TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Urdu Question Paper (Available) : Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Urdu Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. The exam was conducted by Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of TSCHE on May 25, 2023 in Shift 3. The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions.

TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Urdu Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Urdu Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

Who Invented the 3-D printer?

  • (1) Chuck Hull
  • (2) Nick Holonyak
  • (3) Elias Howe
  • (4) Christiaan Huygens
Correct Answer: (1) Chuck Hull
View Solution



Chuck Hull is credited with inventing the 3D printer. He developed the first 3D printer in 1983, which revolutionized manufacturing by allowing the creation of three-dimensional objects from digital designs.
Quick Tip: When studying Harappan culture, focus on the geographical and technological aspects, such as the location of sites and the tools used for agriculture.


Question 2:

Which Vitamin is responsible for blood clotting?

  • (1) Vitamin A
  • (2) Vitamin B
  • (3) Vitamin E
  • (4) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: (4) Vitamin K
View Solution



Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis of certain proteins required for blood coagulation, which is vital for wound healing.
Quick Tip: When studying vitamins, focus on their specific roles in bodily functions, such as Vitamin K for blood clotting.


Question 3:

Who established the 'Brahmo Samaj' reformist movement?

  • (1) Subhas Chandra Bose
  • (2) Annie Besant
  • (3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  • (4) Bhagat Singh
Correct Answer: (3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
View Solution



Raja Ram Mohan Roy is regarded as the founder of the Brahmo Samaj, a reformist movement in India that advocated for social and religious reforms, including the abolition of Sati and the promotion of education.
Quick Tip: When studying social reform movements, pay attention to the key figures and their contributions to social change, such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy.


Question 4:

India celebrates 'Civil Services Day' to commemorate the address of which leader to the Administrative Service Officers?

  • (1) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (2) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (3) Indira Gandhi
  • (4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: (4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
View Solution



India celebrates Civil Services Day on April 21st every year to commemorate the address delivered by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to the newly appointed Administrative Service Officers in 1947. He is known as the 'Iron Man of India'.
Quick Tip: When studying India's national events, focus on the key figures who influenced the nation's development, such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's role in shaping civil services.


Question 5:

In which State, the Indus International School introduced first Teaching Robot in India?

  • (1) Punjab
  • (2) Gujarat
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) Telangana
Correct Answer: (4) Telangana
View Solution



The Indus International School in Telangana introduced the first teaching robot in India. The robot was integrated into the school's teaching system to assist in enhancing the learning experience.
Quick Tip: When studying educational innovations, focus on technological advancements that are transforming classrooms, such as the introduction of teaching robots.


Question 6:

Which State has the longest coastline in India?

  • (1) Goa
  • (2) Gujarat
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) Kerala
Correct Answer: (2) Gujarat
View Solution



Gujarat has the longest coastline in India, stretching over 1,600 kilometers. The state's coastline is known for its vast beaches and ports, making it a major hub for maritime trade.
Quick Tip: When studying coastal geography, focus on states with extensive coastlines, such as Gujarat, which has India's longest coastline.


Question 7:

Quit India Movement started in the year ____

  • (1) 1920
  • (2) 1930
  • (3) 1940
  • (4) 1942
Correct Answer: (4) 1942
View Solution



The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Kranti, was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India. It marked a significant turning point in India's struggle for independence.
Quick Tip: When studying the independence movement, focus on key movements like Quit India that played a major role in ending colonial rule.


Question 8:

Where is Guindy National Park located?

  • (1) Telangana
  • (2) Himachal Pradesh
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) New Delhi
Correct Answer: (3) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



Guindy National Park is located in Tamil Nadu, near Chennai. It is one of the smallest national parks in India but is home to a variety of flora and fauna.
Quick Tip: When studying national parks, focus on their location, size, and biodiversity. Tamil Nadu is home to several important parks like Guindy National Park.


Question 9:

Which of the following rivers has Musi River as one of its tributaries?

  • (1) Mahanadi
  • (2) Yamuna
  • (3) Ganga
  • (4) Krishna
Correct Answer: (4) Krishna
View Solution



The Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River. The Krishna River flows through the Indian states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
Quick Tip: Focus on major rivers and their tributaries, as understanding their course and tributaries is important for geography.


Question 10:

Hirakud Dam is located in ____ State.

  • (1) Odisha
  • (2) Sikkim
  • (3) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (4) Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: (1) Odisha
View Solution



Hirakud Dam is located in the state of Odisha. It is one of the longest earthen dams in the world and plays a major role in irrigation and flood control.
Quick Tip: When studying major dams, focus on their location, construction, and purpose. Hirakud is an important dam in Odisha.


Question 11:

Who discovered bacteria?

  • (1) Louis Pasteur
  • (2) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  • (3) Satyendra Nath Bose
  • (4) Thomas Alva Edison
Correct Answer: (2) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
View Solution



Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is credited with the discovery of bacteria. He used a microscope to observe tiny organisms, which he called "animalcules."
Quick Tip: When studying the history of microbiology, focus on key pioneers like Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, who developed the microscope and discovered bacteria.


Question 12:

How many goals are there in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the UN?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 20
Correct Answer: (3) 17
View Solution



There are 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the United Nations. These goals aim to address global challenges and achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
Quick Tip: When studying SDGs, focus on their goals related to poverty, education, climate action, and other global issues.


Question 13:

Gibraltar straits connects which of the following?

  • (1) The Pacific Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
  • (2) The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
  • (3) The Red Sea and the Arabian Sea
  • (4) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
Correct Answer: (4) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
View Solution



The Gibraltar Strait connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea, providing a key maritime route between Europe and Africa.
Quick Tip: When studying straits and waterways, remember their strategic significance in global trade, such as the Gibraltar Strait's connection between the Atlantic and Mediterranean seas.


Question 14:

Who was known as Martin Luther of India?

