.5 + 3.2 = 28.7
Step 2: Calculate total runs scored
- Total runs after 30 matches = 30 × 25.5 = 765
- Total runs after 40 matches = 40 × 28.7 = 1148
Step 3: Calculate runs in last 10 matches
Runs scored in last 10 matches = 1148 - 765 = 383
Step 4: Calculate average in last 10 matches
Average = Total runs in last 10 matches ÷ 10 = 383 ÷ 10 = 38.3
Thus, Option (A) 38.3 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
To find average of a part of data, subtract total sums and divide by number of parts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find average of a part of data, subtract total sums and divide by number of parts.
In a class there are 48 students. The ratio of number of boys to number of girls is 5:3. The number of girls to be added to the class so that the number of boys to girls is 6:5 is?
View Solution
Step 1: Calculate current number of boys and girls
Ratio = 5:3
Total students = 48
Sum of ratio parts = 5 + 3 = 8
- Number of boys = (5/8) × 48 = 30
- Number of girls = (3/8) × 48 = 18
Step 2: Let the number of girls to be added = x
After adding x girls, new number of girls = 18 + x
Number of boys remains 30
Step 3: New ratio of boys to girls = 6:5
\[ \frac{30}{18 + x} = \frac{6}{5} \]
Cross multiply:
5 × 30 = 6 × (18 + x)
150 = 108 + 6x
6x = 150 - 108 = 42
x = 7
Thus, Option (A) 7 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Use ratio formulas and cross multiplication to solve problems involving changes in ratios.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use ratio formulas and cross multiplication to solve problems involving changes in ratios.
If the price of petrol increased by 20%, by what percentage should the consumption be decreased by the consumer so that the expenditure on petrol remains unchanged?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the problem
- Price increases by 20%.
- Expenditure (price × quantity) should remain the same.
- We need to find the percentage decrease in consumption (quantity).
Step 2: Let original price = 100, original quantity = 100
- Original expenditure = 100 × 100 = 10,000
Step 3: New price
= 100 + 20% of 100 = 120
Step 4: Let new quantity = \(x\)
Since expenditure remains the same:
\(120 \times x = 10,000\)
\(x = \frac{10,000}{120} = 83.33\)
Step 5: Calculate percentage decrease in consumption
Decrease = \(100 - 83.33 = 16.67\)
Percentage decrease = \(\frac{16.67}{100} \times 100 = 16 \frac{2}{3}\)%
Thus, Option (A) 16 \(\frac{2}{3}\)% is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
When price increases, to keep expenditure same, consumption must decrease proportionally. Use inverse relation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When price increases, to keep expenditure same, consumption must decrease proportionally. Use inverse relation.
By selling a table at Rs 475, a person loses 5%. To get a gain of 5%, he should sell the table for:
View Solution
Step 1: Let cost price (CP) = \(x\)
Step 2: Loss of 5% at selling price (SP) 475
Loss means SP < CP
\[ SP = CP - 5% of CP = 0.95x = 475 \] \[ x = \frac{475}{0.95} = 500 \]
So, CP = Rs 500
Step 3: To gain 5%, new SP should be
\[ SP = CP + 5% of CP = 1.05 \times 500 = 525 \]
Thus, Option (B) Rs 525 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Use formulas:
Loss % → SP = (100 - loss%) of CP
Gain % → SP = (100 + gain%) of CP
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use formulas:
Loss % → SP = (100 - loss%) of CP
Gain % → SP = (100 + gain%) of CP
A certain sum becomes 8 fold in 15 years at simple interest. What will be the rate of interest?
View Solution
Step 1: Given
Final amount = 8 times the principal
Time = 15 years
Step 2: Simple interest formula
\[ A = P + SI \]
Where,
\(SI = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100}\), \(A\) is amount, \(P\) is principal, \(R\) is rate, \(T\) is time.
Step 3: Calculate SI
Since \(A = 8P\),
\[ SI = A - P = 8P - P = 7P \]
Step 4: Substitute into SI formula
\[ 7P = \frac{P \times R \times 15}{100} \] \[ 7 = \frac{15R}{100} \] \[ R = \frac{7 \times 100}{15} = \frac{700}{15} = 46.\overline{6}% \]
This is 46 \(\frac{2}{3}\)%
Thus, Option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
For simple interest, use the relation SI = Amount - Principal and substitute values to find the rate.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For simple interest, use the relation SI = Amount - Principal and substitute values to find the rate.
Arun starts a business with Rs. 8000 and Avinash joined him after 6 months with an investment of Rs. 40000. What will be the ratio of the profits of Arun and Avinash at the end of the year?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand profit sharing in partnership
Profits are shared in the ratio of the product of investment amount and time for which the money was invested.
Step 2: Calculate Arun's investment-time product
- Investment = Rs 8000
- Time = 12 months (since started at beginning)
\[ 8000 \times 12 = 96000 \]
Step 3: Calculate Avinash's investment-time product
- Investment = Rs 40000
- Time = 6 months (joined after 6 months)
\[ 40000 \times 6 = 240000 \]
Step 4: Ratio of profits
\[ Arun : Avinash = 96000 : 240000 = 2 : 5 \]
Thus, Option (A) 2:5 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Profit shares depend on both the invested amount and the duration of investment; multiply them to get the ratio.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Profit shares depend on both the invested amount and the duration of investment; multiply them to get the ratio.
Ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 4:3 respectively. If 6 Litres of water is added to this mixture, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 8:7. What is the quantity of milk in the original mixture?
View Solution
Step 1: Let the quantity of milk = 4x litres and water = 3x litres (since ratio is 4:3)
Step 2: After adding 6 litres water, water quantity = \(3x + 6\) litres
Step 3: New ratio is 8:7 (milk: water)
\[ \frac{4x}{3x + 6} = \frac{8}{7} \]
Cross multiply:
\[ 7 \times 4x = 8 \times (3x + 6) \] \[ 28x = 24x + 48 \] \[ 28x - 24x = 48 \] \[ 4x = 48 \] \[ x = 12 \]
Step 4: Quantity of milk
\[ 4x = 4 \times 12 = 48 litres \]
Thus, Option (D) 48 Litres is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
When a mixture’s ratio changes by adding one component, use algebraic equations to find unknown quantities.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a mixture’s ratio changes by adding one component, use algebraic equations to find unknown quantities.
A can do a piece of work in x days and B can do the work in 3x days. To finish the work together, they take 12 days. What is the value of x?
View Solution
Step 1: Work rates
- A’s rate = \(\frac{1}{x}\) work per day
- B’s rate = \(\frac{1}{3x}\) work per day
Step 2: Combined rate
\[ \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{3x} = \frac{1}{12} \] \[ \frac{3 + 1}{3x} = \frac{1}{12} \] \[ \frac{4}{3x} = \frac{1}{12} \]
Step 3: Solve for \(x\)
Cross multiply:
\[ 4 \times 12 = 3x \] \[ 48 = 3x \] \[ x = 16 \]
Thus, Option (D) 16 is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
For combined work problems, add individual work rates and equate to the combined rate.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For combined work problems, add individual work rates and equate to the combined rate.
Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/h and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/h. What is the average speed of the car?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand average speed for round trip
Average speed for two equal distances with different speeds is given by:
\[ Average speed = \frac{2 \times speed_1 \times speed_2}{speed_1 + speed_2} \]
Step 2: Substitute values
\[ = \frac{2 \times 40 \times 60}{40 + 60} = \frac{4800}{100} = 48 km/hr \]
Thus, Option (C) 48 km/hr is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
For average speed of equal distances at different speeds, use harmonic mean formula.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For average speed of equal distances at different speeds, use harmonic mean formula.
There are two tanks A and B to fill up a water tank. The tank can be filled in 40 min together by A and B, if the tank can be filled in 60 min when tap A alone is on. How much time will tap B alone take to fill up the tank?
View Solution
Step 1: Define rates
- Tap A fills in 60 min → rate of A = \(\frac{1}{60}\) tank/min
- Tap B fills in \(x\) min → rate of B = \(\frac{1}{x}\) tank/min
Step 2: Combined rate
Together they fill in 40 min → combined rate = \(\frac{1}{40}\) tank/min
Step 3: Set up equation
\[ \frac{1}{60} + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{40} \]
Step 4: Solve for \(x\)
\[ \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{40} - \frac{1}{60} = \frac{3 - 2}{120} = \frac{1}{120} \]
\[ x = 120 \]
Thus, Option (D) 120 min is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
To find individual rates from combined work rates, use addition of rates and solve for unknown.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find individual rates from combined work rates, use addition of rates and solve for unknown.
Select the letter cluster from among the given options which can replace the question (?) mark: BMRG, DLTF, FKVE, HJXD, ?
