TS LAWCET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download TS LAWCET 3 Year LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The TS LAWCET 2025 exam was held on June 6th 2025 from 12:30 P.M. to 02:00 P.M for Shift 2. It was conducted in CBT Mode at various exam centres in India. 

The TS LAWCET Question paper 2025 with answer key and solution PDF is available here. It consists of 120 objective-type questions, divided into four sections: General Knowledge and Mental Ability, Current Affairs, Constitutional Law, and Jurisprudence.

TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper 3 Year LLB

TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key
Download PDF Check Solutions
TS LAWCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

General Knowledge and Mental Ability


Question 1:

Who is the chairman of the Space Commission, ISRO?

  • (1) K. Shivan
  • (2) S. Somanath
  • (3) V. Narayanan
  • (4) A.S. Kiran Kumar

Question 2:

When was the National Crime Records Bureau established?

  • (1) 1981
  • (2) 1982
  • (3) 1985
  • (4) 1986

Question 3:

Bahubali temple is located on which hills?

  • (1) Kumbhojgiri
  • (2) Vindhyagiri
  • (3) Gaganbavada
  • (4) Chandragiri

Question 4:

Who was the First Director of Indian Standards Institution?

  • (1) Pramod Kumar Tiwari
  • (2) Pablo Hernandez
  • (3) Dr. Lal C. Verman
  • (4) K.V. Rao

Question 5:

Who was the American President who served for more than two terms?

  • (1) Barack Obama
  • (2) Bill Clinton
  • (3) Franklin D. Roosevelt
  • (4) Ronald Reagan

Question 6:

In the southern part of India, during winter season, a three-day festival is celebrated when thousands of migratory birds visit the region. This festival is known as

  • (1) Chilika bird festival
  • (2) Dangs birds festival
  • (3) Flamingo festival
  • (4) International bird festival

Question 7:

The fifth death anniversary of which Black person, who died due to the brutality of a white policeman in Minnesota, USA was observed in the month of May 2025?

  • (1) Rodney King
  • (2) George Floyd
  • (3) Martin Luther
  • (4) Daunte Wright

Question 8:

India became _____ country in the world to achieve space docking.

  • (1) Fourth
  • (2) Third
  • (3) Fifth
  • (4) Sixth

Question 9:

OECD stands for which of the following organizations?

  • (1) GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)
  • (2) OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development)
  • (3) IDA (International Development Association)
  • (4) IAEA (International Atomic Energy Agency)

Question 10:

Which state shares with international boundaries with Bhutan, China and Nepal?

  • (1) Sikkim
  • (2) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (3) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (4) Uttakhand

Question 11:

In which year FAO (Food and Agricultural Organization) was established to improve living conditions of rural population?

  • (1) 1945
  • (2) 1946
  • (3) 1947
  • (4) 1948

Question 12:

________ is the only Indian Athlete to won two gold medals in 400 metres at Asian Games and Common Wealth Games.

  • (1) Milkha Singh
  • (2) Usain Bolt
  • (3) Ram Singh
  • (4) P T Usha

Question 13:

Who among the following famous Indian musicians won the Oscar award twice?

  • (1) M M Keeravani
  • (2) Bhanu Athaiya
  • (3) A.R. Rahman
  • (4) Resul Pookutty

Question 14:

How many assembly seats were won by Indian National Congress party during 2023 election in Telangana?

  • (1) 64
  • (2) 39
  • (3) 80
  • (4) 93

Question 15:

Hydroxyurea drug, is related to which disease?

  • (1) Sickle cell anaemia
  • (2) Dengue
  • (3) TB
  • (4) Malaria

Question 16:

Name the star that suddenly increases its brightness due to a catastrophic explosion?

  • (1) Supernova
  • (2) Comet
  • (3) Asteroid
  • (4) Meteor

Question 17:

International Mother Language day is celebrated on _____?

  • (1) 12th Feb
  • (2) 21st Feb
  • (3) 2nd Feb
  • (4) 22nd Feb

Question 18:

Which country’s glaciers lost 10% of their ice volume in 2022 and 2023?

  • (1) Germany
  • (2) Greenland
  • (3) Switzerland
  • (4) Antarctic

Question 19:

A father is 4 times his son’s age and in 30 years son’s age will be half of his father’s age. How old are the father and son now?

