TS LAWCET 2024 3 Years LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Shift 1)

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

TS LAWCET 2024 Question Paper 3 Years LLB (Shift 1) is available for download here. Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of the Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE) conducted TS LAWCET 2024 exam on June 3 in Session 1 from 9 AM to 10:30 AM. TS LAWCET 2024 Question Paper consists of 120 MCQs in total divided into 3 sections carrying a weightage of 120 marks.

TS LAWCET 2024 3 Years LLB Question Paper with Answer Key (Shift 1)

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TS LAWCET 2024 3 Years LLB Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for:

  • (1) Solar Energy
  • (2) Geothermal Energy
  • (3) Bioenergy
  • (4) Wind Energy

Question 2:

Which one of the following is not covered under GST in India?

  • (1) Cosmetics
  • (2) Medical Grade Oxygen
  • (3) Jewellery
  • (4) Petrol

Question 3:

Which one of the following methods is followed in electing the President of India?

  • (1) Proportional Representation only
  • (2) First-Past-the-Post System only
  • (3) Proportional Representation and Single Transferable Vote System
  • (4) Proportional Representation and First-Past-the-Post System

Question 4:

Match the following pairs of vaccine and category/type:

a)Covaxin: Inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

b)Covishield: mRNA Vaccine.

c)Sputnik V: Viral vector- based vaccine.

  • (1) ‘a’ only.
  • (2) ‘a’ and ‘b’ only.
  • (3) ‘a’ and ‘c’ only.
  • (4) ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’.

Question 5:

................. female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan.

  • (1) Vikramasena
  • (2) Chandrayan
  • (3) Aryabhatta
  • (4) Vyommitra

Question 6:

National Disaster Management Authority is headed by .............

  • (1) The Prime Minister
  • (2) The Home Minister
  • (3) The President
  • (4) The Health Minister

Question 7:

Who founded the Central Hindu School at Banaras which was later developed into Banaras Hindu University?

  • (1) Annie Besant
  • (2) Madan Mohan Malaviya
  • (3) Chandra Vidyasagar
  • (4) Gandhiji

Question 8:

Who among the following founded the Marathi Newspaper ‘Kesari’?

  • (1) Lok Manaya Tilak
  • (2) Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (3) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (4) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

Question 9:

Advaita Philosophy was propounded by ...............

  • (1) Ramanujacharya
  • (2) Madhvacharya
  • (3) Adi Shankaracharya
  • (4) Yamunacharya

Question 10:

International Gender equality prize is given by which country?

  • (1) United States of America
  • (2) Finland
  • (3) South Africa
  • (4) India

Question 11:

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was first passed by which of the following coalition governments?

  • (1) The National Front - 1989 to 1990
  • (2) National Democratic Alliance, 1999 to 2004
  • (3) United Progressive Alliance - I, 2004 to 2009
  • (4) United Progressive Alliance - II, 2009 to 2014

Question 12:

Which tennis player has won more number of grand slam tournaments?

  • (1) Roger Federer
  • (2) Raphael Nadal
  • (3) Novak Djokovic
  • (4) Boris Becker

Question 13:

Who was the first woman to travel into space?

  • (1) Tamara Press
  • (2) Sally Ride
  • (3) Naidia Comenci
  • (4) Valentina Tereshkova

Question 14:

BrahMos, supersonic cruise missile, is the outcome of a joint collaboration between .........

  • (1) India and Russia
  • (2) India and America
  • (3) India and France
  • (4) India and Romania

Question 15:

Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

  • (1) Ajit Doval
  • (2) Shaktikanta Das
  • (3) Smt. Dakshita Das
  • (4) N K Singh

Question 16:

If the ‘cook’ is called ‘butler’, ‘butler’ is called ‘manager’, ‘manager’ is called ‘teacher’, ‘teacher’ is called ‘clerk’, and ‘clerk’ is called ‘principal’, who will teach in the class?

  • (1) Cook
  • (2) Butler
  • (3) Manager
  • (4) Clerk

Question 17:

The radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50%, then its volume increases by ..........

  • (1) 125%
  • (2) 100%
  • (3) 237.5%
  • (4) 75%

Question 18:

A group of eight members sitting in a circle. ‘D’ is between ‘A’ and ‘F’ and is opposite to ‘G’. ‘E’ is to the right of ‘A’ but not on the left of ‘C’, whose right-hand neighbour is ‘G’. ‘B’ enjoys having ‘H’ to his left. Find the member who is diagonally opposite to ‘A’ –

  • (1) B
  • (2) G
  • (3) H
  • (4) F

Question 19:

Find the odd one out.