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze each letter sequence
Let's look at the positions of letters in the English alphabet:
- B (2), M (13), R (18), G (7)
- D (4), L (12), T (20), F (6)
- F (6), K (11), V (22), E (5)
- H (8), J (10), X (24), D (4)
Step 2: Observe patterns
- First letters: B, D, F, H → increase by 2 in alphabet positions. Next is J (10).
- Second letters: M (13), L (12), K (11), J (10) → decrease by 1 each time. Next is I (9).
- Third letters: R (18), T (20), V (22), X (24) → increase by 2. Next is Z (26).
- Fourth letters: G (7), F (6), E (5), D (4) → decrease by 1. Next is C (3).
Step 3: Construct the next cluster
J (10), I (9), Z (26), C (3) → JIZC
Thus, Option (A) JIZC is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Look at the alphabetical positions and find the arithmetic pattern for each letter to predict the next cluster.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look at the alphabetical positions and find the arithmetic pattern for each letter to predict the next cluster.
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Pilot : Cockpit :: Surgeon : ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the relation
- A pilot operates from a cockpit, which is the specific place where the pilot controls the airplane.
Step 2: Parallel relation
- A surgeon operates in an operating room, which is the specific place for performing surgeries.
Step 3: Why other options are incorrect?
- Waiting room and hospital are general areas, not the specific place of operation.
- Scrub room is where surgeons prepare, not where they operate.
Therefore, Option (A) Operating room is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Find the specific functional place associated with a profession to solve analogy questions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Find the specific functional place associated with a profession to solve analogy questions.
Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
Seed
Flower
Fruit
Tree
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the life cycle of a plant
- The process starts from a seed.
- The seed grows into a tree.
- The tree produces flowers.
- Flowers develop into fruit.
Step 2: Analyze the given sequences
- Option A (1, 2, 3, 4): Seed → Flower → Fruit → Tree is incorrect because a tree comes before flowers and fruit.
- Option B (4, 3, 2, 1): Tree → Fruit → Flower → Seed is reverse and incorrect.
- Option C (1, 4, 2, 3): Seed → Tree → Flower → Fruit is the correct natural order of development.
- Option D (4, 1, 2, 3): Tree → Seed → Flower → Fruit is incorrect because seed comes before tree.
Thus, the meaningful order is option (C).
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the typical plant life cycle: seed grows into a tree, which then produces flowers, and flowers develop into fruits.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the typical plant life cycle: seed grows into a tree, which then produces flowers, and flowers develop into fruits.
From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word "CHARACTERISTIC".
View Solution
Step 1: Check letters in "CHARACTERISTIC"
- The word contains letters: C, H, A, R, A, C, T, E, R, I, S, T, I, C.
Step 2: Check if each option can be formed
- "Race": Uses R, A, C, E - all present in "CHARACTERISTIC".
- "Skate": Requires S, K, A, T, E. The letter "K" is not present in "CHARACTERISTIC".
- "Car": Uses C, A, R - all present.
- "Earth": Uses E, A, R, T, H - all present.
Thus, "Skate" cannot be formed because "K" is missing. Option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
To check if a word can be formed, verify each letter's availability and count in the source word.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To check if a word can be formed, verify each letter's availability and count in the source word.
A man drove east for 5 kms, then drove north 3 kms, then turned to his left and drove for 2 kms and again turned to his left. Which direction was he going now?
View Solution
Step 1: Visualize the path
- Start by moving East for 5 km.
- Then move North for 3 km.
- Turn left from North → direction is West, and drive 2 km.
- Turn left again from West → direction is South.
Therefore, he is now moving South. Option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: Turning left from North leads West, and turning left from West leads South.
Drawing a rough path can help visualize directions clearly.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: Turning left from North leads West, and turning left from West leads South. Drawing a rough path can help visualize directions clearly.
Five boys A, B, C, D, and E are in a row. A is on the right of B, E is on the left of B but on the right of C, and A is on the left of D. Who is second from the left?
View Solution
Step 1: Write down the conditions
- A is on the right of B → B ... A
- E is on the left of B but on the right of C → C ... E ... B
- A is on the left of D → A ... D
Step 2: Arrange from left to right
From condition 2: \( C, E, B \)
From condition 1: \( B, A \)
From condition 3: \( A, D \)
Putting it all together: \( C, E, B, A, D \)
Step 3: Identify the second from the left
- First from left: C
- Second from left: E
Thus, option (C) E is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
List the conditions step-by-step and try to arrange individuals logically to find their positions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: List the conditions step-by-step and try to arrange individuals logically to find their positions.
In the following question, some statements followed by conclusions are given. Read all the conclusions and decide which logically follows the statements.
Statements:
No tap is nozzle.
Some valves are taps.
Conclusions:
All nozzles are valves.
All valves are nozzles.
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze statements
- Statement 1: "No tap is nozzle" means taps and nozzles are completely different groups.
- Statement 2: "Some valves are taps" means valves and taps overlap partially.
Step 2: Analyze conclusions
- Conclusion I: "All nozzles are valves" — Cannot be true because no taps are nozzles, and valves only overlap with taps, so no conclusion about nozzles and valves can be drawn.
- Conclusion II: "All valves are nozzles" — Cannot be true as valves are only partially related to taps, and taps are distinct from nozzles.
Hence, neither conclusion logically follows.
\begin{quicktipbox
When evaluating logical conclusions, carefully analyze the relationship and overlapping sets described in the statements.
Draw Venn diagrams if needed to visualize.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When evaluating logical conclusions, carefully analyze the relationship and overlapping sets described in the statements. Draw Venn diagrams if needed to visualize.
In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements?
Statements:
All dogs are cats
Some monkeys are cats
Conclusions:
Some monkeys are cats
No dog is cat
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze statements
- Statement 1: "All dogs are cats" means every dog belongs to the category of cats.
- Statement 2: "Some monkeys are cats" means monkeys and cats have some overlap.
Step 2: Analyze conclusions
- Conclusion I: "Some monkeys are cats" directly matches statement 2 and is therefore true.
- Conclusion II: "No dog is cat" contradicts statement 1 and is false.
Hence, only conclusion I follows.
\begin{quicktipbox
When evaluating syllogisms, always compare conclusions directly with given statements and check for contradictions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When evaluating syllogisms, always compare conclusions directly with given statements and check for contradictions.
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
People who live in the big city crowd into jammed buses
They cross the street in competition with high powered motor cars
Conclusions:
Traffic jam is inevitable in big cities
Traveling is very difficult for city people
View Solution
Step 1: Understand statements
- The statements describe crowded buses and competition with motor cars in the streets.
- These indicate travel challenges, but do not explicitly state traffic jams.
Step 2: Analyze conclusions
- Conclusion I: "Traffic jam is inevitable in big cities" is a generalization not directly supported by the statements.
- Conclusion II: "Traveling is very difficult for city people" logically follows due to crowding and competition described.
Thus, only conclusion II logically follows.
\begin{quicktipbox
Distinguish between what is explicitly stated and what is assumed when drawing conclusions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Distinguish between what is explicitly stated and what is assumed when drawing conclusions.
Given that 25 February 2008 is Monday, what day is 2 March 2008?
View Solution
Step 1: Count the days between dates
- From 25 Feb to 2 Mar is 6 days (26, 27, 28 Feb, 29 Feb (leap year), 1 Mar, 2 Mar).
Step 2: Calculate the day
- 25 Feb 2008 = Monday
- Add 6 days: Monday + 6 days = Sunday
Therefore, 2 March 2008 is Sunday. Option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember to consider leap years and count days carefully when calculating days of the week.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember to consider leap years and count days carefully when calculating days of the week.
A clock with only dots marking 3,6,9 and 12 positions has been kept upside down in front of a mirror. A person reads the time in the reflection as 9:50. What is the actual time?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the problem
- Clock is upside down and viewed in a mirror.
- Time seen is 9:50 in reflection.
Step 2: Calculate actual time
- Reflecting a clock time involves subtracting the seen time from 12:00
- 12:00 - 9:50 = 2:10
- But since the clock is upside down, the actual time is the opposite of 2:10 which is 8:40.
Hence, option (B) 8:40 is the correct time.
\begin{quicktipbox
When dealing with mirrored and inverted clocks, remember to subtract from 12:00 and account for inversion.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When dealing with mirrored and inverted clocks, remember to subtract from 12:00 and account for inversion.
Manohar told his friend pointing to a photograph: "Her father is the only son of my mother". The photograph is of Manohar's:
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the relation
- "Only son of my mother" means Manohar himself.
- So "Her father is Manohar" means Manohar is the father of the person in the photo.
Step 2: Conclusion
- The photo is of Manohar's daughter.
- So option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Break down family relations into smaller logical steps to understand connections clearly.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Break down family relations into smaller logical steps to understand connections clearly.
Which of these is the chief court of the UN?
View Solution
Step 1: What is the United Nations (UN)?
The UN is an international organization formed to promote peace, security, and cooperation among countries. It helps solve conflicts and problems around the world.