  • (1) 60, 30
  • (2) 90, 45
  • (3) 60, 45
  • (4) 60, 15

Question 20:

Two different words are given below with brackets in between. Choose the correct option that forms two meaningful words by inserting a set of letters into the brackets.


PLAT ( ) ATION

  • (1) TENT
  • (2) FORM
  • (3) TERR
  • (4) EAU

Question 21:

If A:B = 8:15, B:C = 5:8 and C:D = 4:5, then A:D is equal to:

  • (1) 2:7
  • (2) 4:15
  • (3) 8:15
  • (4) 15:4

Question 22:

Which pattern of settlement develops around lakes?

  • (1) Rectangular
  • (2) Circular
  • (3) Square
  • (4) Linear

Question 23:

Each of P,Q, R,S, W,X,Y and Z has married at most once. X and Y married and have two children P and Q. Z is the grandfather of the daughter S of P. Further, Z and W are married and are parents of R. Which one of the following must be false?

  • (1) X is the mother in law of R
  • (2) P and R not married to each other
  • (3) P is a son of X and Y
  • (4) Q cannot be married to R

Question 24:

The blood pressure is controlled by which hormone?

  • (1) Testosterone
  • (2) Oestrogen
  • (3) Vasopressin
  • (4) Oxytocin

Question 25:

A three-digit number is selected such that it contains no zeros. Now this three-digit number is written beside itself to form the six-digit number. Its factor is ____.

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 44

Question 26:

If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, how will you code DANGER?

  • (1) 11-7-20-16-11-24
  • (2) 10-7-20-13-11-24
  • (3) 13-7-20-9-11-25
  • (4) 10-7-20-9-11-25

Question 27:

I am facing east. I turn 100\(^\circ\) in the clockwise direction and then 45\(^\circ\) in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction am I facing now?

  • (1) North-West
  • (2) North-East
  • (3) South-West
  • (4) South-East

Question 28:

Choose the correct answer – leprosy: Bacterial disease :: hypermetropia : ?

  • (1) Near sightedness
  • (2) Viral disease
  • (3) Far sightedness
  • (4) Dry eyes

Question 29:

When \( 4^{157} \) is multiplied with \( 7^{113} \), what is the digit in the least significant place?

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 2

Question 30:

In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were continued, which instruction will come next?

  • (1) Wait
  • (2) Sit
  • (3) Go
  • (4) Run

Current Affairs

Question 31:

'e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi' is launched by which ministry?

  • (1) Ministry of Agriculture \& Farmers Welfare
  • (2) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food \& Public Distribution
  • (3) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
  • (4) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food \& Public Distribution
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the scheme

The 'e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi' initiative aims to support farmers with digital tracking and documentation of agricultural produce and market linkages.


Step 2: Identify the responsible ministry

While agriculture-related schemes often fall under the Ministry of Agriculture, this specific initiative focuses on consumer affairs, food supply chain, and distribution — hence, it falls under the purview of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food \& Public Distribution. Quick Tip: Link food grain tracking and distribution projects with the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, not directly with agriculture.


Question 32:

In 2024, massive landslides occurred in which district of Kerala?

  • (1) Palakkad
  • (2) Thrissur
  • (3) Kannur
  • (4) Wayanad

Question 33:

Which film has won the Best Feature Film in the 70th National Film Awards recently?

  • (1) Kalki
  • (2) Aattam
  • (3) Uunchai
  • (4) Kantara

Question 34:

Which animal, known commonly as Ratel, was recorded on camera in Uttarakhand recently?

  • (1) Honey badger
  • (2) Panda
  • (3) Sloth
  • (4) Koala

Question 35:

How many Bharat Ratna awards have been given in the year 2024?

  • (1) Three
  • (2) Five
  • (3) Four
  • (4) Six

Question 36:

The object of “Rahveer Scheme” is

  • (1) Rewarding a person who save the victims of fatal accident involving motor vehicles
  • (2) Rewarding a person who save the victims of heart attacks
  • (3) Rewarding a person who save the victims of diabetics
  • (4) Rewarding a person who save the victims of brain stroke

Question 37:

SMART (Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo) system is developed by which organization?

  • (1) DRDO
  • (2) ISRO
  • (3) BDL
  • (4) BEL

Question 38:

What was the rank of India in the World Press Freedom Index 2024?