  • (1) Snake
  • (2) Turtle
  • (3) Crocodile
  • (4) Whale

Question 20:

How many meaningful English words can be formed by using 2nd, 4th, 7th and 9th letter of the word ‘WONDERFUL’? Use each letter only once, but in different sequence.

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four

Question 21:

What will be the next term in the series BKS, DJT, FIU, HHV, .........?

  • (1) IJX
  • (2) JGW
  • (3) JGU
  • (4) IGX

Question 22:

Solve the equation: 18B12P4M8Q6

If ‘P’ denotes ÷, ‘Q’ denotes + ,

‘M’ denotes - ‘B’ denotes ×

  • (1) 17
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 52
  • (4) 108

Question 23:

Twenty-five children are standing in a row. “R” is in 16th place from the right end and “B” is in 18th place from the left end. How many children are there between “R” and “B”?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 7

Question 24:

Rahim's salary was reduced by 10% and then the reduced salary was increased by 10%. What was his ultimate loss?

  • (1) 0%
  • (2) 1%
  • (3) 10%
  • (4) 5%

Question 25:

The present ages of Sriyaan and Srihaan are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. After three years the ratio of their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Srihaan’s present age in years?

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 27
  • (3) 29
  • (4) 33

Question 26:

What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand when the time is 7:30?

  • (1) 23 degrees
  • (2) 43 degrees
  • (3) 45 degrees
  • (4) 54 degrees

Question 27:

Find out the wrong figure in the series: 325, 259, 202, 160, 127, 105, 94

  • (1) 202
  • (2) 94
  • (3) 127
  • (4) 259

Question 28:

A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the length of the goods train?

  • (1) 230 meters
  • (2) 240 meters
  • (3) 260 meters
  • (4) 270 meters

Question 29:

Identify the missing alphabets

A D C F

C F E H

O R ? ?

  • (1) LK
  • (2) QT
  • (3) MN
  • (4) ST

Question 30:

The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

  • (1) 4 years
  • (2) 5 years
  • (3) 6 years
  • (4) 8 years

Question 31:

To which State Government the Supreme Court of India ordered the closing of 68 mines operating in marble, dolomite, and limestone mining to protect wildlife in that area?

  • (1) Jharkhand
  • (2) Rajasthan
  • (3) Karnataka
  • (4) Maharashtra

Question 32:

Which Union Ministry released the ‘Endorsements Know-hows!’ guide for celebrities and influencers on social media platforms?

  • (1) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
  • (2) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • (3) Ministry of Home Affairs
  • (4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Question 33:

Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2023?

  • (1) Malala Yousafzai
  • (2) Shirin Ebadi
  • (3) Narges Mohammadi
  • (4) Tawakkol Karman

Question 34:

Which institution has conducted the maiden flight trial of Sea-based endo-atmospheric interceptor missile?

  • (1) Indian Space Research Organisation
    (2) Defence Research and Development Organisation
    (3) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
    (4) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

Question 35:

Rashmi Kumari won the National Women’s Carrom Championship for 12 times. How many times has she won the World Championship in Carrom?

  • (1) 8
    (2) 5
    (3) 3
    (4) 12

Question 36:

Tushar Shelke and Sangeeta, are associated with which sport?

  • (1) Archery
    (2) Tennis
    (3) Cricket
    (4) Chess

Question 37:

National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) functions under which Union Ministry?

  • (1) Ministry of Women and Child Development
    (2) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    (3) Ministry of Justice
    (4) Ministry of Home Affairs

Question 38:

“Bharat 5G Portal - an integrated portal”, recently launched by which ministry?

  • (1) Ministry of Finance
    (2) Ministry of Communication
    (3) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
    (4) Ministry of Information & Broadcasting

Question 39:

When is the 'World Braille Day' observed every year?

  • (1) January 1
    (2) January 2
    (3) January 3
    (4) January 4

Question 40:

Who is the author of the book titled "Why Bharat Matters"?

  • (1) Narendra Modi
    (2) S. Jaishankar
    (3) Nirmala Sitharaman
    (4) Rajnath Singh

Question 41:

Which team won the Indian Premier League title in 2022?

  • (1) Kolkata Knight Riders
    (2) Mumbai Indians
    (3) Chennai Super Kings
    (4) Gujarat Titans

Question 42:

Which technology company partnered with Amazon Web Services (AWS) to launch GenAI-focused innovation lab in India?