Step 2: What is the chief court of the UN?
- The chief court is called the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
- It is the main legal body that settles disputes between countries (not individuals) and gives advice on legal questions.
- The ICJ is located in The Hague, Netherlands.
Step 3: Why not the other options?
- Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ) was the predecessor of ICJ but no longer exists (replaced by ICJ in 1946).
- European Court of Justice (ECJ) deals with European Union laws, not global UN issues.
- International Criminal Court (ICC) prosecutes individuals for serious crimes (like war crimes), but it is independent of the UN and not the chief UN court.
Step 4: Summary
So, the ICJ is the official judicial body of the UN and handles legal disputes between nations, making option (A) correct.
Quick Tip: To remember the chief court of the UN:
- Think of the \textbf{International Court of Justice (ICJ)} as the UN’s “world court” for country disputes.
- It does not deal with individuals or crimes, only with countries and international law.
- Located in The Hague, it promotes peace through legal decisions.
Who among the following is called, "The father of International Law"?
View Solution
Step 1: About Hugo Grotius
- Hugo Grotius was a Dutch jurist and philosopher, widely recognized as the "father of International Law".
- He laid the foundations for international law based on natural law and justice principles in the 17th century.
Step 2: Others
- Humphrey Waldock was a 20th-century legal scholar but not called the father of international law.
- J.L. Briefly and Pufendorf are other scholars, but Grotius is the foundational figure.
Thus, Hugo Grotius is correctly known as the father of International Law.
\begin{quicktipbox
When remembering founders of legal fields, associate Hugo Grotius with the beginning of international law.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When remembering founders of legal fields, associate Hugo Grotius with the beginning of international law.
Which International Law provides a definition for the term "state"?
View Solution
Step 1: Montevideo Convention (1933)
- It is an international treaty that defines the criteria for statehood in international law.
- It sets out the four criteria: a permanent population, defined territory, government, and capacity to enter into relations with other states.
Step 2: Other options
- Law of the Sea deals with maritime boundaries, not state definitions.
- Law of Treaties governs how treaties are made and followed.
- International Criminal Law relates to crimes against humanity and individuals, not statehood.
Hence, the Montevideo Convention provides the definition of a "state".
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember Montevideo Convention as the standard reference for statehood criteria in international law.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember Montevideo Convention as the standard reference for statehood criteria in international law.
Which international agreement or document defines the concept of an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
View Solution
Step 1: Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
- UNCLOS is the main international treaty governing maritime rights.
- It introduced the concept of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), extending up to 200 nautical miles from a country's coastline.
- Within the EEZ, a country has exclusive rights to explore and exploit marine resources.
Step 2: Other options
- Universal Declaration of Human Rights deals with human rights, not maritime zones.
- Free Trade Agreements are trade-related agreements, unrelated to maritime zones.
- Monroe Doctrine is a US foreign policy statement, unrelated to EEZ.
Therefore, EEZ is defined in the Convention on the Law of the Sea.
\begin{quicktipbox
Link EEZ with UNCLOS when studying maritime laws and ocean governance.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Link EEZ with UNCLOS when studying maritime laws and ocean governance.
A state is admitted to the membership of the United Nations (U.N.) by:
View Solution
Step 1: UN Membership Process
- Admission of a new state requires approval by both the Security Council and the General Assembly.
- First, the Security Council recommends admission.
- Then the General Assembly votes and admits the state by a majority vote.
Step 2: Other options
- Unanimous decision is not required in Security Council; majority or no veto is sufficient.
- The General Assembly cannot admit a state without Security Council recommendation.
- Secretary-General does not have direct admission powers.
Hence, option (A) correctly describes the UN admission process.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the two-step admission process: Security Council recommendation, then General Assembly vote.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the two-step admission process: Security Council recommendation, then General Assembly vote.
What does the term ``Persona non grata'' refer to?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the term ``Persona non grata''
- This Latin term literally means ``an unwelcome person.''
- In diplomacy, it refers to a diplomat who is declared unacceptable or undesirable by the host country.
- When a diplomat is declared ``persona non grata,'' they are usually asked to leave the country.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Being ungrateful is not related to the formal diplomatic term.
- (B) Inefficiency is not the meaning of ``persona non grata.''
- (D) Being most desirable is the opposite of the term.
Step 3: Importance
- The term is a formal diplomatic tool used to express displeasure or rejection without breaking diplomatic relations outright.
Hence, option (C) correctly defines ``persona non grata.''
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember ``persona non grata'' means a diplomat who is officially unwelcome or undesirable in the host country.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember ``persona non grata'' means a diplomat who is officially unwelcome or undesirable in the host country.
Perspective that focuses on the idea that punishment should primarily serve as a means to inflict harm or suffering upon an offender.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the theories of punishment
- Preventive Theory: Focuses on preventing crime by restricting the offender's future actions.
- Deterrent Theory: Punishment should discourage the offender and others from committing crimes.
- Reformative Theory: Punishment aims to reform or rehabilitate the offender.
- Retributive Theory: Punishment is deserved and should be a form of retaliation or harm proportionate to the offense.
Step 2: Match the question
- The question describes punishment as a means to inflict harm or suffering as retribution.
Thus, the Retributive theory (Option D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: Retributive theory emphasizes ``an eye for an eye'' and punishment as deserved suffering.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: Retributive theory emphasizes ``an eye for an eye'' and punishment as deserved suffering.
What does the term ``Volksgeist'' refer to?
View Solution
Step 1: Meaning of ``Volksgeist''
- A German word meaning ``spirit of the people.''
- It refers to the unique cultural, social, and historical spirit that defines a nation or group.
- Emphasizes collective identity and tradition.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Individualism relates to personal freedom, not collective spirit.
- (B) Belief in racial superiority is unrelated to ``Volksgeist.''
- (D) Idea of global community is broader and not the specific meaning of ``Volksgeist.''
Hence, Option (C) correctly defines ``Volksgeist.''
\begin{quicktipbox
To remember, think ``Volksgeist'' = the shared spirit or character that shapes a nation or culture.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To remember, think ``Volksgeist'' = the shared spirit or character that shapes a nation or culture.
Which School of Jurisprudence avoids any dogmatic formulation and concentrates on decisions given by law courts?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand different schools of jurisprudence
- Analytical School: Focuses on systematic, logical analysis of law’s structure.
- Philosophical School: Considers moral and ethical bases of law.
- Realist School: Focuses on how law actually works in practice, especially court decisions, avoiding abstract theories.
- Sociological School: Studies law’s social context and effects.
Step 2: Match question with Realist School
- The question describes a school concentrating on judicial decisions and avoiding dogma.
- This matches the Realist School.
Thus, option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember, Legal Realism focuses on how law operates in real cases and court decisions, not just theory.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember, Legal Realism focuses on how law operates in real cases and court decisions, not just theory.
Subordinate legislation includes
View Solution
Step 1: Understand subordinate legislation
- It refers to laws or rules made by an authority other than the legislature but under powers delegated by the legislature.
- Examples include rules, regulations, notifications, directions, etc.
Step 2: Differentiate Acts and subordinate legislation
- Acts of Parliament (Option B) are primary legislation made by the legislature.
- Directions, notifications, rules, and regulations are subordinate or delegated legislation, created by authorities empowered by Acts.
Step 3: Correct options
- Directions and notifications (A) are subordinate legislation.
- Rules and regulations (C) are also subordinate legislation.
Hence, Option (D) Both (A) and (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: Acts of Parliament are primary laws, subordinate legislation includes rules, regulations, notifications, and directions made under delegated powers.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: Acts of Parliament are primary laws, subordinate legislation includes rules, regulations, notifications, and directions made under delegated powers.
Possession through a servant is an example of
View Solution
Step 1: Understand possession types
- Immediate possession means direct physical control or holding of a property.
- Mediate possession means possession through another person, like a servant or agent.
- Corporeal possession involves actual physical possession of a tangible thing.
- Incorporeal possession refers to possession of intangible rights.
Step 2: What is possession through a servant?
- When a person possesses property via a servant or representative, they are not directly holding it but controlling it through someone else.
- This is mediate possession.
Hence, option (A) Mediate possession is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Possession can be direct (immediate) or indirect (mediate). Possession through a servant is indirect or mediate possession.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Possession can be direct (immediate) or indirect (mediate). Possession through a servant is indirect or mediate possession.
The term Juristic person refers to?
View Solution
Step 1: Definition of juristic person
- A juristic person is an entity, other than a natural person (human), to which law attributes legal rights and duties.
- Examples include companies, corporations, government bodies, or organizations.
- They can own property, enter contracts, sue or be sued.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Judge is a natural person.
- (B) Legal luminary means legal expert, not juristic person.
- (D) None of the above is incorrect as (C) is right.
