NEET MDS 2024 question paper with answer key PDF is available for download here. NEET MDS was conducted by National Board of Examinations (NBE) on March 18, 2024. NEET MDS 2024 question paper consists of 240 MCQs to be attempted in the duration of 3 hours. Check NEET CUTOFF
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NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
Question 1:
Winterbottom's sign of trypanosomiasis refers to?
- (1) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck
- (2) Bilateral swelling of the feet
- (3) Presence of fever and chills
- (4) Skin rash on the abdomen
Correct Answer: (1) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck
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Question 2:
Which sinus opening is not present in the middle meatus?
- (1) Maxillary sinus
- (2) Frontal sinus
- (3) Ethmoidal sinus
- (4) Sphenoid sinus
Question 3:
How is age estimation from an OPG (Orthopantomogram) of a child done?
- (1) By the eruption sequence of teeth
- (2) By the development of the root apex
- (3) By the length of the crown
- (4) By the shape of the jaw
Correct Answer: (1) By the eruption sequence of teeth
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Question 4:
What is the thick band-like gingiva on the canine called?
- (1) Mucogingival junction
- (2) Gingival recession
- (3) Gingival hyperplasia
- (4) Gingival collar
Question 5:
Does interproximal wear result in mesial drift?
- (1) Yes, it can result in mesial drift
- (2) No, it causes distal drift
- (3) No, it causes occlusal wear
- (4) Yes, but only in molars
Correct Answer: (1) Yes, it can result in mesial drift
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Question 6:
What is the common feature in McCune-Albright syndrome, Fanconi anemia, and Noonan's syndrome?
- (1) Bone marrow failure
- (2) Developmental delays
- (3) Cardiovascular defects
- (4) Endocrine disorders
Question 7:
How is OPG used to identify the age of a child?
- (1) By assessing the shape of the teeth
- (2) By evaluating the eruption of the teeth
- (3) By measuring the length of the jaw
- (4) By identifying calcification stages of teeth
Correct Answer: (2) By evaluating the eruption of the teeth
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Question 8:
What is tumor staging classification grade?
- (1) TNM Classification
- (2) FIGO Classification
- (3) Breslow Classification
- (4) Ann Arbor Classification
Question 9:
What should be done for a premature baby with breathing difficulty and cyanosis?
- (1) Immediate intubation
- (2) Oxygen therapy
- (3) Intravenous fluids
- (4) Monitor and wait
Question 10:
What are border movement and neutral zone while recording muscles?
- (1) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral zone refers to the position where muscles have equal force.
- (2) Border movement refers to the limits of tooth movement, and neutral zone refers to the natural resting position.
- (3) Border movement refers to the position of teeth during occlusion, and neutral zone refers to the area of the tongue's influence.
- (4) Border movement refers to the jaw's occlusal position, and neutral zone refers to the teeth's contact.
Correct Answer: (1) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral zone refers to the position where muscles have equal force.
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Question 11:
Which organisms are involved in ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis)?
- (1) Treponema denticola, Prevotella intermedia, Fusobacterium nucleatum
- (2) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Candida albicans
- (3) Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Streptococcus mutans
- (4) Actinomyces israelii, Lactobacillus acidophilus, Helicobacter pylori
Correct Answer: (1) Treponema denticola, Prevotella intermedia, Fusobacterium nucleatum
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Question 12:
Given the mean and standard deviation value, how is the standard error calculated?
- (1) Standard error = Standard deviation / square root of sample size
- (2) Standard error = Mean / sample size
- (3) Standard error = Standard deviation * sample size
- (4) Standard error = Standard deviation / sample size
Correct Answer: (1) Standard error = Standard deviation / square root of sample size
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Question 13:
Which precancerous lesions were identified in 2005 by the WHO?
- (1) Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia
- (2) Lichen planus, Actinic keratosis
- (3) Oral submucous fibrosis, Candidiasis
- (4) Basal cell carcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma
Question 14:
What is the best treatment option for an avulsion that happened 10 minutes ago?
- (1) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth
- (2) Use of an ice pack and waiting for dental intervention
- (3) Preservation in milk and reimplantation
- (4) No treatment necessary
Correct Answer: (1) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth
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Question 15:
Unilateral cleft lip occurs due to?
- (1) Genetic factors
- (2) Environmental factors
- (3) Both genetic and environmental factors
- (4) Nutritional deficiency
Correct Answer: (3) Both genetic and environmental factors
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Question 16:
If anterior teeth are periodontally compromised, what is the major connector in partial denture construction?
- (1) Lingual bar
- (2) Palatal bar
- (3) Kennedy bar
- (4) Lingual plate
Question 17:
What is the Merin classification?
- (1) Classification of periodontal disease
- (2) Classification of malocclusion
- (3) Classification of fractures
- (4) Classification of cleft lips and palates
Question 18:
What is the dose of adrenaline in Angina Pectoris?
- (1) 1 mg
- (2) 0.5 mg
- (3) 0.3 mg
- (4) 0.2 mg
Question 19:
There was an image-based question on Cherubism. What is Cherubism?
- (1) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face
- (2) A type of cranial deformity due to birth trauma
- (3) A rare soft tissue disorder of the mouth
- (4) A vascular malformation in the skull
Correct Answer: (1) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face
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Question 20:
Which drug is given in ACLS (Advanced Cardiac Life Support) for Ventricular Tachycardia?
- (1) Amiodarone
- (2) Atropine
- (3) Adrenaline
- (4) Lidocaine
Question 21:
A girl was having a problem with her eye. She could not see the whiteboard from a distance but she could see the textbook. What is it?
- (1) Hypermetropia
- (2) Myopia
- (3) Astigmatism
- (4) Presbyopia
Question 22:
What is the level of the Thyroid Cartilage?