  • (1) Google
    (2) Nokia
    (3) Samsung
    (4) IBM

Question 43:

Which city hosted the 'International Convention on Millets'?

  • (1) Jaipur
    (2) Bhubaneswar
    (3) Chennai
    (4) Hyderabad

Question 44:

Which country is the first to score over 500 runs on day 1 of a test cricket match?

  • (1) India
    (2) Australia
    (3) England
    (4) South Africa

Question 45:

Which Railway Station was awarded the ‘Green Railway Station’ certification with the highest rating of Platinum by the Indian Green Building Council?

  • (1) Railway Station, Tamil Nadu
    (2) Hubballi Railway Station, Karnataka
    (3) Kalyan Railway Station, Maharashtra
    (4) Vijayawada Railway Station, Andhra Pradesh

Question 46:

Which badminton player has clinched the Japan Open 2023 singles men’s title?

  • (1) Kidambi Srikanth
    (2) Viktor Axelsen
    (3) Lakshya Sen
    (4) Chen Long

Question 47:

What is DCS, that has been launched by the Union Agricultural Ministry?

  • (1) Digital Crop Survey
    (2) Durable Crop Survey
    (3) Doubling Crop Survey
    (4) Distributive Crop Survey

Question 48:

Which Asian country recorded a 27% rise in tiger population since 2015?

  • (1) India
    (2) Pakistan
    (3) Bhutan
    (4) Thailand

Question 49:

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India has flagged irregularities in which scheme of NHAI?

  • (1) PM KISAN
    (2) Bharatmala programme
    (3) Sagarmala programme
    (4) PM DISHA

Question 50:

What is the full form of FMR regarding India’s border with Myanmar?

  • (1) Foundation for Medical Research
    (2) Financial Management Report
    (3) Foreign Military Relations
    (4) Free Movement Regime

Question 51:

Which IIT has recently developed ‘Work4Food’ solution to guarantee minimum wages for food delivery workers?

  • (1) IIT Bombay
    (2) IIT Madras
    (3) IIT Kanpur
    (4) IIT Delhi

Question 52:

Ganga Sagar Mela, India’s second-largest fair after Kumbh Mela, is celebrated in which State of India?

  • (1) Tamil Nadu
    (2) West Bengal
    (3) Kerala
    (4) Bihar

Question 53:

What target has the Government set to reduce accidental deaths by 2030?

  • (1) 50%
    (2) 40%
    (3) 30%
    (4) 20%

Question 54:

‘Ayutthaya’ is a maritime exercise conducted by which two countries?

  • (1) India \& United States
    (2) India \& Thailand
    (3) India \& Australia
    (4) India \& Sri Lanka

Question 55:

Purple Revolution, is associated with which one of the following?

  • (1) Lavender flower cultivation
    (2) Sunflower cultivation
    (3) Honey cultivation
    (4) Cotton production

Question 56:

‘India Energy Week’ is observed in India, during which month?

  • (1) January
    (2) February
    (3) March
    (4) April

Question 57:

What is the theme of the ‘World Radio Day’ 2023?

  • (1) Sustainability in Radio
  • (2) Radio and Peace
  • (3) Free Press
  • (4) Independent Journalism

Question 58:

‘Jal-Jan Abhiyan’ was recently inaugurated in which State?

  • (1) Uttar Pradesh
  • (2) Rajasthan
  • (3) Maharashtra
  • (4) Gujarat

Question 59:

‘Jal-Jan Abhiyan’ was recently inaugurated in which State?

  • (1) Uttar Pradesh
  • (2) Rajasthan
  • (3) Maharashtra
  • (4) Gujarat

Question 60:

Which institution introduced the ‘Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure’?

  • (1) World Bank
  • (2) WEF
  • (3) IMF
  • (4) WMO

Question 61:

Which recently discovered species has been named after KN Ganeshaiah, a famous agricultural scientist and Kannada writer?

  • (1) Butterfly
  • (2) Gecko
  • (3) Spider
  • (4) Turtle

Question 62:

Which of the following is NOT a source of law in common law systems?

  • (1) Statutes
  • (2) Precedent
  • (3) Religious texts
  • (4) Custom

Question 63:

What is the role of an Arbitrator in dispute resolution?

  • (1) To compromise a dispute between the parties outside the court
  • (2) To represent one party in the dispute
  • (3) To adjudicate on the dispute
  • (4) To enforce court orders

Question 64:

What does the term "voir dire" refer to in legal proceedings?