  • (1) 158
  • (2) 159
  • (3) 160
  • (4) 161

Question 39:

Which of the following countries were affected, due to severe power blackout in Iberian Peninsula?

  • (1) Belgium and France
  • (2) Portugal and Spain
  • (3) France and Spain
  • (4) Ireland and Portugal

Question 40:

The ‘Asian Arm-wrestling Championship 2024’ was held in?

  • (1) New Delhi, India
  • (2) Astana, Kazakhstan
  • (3) Tashkent, Uzbekistan
  • (4) Beijing, China

Question 41:

Which brand has been honoured as the world’s strongest food brand by Brand Finance in 2024?

  • (1) Nestle
  • (2) Patanjali
  • (3) Haldiram
  • (4) Amul

Question 42:

Which country has introduced a new ‘Tourism tax’ in January 2025?

  • (1) Bhutan
  • (2) China
  • (3) Russia
  • (4) Nepal

Question 43:

Which Artificial Intelligence Company briefly became the world’s most valuable company in 2024?

  • (1) Microsoft
  • (2) Google
  • (3) Apple
  • (4) Nvidia

Question 44:

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched a nationwide mass mobilisation campaign with a slogan _________ in the run up to World Environment Day 2025.

  • (1) One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution
  • (2) One Earth: One Family
  • (3) Only One Earth
  • (4) Land restoration, desertification and drought resilience

Question 45:

'State of Ocean Report, 2024', was released by which organization?

  • (1) UNCTAD
  • (2) UNDP
  • (3) UNEP
  • (4) UNESCO

Question 46:

Which State Government has partnered with Wales for the 25th edition of the Hornbill Festival?

  • (1) Nagaland
  • (2) Assam
  • (3) Mizoram
  • (4) Manipur

Question 47:

Indian Coast Guard (ICG) launched ‘Suvidha Software Version 1.0’ in which city?

  • (1) Jaisalmer
  • (2) Visakhapatnam
  • (3) Kochi
  • (4) Mumbai

Question 48:

What is the theme of ‘International Olympics Day’ 2024?

  • (1) Together, For a Peaceful World
  • (2) Leveling the playing field: sport for social inclusion
  • (3) Let’s Move and Celebrate
  • (4) Moving Forward: United by Emotion

Question 49:

In which state, “Indian Biological Data Centre” was inaugurated?

  • (1) Punjab
  • (2) Uttar Pradesh
  • (3) Gujarat
  • (4) Haryana

Question 50:

What is the UPI limit for High-Value transactions like tax payments or hospital?

  • (1) 2 Lakhs per transaction
  • (2) 5 lakhs per transaction
  • (3) 10,000 per transaction
  • (4) 5 thousand

Question 51:

Which organization created the national-level geospatial databases for Bhuvan Panchayat 4.0 and National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM 5.0)?

  • (1) JAXA
  • (2) ISRO
  • (3) NASA
  • (4) CNSA

Question 52:

Which IIT has developed a ‘Crowd Eye’ device that can send alerts when the number of pilgrims exceeds the capacity of shrines?

  • (1) IIT Ahmedabad
  • (2) IIT Roorkee
  • (3) IIT Kanpur
  • (4) IIT Bombay

Question 53:

According to IUCN, the Halari donkey an endangered breed is known for its ______.

  • (1) Height
  • (2) Intelligence
    (3) Weight
  • (4) Small size

Question 54:

Which of the following was introduced in the Olympics 2024 for the first time?

  • (1) Football
  • (2) Break dancing
  • (3) Water sports
  • (4) Pole vault

Question 55:

"World Wealth Report 2024," was released by which organization?

  • (1) International Monetary Fund
  • (2) Capgemini Research Institute
  • (3) World Health Organization
  • (4) International Labour Organization

Question 56:

Who is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal in shooting?

  • (1) Vedika Sharma
  • (2) Manu Bhaker
  • (3) Anjali Bhagwat
  • (4) Manisha Keer

Question 57:

What is the name of the capital of the Union Territory which was renamed as Sri Vijaya Puram?

  • (1) Puducherry
  • (2) Port Blair
  • (3) Kavaratti
  • (4) Daman

Question 58:

Which country is celebrating its bicentennial anniversary of independence from Spanish rule in the year, 2025?