Therefore, option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of juristic persons as ``legal persons'' created by law that have rights and duties like humans.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of juristic persons as ``legal persons'' created by law that have rights and duties like humans.
What is the role of corroborative evidence in a legal proceeding?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand corroborative evidence
- Corroborative evidence is evidence that strengthens or confirms the main evidence presented in a case.
- It helps to verify the truth of a fact or testimony by providing independent support.
Step 2: Importance in trials
- It increases the reliability and credibility of the main evidence.
- It reduces doubts about the accuracy of the primary evidence.
Step 3: Why other options are incorrect
- (B) Undermining credibility is opposite to corroboration.
- (C) Cross-examination is a method, not the evidence itself.
- (D) Inadmissible evidence cannot be corroborative.
Thus, option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Corroborative evidence acts as ``backup'' evidence that supports the main proof in a case.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Corroborative evidence acts as ``backup'' evidence that supports the main proof in a case.
What does the term ``locus standi'' mean in legal context?
View Solution
Step 1: Meaning of ``locus standi''
- It is a Latin phrase meaning ``place to stand.''
- In law, it refers to the right or capacity of a person or party to bring a lawsuit or appear in court.
- It ensures that only persons with a sufficient interest in a case can sue.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Physical location is the venue, not locus standi.
- (C) Judge's authority is jurisdiction or power, different term.
- (D) Jury selection is called voir dire, unrelated here.
Therefore, option (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember, locus standi means having the ``legal right'' to bring a case before the court.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember, locus standi means having the ``legal right'' to bring a case before the court.
What does the term ``abettor'' mean?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the term ``abettor''
- An abettor is someone who encourages, aids, or helps another person to commit a crime.
- They may not commit the crime themselves but support or assist the main offender.
Step 2: Other options
- (B) Power of attorney is a legal document, unrelated.
- (C) Legal defense is a strategy, not an abettor.
- (D) Formal accusation is a charge, not a person.
Thus, option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of an abettor as an accomplice who helps or encourages a crime, even if they do not do the act directly.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of an abettor as an accomplice who helps or encourages a crime, even if they do not do the act directly.
What is a characteristic of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
- PIL is a legal action initiated in court for protecting the public interest or the rights of society at large, especially for marginalized or disadvantaged groups.
- It allows any public-spirited individual or organization to file a case on behalf of the public interest without being directly affected.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Disputes between private individuals are private litigation, not PIL.
- (B) Personal financial interests do not fall under PIL, which serves wider social welfare.
- (D) PIL can be initiated by any individual or NGO, not exclusively by government.
Therefore, option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember, PIL is a tool to promote social justice by allowing courts to hear cases affecting the public interest.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember, PIL is a tool to promote social justice by allowing courts to hear cases affecting the public interest.
What does the term ``ipso facto'' indicate?
View Solution
Step 1: Meaning of ``ipso facto''
- It is a Latin phrase meaning ``by the fact itself.''
- It indicates that something happens as a direct consequence or by the very nature of something else without needing further proof.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Automatic revocation is not the general meaning of ipso facto.
- (B) Voluntarily giving up rights is ``waiver,'' not ipso facto.
- (D) Asserting claim against a third party is unrelated.
Thus, option (C) is the correct meaning.
\begin{quicktipbox
Ipso facto means an event happens ``by that very fact,'' i.e., automatically or inherently as a consequence.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Ipso facto means an event happens ``by that very fact,'' i.e., automatically or inherently as a consequence.
What does the Civil Procedure Code lay down?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
- CPC is a procedural law that provides the rules and methods for the conduct of civil suits in courts.
- It specifies how a civil case should be initiated, heard, and decided.
Step 2: Why other options are incorrect
- (B) Guidelines for investigations and prosecutions are covered by criminal procedure laws.
- (C) Administrative law is governed by different statutes.
- (D) Corporate governance is regulated by company law and related rules.
Therefore, option (A) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
CPC governs how civil disputes are resolved legally by setting the court procedures to be followed.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: CPC governs how civil disputes are resolved legally by setting the court procedures to be followed.
Prosecution is to Accused as ..... is to Defendant?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the pairs
- In criminal cases, the party bringing the case is the \textit{prosecution and the person charged is the \textit{accused.
- In civil cases, the party initiating the case is the \textit{plaintiff and the person against whom the case is brought is the \textit{defendant.
Step 2: Matching the analogy
- Prosecution : Accused :: Plaintiff : Defendant
Hence, option (B) Plaintiff is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Match parties by their role in the case: prosecution and accused in criminal cases; plaintiff and defendant in civil cases.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Match parties by their role in the case: prosecution and accused in criminal cases; plaintiff and defendant in civil cases.
Chief Election Commissioner of India is
View Solution
Step 1: Role of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
- The CEC is the head of the Election Commission of India, responsible for conducting free and fair elections.
Step 2: Appointment process
- According to the Constitution of India, the CEC is appointed by the \textit{President of India.
- The appointment is made independently and not influenced by the Council of Ministers or Parliament.
Step 3: Why other options are incorrect
- (A) Council of Ministers does not appoint the CEC.
- (B) Prime Minister does not appoint the CEC directly.
- (C) Parliament does not appoint the CEC.
Therefore, option (D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember, the President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner to ensure independence of the election body.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember, the President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner to ensure independence of the election body.
Which of the following principles is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the structure of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
- The Preamble highlights the key ideals of the Constitution. It contains the following core values:
\quad - Justice (social, economic, and political)
\quad - Liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship)
\quad - Equality (of status and opportunity)
\quad - Fraternity (assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation)
Step 2: Analyze the given options
- (A) ``Liberty'' is mentioned in the Preamble.
- (B) ``Equality'' is explicitly mentioned.
- (C) ``Diversity'' is not directly mentioned, though India celebrates diversity, it is not a textual part of the Preamble.
- (D) ``Justice'' is clearly stated in three forms.
Hence, option (C) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Read the exact words of the Preamble to understand which principles are explicitly included and which are implied.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Read the exact words of the Preamble to understand which principles are explicitly included and which are implied.
Provisions for amendment of Constitution is provided under
View Solution
Step 1: Identify the article related to constitutional amendments
- Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution.
Step 2: Understand what the other articles deal with
- (A) Article 348 – Language to be used in the Supreme Court and High Courts.
- (C) Article 370 – Temporary provisions for the State of Jammu and Kashmir (now abrogated).
- (D) Article 378 – Provisions as to the Public Service Commission.
Only Article 368 deals with amendments, hence (B) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember Article 368 as the key provision for changing or updating the Constitution.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember Article 368 as the key provision for changing or updating the Constitution.
Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are non-justifiable in nature.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles are essentially guiding principles for the government to strive towards achieving social and economic justice.
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the Assertion (A)
- Directive Principles are listed in Part IV of the Constitution and are not enforceable by courts (non-justiciable). So A is true.
Step 2: Understand the Reason (R)
- These principles guide the state in policymaking to ensure social and economic justice. So R is also true.
Step 3: Analyze the relationship
- The reason clearly explains why Directive Principles are non-justiciable — they are goals for the state rather than enforceable rights.
Therefore, both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
\begin{quicktipbox
Non-justiciable means you can't go to court to enforce them — they are goals for state policy, not legal obligations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Non-justiciable means you can't go to court to enforce them — they are goals for state policy, not legal obligations.
Which one of the following is NOT a type of Emergency stipulated in Indian Constitution
View Solution
Step 1: Know the types of emergencies in the Constitution
There are three emergencies mentioned:
- National Emergency (Article 352)
- State Emergency or President’s Rule (Article 356)
- Financial Emergency (Article 360)
Step 2: Evaluate the options
- (A), (B), and (C) are officially defined types.
- (D) “Military Emergency” is not a constitutional term, though military action may lead to the declaration of National Emergency.
Therefore, option (D) is correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Only three emergencies are constitutionally defined — there is no such thing as a "Military Emergency" in official terms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Only three emergencies are constitutionally defined — there is no such thing as a "Military Emergency" in official terms.
Choose the correct option based on the statements given:
(1) In Civil law, the initiation of a case starts with the filing of a complaint by the aggrieved party against the wrongdoer, whereas in Criminal Law, the case is filed by the Government against the accused.
(2) Burden of proving the evidence in Civil Law lies on the plaintiff, whereas in Criminal Law it always lies on the State.
View Solution
Statement (1): In Civil Law, the aggrieved party (plaintiff) initiates legal proceedings against the wrongdoer (defendant). In Criminal Law, the government, also known as the State, prosecutes the accused on behalf of society. Therefore, Statement (1) is true.
Statement (2): In Civil Law, the burden of proof lies with the plaintiff (the person bringing the case), who must prove the case on a "preponderance of probability." In Criminal Law, the burden is on the State (prosecution) to prove the guilt of the accused "beyond a reasonable doubt." Thus, Statement (2) is also true.