  • (1) The presentation of evidence
  • (2) The examination of victims
  • (3) The process of selecting a jury
  • (4) The closing arguments by attorneys

Question 65:

Which among the following is described as Lawyer's Paradise by Sir Ivor Jennings?

  • (1) Supreme Court of India
  • (2) Bar Council of India
  • (3) Constitution of India
  • (4) Indian Penal Code

Question 66:

In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India recognize the principle of Absolute Liability in environmental law, stating that enterprises engaged in inherently dangerous activities are strictly liable for any harm caused to the environment?

  • (1) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak case)
  • (2) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
  • (3) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood Products
  • (4) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India

Question 67:

Who is eligible for alimony under the Hindu Marriage Act?

  • (1) Only wife
  • (2) Both Husband and wife
  • (3) Only husband
  • (4) Husband, wife and children

Question 68:

Based on which case the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013 was enacted?

  • (1) Shaheen Abdullah v. Union of India
  • (2) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India
  • (3) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  • (4) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

Question 69:

Private International Law is also called as .........

  • (1) Civil Law
  • (2) Common Law
  • (3) Conflict of Laws
  • (4) Regional Law

Question 70:

Dishonour of a cheque is an offence punishable under ........

  • (1) Indian Penal Code
  • (2) Negotiable Instruments Act
  • (3) Banking Regulations Act
  • (4) Payment and Settlement Act

Question 71:

The Information Technology Act came into operation on ..........

  • (1) 9th June 2000
  • (2) 8th June 2002
  • (3) 9th June 2001
  • (4) 8th June 2006

Question 72:

In which year did the Supreme Court of India give the verdict on the Ayodhya dispute?

  • (1) 2015
  • (2) 2019
  • (3) 2021
  • (4) 2024

Question 73:

Which statement is correct regarding 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution?


(a) 42nd Amendment gave the directive principles precedence over fundamental rights wherever there was a conflict, however, the subsequent amendment revoked this provision.


(b) The 42nd Amendment act laid down certain fundamental duties, which had to be observed by all nationals and non-compliance with them was made punishable under the law.


(c) The 42nd amendment prevented declaration of emergency on account of internal conflict and empowered for declaration of emergency only if there is an armed rebellion.

  • (1) a only
  • (3) b only
  • (4) b & c only

Question 74:

Headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is located at ______

  • (1) Geneva
  • (2) Rome
  • (3) Washington
  • (4) London

Question 75:

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the "Right against self-incrimination"?

  • (1) Article 20 (1)
  • (2) Article 20 (3)
  • (3) Article 20 (2)
  • (4) Article 20

Question 76:

Any act due to directly or exclusively without human intervention and it is nature’s destruction, the act is called as ........

  • (1) Intentional harm
  • (2) Vis major
  • (3) Inevitable Accident
  • (4) Accident

Question 77:

“Right to life under Article 21” of the Indian Constitution does not include “Right to die”. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in which case ____?

  • (1) P. Rathinam v. Union of India
  • (2) NALSA v. Union of India
  • (3) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
  • (4) Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India

Question 78:

Which of the following International Treaties is considered the cornerstone of Modern Human Rights Law?

  • (1) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
  • (2) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
  • (3) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
  • (4) Geneva Convention

Question 79:

Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of _________ State in Independent India.

  • (1) Madhya Pradesh
  • (2) Uttar Pradesh
  • (3) Bihar
  • (4) Maharashtra

Question 80:

Which doctrine states that a person cannot be tried for the same offence twice?

  • (1) Double jeopardy
  • (2) Due process
  • (3) Ex post facto
  • (4) Habeas corpus

Question 81:

Which famous English case is also known as "the snail in the bottle case"?

  • (1) Ashby vs. White
  • (2) Rylands vs. Fletchers
  • (3) Donoghue v. Stevenson
  • (4) Nichols vs. Marsland

Question 82:

In Contract Law, what is the term for an agreement between two parties where both parties make promises to do something?

  • (1) Unilateral contract
  • (2) Void contract
  • (3) Bilateral contract
  • (4) Executed contract

Question 83:

M. C. Mehta v. State of Tamilnadu case relates to ________

  • (1) Violation of rights under Juvenile Justice Law
  • (2) Exploitation of children above 14 years
  • (3) Violation of the Right to Education
  • (4) Violation of Fundamental Rights of children under Article 24 of the Indian Constitution

Question 84:

What is the term for a legal document that gives someone else the authority to act on your behalf in legal matters?