  • (1) Bolivia
  • (2) North America
  • (3) Asia
  • (4) Cuba

Question 59:

Where was India’s first helicopter ambulance service launched?

  • (1) AIIMS New Delhi
  • (2) AIIMS Jaipur
  • (3) AIIMS Rishikesh
  • (4) AIIMS Bilaspur

Question 60:

The Lokamata Devi Ahilya bai Holkar Training Scheme is initiated by which state for entrepreneurship and self-employment?

  • (1) Gujarat
  • (2) Rajasthan
  • (3) Madhya Pradesh
  • (4) Uttar Pradesh

Aptitude for Study of Law

Question 61:

Which State Government has released the ‘Justice Hema Committee report’ to investigate the issues relating to sexual violence and gender inequality?

  • (1) West Bengal
  • (2) Kerala
  • (3) Jharkhand
  • (4) Gujarat
Kerala
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Committee's Purpose

The Justice Hema Committee was constituted to look into issues such as sexual harassment, lack of representation, and poor working conditions for women, especially in the Malayalam film industry.

Step 2: Identifying the Government Involved

The committee was set up by the Kerala State Government in response to rising demands from women artists and activists.

Step 3: Conclusion

Since Kerala initiated and published the findings of the Hema Committee, the correct answer is Kerala. Quick Tip: Always remember to connect a committee to its objective and the specific government that established it.


Question 62:

United Nations organisation was founded in 1945, how many are founding countries?

  • (1) 55
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 62
  • (4) 51

Question 63:

Which right does not automatically terminate upon the death of a natural person?

  • (1) Right to own property
  • (2) Right to sue
  • (3) Right to reputation
  • (4) Right to vote

Question 64:

Krishna water dispute is between which States?
(i) Karnataka
(ii) Tamil Nadu
(iii) Maharashtra
(iv) Andhra Pradesh
(v) Telangana

  • (1) i, ii, iv, v
  • (2) ii, iii, iv, v
  • (3) i, iii, iv, v
  • (4) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 65:

The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by:

  • (1) Either Houses of Parliament
  • (2) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  • (3) Rajya Sabha and Vice President
  • (4) Lok Sabha and Prime Minister

Question 66:

Leading Questions may be asked generally in the court during ______.

  • (1) Examination-in-Chief
  • (2) Cross-Examination
  • (3) Re-Examination
  • (4) In all the three examinations

Question 67:

The Telangana Bhu Bharati (Record of Rights in Land) Act was enacted in the year \hspace{1cm}.

  • (1) 2025
  • (2) 2024
  • (3) 2023
  • (4) 2022

Question 68:

The origin of Online Dispute Resolution is from which country?

  • (1) Japan
  • (2) Singapore
  • (3) USA
  • (4) France

Question 69:

Who among the following tribes live in Andaman and Nicobar islands?

  • (1) Apatani
  • (2) Jarawas
  • (3) Munda
  • (4) Santhal

Question 70:

An agreement enforceable by law at the option of one party is _____.

  • (1) Void contract
  • (2) Voidable contract
  • (3) Valid contract
  • (4) Enforceable contract

Question 71:

Which of the following is not an essential element of negligence?

  • (1) Duty of care
  • (2) Breach of duty
  • (3) Malicious intent
  • (4) Damage or injury

Question 72:

When is the communication of a proposal complete?

  • (1) When it does not come to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
  • (2) When it comes to the knowledge of another person that some communication was made to the concerned person.
  • (3) When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is not made.
  • (4) When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Question 73:

A minor has entered into a contract for purchase of necessary items. In such cases:

  • (1) Minor is not personally liable.
  • (2) Minor's estate is liable.
  • (3) Minor's guardian is liable.
  • (4) Minor is personally liable.

Question 74:

Who advises the President in the exercise of his powers?

  • (1) Rajya Sabha
  • (2) Supreme Court
  • (3) Union Council of Ministers
  • (4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 75:

Which of the following is true about a wagering contract?

  • (1) Only one party stands to win or lose.
  • (2) Both parties may win or lose depending on an uncertain event.
  • (3) The contract is enforceable in court.
  • (4) It is enforceable in court with mutual consent of parties.

Question 76:

What is the meaning of legal maxim “lex specialis derogat legi generali”? “lex specialis derogat legi generali” means the special law prevails over the general law.