  • (1) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  • (2) Chittaranjan Das
  • (3) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (4) Motilal Nehru
Correct Answer: (1) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
View Solution



Swami Dayanand Saraswati was known as the Martin Luther of India for his efforts to reform Hinduism and promote social and religious reforms. He founded the Arya Samaj, which played an important role in India's renaissance.
Quick Tip: When studying Indian reformers, focus on their role in social and religious reforms. Swami Dayanand's contributions were pivotal in transforming Hindu society.


Question 15:

BHIM full form is ____ .

  • (1) Bharat investing money scheme
  • (2) Bharat interface for money
  • (3) Bank international for money
  • (4) Bharat international money security
Correct Answer: (2) Bharat interface for money
View Solution



BHIM stands for Bharat Interface for Money, a UPI-based mobile payment application developed by the Government of India to enable fast and secure transactions.
Quick Tip: When studying digital payment systems, focus on key apps like BHIM, which facilitates easy financial transactions using UPI technology.


Question 16:

Who among the following renounced his Knighthood following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

  • (1) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (2) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • (4) Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (2) Rabindranath Tagore
View Solution



Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919. His decision was a significant expression of dissent against British colonial rule.
Quick Tip: When studying Indian history, focus on important figures like Rabindranath Tagore, who took strong stands for India's freedom and dignity.


Question 17:

The Actor to win the first-ever film fare award in the category of best actor for the film Daag is

  • (1) Manoj Kumar
  • (2) Guru Dutt
  • (3) Dilip Kumar
  • (4) Ashok Kumar
Correct Answer: (3) Dilip Kumar
View Solution



Dilip Kumar was the first actor to win the Filmfare Award for Best Actor for his performance in the movie *Daag* in 1953.
Quick Tip: When studying the history of Indian cinema, focus on key awards like Filmfare and the actors who set benchmarks in various categories.


Question 18:

Daily a human being must consume less than ____ grams of salt?

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4) 5
View Solution



Health guidelines recommend that a human being should consume less than 5 grams of salt per day to maintain proper health and reduce the risk of hypertension and heart disease.
Quick Tip: When studying nutrition, focus on the recommended daily intake of key nutrients like salt to promote better health.


Question 19:

What is the theme of the ‘World Environment Day 2022’?

  • (1) Love our Planet
  • (2) Invest in our Planet
  • (3) Only One Earth
  • (4) Live with the Nature
Correct Answer: (3) Only One Earth
View Solution



The theme for World Environment Day 2022 was "Only One Earth," emphasizing the need for a shift toward more sustainable living in harmony with nature.
Quick Tip: When studying global observances like World Environment Day, focus on the theme for the year and its relevance to current environmental challenges.


Question 20:

Which day is celebrated as World Health Day?

  • (1) 8th March
  • (2) 7th April
  • (3) 1st May
  • (4) 10th December
Correct Answer: (2) 7th April
View Solution



World Health Day is celebrated annually on April 7th. The day is observed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to raise awareness about global health issues.
Quick Tip: When studying health observances, focus on global events like World Health Day and their themes.


Question 21:

If 2nd day of a month is Sunday, then what day will it be on the 31st of the same month?

  • (1) Saturday
  • (2) Sunday
  • (3) Monday
  • (4) Tuesday
Correct Answer: (3) Monday
View Solution



If the 2nd of the month is Sunday, then the 31st will fall on a Monday. This can be calculated by counting the days of the week from the 2nd to the 31st.
Quick Tip: When solving calendar-related problems, always count the days correctly and consider the number of days in each month.


Question 22:

In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code?

  • (1) SHFDQ
  • (2) HFDSQ
  • (3) RSAFD
  • (4) QDFHS
Correct Answer: (4) QDFHS
View Solution



The code shifts each letter of the word by one position forward. For example, "M" becomes "X", "O" becomes "D", etc. Following the same pattern for TIGER gives "QDFHS".
Quick Tip: When solving coding and decoding problems, identify the pattern in letter shifts and apply it consistently.


Question 23:

If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT =

  • (1) 39
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 46
  • (4) 56
Correct Answer: (3) 46
View Solution



The pattern for each letter can be calculated based on the given values for Z and ACT. By solving the equation, we get the value for BAT as 46.
Quick Tip: When solving coding problems, try to find patterns in the numbers associated with the letters to help solve the equation efficiently.


Question 24:

Grass : Erosion :: Dam : ?

  • (1) Earth
  • (2) Water
  • (3) Sun
  • (4) Wind
Correct Answer: (2) Water
View Solution



Erosion is a process caused by natural elements like wind or water, and a dam is built to control the flow of water. Thus, the relationship is between grass and erosion, and a dam and water.
Quick Tip: When solving analogies, focus on the relationship between the two words on the left side and apply it logically to the words on the right side.


Question 25:

A clock is set right at 05:00 A.M. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 10:00 P.M. on the fourth day?

  • (1) 01:00 P.M.
  • (2) 02:00 P.M.
  • (3) 11:00 P.M.
  • (4) 12:00 P.M.
Correct Answer: (3) 11:00 P.M.
View Solution



The clock loses 16 minutes every 24 hours. In 4 days, it will have lost 64 minutes. Therefore, when the clock shows 10:00 P.M., the actual time will be 11:00 P.M.
Quick Tip: When solving time-related problems, calculate the total loss or gain over a given period to determine the actual time.


Question 26:

A and B are married couple, A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D, B is the daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has died. How is E related to C?

  • (1) Aunt
  • (2) Daughter
  • (3) Grandmother
Correct Answer: (4) Sister
\textbf{Solution:}
E is the sister of D, who is the son of C, hence E is C’s daughter.
View Solution



E is the sister of D, who is the son of C, hence E is C’s daughter.
Quick Tip: For family relation puzzles, focus on understanding the relationships and flow of connections. Trace each family member's relation one step at a time.


Question 27:

A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

  • (1) Son
  • (2) Nephew
  • (3) Cousin
Correct Answer: (2) Nephew
\textbf{Solution:}
The brother of her mother is the woman's maternal uncle, and his son is the woman's nephew.
View Solution



The brother of her mother is the woman's maternal uncle, and his son is the woman's nephew.
Quick Tip: When dealing with relationship puzzles, focus on tracing the lineage through siblings, uncles, and cousins to figure out the correct relation.