  • (1) Sub poena
  • (2) Power of attorney
  • (3) Affidavit
  • (4) Summons

Question 85:

Select the correct statements regarding Fair trial:


(a) Hear the other side


(b) Judge must be impartial


(c) Presumption of innocence before and after the trial


(d) Delayed justice is denied justice

  • (1) a. b. d
  • (2) c. b. d
  • (3) a. c. d
  • (4) a. b. c. d

Question 86:

In which case the Highest Court of the country imposed Rs. 25 lakhs on a litigant for initiating criminal proceedings in a civil dispute in 2024?

  • (1) Dinesh Gupta v. State of Uttar Pradesh and Others
  • (2) Vishal Tiwari v. Union of India and others
  • (3) Nabendu Kumar Bandopadhyay v. Additional Chief Secretary and Others
  • (4) Sarfaraz Alam v. Union of India and Others

Question 87:

Bilkis Yakub Rasool v. Union of India and others was decided by ...........

  • (1) Justice D Y Chandrachud and Justice B V Nagarathna
  • (2) Justice Sanjiv Khanna and Justice Ujjal Bhuyan
  • (3) Justice Ujjal Bhuyan and Justice B V Nagarathna
  • (4) Justice D Y Chandrachud and Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Question 88:

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is constituted under which Act?

  • (1) National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993
  • (2) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
  • (3) Civil Rights Protection Act, 1993
  • (4) Constitution of India

Question 89:

What is the main statute in India governing direct taxation?

  • (1) Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act
  • (2) Income Tax Act
  • (3) Central Excise Act
  • (4) Customs Act

Question 90:

Which international agreement aims to combat climate change by limiting global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels?

  • (1) Kyoto Protocol
  • (2) Paris Agreement
  • (3) Montreal Protocol
  • (4) Basel Convention

Question 91:

Defense by an accused person of having been elsewhere at the time an alleged offense was committed is called as

  • (1) Confession
  • (2) Plea-bargain
  • (3) Alibi
  • (4) Compounding

Question 92:

Which type of tort involves causing harm to someone's reputation through spoken words?

  • (1) Trespass
  • (2) Nuisance
  • (3) Slander
  • (4) Negligence

Question 93:

Which landmark case dealt with the issue of "marriage after conversion" and declared it illegal under Personal Law?

  • (1) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
  • (2) Shayara Bano v. Union of India
  • (3) Shah Bano v. Mohd. Ahmed Khan
  • (4) Shamim Ara v. State of U.P.

Question 94:

Intellectual Property law protects an invention by grant of .........

  • (1) Copyright
  • (2) Geographical Indication
  • (3) Trademark
  • (4) Patent

Question 95:

The legal term "caveat emptor" means ..........

  • (1) Let the seller beware
  • (2) Let the buyer beware
  • (3) Let the landlord beware
  • (4) Let the tenant beware

Question 96:

Maintenance of wife, children and old parents is given under section ........ of CrPC.

  • (1) Section 125
  • (2) Section 124
  • (3) Section 126
  • (4) Section 123

Question 97:

India’s first e-waste management clinic is set up in .............

  • (1) Bhopal
  • (2) Hyderabad
  • (3) Vizag
  • (4) Panaji

Question 98:

A company "Z", agrees to pay all the employees Rs.10,000/- salary per month. The employer failed to pay the salary because they wanted to go for lay off. Both the employer and employee want to settle the matter amicably by appointing a person and place of their choice. This process is known as ..........

  • (1) Mediation
  • (2) Arbitration
  • (3) Negotiation
  • (4) Litigation

Question 99:

A previous judgment cited by the court to decide on a similar set of facts is called as ..........

  • (1) Precedent
  • (2) Ratio decidendi
  • (3) Obiter dicta
  • (4) Judicial dicta

Question 100:

.......... is known as the Fifth wheel of the Indian Constitution.

  • (1) Cabinet ministry
  • (2) Judiciary
  • (3) Finance commission
  • (4) Niti Aayog

Question 101:

“An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth” relates to ........... theory.

  • (1) Reformative
  • (2) Deterrent
  • (3) Retributive
  • (4) Preventive

Question 102:

Who propounded the legal theory called “Utilitarian Individualism”?

  • (1) Austin
  • (2) Salmond
  • (3) Taylor
  • (4) Bentham

Question 103:

Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 (CAA) intends to protect ...........