  • (1) Special law prevails over general law
  • (2) Common law prevails over statutory law
  • (3) Recent laws are superior to older ones
  • (4) Written law is superior to oral agreements

Question 77:

What is the punishment for hacking of computers under the IT Act?

  • (1) Three years imprisonment or Ten lakh rupees penalty or both
  • (2) Life imprisonment
  • (3) Three years imprisonment, Five lakh rupees penalty or both
  • (4) Three years imprisonment or Three lakh rupees penalty or both

Question 78:

Which is the famous case relating to constitutionality of reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)?

  • (1) Lalitha Kumari v. State of UP and others
  • (2) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
  • (3) PUCL v. Union of India
  • (4) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

Question 79:

Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of National Human Rights Commission in December, 2024?

  • (1) Justice Madan Bhimarao Lokur
  • (2) Justice Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
  • (3) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
  • (4) Justice V. Ramasubramaniam

Question 80:

McNaughten’s rule was established in the year ____.

  • (1) 1703
  • (2) 1892
  • (3) 1843
  • (4) 1912

Question 81:

Right to freedom guaranteed under Art. 19 of the Indian Constitution is automatically suspended when a proclamation of emergency is declared under which of the following grounds?

  • (1) Armed Rebellion
  • (2) War
  • (3) Loss of Election
  • (4) External Aggression

Question 82:

Which of the following is not a defence to strict liability?

  • (1) Act of God
  • (2) Consent of the plaintiff
  • (3) Act of a third party
  • (4) Reasonable care taken by defendant

Question 83:

Punishments that can be imposed under BNS are ______.

  • (1) Death sentence, imprisonment, fine, compensation
  • (2) Death sentence, imprisonment, fine and community service
  • (3) Death sentence, imprisonment for life, damages, fine
  • (4) Fine, compensation, damages, death sentence

Question 84:

Which of the following services do not fall under Public Utility Service?

  • (1) Sanitation
  • (2) Electricity services
  • (3) Postal services
  • (4) Home services

Question 85:

Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished?

  • (1) State Legislative Council
  • (2) State Legislative Assembly
  • (3) Rajya Sabha
  • (4) Lok Sabha

Question 86:

Under which Act does the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) derive its investigative powers?

  • (1) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • (2) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
  • (3) The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946
  • (4) The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

Question 87:

Which type of cases are not dealt with by the Lok Adalat?

  • (1) Family disputes
  • (2) Motor accident claims
  • (3) Compoundable criminal offences
  • (4) Non-compoundable criminal offences

Question 88:

Which of the following Committees was appointed to make recommendations about the inclusion of Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Swaran Singh Committee
  • (2) Punchi Committee
  • (3) Sarkaria Committee
  • (4) Malimath Committee

Question 89:

The right of lien allows an unpaid seller to __________.

  • (1) Take legal action for damages
  • (2) Retain possession of the goods until payment
  • (3) Repossess the goods from the buyer
  • (4) Sell the goods to another buyer

Question 90:

Where the headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is situated?

  • (1) Geneva
  • (2) Beijing
  • (3) Paris
  • (4) Tokyo

Question 91:

The principle of “equal pay for equal work” was recognized by the Supreme Court in which case?

  • (1) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
  • (2) Randhir Singh v. Union of India
  • (3) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
  • (4) Air India v. Nargesh Meerza

Question 92:

Libel is a defamatory statement in ______

  • (1) Transient form
  • (2) Permanent form
  • (3) Both in Transient and Permanent form
  • (4) Either Transient or Permanent form

Question 93:

"Apartheid" term came to be linked with practice of discrimination in which of the following countries?

  • (1) South America
  • (2) South Africa
  • (3) North America
  • (4) Mozambique

Question 94:

Gandhian Idea of individual rights was characterised within the framework of –

  • (1) Human interdependence
  • (2) European liberal tradition
  • (3) Socialist tradition
  • (4) Vedic tradition

Question 95:

Which of the following international instruments provide for the abolition of death penalty?

  • (1) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
  • (2) First Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
  • (3) Second Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
  • (4) Optional Protocol to International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

Question 96:

Damages awarded to punish the wrongdoer are called __________.