Hence, both statements are correct.
\begin{quicktipbox
Civil Law deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, while Criminal Law involves offenses against the state or society at large.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Civil Law deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, while Criminal Law involves offenses against the state or society at large.
Choose the correct option based on the statements given:
(1) In Criminal Law, the punishment maybe given in terms of compensation whereby the wrongdoer reimburses the other party the amount of loss sustained by him as decided by the court.
(2) In Criminal Law the guilty is punished by incarceration with or without fine, or in some rarest of the rare cases with death penalty.
View Solution
Statement (1): Compensation is primarily associated with Civil Law, where the court orders the wrongdoer to pay damages to the aggrieved party. In Criminal Law, the main focus is on punishing the offender through imprisonment, fines, or other penalties. While compensation can be ordered in certain criminal cases (like under the Probation of Offenders Act or Section 357 CrPC), it is not the primary form of punishment. Hence, this statement is partially misleading and not strictly true.
Statement (2): Criminal Law prescribes punishments such as imprisonment (with or without fine), and in rarest of rare cases, the death penalty. Therefore, Statement (2) is correct.
Hence, only statement (2) is true.
\begin{quicktipbox
Criminal Law primarily seeks to punish offenders, while Civil Law focuses on compensating the victim.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Criminal Law primarily seeks to punish offenders, while Civil Law focuses on compensating the victim.
Which of the following statements best describes the Doctrine of Lis Pendens?
View Solution
Understanding Lis Pendens:
The term “Lis Pendens” is a Latin phrase that means “pending suit.” It is a legal doctrine under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in India. According to this principle, when a property is subject to a legal dispute (litigation), it cannot be sold or transferred to another party until the case is resolved by the court.
This prevents one party from making changes to property ownership that could complicate or defeat the outcome of the case.
Hence, the correct explanation is given in option (C).
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: "Lis Pendens" = Property in Litigation → No Sale or Transfer Allowed Until Case Ends.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: "Lis Pendens" = Property in Litigation → No Sale or Transfer Allowed Until Case Ends.
Choose the correct option based on the statements given:
(1) A transfer of ownership of property that is made voluntarily and without consideration is called a Lease
(2) When two persons transfer ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, it is called Gift
View Solution
Let us examine the definitions of the legal terms involved in the statements.
Statement (1) claims that a voluntary transfer of ownership without consideration is called a Lease. This is incorrect.
- A Gift is defined as the voluntary transfer of property ownership without any consideration.
- A Lease is a transfer of the right to use property for a certain period in exchange for consideration (like rent), not ownership.
Statement (2) says that when two persons exchange ownership of one thing for another, it is called a Gift. This is also incorrect.
- Such an exchange is known as a Barter or Exchange, not a Gift.
- A Gift involves one party giving something voluntarily to another without expecting anything in return.
Thus, both statements are factually incorrect. Quick Tip: Understand key legal terminology:
- \textbf{Gift}: Transfer without consideration.
- \textbf{Lease}: Transfer of possession, not ownership, with consideration.
- \textbf{Exchange}: Mutual transfer of ownership.
- Always check the nature of transfer (ownership or possession) and presence of consideration.
Securing a Uniform Civil Code is a
View Solution
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned under Article 44 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 44 directs the State to endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
It is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) which are guidelines to the central and state governments for governance.
DPSPs are not enforceable by courts but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Hence, UCC is not a fundamental duty or right, but a Directive Principle. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Fundamental Rights} are enforceable by courts.
- \textbf{Directive Principles} guide the government but are non-enforceable.
- UCC under Article 44 is a Directive Principle meant to promote national integration and equality.
A liability on property is known as
View Solution
A liability or claim attached to property which affects its transfer or use is called an Encumbrance.
It can be in the form of mortgages, easements, liens, leases, or restrictions that burden the property.
- Ownership refers to having legal title or rights to the property.
- Lease gives someone the right to use the property temporarily in exchange for rent.
- Consideration is the value exchanged in a contract.
None of these directly represent a liability on the property like an encumbrance does. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Encumbrance} = Burden or liability on property.
- It may hinder transfer or use of property until cleared.
- Always check for encumbrance when buying or leasing property to avoid legal issues.
According to the principle of joint liability, in an unlawful assembly with common object, which statement is true?
View Solution
Under Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), if an offense is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object of that assembly, every person who is a member of the same unlawful assembly is guilty of the offense.
This principle is known as joint liability and holds all members responsible for acts done in pursuit of the shared purpose of the group.
Let’s analyze the options:
- Option A: Incorrect. Liability does not vary individually; it's collective under joint liability.
- Option B: Incorrect. This applies to individual liability, not joint liability.
- Option C: Correct. In joint liability under Section 149 IPC, each member is liable for the acts committed by other members if done in pursuit of the common object.
- Option D: Incorrect. Not only the main offender, but all members sharing the common object are liable.
Therefore, the correct answer is (C). Quick Tip: - Section 149 IPC deals with joint liability in an unlawful assembly.
- All members are liable if the act is committed in pursuit of the assembly's common object.
- Remember: In group offenses with shared intent, individual roles don’t exempt from liability.
What does the term 'mens rea' refer to?
View Solution
The term mens rea is Latin for "guilty mind". It refers to the mental element or intent required to establish criminal liability.
In criminal law, to convict someone of most offenses, it must be shown that the act (actus reus) was accompanied by the appropriate mental state (mens rea).
- Option A is incorrect because the process used by courts is procedural, not definitional.
- Option C refers to a sentencing outcome, not the legal concept of criminal intent.
- Option D is irrelevant to the meaning of 'mens rea'.
Thus, Option B is correct. Quick Tip: - Remember: \textbf{Actus Reus} = Guilty Act, \textbf{Mens Rea} = Guilty Mind.
- Both must usually be proven to establish a crime.
- Intent, knowledge, recklessness, and negligence are common types of mens rea.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
Statement 1: Indian Penal Code and Criminal Procedure Code are both substantive law
Statement 2: Substantive Law prescribes the offences and the punishments for these offences
View Solution
- Statement 1 is false: The Indian Penal Code (IPC) is substantive law because it defines crimes and punishments.
However, the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is procedural law because it lays down the procedures for investigation, trial, and punishment.
- Statement 2 is true: Substantive law indeed prescribes the nature of offences and their punishments.
Hence, only Statement 2 is true. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Substantive law} defines rights, duties, and offenses. Example: IPC.
- \textbf{Procedural law} outlines steps to enforce those rights and duties. Example: CrPC.
- Don’t confuse the two—one defines crimes, the other explains how to deal with them.
The term 'Wrongful loss' means
View Solution
As per Section 23 of the Indian Penal Code, 'Wrongful loss' means the loss of property by unlawful means to which the person losing it is legally entitled.
Let’s examine the options:
- Option A accurately defines the legal meaning.
- Option B and C are incorrect because they refer to situations where the person losing the property has no legal entitlement—thus it cannot be termed “wrongful loss.”
Only Option A is consistent with the legal definition. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Wrongful loss} = Loss by unlawful means from someone legally entitled.
- \textbf{Wrongful gain} = Gain of property by unlawful means by someone not legally entitled.
- Both terms emphasize legality and method of action.
The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of:
View Solution
The concept of private defence is rooted in the natural instinct of protecting oneself from harm.
Self-preservation is a basic human instinct, and the law recognizes the right of an individual to defend themselves, their body, or property when faced with imminent danger.
- Option A (Justice and fairness) refers more to societal values than instincts.
- Option B (Revenge and retaliation) implies action after the threat, not defense.
- Option D (Avoiding legal consequences) is not a natural instinct.
Hence, Option C is correct. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Self-preservation} is the legal basis for private defence.
- It justifies defensive action during imminent harm, not retaliation afterward.
- Know the limits: excessive force negates the right.
Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
I. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
II. Crime committed by a foreigner in India.
III. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship.
View Solution
The Indian Penal Code provides for the jurisdiction of Indian courts in the following situations:
- I. As per Section 4 IPC, Indian courts have jurisdiction over crimes committed by Indian citizens outside India.
- II. Crimes committed by foreigners in India fall under Indian jurisdiction.
- III. Crimes committed on Indian ships (registered under Indian law) are also under Indian jurisdiction.
All three scenarios are covered under Indian law. Quick Tip: - \textbf{Jurisdiction} extends to Indian citizens abroad, foreigners in India, and crimes on Indian ships.
- Section 4 IPC governs extra-territorial application of Indian criminal law.
- Use this to identify when Indian courts can try international or maritime cases.
Liability in tort depends upon
View Solution
In tort law, liability is primarily based on the infringement of a legal right, regardless of actual damage.
- A person can be held liable even if no physical damage occurred, as long as a legal right is violated (known as actionable per se).
- Option A is incorrect because quantum of damage is relevant for compensation, not establishing liability.
- Option B is incorrect because intention is not always required (e.g., negligence).