Question 28:

Find the odd one out: Veranda, Cabin, Room, Chamber

  • (1) Veranda
  • (2) Cabin
  • (3) Room
Correct Answer: (1) Veranda
\textbf{Solution:}
Veranda is an outdoor space, whereas Cabin, Room, and Chamber are enclosed indoor spaces.
View Solution



Veranda is an outdoor space, whereas Cabin, Room, and Chamber are enclosed indoor spaces.
Quick Tip: For odd-one-out problems, focus on categorizing the objects based on their characteristics to identify the different one.


Question 29:

Your mother is 4 years younger than your father. Your father is 6 times older than you. If you are 6 years old, what is your mother's age?

  • (1) 38 years
  • (2) 37 years
  • (3) 26 years
Correct Answer: (4) 32 years
\textbf{Solution:}
Given: - Your age = 6 years - Your father's age = 6 times your age = \( 6 \times 6 = 36 \) years. - Your mother is 4 years younger than your father, so your mother's age = \( 36 - 4 = 32 \) years.
Thus, your mother's age is 32 years.
View Solution



Given:
- Your age = 6 years
- Your father's age = 6 times your age = \( 6 \times 6 = 36 \) years.
- Your mother is 4 years younger than your father, so your mother's age = \( 36 - 4 = 32 \) years.


Thus, your mother's age is 32 years. Quick Tip: When dealing with age-related problems, set up equations based on relationships and use the known values to solve.


Question 30:

Find the next letters in the given series.
JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?

  • (1) OEP
  • (2) NEO
  • (3) MEN
Correct Answer: (2) NEO
\textbf{Solution:}
The series follows a pattern where each subsequent letter is incremented by one in alphabetical order: - First letters: J, K, L, M, N - Second letters: A, B, C, D, E - Third letters: K, L, M, N, O
Thus, the next group is NEO.
View Solution



The series follows a pattern where each subsequent letter is incremented by one in alphabetical order:
- First letters: J, K, L, M, N
- Second letters: A, B, C, D, E
- Third letters: K, L, M, N, O


Thus, the next group is NEO. Quick Tip: For letter series, check the individual letter patterns in each position (first, second, third) to identify the sequence.


Question 31:

The RBI has recently announced withdrawal of the Rs.2000 denomination banknotes from circulation, and allowed deposit or exchange of the Rs.2000 notes at Banks until _____.

  • (1) 30th September, 2023
  • (2) 31st October, 2023
  • (3) 30th August, 2023
  • (4) 31st December, 2023
Correct Answer: (1) 30th September, 2023
View Solution



The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the withdrawal of Rs.2000 denomination banknotes and allowed people to exchange or deposit these notes at banks until 30th September, 2023.
Quick Tip: The RBI's decision allows for a specific period to deposit or exchange Rs.2000 notes. Keep track of deadlines to avoid inconvenience.


Question 32:

Which institution released the ‘Landslide Atlas of India’?

  • (1) ONGC
  • (2) DRDO
  • (3) ISRO
  • (4) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: (3) ISRO
View Solution



The Landslide Atlas of India was released by ISRO, which provides comprehensive data and mapping on landslides across India to help mitigate risks and enhance safety.
Quick Tip: Understanding geographical and environmental risks is crucial. Always check for updated reports and safety guidelines.


Question 33:

Sanmanara, also known as the ‘Hockey Village’, is located in which State?

  • (1) Rajasthan
  • (2) Odisha
  • (3) Assam
  • (4) Bihar
Correct Answer: (2) Odisha
View Solution



Sanmanara, also referred to as the 'Hockey Village', is located in the state of Odisha, which has a rich tradition in the sport of hockey.
Quick Tip: Odisha is known for its contribution to hockey, with numerous talented players emerging from this region.


Question 34:

Recently, due to non-payment of salaries nearly 100 pilots reported sick in which airline?

  • (1) Spice jet
  • (2) Indigo
  • (3) Air India
  • (4) Alliance Air
Correct Answer: (4) Alliance Air
View Solution



Recently, due to the non-payment of salaries, nearly 100 pilots from Alliance Air reported sick. This situation arose due to financial difficulties faced by the airline, which led to this large number of pilots taking sick leave.
Quick Tip: When studying current affairs, focus on news related to major companies and airlines to understand the impact of economic situations on operations.


Question 35:

‘Safe Harbour Principle’ is associated with which Act?

  • (1) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • (2) The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021
  • (3) Information Technology Act, 2000
  • (4) The Maintenance & Welfare of Parents & Senior Citizens Act, 2007
Correct Answer: (3) Information Technology Act, 2000
View Solution



The Safe Harbour Principle is related to the Information Technology Act, 2000, specifically concerning the liability of intermediaries for third-party content on their platforms. This principle provides immunity from legal responsibility to intermediaries under certain conditions.
Quick Tip: When studying legal terms, focus on their application to specific acts and their interpretations by courts and authorities.


Question 36:

T-Hub (Technology Hub) is an innovation intermediary and business incubator based in which State?

  • (1) Telangana
  • (2) Karnataka
  • (3) Haryana
  • (4) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (1) Telangana
View Solution



T-Hub, an innovation intermediary and business incubator, is based in Telangana. It is one of the largest hubs for tech startups in India and plays a key role in fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
Quick Tip: When studying technological hubs, focus on their geographical and infrastructural importance for innovation ecosystems.


Question 37:

Which institution introduced the ‘Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure’?

  • (1) World Bank
  • (2) World Health Organization
  • (3) International Monetary Fund
  • (4) World Meteorological Organization
Correct Answer: (4) World Meteorological Organization
View Solution



The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) introduced the Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure. This initiative aims to enhance the monitoring and reporting of greenhouse gas emissions globally to combat climate change.
Quick Tip: When studying global environmental issues, focus on the organizations involved in climate monitoring and international agreements.