  • (1) Compensatory damages
  • (2) Nominal damages
  • (3) Exemplary damages
  • (4) Liquidated damages

Question 97:

The Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is provided under which provision of Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Article 32
  • (2) Article 136
  • (3) Article 143
  • (4) Article 145

Question 98:

International Humanitarian Law is _________.

  • (1) Branch of International Law which provides protection to Human beings from the consequences of Armed conflicts
  • (2) Branch of International Environment Law that provides protection to Environment
  • (3) Branch of International Law seeking intervention in the States violating Human Rights of the people
  • (4) Branch of International Law providing for humanitarian assistance to the people affected by the Natural Disasters

Question 99:

Constitutional morality emphasizes which of the following core values?

  • (1) Rule of law, liberty, equality, and fraternity
  • (2) Market freedom and property rights
  • (3) Popular sentiment and public morality
  • (4) Executive discretion and majoritarianism

Question 100:

The Recommendations of Sarkaria Commission relates to ____.

  • (1) Powers and Functions of the President
  • (2) Formation of Telangana State
  • (3) Pay Revision for Employees
  • (4) Centre-State Relations

Question 101:

A matter under consideration in the Court is called as __________.

  • (1) Status quo
  • (2) Res judicata
  • (3) Sub-judice
  • (4) Injunction

Question 102:

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, came into effect on:

  • (1) 1st January 2024
  • (2) 1st April 2024
  • (3) 1st July 2024
  • (4) 1st October 2024

Question 103:

The Gloucester Grammar school case is a landmark case in tort law decided in the year _______ .

  • (1) 1915
  • (2) 1868
  • (3) 1410
  • (4) 1703

Question 104:

The importance of Intellectual Property (I.P.) was first recognised in the Paris Convention for the protection of __________.

  • (1) Industrial Property
  • (2) Literature and Artistic works
  • (3) Product and Property
  • (4) Artificial Intelligence

Question 105:

The 'Nirbhaya Fund' was established by the Government of India in which year?

  • (1) 2011
  • (2) 2013
  • (3) 2021
  • (4) 2024

Question 106:

Who has the power to decide disputes related to the election of the President and Vice-President of India?

  • (1) Election Commission
  • (2) Parliament
  • (3) Supreme Court of India
  • (4) President of India

Question 107:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cognizable offence?

  • (1) Police can register FIR without prior approval
  • (2) Requires prior sanction of court to investigate
  • (3) Usually non-bailable
  • (4) Considered serious in nature

Question 108:

Which of the following statements about the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is true?

  • (1) The CBI can investigate any case in India without State Government approval
  • (2) The CBI operates under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India
  • (3) The CBI primarily reports to the Ministry of Finance
  • (4) The CBI requires the consent of State Governments to investigate cases within their jurisdiction

Question 109:

Which of the following is not patentable under Indian law?

  • (1) Process of making a new drug
  • (2) Discovery of a new planet
  • (3) New machine
  • (4) Genetically modified microorganism

Question 110:

Which of the following are the theories of punishment?

  • (1) Deterrent theory, laissez fair theory, and Reformative theory
  • (2) Deterrent theory, Preventive, and Retributive
  • (3) Retributive theory, Reformative theory, and Attractive theory
  • (4) Preventive, Retributive and lifestyle theory

Question Numbers : (111 to 115)

Comprehension


Theories of statutory interpretation form the bedrock of judicial hermeneutics, particularly in common law systems where judicial exposition coexists with legislative supremacy. At the foundational level, the literal rule posits that when statutory language is clear and unambiguous, the court is bound to give effect to the text, even if it leads to inconvenient consequences. This approach is based on the maxim expressum
facit cessare tacitum. However, the golden rule, permits departure from the literal meaning to avert absurdity. This rule acknowledges the imperfection of legislative drafting and underscores the principle noscitur a sociis, which means a word is known by the company it keeps. More dynamic is the mischief rule, originating from Heydon’s Case, which directs the court to examine the defect or mischief in prior law that legislation intended to cure. It empowers courts to consider extrinsic aids, including Law Commission reports and
legislative debates. In the constitutional domain, the purposive approach was employed in landmark cases such as Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India and Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India. This interpretation approach prioritizes the spirit over the letter of the law and affirms transformative constitutionalism. Amidst this interpretive elasticity, the judiciary remains constrained
by the maxim judicis est jus dicere non dare, which stipulates that the judge’s role is to declare law, but not legislate.