- Option D (public interest) is relevant in constitutional law or PIL, not torts.
Quick Tip: - Torts are civil wrongs based on the violation of legal rights.
- Actual damage is not always necessary—breach of a right itself is actionable.
- Common examples: trespass, defamation, nuisance.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
View Solution
Tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is generally compensation in the form of damages.
It does not attract imprisonment, as it is not a criminal offense unless the act also constitutes a crime.
- Option A, B, and D are correct.
- Option C is incorrect because tort law provides civil remedies, not penal ones like imprisonment. Quick Tip: Tort = Civil wrong → Compensation, not punishment.
Torts aim to restore the victim, not punish the wrongdoer.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
Statement 1: An offer when accepted becomes an agreement. An offer and acceptance must be definite and certain.
Statement 2: A communication in electronic form or over emails does not amount to communication of offer or acceptance.
View Solution
- Statement 1 is true: An offer when accepted becomes an agreement under contract law. The terms must be definite and certain.
- Statement 2 is false: Electronic communications, including emails, are recognized as valid modes of communication under the Information Technology Act and Contract Law.
Quick Tip: Electronic communications like emails are valid in modern contract law.
Always ensure clarity and definiteness in offer and acceptance.
Which among the following is not a reason for Discharge of a contract due to Impossibility of Performance?
View Solution
- Options A, B, and C are valid reasons under the doctrine of impossibility (frustration of contract).
- Option D is incorrect because unauthorized alteration results in breach of contract, not impossibility. Quick Tip: Impossibility = Events that make performance objectively impossible.
Alteration = Breach, not frustration.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
(1) Forum shopping is a practice that involves the intentional selection of a specific judge or court by litigants or lawyers in order to increase the chances of a favorable outcome for their case.
(2) In the case of Vijay Kumar Ghai vs. State of W.B., the Supreme Court has recognized forum shopping as a reputable practice that has legal sanction and paramountcy.
View Solution
- Statement (1) is true: Forum shopping is the unethical practice of choosing a court believed to be more favorable.
- Statement (2) is false: The Supreme Court has condemned forum shopping and not recognized it as a legal practice. Quick Tip: Forum shopping is frowned upon as it manipulates judicial processes.
Always cite case laws like Vijay Kumar Ghai v. State of W.B. to back up legal interpretation.
According to a recent ruling by the Supreme Court, the constitution of committee that is responsible for selecting the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners until a dedicated law is passed by the Parliament will be
View Solution
In a landmark 2023 ruling, the Supreme Court directed that until a law is made by Parliament under Article 324(2), the selection of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners shall be done by a committee comprising:
- The Prime Minister,
- The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, and
- The Chief Justice of India. Quick Tip: Memorize key SC rulings related to constitutional appointments.
Current selection committee for EC appointments = PM + LoP + CJI (interim arrangement).
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
(1) Previously, penalties for anti-competitive behavior in India were based on the percentage of the entity's global turnover.
(2) After a recent amendment of Competition Act, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is now authorized to penalize entities engaged in anti-competitive behavior based on their domestic turnover.
View Solution
- Statement (1) is false: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has always calculated penalties based on domestic turnover, not global turnover.
- Statement (2) is also false: The recent amendment reinforced the same principle and introduced structured guidelines but did not newly authorize penalties based solely on domestic turnover. Quick Tip: In Competition Law, \textbf{penalty calculation} is based on domestic turnover to avoid excess penalties on global companies.
Read amendments carefully to distinguish between new provisions and codification of existing practices.
A _______ is a term used to denote the legal status that provides same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples.
View Solution
A civil union is a legally recognized arrangement similar to marriage, often created primarily for same-sex couples to provide legal benefits and protections without traditional marriage.
It grants rights like inheritance, tax benefits, and hospital visitation. Quick Tip: Civil union ≠ Marriage, but grants similar legal rights.
It's especially used in jurisdictions that don't allow same-sex marriages.
According to Section 27 of the Domestic Violence Act, who is allowed to invoke the law?
View Solution
Section 27 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides jurisdiction to courts where the aggrieved person resides, is employed, or where the incident occurred.
It allows foreign citizens, NRIs, and persons with family in jurisdictional areas to invoke the law. Quick Tip: Domestic Violence Act has broad jurisdiction to ensure access to justice.
Includes NRIs and foreign citizens if legal conditions are met.
Which of the following is NOT considered a basic structure of the Indian constitution?
View Solution
The doctrine of basic structure was laid down in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
Judicial review, unity \& integrity, and federalism are among the recognized basic features.
However, supremacy of the legislature is not part of the basic structure; rather, constitutional supremacy is. Quick Tip: Basic structure = Non-amendable principles.
Includes democracy, secularism, federalism, and judicial review—not legislative supremacy.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
(1) The Attorney-General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
(2) The tenure of the Attorney-General is specified as 5 years in the Constitution.
(3) The President of India has the authority to dismiss the Attorney-General.
View Solution
- Statement (1) is correct: The Attorney-General is appointed by the President under Article 76.
- Statement (2) is incorrect: The Constitution does not fix a specific tenure for the Attorney-General.
- Statement (3) is correct: Since the Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President, dismissal is at the President’s discretion. Quick Tip: Attorney-General = Constitutional post under Article 76.
No fixed tenure → serves during the pleasure of the President.
___________ is the deliberate process of legal evolution that involves formulating norms of human conduct in a set form through a prescribed procedure by agencies designated by the Constitution?
View Solution
Legislation refers to the formal enactment of laws by a competent authority, typically the legislature.
It is a deliberate and systematic process outlined in the Constitution and ensures legal norms are codified. Quick Tip: Legislation = Lawmaking through constitutional procedures.
Precedent = Judge-made law; Custom = Traditional practice.
The legal system followed by the countries in the mainland of Western Europe, and distinguished from the legal system of England, is known as the
View Solution
The Continental Legal System, also called the Civil Law system, is used in most of Europe.
It is based on codified statutes and legal codes, in contrast to the Common Law system prevalent in England and its former colonies. Quick Tip: Continental = Code-based (Europe)
Common = Judge-based (UK, USA, India)
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
1. In Muslim Law, all property is one and there is no distinction between ancestral or self-acquired or separate property, whereas in Hindu law there is separate and self-acquired property.
2. There are no such things as joint family property in a Muslim family whereas, amongst Hindus the concept of joint family property is prevalent.
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze Statement 1
In Muslim personal law, property acquired by a person, whether inherited or earned, is considered as one and the same. There is no legal classification between ancestral and self-acquired property. Upon death, it is distributed among heirs according to fixed shares under Islamic inheritance rules.
In contrast, Hindu law (particularly under Mitakshara school) recognizes the concept of:
- Ancestral property (inherited up to four generations)
- Self-acquired property (individually earned)
Hence, Statement 1 is true.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 2
Muslim Law does not recognize the concept of joint family or coparcenary property. Every individual’s property is considered separate and is distributed individually after death.
However, under Hindu Law (especially Mitakshara), the idea of joint family property is central — sons acquire a birthright in the ancestral property, which is held jointly by male coparceners.
Hence, Statement 2 is also true. Quick Tip: Muslim Law = No joint family or ancestral/self-acquired distinction.
Hindu Law = Joint family property and clear ancestral/self-acquired division exist.
________ is an order of a superior court commanding a person holding a public office or a public authority to do or not to do something, in the nature of public duty?
View Solution
Step 1: Understand the writ of Mandamus
“Mandamus” is Latin for “we command”. It is a constitutional remedy in the form of a command from a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) to a public official or body to perform a public duty that it has failed or refused to do.
Step 2: Rule out other writs
- Habeas Corpus – issued to release a person unlawfully detained.
- Certiorari – issued to quash orders of lower courts or tribunals.
- Prohibition – issued to prevent lower courts from exceeding jurisdiction.
Hence, only Mandamus fits the definition given in the question. Quick Tip: Use \textbf{Mandamus} to enforce public duties.
Not applicable against private persons or the President/Governor.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
1. In case of overlapping between three lists under Constitution regarding a matter, the predominance is given to the Union Law.
2. Power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any three lists is given to both Union and States.
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze Statement 1
The Indian Constitution provides three lists in the Seventh Schedule:
- Union List (List I),
- State List (List II),
- Concurrent List (List III).
If there is a conflict between laws made by Parliament and State legislature on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails (Article 254).
So, predominance of Union law is constitutionally valid. Hence, Statement 1 is true.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 2
Matters not mentioned in any of the three lists are called residuary subjects.
Article 248 of the Constitution gives the Parliament (Union) exclusive power to make laws on residuary matters.
States have no power here. Hence, Statement 2 is false. Quick Tip: Concurrent List → Union law prevails on conflict.
Residuary powers → Parliament only, under Article 248.