Question 38:

Who became the first Tennis player to win 80 matches in all 4 Grand Slams?

  • (1) Carlos Alcaraz
  • (2) Novak Djokovic
  • (3) Roger Federer
  • (4) Daniil Medvedev
Correct Answer: (2) Novak Djokovic
View Solution



Novak Djokovic became the first Tennis player to win 80 matches in all four Grand Slams, showcasing his dominance in tennis over the years.
Quick Tip: When studying achievements in sports, focus on records in major tournaments like the Grand Slams.


Question 39:

Shri C R Rao, a well-known Indian and American mathematician and statistician, was awarded with International Prize in Statistics which is equal to Nobel Prize. He is at present ____ years old?

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 101
  • (3) 102
  • (4) 99
Correct Answer: (4) 99
View Solution



Shri C R Rao, a renowned mathematician, is currently 99 years old. His contributions to statistics have been internationally recognized, with awards akin to the Nobel Prize.
Quick Tip: When studying notable personalities, focus on their achievements and milestones in their respective fields.


Question 40:

Which institution launched its Right to Information (RTI) online portal?

  • (1) Election Commission of India
  • (2) Supreme Court of India
  • (3) Central Bureau of Investigation
  • (4) Chief Vigilance Commission
Correct Answer: (1) Election Commission of India
View Solution



The Election Commission of India launched its Right to Information (RTI) online portal to promote transparency and accountability. This portal allows citizens to easily access information related to the election process and other public matters.
Quick Tip: When studying government initiatives, focus on online transparency portals like RTI for enhancing civic engagement.


Question 41:

Which organisation released the 'Women, Business and the Law Index'?

  • (1) World Bank
  • (2) Asian Development Bank
  • (3) Amnesty International
  • (4) World Intellectual Property Organization
Correct Answer: (1) World Bank
View Solution



The World Bank released the "Women, Business and the Law Index," which assesses the legal and regulatory frameworks that affect women's entrepreneurship and employment in economies across the world.
Quick Tip: Focus on global reports and indices like the "Women, Business and the Law Index" to understand the socio-economic factors influencing gender equality in business.


Question 42:

Which city corporation launched the World Bank's Flagship Gender Toolkit?

  • (1) Nainital
  • (2) Nashik
  • (3) Chennai
  • (4) Coimbatore
Correct Answer: (3) Chennai
View Solution



Chennai launched the World Bank's Flagship Gender Toolkit, aiming to promote gender equality through various initiatives within the city's corporation framework. The toolkit helps in the integration of gender-sensitive approaches into urban planning and governance.
Quick Tip: Focus on city-level gender initiatives and programs for understanding local governance and gender policies.


Question 43:

Which Union Ministry is set to host the 'World Food India 2023' event?

  • (1) Ministry of External Affairs
  • (2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
  • (3) Ministry of Tourism
  • (4) Ministry of Rural Development
Correct Answer: (2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
View Solution



The Ministry of Food Processing Industries is set to host the 'World Food India 2023' event. This event aims to showcase India as a global hub for food processing and agriculture industries.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to major national and international events hosted by ministries, especially those focused on food and agriculture, to understand India's economic initiatives.


Question 44:

Who laid the foundation stone for the National Forensic Sciences University?

  • (1) Shri Kiren Rijiju
  • (2) Shri Rajnath Singh
  • (3) Shri Amit Shah
  • (4) Shri Nitin Jairam Gadkari
Correct Answer: (3) Shri Amit Shah
View Solution



Shri Amit Shah, the Union Home Minister of India, laid the foundation stone for the National Forensic Sciences University. This step reflects the government's focus on strengthening forensic education and criminal investigation infrastructure in the country.
Quick Tip: Keep an eye on key infrastructural and educational developments initiated by high-profile ministers, especially in specialized fields like forensic sciences.


Question 45:

Which company has initiated 'Project ELLORA' to promote local languages in India's Digital world?

  • (1) Samsung
  • (2) Microsoft
  • (3) Google
  • (4) Amazon
Correct Answer: (2) Microsoft
View Solution



Microsoft launched 'Project ELLORA' to encourage the development and inclusion of local Indian languages in the digital ecosystem. The initiative supports the preservation and digital accessibility of regional languages.
Quick Tip: Projects by tech giants like Microsoft often aim to enhance digital inclusivity—keep an eye on such initiatives for current affairs.


Question 46:

In which city did Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the Arabic Academy?

  • (1) Kanpur
  • (2) Kottayam
  • (3) Mumbai
  • (4) Pune
Correct Answer: (3) Mumbai
View Solution



Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the Arabic Academy in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The academy aims to foster cultural education and language learning in Arabic.
Quick Tip: Be aware of the cities where major educational or cultural institutes are inaugurated by dignitaries—it’s a common question type in exams.


Question 47:

Which country's first underground Air Force Base is Eagle 44 (Oghab 44)?

  • (1) Indonesia
  • (2) India
  • (3) Israel
  • (4) Iran
Correct Answer: (4) Iran
View Solution



Iran unveiled its first underground Air Force Base named Eagle 44 (Oghab 44). This facility is designed for enhanced defense and rapid deployment capabilities, making it a strategic military development.
Quick Tip: Defense infrastructure and strategic bases like Eagle 44 are important topics under international current affairs.


Question 48:

Which country has launched pilot project called ‘Welcome Corps’ for refugees?

  • (1) France
  • (2) Russia
  • (3) U.S.A.
  • (4) Malaysia
Correct Answer: (3) U.S.A.
View Solution



The United States launched the 'Welcome Corps' pilot project to allow private individuals to sponsor and support refugees arriving in the country. It is a significant move to expand resettlement through community participation.
Quick Tip: Keep track of humanitarian programs by developed nations, especially those involving refugee support and immigration reforms.


Question 49:

Which of the following became the first Indian Union Territory to completely shift to e-governance mode?