  • (1) Six Minority Communities from Two countries
  • (2) Six Minority Communities from Three countries
  • (3) Five Minority Communities from Two countries
  • (4) Five Minority Communities from Three countries

Question 104:

When two or more persons fighting in a public place disturb the public peace, they are said to commit ........

  • (1) Assault
  • (2) Affray
  • (3) Libel
  • (4) Conspiracy

Question 105:

The States of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand were formed by the ........... Constitutional Amendment.

  • (1) 94th
  • (2) 98th
  • (3) 96th
  • (4) 100th

Question 106:

Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Presidential form of Government
  • (2) Single citizenship
  • (3) Independent Judiciary
  • (4) Universal Adult Franchise

Question 107:

____ was nominated as member of Rajya Sabha by the President in 2024.

  • (1) P.T. Usha
  • (2) Hema Malini
  • (3) Sudha Murty
  • (4) Jaya Bachchan

Question 108:

Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informer Resolution of the Government of India, designates Central Vigilance Commission as the designated agency for obtaining complaints and giving protection to _________ of a company.

  • (1) Whistleblower
  • (2) Executive Director
  • (3) Independent Director
  • (4) Promoter

Question 109:

The method of impeachment of the President of India has been adopted from the Constitution of _________.

  • (1) United States of America
  • (2) United Kingdom
  • (3) Ireland
  • (4) France

Question 110:

Chairman, Railway Board v. Chandrimadas case relates to _________.

  • (1) Compensation to women
  • (2) Compensation to children
  • (3) Compensation to rape victim
  • (4) Compensation for custodial deaths

Question 111:

Which of the following statement is true regarding the Doctrine of Pith and Substance:


(1) It protects the rights of the people by ensuring that laws are enacted within the constitutional limits of the Government


(2) It encroaches on the powers of the State Government by the Central Government


(3) It helps to resolve disputes between the Central Government and the State Government over the distribution of legislative powers


(4) It promotes cooperation and coordination between the Central Government and the State Government

  • (1) 1, 3 & 4 only
  • (2) 1,2 only
  • (3) 1,2,4 only
  • (4) 1, 2, & 3only

Question 112:

What are the instances, where the defendant is liable for not committing any wrong?

  • (1) Strict liability
  • (2) Vicarious liability
  • (3) Liability of State
  • (4) Tort of Negligence

Question 113:

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding vicarious liability?

  • (1) Master is liable for the acts committed by his servant within the course of employment
  • (2) Master is liable for the acts committed by his agent outside the course of employment doing authorised act
  • (3) Master is liable for the acts committed by his agent within the course of employment doing unauthorised act
  • (4) Master is not at all held liable for the act of his servant

Question 114:

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

  • (1) Actual Loss is essential to not award damages in Tort.
  • (2) Actual Loss is essential to award damages in Tort.
  • (3) Legal damage is not essential to award damages in Tort.
  • (4) Legal damage is essential to award damages in Tort.

Question 115:

Tort is not a __________


(1) Breach of Contract


(2) Breach of Trust


(3) Criminal Wrong


(4) Civil Wrong

  • (1) 1, 2. 3
  • (2) 2, 3, 4
  • (3) 1, 2. 4
  • (4) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 116:

Which of the following are legal rights according to the passage?

(1) Right to freedom
(2) Right to person’s bodily safety
(3) Right to damage
(4) Right of reputation

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1. 2. 3
(3) 4.2, 3
(4) 4,1


Question 117:

Agreements relating to social matters are .............

  • (1) Valid contract
  • (2) Partially valid contract
  • (3) Voidable contract
  • (4) Not a valid contract

Question 118:

What are the various types of contracts in the Indian Contract Act?

  • (1) Bailment and Guarantee
  • (2) Bailment and Mortgage
  • (3) Bailment and Lease
  • (4) Bailment, Guarantee, Sale

Question 119:

Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other is __.

  • (1) Agreement
  • (2) Contract
  • (3) Bailment
  • (4) Guarantee

Question 120:

An agreement between two persons to go together to the cinema, is __.

  • (1) Partial Contract
  • (2) Enforced under law
  • (3) A valid Contract
  • (4) Not enforceable under law

Question 121:

What are the essentials of a valid contract?

  • (1) Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, Forced Consent and Incompetency of Parties
  • (2) Offer, Acceptance, Social Obligation, Forced Consent and Competency of Parties
  • (3) Offer, Acceptance, Social Obligation, Free Consent and Incompetency of Parties
  • (4) Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, free Consent and competency of Parties


Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General800
sc500

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