Choose the correct option based on the statements below:
1. Fundamental Rights are affirmative directions while Directive Principles are prohibitive in nature because they put limitations on the State.
2. Fundamental Rights establish a Welfare State in India while Directive Principles make India a liberal political democracy.
View Solution
Step 1: Analyze Statement 1
Fundamental Rights are not “prohibitive” or “affirmative” in a blanket sense.
They are mostly negative obligations on the State — meaning the State is prohibited from interfering in certain individual liberties (e.g., Right to Equality, Right to Freedom).
Directive Principles, on the other hand, are positive directions to the State to promote welfare objectives.
So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Step 2: Analyze Statement 2
The role of establishing a Welfare State is attributed to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV of the Constitution.
Fundamental Rights, under Part III, ensure political democracy by guaranteeing civil liberties.
So, the assertion in Statement 2 is also incorrect. Quick Tip: Fundamental Rights = Political democracy (individual liberties).
Directive Principles = Welfare state (social and economic goals).
Which of the following statements about Rajya Sabha is true?
View Solution
Option A: Incorrect — Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. It is not subject to dissolution, unlike the Lok Sabha.
Option B: Incorrect — The term for elected members is 6 years, not 4.
Option C: Incorrect — One-third of members retire every 2 years, not 3.
Option D: Correct — If a seat becomes vacant mid-term, the person elected in the by-election serves only the remainder of the original term. Quick Tip: Rajya Sabha = Permanent body.
1/3rd members retire every 2 years; term = 6 years.
By-election members only complete the remaining term.
Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces?
View Solution
Under Article 53(2) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Defense Forces of the Union.
This is a ceremonial role, as operational control lies with the Cabinet and defense officials under the Prime Minister.
Other options:
- Vice President: Presides over Rajya Sabha.
- Prime Minister: Head of government but not the supreme commander.
- Defense Minister: In charge of defense policy, but not the supreme commander. Quick Tip: President = Supreme Commander (constitutional head).
Actual control = Cabinet (executive authority).
What is the term of Prime Minister as mentioned in the Constitution?
View Solution
The Constitution of India does not define a specific term for the office of the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister holds office at the pleasure of the President of India, meaning the term of the Prime Minister is not fixed.
Step 1: Understand the position of Prime Minister
The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government and is appointed by the President.
Although the term of the Prime Minister is not defined in the Constitution, they typically serve for a term of 5 years as long as they retain the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament).
Step 2: Analyze Option A - 5 Years
Option A suggests that the Prime Minister’s term is 5 years.
While it is true that general elections in India are held every 5 years, the term of the Prime Minister is not defined in the Constitution.
A Prime Minister can continue in office for any duration as long as they retain the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha.
Thus, Option A is incorrect.
Step 3: Analyze Option B - 6 Years
Option B suggests a 6-year term.
There is no provision in the Constitution that specifically mandates a 6-year term for the Prime Minister.
As mentioned, the term is not fixed, and elections for the Lok Sabha are held every 5 years.
Therefore, Option B is incorrect.
Step 4: Analyze Option C - No defined term
Option C is correct because the Constitution of India does not mention any fixed term for the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister can remain in office as long as they have the confidence of the Lok Sabha and are appointed by the President.
Step 5: Analyze Option D - None of the above
Option D is incorrect because Option C is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The term of the Prime Minister is not defined in the Indian Constitution. Their term lasts until they remain in office, which typically ends when the Lok Sabha is dissolved or if the Prime Minister loses majority support in Parliament.
Remember, a 5-year election cycle is for the Lok Sabha, not for the Prime Minister.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?
View Solution
Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to various vulnerable groups, as defined under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
These include women, children, the mentally ill or disabled, industrial workmen, and others who are economically disadvantaged or socially vulnerable.
Step 1: Understand the Legal Services Authorities Act
The Act was established to provide access to justice for the underprivileged and ensure that legal aid is available to people who are unable to afford the services of a lawyer.
The categories mentioned in the Act include:
- Women and children, who often face societal disadvantages.
- Mentally ill or otherwise disabled persons who may struggle to seek legal redress due to their condition.
- Industrial workmen, who are often exploited and might need legal aid related to labor disputes.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (A woman or a child): This option is correct because women and children are provided with legal assistance under the Act.
Option B (A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person): This option is also correct, as legal aid is available for individuals with mental illnesses or disabilities.
Option C (An industrial workman): Industrial workmen are included as one of the groups that can avail of free legal services.
Option D (All of the above): Since all of the above groups are eligible for legal aid, this is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Legal aid is a fundamental right under Article 39A of the Indian Constitution.
Legal Services Authorities provide free services to people who cannot afford legal assistance.
This helps ensure that justice is accessible to all, regardless of their socio-economic status.
Grievous Hurt is a crime defined under:
View Solution
Grievous Hurt refers to injuries that are of a serious nature, and it is defined under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Section 320 of IPC lists the types of injuries that are categorized as grievous, such as wounds that endanger life, cause permanent disfigurement, or cause permanent disability.
Step 1: Understand Grievous Hurt
Grievous hurt includes injuries that cause serious bodily harm and are punishable under Indian law.
The definition of grievous hurt in Section 320 is broader than just physical pain; it considers the severity and impact of the injury on the person's life.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Section 322 of IPC): This section deals with voluntarily causing grievous hurt, but it does not define the term itself.
Option B (Section 324 of IPC): This section pertains to causing hurt by dangerous weapons but not to the definition of grievous hurt.
Option C (Section 320 of IPC): This section defines grievous hurt and lists various types of injuries. It is the correct answer.
Option D (Section 420 of IPC): Section 420 deals with cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property, not grievous hurt.
Quick Tip: Remember, grievous hurt is a more serious form of bodily injury under Indian law, covered in Section 320 of the IPC.
If the injury involves long-term harm, disfigurement, or is life-threatening, it may be considered grievous.
What does UAPA stand for in the context of Indian law?
View Solution
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is a law enacted by the Government of India to deal with terrorism and unlawful activities that threaten national security.
The Act provides for the preventive detention of individuals and prosecution of those involved in activities that harm India's sovereignty and integrity.
Step 1: Understand the UAPA
The UAPA is aimed at curbing terrorism and disruptive activities by giving the government the power to designate individuals and organizations as unlawful.
It allows the government to arrest individuals without trial in certain cases if they are suspected of being involved in activities that threaten national security.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Unauthorised Access (Protection) Act): This option does not align with the purpose of UAPA.
Option B (Unlawful Authorities (Prevention) Act): This option is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct terminology of UAPA.
Option C (Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act): This is the correct answer as it directly refers to the UAPA.
Option D (Unauthorised Association (Penalty) Act): This option is incorrect and unrelated to UAPA.
Quick Tip: UAPA is a counter-terrorism law in India. It empowers the government to take preventive action against unlawful activities.
This includes the banning of terrorist organizations and activities that harm the country's security and sovereignty.
What is the term for a judicial inquiry into the cause of death of a person?
View Solution
Inquest is the legal process by which a magistrate or judicial officer investigates the cause of death of a person, particularly in cases where the death is sudden or suspicious.
An inquest may involve examining the body and other circumstances to determine whether the death was natural, accidental, or caused by criminal activity.
Step 1: Understand Inquest
An inquest is a judicial inquiry into the cause of death, especially when the cause is unclear or suspicious. It is conducted by a magistrate under the provisions of law.
The purpose of the inquest is to establish the cause of death and the circumstances surrounding it.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Inquiry): This option refers to a general investigation, not specifically about the cause of death.
Option B (Inquest): This is the correct answer, as an inquest is specifically conducted to investigate the cause of death.
Option C (Autopsy): An autopsy is a medical procedure to examine the body, but it is not the legal process of investigating the cause of death.
Option D (Investigation): While investigations may be involved in cases of death, an inquest is the specific legal term used for such inquiries.
Quick Tip: Inquest refers specifically to a judicial process investigating the cause of death.
An autopsy is a medical examination that may be part of an inquest to determine the cause of death.
What is the time limit for filing a claim in the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal after a motor accident?
View Solution
The time limit for filing a claim in the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal (MACT) after a motor accident typically depends on the applicable law and the facts of the case. The general time limit is 90 days. However, the question has been cancelled, as indicated in the question itself.
Step 1: Understanding the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal
The Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal (MACT) is a special tribunal constituted to adjudicate claims related to motor accidents.
The tribunal provides compensation for victims or their families who have been affected by motor vehicle accidents.
Step 2: Time Limit for Filing a Claim
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the general time limit for filing a claim before the MACT is 90 days from the date of the accident.
However, under certain circumstances, such as special reasons, the tribunal may allow claims to be filed even after the time limit has passed.
Step 3: Analysis of Options
Option A (30 days): This option is not correct, as the time limit is generally 90 days, not 30.
Option B (60 days): This is also incorrect. The standard time limit is longer than 60 days.