- (1) C4
- (2) C5
- (3) C6
- (4) C3
Question 23:
What is the antidote for Morphine?
- (1) Naloxone
- (2) Flumazenil
- (3) Atropine
- (4) Protamine
Question 24:
Wallerian degeneration is seen in?
- (1) Peripheral nervous system
- (2) Central nervous system
- (3) Muscular system
- (4) Endocrine system
Question 25:
A patient came with painless swelling on the posterior jaw. On aspiration, only a drop of blood is obtained. What is the likely diagnosis?
- (1) Hemangioma
- (2) Odontogenic cyst
- (3) Aneurysmal bone cyst
- (4) Malignant tumor
Question 26:
What is the characteristic feature of Wispy Septa?
- (1) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions
- (2) Thickening of the bony cortex
- (3) Presence of calcifications
- (4) Bony spicules radiating from the lesion
Correct Answer: (1) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions
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Question 27:
Gas gangrene is caused by?
- (1) Clostridium perfringens
- (2) Staphylococcus aureus
- (3) Escherichia coli
- (4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 28:
Which fungi is commonly associated with urinary tract infections in catheterized patients?
- (1) Candida albicans
- (2) Aspergillus fumigatus
- (3) Cryptococcus neoformans
- (4) Histoplasma capsulatum
Question 29:
What is the National Pathfinder Survey related to?
- (1) Educational achievement in the United States
- (2) Nutritional habits of adolescents
- (3) Global health initiatives
- (4) Environmental conservation efforts
Correct Answer: (1) Educational achievement in the United States
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Question 30:
What is the type of Ameloblastoma?
- (1) Unicystic
- (2) Multicystic
- (3) Peripheral
- (4) All of the above
Question 31:
What is the treatment for Mandibular Angle Fracture?
- (1) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
- (2) Closed reduction with wiring
- (3) Conservative management
- (4) No treatment required
Correct Answer: (1) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
View Solution
Question 32:
Costochondral graft to a child aged 8 years after treatment: why does the mouth deviate to the unoperated site while opening?
- (1) Unilateral condylar growth
- (2) Malposition of the graft
- (3) Neuromuscular imbalance
- (4) Abnormal growth of the temporomandibular joint
Question 33:
What is Stellate granuloma?
- (1) A type of benign skin tumor
- (2) A granulomatous lesion in the oral cavity
- (3) A form of infectious granuloma
- (4) A non-neoplastic lesion affecting the bones
Correct Answer: (2) A granulomatous lesion in the oral cavity
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Question 34:
What is the role of retention after orthodontic movement?
- (1) To maintain tooth position after active treatment
- (2) To prevent relapse of tooth movement
- (3) To improve facial aesthetics
- (4) To reduce pain after treatment
Correct Answer: (2) To prevent relapse of tooth movement
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Question 35:
What is the stochastic effect of radiographs?
- (1) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
- (2) Immediate tissue damage from radiation
- (3) Loss of tooth enamel due to repeated exposure
- (4) Long-term bone density loss
Correct Answer: (1) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
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Question 36:
Ductility test is not relevant for?
- (1) Metals
- (2) Polymers
- (3) Glasses
- (4) Ceramics
Question 37:
There was a question related to Dentigerous cyst. What is it?
- (1) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
- (2) A cyst that occurs in the alveolar bone
- (3) A cyst caused by impacted wisdom teeth
- (4) A cyst in the soft tissue surrounding the tooth
Correct Answer: (1) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
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Question 38:
What is the tooth shedding sequence in primary teeth?
- (1) Incisors, molars, canines
- (2) Molars, incisors, canines
- (3) Canines, incisors, molars
- (4) Molars, canines, incisors
Question 39:
What is the HIV prophylaxis?
- (1) Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
- (2) Zidovudine
- (3) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
- (4) Combination of antiretroviral drugs
Correct Answer: (3) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
View Solution
Question 40:
Which drug is used to relax muscles in maxillofacial surgery?
- (1) Midazolam
- (2) Propofol
- (3) Succinylcholine
- (4) Ketamine
Question 41:
There was a question related to Shrugging off the Shoulder in Neck Surgery. What is it related to?
- (1) Accessory nerve damage
- (2) Spinal cord injury
- (3) Shoulder dislocation
- (4) Thoracic outlet syndrome
Question 42:
What are nosocomial infections in a hospital setting?
- (1) Infections acquired from hospital staff
- (2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
- (3) Infections acquired from visitors
- (4) Infections acquired during surgery only
Correct Answer: (2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
View Solution
Question 43:
Which type of implant has the root piece intact?
- (1) Endosteal implant
- (2) Subperiosteal implant
- (3) Transosteal implant
- (4) Root-form implant
Question 44:
What is the recommended area for biopsy from ulcers?
- (1) The margin of the ulcer
- (2) The center of the ulcer
- (3) The surrounding normal tissue
- (4) The deepest part of the ulcer
Question 45:
Which drug is used for asthma during extraction?
- (1) Albuterol
- (2) Adrenaline
- (3) Atropine
- (4) Hydrocortisone
Question 46:
What is the most ethical way to study bone growth?
- (1) Animal experiments
- (2) In vitro studies
- (3) Human clinical studies
- (4) Radiographic analysis
Question 47:
Which tumor shows resistance to radiation?
- (1) Osteosarcoma
- (2) Glioblastoma
- (3) Squamous cell carcinoma
- (4) Melanoma
Question 48:
What is the prenatal period in the human embryological period?
- (1) First 2 weeks
- (2) 3rd to 8th week
- (3) 9th week to birth
- (4) 5th month to birth
Question 49:
What is the best fluoride-releasing agent?
- (1) Sodium fluoride
- (2) Stannous fluoride
- (3) Calcium fluoride
- (4) Silver diamine fluoride
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