  • (1) Jammu & Kashmir
  • (2) Chandigarh
  • (3) Lakshadweep
  • (4) Puducherry
Correct Answer: (1) Jammu & Kashmir
View Solution



Jammu & Kashmir became the first Indian Union Territory to transition completely to e-governance mode. This digital initiative aims to enhance transparency, efficiency, and accessibility in public administration.
Quick Tip: Watch for digital transformation milestones in Indian states and union territories—these are frequently asked in current affairs exams.


Question 50:

US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved ‘Lecanemab’ medication to treat which disease?

  • (1) COVID-19
  • (2) Cancer
  • (3) Alzheimer
  • (4) Diabetes
Correct Answer: (3) Alzheimer
View Solution



The FDA has approved ‘Lecanemab’, a medication developed to slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease. It is one of the few drugs specifically targeting the underlying cause of Alzheimer’s rather than just managing symptoms.
Quick Tip: New drug approvals by FDA, especially for chronic or major diseases, are vital updates in health-related current affairs.


Question 51:

Which country launched the domestic card scheme AfriGo to boost its cashless economy?

  • (1) Nigeria
  • (2) Netherland
  • (3) Norway
  • (4) Namibia
Correct Answer: (1) Nigeria
View Solution



Nigeria launched the AfriGo domestic card scheme to promote digital payments and enhance its cashless economy. This move supports financial inclusion and reduces dependence on foreign card networks.
Quick Tip: Note initiatives from African nations focusing on fintech and digital economy—these often feature in international development questions.


Question 52:

Which State Government has passed the Bill providing 30% horizontal reservation to domiciled women of the State?

  • (1) West Bengal
  • (2) Uttarakhand
  • (3) Jharkhand
  • (4) Telangana
Correct Answer: (2) Uttarakhand
View Solution



The Uttarakhand state government passed a bill that provides 30% horizontal reservation to domiciled women in public services. This move aims to improve female participation in state jobs and governance.
Quick Tip: Horizontal reservations in state policies are significant for understanding state-level affirmative actions, especially those favoring women or minorities.


Question 53:

National Cadet Corps (NCC) signed MoU with which institution to tackle the issue of plastic pollution?

  • (1) UNICEF
  • (2) World Health Organization
  • (3) International Monetary Fund
  • (4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Correct Answer: (4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
View Solution



The National Cadet Corps (NCC) signed an MoU with UNEP to combat plastic pollution. This collaboration emphasizes environmental awareness and youth participation in sustainability initiatives.
Quick Tip: MoUs between Indian institutions and international organizations often aim at addressing global concerns like pollution, health, or education—remember the key partner organization.


Question 54:

As per Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) data, which city was the most polluted place in India in 2022?

  • (1) New Delhi
  • (2) Kanpur
  • (3) Mumbai
  • (4) Varanasi
Correct Answer: (1) New Delhi
View Solution



According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) data for 2022, New Delhi ranked as the most polluted city in India. The capital consistently records high levels of air pollutants, especially PM2.5 and PM10.
Quick Tip: Always track annual CPCB reports and rankings of cities based on air quality—frequent questions in environment-related current affairs.


Question 55:

Which of the following teams has won Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2023 final?

  • (1) Delhi Capitals
  • (2) Mumbai Indians
  • (3) Royal Challengers Bangalore
  • (4) Gujarat Giants
Correct Answer: (2) Mumbai Indians
View Solution



Mumbai Indians emerged as the champions of the inaugural Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2023, defeating Delhi Capitals in the final match.
Quick Tip: Remember key outcomes of major sporting events, especially finals and winners of new leagues like WPL.


Question 56:

Which country signed a deal with India to relocate dozens of Cheetahs?

  • (1) Afghanistan
  • (2) Argentina
  • (3) Australia
  • (4) South Africa
Correct Answer: (4) South Africa
View Solution



India signed an agreement with South Africa to relocate dozens of cheetahs to its wildlife sanctuaries as part of a conservation program to revive the species on Indian soil.
Quick Tip: Bilateral agreements on wildlife conservation are key for environment-related current affairs, especially involving species reintroduction.


Question 57:

Which country's population has dropped by 850,000, declining for the first time since the Great Famine of 1961?

  • (1) Egypt
  • (2) China
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) Brazil
Correct Answer: (2) China
View Solution



China's population decreased by approximately 850,000, marking its first decline since the Great Famine of 1961. This drop is attributed to a declining birth rate and an aging population despite government efforts to encourage childbirth.
Quick Tip: Demographic changes in large countries like China are frequently covered in global current affairs—keep an eye on population trends and policy responses.


Question 58:

Which institution declares ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’ in India?

  • (1) Reserve Bank of India
  • (2) Ministry of Finance
  • (3) SEBI
  • (4) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: (1) Reserve Bank of India
View Solution



The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) designates banks as ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’. These banks are considered ‘too big to fail’, and their functioning is closely monitored to prevent systemic risks in the financial sector.
Quick Tip: Know the roles of financial regulators like RBI, SEBI, and others, especially when it comes to declaring institutions critical to financial stability.


Question 59:

The World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen which city for establishing its Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution?

  • (1) Indore
  • (2) Jaipur
  • (3) Hyderabad
  • (4) Madurai
Correct Answer: (3) Hyderabad
View Solution



The World Economic Forum (WEF) selected Hyderabad to establish its Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR). The city is seen as a major hub for innovation, technology, and digital transformation.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to global institutions choosing Indian cities for major hubs—this highlights India’s role in global tech and policy leadership.


Question 60:

Which District in India has become the country’s first Constitution literate district?

  • (1) Thrissur
  • (2) Kollam
  • (3) Mahbubnagar
  • (4) Medak
Correct Answer: (2) Kollam
View Solution



Kollam district in Kerala became the first Constitution literate district in India. This initiative aimed at enhancing public awareness about the Indian Constitution, fundamental rights, and duties among citizens.
Quick Tip: Initiatives promoting constitutional literacy are key milestones in civic education—watch for such pioneering districts or states in India.


Question 61:

Which Constitutional Amendment discontinued the nomination of two Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha?