Question 111:

The maxim noscitur a sociis is most relevant for

  • (1) Extrinsic aids to help interpretation
  • (2) Historical context for interpretation
  • (3) Contextual interpretation of words
  • (4) Judicial precedent-based interpretation
Contextual interpretation of words
View Solution

The maxim noscitur a sociis is a principle used in statutory interpretation, which asserts that the meaning of a word can be determined by the words surrounding it. This means that a word is understood by the company it keeps. It helps in interpreting ambiguous or vague terms by considering the context in which they appear. This maxim is primarily used in contextual interpretation of words (Option 3). It guides courts to interpret a word in a manner that is consistent with the surrounding words and the overall context of the statute, rather than interpreting it in isolation.

For example, if a statute refers to “vehicles, such as cars, trucks, and motorcycles,” the term “vehicles” should be interpreted in the context of the other items listed, implying that it refers to road-going transportation methods and not, for example, trains or airplanes. This is a classic example of contextual interpretation. Thus, the maxim noscitur a sociis helps clarify the meaning of a term by looking at how it relates to other words in the statute.

Other options are less relevant in this context:

Option (1) Extrinsic aids to help interpretation refers to materials outside the text of the statute, such as legislative history or external documents, which are not the focus of the maxim \textit{noscitur a sociis.
Option (2) Historical context for interpretation involves interpreting laws based on the historical circumstances or the situation when the law was passed, which differs from the principle of interpreting words by their surrounding context.
Option (4) Judicial precedent-based interpretation involves interpreting laws based on previous court decisions, which is a different approach from the contextual interpretation based on the surrounding words.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (3): Contextual interpretation of words.
Quick Tip: When interpreting statutes, always pay attention to the surrounding words to better understand the intended meaning of ambiguous terms. Contextual interpretation can prevent misinterpretations that might arise if a term is understood in isolation.


Question 112:

What is the meaning of the legal maxim expressum facit cessare tacitum?

  • (1) What is expressed excludes what is implied
  • (2) What is implied excludes what is expressed
  • (3) What is implied includes what is expressed
  • (4) What is expressed includes what is implied

Question 113:

Which of the following cases is not an example of purposive interpretation?

  • (1) Kesavananda Bharati’s case
  • (2) Maneka Gandhi’s case
  • (3) Heydon’s case
  • (4) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy’s case

Question 114:

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • (1) Judicial interpretation coexists with legislative supremacy in common law.
  • (2) Literal rule of interpretation provides that court is bound to give effect to the text, only if it leads to convenient consequences.
  • (3) Golden rule of interpretation permits departure from the literal meaning of the text in order to avert absurdity.
  • (4) Mischief rule directs the court to examine the defect in prior law that legislation intended to cure.

Question 115:

The legal maxim 'judicis est jus dicere non dare' emphasizes _________ .

  • (1) Judicial activism
  • (2) Transformative constitutionalism
  • (3) Judicial restraint
  • (4) Purposive Interpretation

Question Numbers : (116 to 120)


 Comprehension

The law of insurance, rooted in the general principles of contract law, is governed by doctrines distinctively evolved to reflect its aleatory nature. Insurance contracts are contracts uberrimae fidei. The insured is required to disclose all material facts that may influence the judgment of a prudent insurer. It must be noted that suppression of the truth is equivalent to the suggestion of falsehood. Unlike commutative contracts, insurance agreements are aleatory, where performance depends on uncertain events. The principle of indemnity ensures that the insured is restored to the financial position prior to loss, negating unjust enrichment. It is applicable in marine insurance, fire insurance, home insurance etc. However, in life insurance, the indemnity principle is relaxed due to its classification as a contingent contract, enforceable upon the assured event, not actual loss. The doctrine of insurable interest is pivotal. It mandates that the insured must have a legally recognized interest in the subject matter at the time of loss or at inception in life insurance, failing which, the contract is void ab initio. Additionally, the principle of subrogation entitles the insurer, upon indemnification, to step into the shoes of the insured and recover from third parties. In the interpretation of insurance contracts, ambiguities are construed against the drafter, which is typically the insurer. Courts prioritize the reasonable expectations of the insured, provided there is no breach of disclosure duties.