Option C (90 days): This option is generally correct, as it aligns with the typical time limit for filing a claim before the MACT.
Option D (No time limit): There is usually a time limit, so this option is incorrect.
Quick Tip: When filing a claim with the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal, remember the 90-day filing window.
In case of delays, you may seek an extension if valid reasons are provided.
Which of the following statements is true about the POCSO Act and the Juvenile Justice Act?
View Solution
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, are both crucial laws in India, but they serve different purposes.
Step 1: Understand the POCSO Act
The POCSO Act focuses on protecting children from sexual offences, including assault, harassment, and exploitation.
It defines a child as anyone under the age of 18, and its primary aim is to ensure that children who face sexual abuse are protected and that the perpetrators are punished.
Step 2: Understand the Juvenile Justice Act
The Juvenile Justice Act, on the other hand, deals with children in conflict with the law (juveniles who commit crimes) and children in need of care and protection (such as orphans, abandoned children, or those facing abuse).
The Juvenile Justice Act establishes the procedures for the rehabilitation and care of these children and provides guidelines for their treatment in a child-friendly manner.
Step 3: Analyze the Options
Option A is incorrect because the Juvenile Justice Act applies to children below 18 years of age.
Option C is incorrect because the Juvenile Justice Act prohibits trying juveniles as adults, unlike what is suggested in Option C.
Option D is incorrect because adoption is actually a part of the Juvenile Justice Act, not the POCSO Act.
Quick Tip: Remember, the POCSO Act focuses on sexual offences against children, while the Juvenile Justice Act deals with children in conflict with the law and children in need of care.
The Juvenile Justice Act also covers the process for adoption of children.
What is the name of the committee that every employer is required to constitute under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
View Solution
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, mandates that every employer constitutes an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at the workplace to address complaints of sexual harassment.
The committee plays a crucial role in investigating complaints and providing solutions for victims of sexual harassment in the workplace.
Step 1: Understand the Sexual Harassment Act
The Act was introduced to create a safe work environment for women and to prevent sexual harassment in the workplace. It emphasizes that employers must take steps to prevent and address such issues.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A is correct because the Act specifically mandates the creation of an Internal Complaints Committee.
Option B, C, and D are incorrect because none of these committees are specified under the Act.
Quick Tip: The Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is vital for handling complaints of sexual harassment at work. Employers are legally required to form this committee under the Sexual Harassment Act of 2013.
What is the name of the United Nations agency that sets international labour standards and promotes social and economic justice?
View Solution
The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that focuses on promoting social justice and fair labor standards across the world.
It sets international labor standards, advocates for workers' rights, and ensures that labor policies are inclusive, safe, and beneficial for all.
Step 1: Understand the Role of the ILO
The ILO is instrumental in developing international labor standards and providing technical assistance to countries in order to improve working conditions globally.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A is incorrect because the International Labor Union is not the correct agency related to labor standards.
Option C and Option D refer to organizations related to trade unions, not international labor standards.
Option B is correct because the International Labour Organization (ILO) is the correct United Nations agency.
Quick Tip: The International Labour Organization (ILO) is the UN agency focused on setting global labor standards and advocating for workers' rights.
It helps countries develop policies to protect workers and promote decent work for all.
Which of the following events does not constitute a "Force Majeure" according to the common definition of the term?
View Solution
Force Majeure refers to unforeseeable circumstances that prevent a party from fulfilling a contract. Typically, events like natural disasters, war, or unforeseen pandemics are considered force majeure events.
Step 1: Understand Force Majeure
Force Majeure is a legal term that refers to unexpected events beyond the control of the parties involved, such as natural disasters, war, strikes, or pandemics.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (A volcanic eruption that disrupts air travel and damages crops): A volcanic eruption can disrupt supply chains and travel, making it a classic example of force majeure.
Option B (A labor strike that halts the production and delivery of goods): A labor strike is often recognized as a force majeure event since it is outside the control of a party to a contract.
Option C (A pandemic that causes lockdowns and quarantines around the world): A pandemic, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, is another example of an unforeseeable event that qualifies as force majeure.
Option D (A breach of contract by one of the parties that results in financial loss): A breach of contract is a failure to fulfill contractual obligations and is not a force majeure event. Therefore, this is not an example of force majeure.
Quick Tip: Force Majeure typically covers events like natural disasters, wars, strikes, and pandemics, but it does not cover issues like breach of contract, which are within a party's control.
Which agency was established under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act?
View Solution
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was established under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, to investigate cases of corruption and crime across the country.
Step 1: Understand the CBI
The CBI is responsible for investigating high-profile cases of corruption, fraud, and criminal offenses. It operates under the jurisdiction of the Government of India and works closely with law enforcement agencies.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Central Bureau of Investigation): This is the correct answer as the CBI was established under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
Option B (Central Vigilance Commission): The CVC is a separate body established to oversee governmental corruption but is not part of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
Option C (Intelligence Bureau): The Intelligence Bureau (IB) deals with internal security and intelligence gathering but was not created under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
Option D (National Investigation Agency): The NIA was created by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, and not by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
Quick Tip: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) plays a key role in investigating serious criminal cases in India, especially those involving corruption.
Who was the first woman judge to be elevated directly from the Bar Council of India to the Supreme Court of India?
View Solution
Indu Malhotra became the first woman judge to be directly elevated from the Bar to the Supreme Court of India in 2018. She was a senior advocate at the Supreme Court before her appointment.
Step 1: Understand the Elevation Process
Judges of the Supreme Court of India are usually appointed from the pool of High Court judges or senior advocates. Indu Malhotra made history by being directly appointed from the Bar, bypassing the usual judicial path.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Fathima Beebi): Fathima Beebi was not the first woman judge to be elevated directly from the Bar.
Option B (Sujata Manohar): Sujata Manohar was a prominent judge but was not directly elevated from the Bar to the Supreme Court.
Option C (Indu Malhotra): This is the correct answer as Indu Malhotra was the first woman judge to be directly appointed from the Bar.
Option D (B. V. Nagarathna): B. V. Nagarathna is an accomplished judge, but she was not the first woman judge to be elevated directly from the Bar.
Quick Tip: Indu Malhotra's appointment was a significant moment in Indian legal history, showing the potential for direct elevation from the Bar to the highest court in the country.
Which of the following High Courts of India does not have a common jurisdiction over two or more states or union territories?
View Solution
The Allahabad High Court has jurisdiction only over the state of Uttar Pradesh. It does not have jurisdiction over multiple states or union territories, unlike other High Courts like the Bombay High Court or Gauhati High Court.
Step 1: Understand High Court Jurisdiction
Some High Courts, like the Bombay High Court and Gauhati High Court, have jurisdiction over multiple states and union territories. In contrast, the Allahabad High Court's jurisdiction is limited to Uttar Pradesh.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Allahabad High Court): This is correct because the Allahabad High Court has jurisdiction only over Uttar Pradesh.
Option B (Bombay High Court): The Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over Maharashtra, Goa, and the Union Territories of Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
Option C (Kerala High Court): The Kerala High Court has jurisdiction only over the state of Kerala and the Union Territory of Lakshadweep.
Option D (Gauhati High Court): The Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over multiple northeastern states and union territories.
Quick Tip: Understanding the jurisdiction of High Courts is important as it determines their authority over legal matters in different regions of India.
Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976?
View Solution
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the words "Socialist" and "Secular" into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution to emphasize India's commitment to social justice and religious neutrality.
Step 1: Understand the 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment made significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of the terms "Socialist" and "Secular" in the Preamble to reflect India's commitment to these principles.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (Sovereign and Democratic): These terms were already present in the Preamble and were not added by the 42nd Amendment.
Option B (Socialist and Secular): This is the correct answer as these words were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Option C (Republic and Fraternity): These terms were already present in the Preamble.
Option D (Justice and Liberty): These terms were part of the original Preamble and were not added by the 42nd Amendment.
Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution brought significant changes, including adding "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble, reinforcing India's commitment to equality and religious neutrality.
Which of the following countries does not have a bicameral legislature?
View Solution
China has a unicameral legislature, which means it has a single legislative body, unlike countries like the United States, India, or the United Kingdom, which have bicameral legislatures.
Step 1: Understand Bicameral vs. Unicameral
A bicameral legislature consists of two chambers or houses, such as the House of Representatives and Senate in the United States, or the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in India. In contrast, a unicameral legislature has just one chamber.
Step 2: Analyze the Options
Option A (United Kingdom): The United Kingdom has a bicameral legislature with the House of Commons and the House of Lords.
Option B (United States): The United States has a bicameral legislature consisting of the Senate and the House of Representatives.
Option C (China): This is the correct answer as China has a unicameral legislature, the National People's Congress.
Option D (India): India has a bicameral legislature with the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Quick Tip: China has a unicameral legislature, unlike the United States, India, and the United Kingdom, which all have bicameral legislatures.





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