  • (1) 102nd
  • (2) 103rd
  • (3) 104th
  • (4) 105th
Correct Answer: (3) 104th
View Solution



The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 discontinued the provision of nominating two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It also extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs for another 10 years.
Quick Tip: Keep track of major constitutional amendments and their key provisions—they're highly relevant for polity-related questions.


Question 62:

Which of the following High Courts exercises jurisdiction over the Union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

  • (1) Bombay High Court
  • (2) Odisha High Court
  • (3) Calcutta High Court
  • (4) Madras High Court
Correct Answer: (3) Calcutta High Court
View Solution



The Calcutta High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This is based on administrative convenience and territorial jurisdiction rules.
Quick Tip: Jurisdictions of High Courts over Union Territories are frequently tested in exams—focus on UTs with no separate high court.


Question 63:

Absolute liability means _________.

  • (1) a person is liable for his fault
  • (2) a person is liable for no fault of his
  • (3) a person is exempted for his act
  • (4) amounts to criminal liability
Correct Answer: (2) a person is liable for no fault of his
View Solution



Absolute liability means that a person or company is held liable for damages caused by their actions or products, regardless of fault or intent. It is a stricter version of strict liability, often applied in cases involving hazardous activities.
Quick Tip: Understand the distinctions between strict liability, absolute liability, and criminal liability—frequently tested in legal and reasoning sections.


Question 64:

NALSA vs. Union of India 2014, case is related to ______.

  • (1) recognition of transgenders as third gender
  • (2) recognition of same sex marriages
  • (3) marital rape
  • (4) decriminalization of adultery
Correct Answer: (1) recognition of transgenders as third gender
View Solution



In the landmark 2014 judgment in NALSA vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the ‘third gender’ under the Constitution. The Court affirmed their fundamental rights and directed the government to take measures for their welfare and inclusion.
Quick Tip: Memorize landmark Supreme Court cases and their social justice implications—especially those involving gender, equality, and human rights.


Question 65:

Who was the First Woman Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (1) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
  • (2) Justice R. Banumathi
  • (3) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
  • (4) Justice Indira Banerjee
Correct Answer: (3) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
View Solution



Justice M. Fathima Beevi became the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989. Her appointment was a historic milestone in Indian judicial history, breaking gender barriers in the highest court.
Quick Tip: Firsts in Indian judiciary are popular topics—especially related to gender, landmark appointments, and reforms.


Question 66:

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Protection against Arrest and Detention in certain cases?

  • (1) Article 20
  • (2) Article 21
  • (3) Article 22
  • (4) Article 23
Correct Answer: (3) Article 22
View Solution



Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention. It guarantees rights such as being informed of the grounds of arrest, legal representation, and timely production before a magistrate.
Quick Tip: Fundamental Rights under Articles 20–22 are key for legal and constitutional awareness—focus on rights related to personal liberty and arrest.


Question 67:

In cognizable offences _______.

  • (1) A police officer shall not arrest without warrant
  • (2) A police officer may arrest without warrant
  • (3) Arrest is not required
  • (4) A police officer himself can arrest and release
Correct Answer: (2) A police officer may arrest without warrant
View Solution



In cognizable offences, a police officer has the authority to register an FIR and arrest the accused without prior approval or a warrant from a magistrate. These offences are generally more serious in nature such as murder, rape, etc.
Quick Tip: Know the distinction between cognizable and non-cognizable offences—it’s crucial in criminal procedure law.


Question 68:

‘In camera proceedings’ in a court refers to _______.

  • (1) Private hearing
  • (2) Public hearing
  • (3) Open Trial
  • (4) Oral Submission
Correct Answer: (1) Private hearing
View Solution



‘In camera proceedings’ are conducted privately without the presence of the public or press. These are typically used in sensitive cases like sexual assault, to protect the identity and privacy of victims.
Quick Tip: Look out for Latin legal terms like ‘in camera’, ‘habeas corpus’, and ‘amicus curiae’—they’re commonly asked in legal reasoning.


Question 69:

Extradition means _______.

  • (1) punishing an accused in another country
  • (2) transportation of the accused or offender with mutual understanding between the two countries
  • (3) arresting a person wherever he is found
  • (4) providing protection to an accused in a different country based on a mutual understanding between the two countries
Correct Answer: (2) transportation of the accused or offender with mutual understanding between the two countries
View Solution



Extradition refers to the formal process by which one country surrenders a suspected or convicted criminal to another country upon request. This is done under the framework of a bilateral treaty or mutual agreement.
Quick Tip: Understand international legal concepts like extradition—they’re vital in global crime and justice questions.


Question 70:

A writ by court, to a person or body of persons to compel it to perform some public duty is ______.

  • (1) Quo Warranto
  • (2) Habeas Corpus
  • (3) Mandamus
  • (4) Prohibition
Correct Answer: (3) Mandamus
View Solution



The writ of Mandamus is issued by a court to a public authority or body directing it to perform a public duty it has failed to fulfill. It ensures that governmental responsibilities are not neglected.
Quick Tip: Remember the five types of writs in the Indian Constitution—Mandamus, Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto.


Question 71:

‘In lieu’ means ______.

  • (1) in place of
  • (2) same
  • (3) different
  • (4) contrast
Correct Answer: (1) in place of
View Solution



The phrase “in lieu” means “in place of” or “instead of”. It is commonly used to indicate substitution or replacement.
Quick Tip: Learn legal and formal English phrases like “in lieu”, “inter alia”, and “bona fide” as they often appear in legal and competitive exams.


Question 72:

Who can file an election petition in India?

  • (1) Only candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
  • (2) Only an elector can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
  • (3) An elector or a candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during election
  • (4) Only contesting political parties can file an election petition.
Correct Answer: (3) An elector or a candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during election
View Solution



Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, both an elector and a candidate can file an election petition to the High Court if they believe malpractice or irregularities occurred during the election process.
Quick Tip: Know the eligibility and process for filing election petitions under the Representation of the People Act—it’s a frequently tested topic.


Question 73:

Entry to a person’s land or property without permission is called ______.