Question 116:

What is the meaning of uberrimae fidei?

  • (1) utmost good faith
  • (2) full disclosure
  • (3) no concealment
  • (4) only in writing
utmost good faith
View Solution

To solve this, we need to understand the meaning of uberrimae fidei in the context of insurance contracts:

1. Step 1: Understanding the Term Uerrimae Fidei.
Uerrimae fidei is a Latin term that translates to "utmost good faith." It is a fundamental principle of insurance contracts, requiring both the insurer and the insured to act with the highest level of honesty and full disclosure of all material facts.

2. Step 2: Application of Uerrimae Fidei in Insurance.
The principle of utmost good faith mandates that the insured disclose all relevant information that could influence the insurer's decision to accept the policy. Non-disclosure or concealment of facts by the insured is considered a breach of this duty.

3. Step 3: Elimination of Incorrect Options.
Option (2) full disclosure is a part of utmost good faith, but it does not capture the broader meaning of uberrimae fidei.
Option (3) no concealment is a result of the principle of utmost good faith, but does not define it.
Option (4) only in writing is unrelated to the concept of uberrimae fidei.

4. Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is Option (1), as uberrimae fidei refers to acting with "utmost good faith" in insurance contracts.
Quick Tip: Uerrimae fidei is the foundation of trust and transparency in insurance relationships. Failure to uphold it may result in a claim being denied.


Question 117:

The indemnity principle is relaxed in which type of insurance?

  • (1) Marine Insurance
  • (2) Life Insurance
  • (3) Home Insurance
  • (4) Fire Insurance
Life Insurance
View Solution

Question 118:

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • (1) Insured shall be restored to the financial position prior to loss.
  • (2) Insured must have a legally recognized interest in the subject matter.
  • (3) Courts prioritize the reasonable expectations of the insured.
  • (4) Suppression of the falsehood is equivalent to the suggestion of truth.

Question 119:

The principle of subrogation allows the insurer to __________.

  • (1) Sue the insured for breach
  • (2) Avoid liability and payment to insured
  • (3) Recover from third parties after paying a claim
  • (4) Cancel the policy retroactively

Question 120:

What does the principle of indemnity aim to prevent?

  • (1) Contingent contract
  • (2) Contract formation
  • (3) Unjust enrichment
  • (4) Risk allocation

TS LAWCET 2025 Topicwise Weightage

Component Important Topics & Weightage
General Knowledge and Mental Ability (30 marks)
  • Indian History – 5
  • Geography – 5
  • Economics – 5
  • Politics – 5
  • Science and Technology – 5
  • Reasoning Ability (Verbal & Non-Verbal) – 5
Current Affairs (30 marks)
  • National and International Events – 10
  • Sports and Awards – 5
  • Government Schemes – 5
  • Summits and Conferences – 5
  • Economic and Social Issues – 5
  • Science & Technology – 5
Constitutional Law (30 marks)
  • Indian Constitution – 10
  • Fundamental Rights – 5
  • Directive Principles of State Policy – 5
  • Union and State Legislatures – 5
  • Judiciary and Judicial Review – 5
  • Amendments and Reforms – 5
Jurisprudence (30 marks)
  • Basic Concepts of Law – 10
  • Sources of Law – 5
  • Law and Morality – 5
  • Judicial Process – 5
  • Legal Personality – 5
  • Law of Torts – 5

TS LAWCET Questions

  • 1.
    Who is the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority?

      • The Chief Justice of India
      • The President of India
      • The Union Law Minister
      • The Attorney General of India

    • 2.
      Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, newly introduced specific provision relating to ___________.

        • Mob Lynching
        • Attempt to Commit Suicide
        • Adultery
        • Sedition

      • 3.
        Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the No-Confidence Motion in India?

          • It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
          • It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
          • It can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
          • It is a motion expressing want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.

        • 4.
          Who is authorized to decide on disqualification cases under the Anti-Defection Law?

            • The President of India
            • The Election Commission
            • The Speaker or Chairman of the respective House
            • The Supreme Court

          • 5.
            The concept of "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" was first introduced in which case?

              • Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
              • Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
              • S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
              • Golaknath v. State of Punjab

            • 6.
              Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?

                • 3rd Schedule
                • 4th Schedule
                • 7th Schedule
                • 8th Schedule

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General800
              sc500

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