  • (1) Criminal Misappropriation
  • (2) Mischief
  • (3) Trespass
  • (4) Assault
Correct Answer: (3) Trespass
View Solution



Trespass is a legal term for the unauthorized entry onto another person’s property. It is a civil wrong and may also be treated as a criminal offense depending on the jurisdiction.
Quick Tip: Remember: Trespass = Unauthorized Entry. It doesn’t require physical damage to be actionable in civil law.


Question 74:

Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

  • (1) The Prime Minister of India
  • (2) The President of India
  • (3) The Vice President of India
  • (4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: (3) The Vice President of India
View Solution



As per the Constitution of India, the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. This means he presides over its proceedings but does not have a vote unless there is a tie.
Quick Tip: Vice President = Rajya Sabha Chairman (ex-officio). Speaker of Lok Sabha heads only the lower house.


Question 75:

Donoghue vs Stevenson case relates to ______.

  • (1) Defamation
  • (2) Negligence
  • (3) Assault
  • (4) Battery
Correct Answer: (2) Negligence
View Solution



The famous Donoghue vs Stevenson (1932) case laid down the modern law of negligence, establishing the principle that a manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate consumer.
Quick Tip: “Neighbour principle” was born from Donoghue v. Stevenson—essential for understanding the duty of care in tort law.


Question 76:

The Governor General who is known as 'The Liberator of The Press' is

  • (1) Lord Dalhousie
  • (2) Charles Metcalfe
  • (3) William Bentinck
  • (4) Lord Hastings
Correct Answer: (2) Charles Metcalfe
View Solution

Charles Metcalfe, as the Governor General of India, is referred to as the 'Liberator of The Press' for his efforts in removing restrictions on the Indian press. He repealed the press regulations imposed by the British, thus earning this title.
Quick Tip: Remember that Charles Metcalfe's role in the history of press freedom is significant, particularly in the context of early 19th-century India.


Question 77:

Who among the following is the author of the book 'Off the Bench'?

  • (1) Justice A. R. Lakshman
  • (2) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
  • (3) Justice J. S. Verma
  • (4) Justice Y. V. Chandrachud
Correct Answer: (2) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
View Solution

Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer, a renowned jurist, authored the book 'Off the Bench,' which offers his reflections and experiences on his time as a judge.
Quick Tip: When studying books by notable jurists, focus on their contributions to judicial reforms and perspectives on legal matters.


Question 78:

Who is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

  • (1) The Parliament
  • (2) The President
  • (3) The Supreme Court
  • (4) The Prime Minister
Correct Answer: (3) The Supreme Court
View Solution

The Supreme Court of India is the custodian of the Constitution. It has the responsibility to protect and uphold the Constitution, ensuring that laws and actions conform to it.
Quick Tip: Always remember that the Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the Constitution and plays a critical role in safeguarding fundamental rights.


Question 79:

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of a citizen of India?

  • (1) To protect and improve the natural environment
  • (2) To safeguard public property
  • (3) To defend the country
  • (4) To pay income tax
Correct Answer: (4) To pay income tax
View Solution

While paying income tax is a legal obligation, it is not listed as a fundamental duty in the Indian Constitution. The fundamental duties pertain to moral obligations towards the nation.
Quick Tip: Focus on the specific duties outlined in Article 51A of the Constitution to differentiate between legal obligations and fundamental duties.


Question 80:

Who among the following presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly?

  • (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • (2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  • (3) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha
  • (4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (3) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha
View Solution

Dr. Sachidananda Sinha presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India on 9th December 1946. He was elected as the temporary president until Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later chosen as the permanent president.
Quick Tip: Focus on the key historical events in the formation of the Indian Constitution and the role of prominent figures in it.


Question 81:

The oldest High Court in India is ____ .

  • (1) Calcutta High Court
  • (2) Bombay High Court
  • (3) Madras High Court
  • (4) Allahabad High Court
Correct Answer: (1) Calcutta High Court
View Solution

The Calcutta High Court, established in 1862, is the oldest high court in India. It was the first to be established under the Indian High Courts Act of 1861.
Quick Tip: Remember that Calcutta High Court holds the distinction of being the oldest, and its historical importance is tied to British colonial rule and the Indian judiciary system's development.


Question 82:

The 'Electoral College' for the election of the President of India consists of ____ .

  • (1) Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
  • (2) Members of the Lok Sabha
  • (3) Elected Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assemblies of all the States and all Union Territories
  • (4) Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the States
Correct Answer: (3) Elected Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assemblies of all the States and all Union Territories
View Solution

The Electoral College for the election of the President of India includes elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the Legislative Assemblies of all States and Union Territories. Nominated members are not part of the Electoral College.
Quick Tip: Focus on the composition of the Electoral College and the specific members involved in the process of electing the President of India.


Question 83:

The Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament comprises of ____ members.

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (1) 25
View Solution

The Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of 25 members, who are elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves.
Quick Tip: The Estimates Committee plays an important role in scrutinizing government expenditure. Remember its composition and functions when studying Parliamentary procedures.


Question 84:

The boundary line between India and China is known as ____ .

  • (1) Radcliffe line
  • (2) Mc Mohan Line
  • (3) India Point
  • (4) Durant Line
Correct Answer: (2) Mc Mohan Line
View Solution

The boundary line between India and China is known as the Mc Mohan Line. This line was drawn during the 1914 Shimla Agreement between British India and Tibet, which China did not agree to.
Quick Tip: Focus on the history of boundary agreements in India, particularly the Mc Mohan Line, when studying India's relations with China.


Question 85:

Arun instigates Balu to murder Kumar. Balu refuses to do so. Arun is guilty of ____ .

  • (1) culpable homicide
  • (2) murder
  • (3) abetment
  • (4) attempt to murder
Correct Answer: (3) abetment
View Solution

Arun is guilty of abetment as he instigated Balu to commit murder, even though Balu refused. Abetment involves encouraging, aiding, or inciting someone to commit a crime.
Quick Tip: When studying criminal law, focus on the definitions of different crimes like abetment and culpable homicide, and understand their distinctions.


Question 86:

Minimum age required to contest for office of President is ____ .

  • (1) 25 years
  • (2) 21 years
  • (3) 35 years
  • (4) 30 years
Correct Answer: (4) 35 years
View Solution

According to Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age required for a person to contest for the office of the President of India is 35 years.
Quick Tip: Always remember the age criteria for various offices, especially when studying Indian political structure.


Question 87:

In case of vacancy of office of both the President and Vice President of India, who shall act as the President of India?

  • (1) Chief Justice of India
  • (2) Prime Minister
  • (3) Attorney General of India
  • (4) Senior Judge of the Supreme Court
Correct Answer: (1) Chief Justice of India
View Solution

In the event of a vacancy in both the offices of the President and Vice President, the Chief Justice of India acts as the President of India until a new President is elected. This is outlined in the Constitution of India.
Quick Tip: Understand the succession protocol for the highest offices in India, especially in cases of vacancies.


Question 88:

Double jeopardy means ____ .

  • (1) a person can be punished twice for the same offence
  • (2) a person cannot be punished twice for the same offence
  • (3) a person can be punished once during his lifetime
  • (4) a person is not punishable
Correct Answer: (2) a person cannot be punished twice for the same offence
View Solution

Double jeopardy is a legal principle that prevents an individual from being tried or punished twice for the same offense. This is enshrined in Article 20 of the Indian Constitution, which protects citizens from such legal actions.
Quick Tip: When studying criminal law, focus on important legal protections like double jeopardy and how they protect individual rights.


Question 89:

Who was the First Chief Information Commissioner of India?

  • (1) Irfan Khan
  • (2) Tahir Hussain
  • (3) Najma Heptullah
  • (4) Wajahat Habibullah
Correct Answer: (4) Wajahat Habibullah
View Solution

Wajahat Habibullah was the first Chief Information Commissioner of India, appointed in 2005 after the Right to Information (RTI) Act came into force.
Quick Tip: Focus on the milestones in the implementation of the RTI Act and the key figures associated with its success.


Question 90:

De novo means ____ .

  • (1) New
  • (2) Nothing
  • (3) Decline
  • (4) Waive
Correct Answer: (1) New
View Solution

"De novo" is a Latin term that means "from the beginning" or "new." It is commonly used in legal contexts to refer to a fresh or new review or trial.
Quick Tip: When you come across Latin terms like "de novo," try to understand their usage in legal or scientific contexts.


Question 91:

Which of the following bodies is not set up under the Constitution of India?

  • (1) Election Commission
  • (2) Union Public Service Commission
  • (3) Supreme Court of India
  • (4) National Human Rights Commission
Correct Answer: (4) National Human Rights Commission
View Solution

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not set up under the Constitution of India. It was created by an Act of Parliament, i.e., the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Quick Tip: Always distinguish between constitutional bodies and statutory bodies in Indian governance. Constitutional bodies are directly mentioned in the Constitution.


Question 92:

What is the maximum duration of a Money Bill in the Rajya Sabha?

  • (1) 18 days
  • (2) 16 days
  • (3) 14 days
  • (4) 12 days
Correct Answer: (4) 12 days
View Solution

The maximum duration for the Rajya Sabha to consider a Money Bill is 14 days. However, if the bill is not returned within that time, it is deemed to have been passed.
Quick Tip: Remember that Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha cannot reject them. It can only delay them.


Question 93:

Who for the first time put forward the idea of constituent assembly for India in 1934?

  • (1) Lal Bahadur Sastri
  • (2) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (3) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (4) M N Roy
Correct Answer: (4) M N Roy
View Solution

M N Roy, in 1934, for the first time, put forward the idea of a constituent assembly for India to draft its constitution. This idea laid the foundation for the future formation of the Constituent Assembly in 1946.
Quick Tip: Focus on key historical figures and their contributions to India's freedom struggle and constitutional development.


Question 94:

Which Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances that warranted the declaration of an Emergency in 1975?

  • (1) Khosla Commission
  • (2) Sarkaria Commission
  • (3) Nanavati Commission
  • (4) Shah Commission
Correct Answer: (4) Shah Commission
View Solution

The Shah Commission was appointed by the government of India to investigate the circumstances leading to the Emergency declared in 1975. The commission was tasked with probing the actions taken during the Emergency period.
Quick Tip: When studying the Emergency, remember to focus on the role of key commissions like the Shah Commission and their findings.


Question 95:

A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a period of ____ .

  • (1) 9 months
  • (2) 3 months
  • (3) 12 months
  • (4) 6 months
Correct Answer: (4) 6 months
View Solution

A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a period of 6 months. If the person does not get elected to the Parliament within this period, they will have to resign.
Quick Tip: Focus on the duration a person can be appointed as a Minister without being a member of Parliament and the implications if they fail to get elected within this period.


Question 96:

Fundamental Rights have been taken from ____ constitution.

  • (1) French Constitution
  • (2) German Constitution
  • (3) American Constitution
  • (4) Australian Constitution
Correct Answer: (3) American Constitution
View Solution

Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution have been taken from the American Constitution. The idea of a Bill of Rights was inspired by the U.S. Constitution, which ensures civil liberties.
Quick Tip: When studying the Indian Constitution, focus on the borrowed features from other countries' constitutions, such as the American model for Fundamental Rights.


Question 97:

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to the Constitution of India ____ .

  • (1) Deleted the Fundamental Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property.
  • (2) Introduced the Fundamental Right to free and compulsory education.
  • (3) Deleted Fundamental Right to work.
  • (4) Suspended the Fundamental Right to constitutional remedies.
Correct Answer: (1) Deleted the Fundamental Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property.
View Solution

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution. It also added the right to free and compulsory education as a Directive Principle.
Quick Tip: Remember the changes made by the 44th Amendment, which significantly altered the scope of Fundamental Rights in India, especially in the context of property rights.


Question 98:

Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

  • (1) Chief Justice of India
  • (2) Vice President of India
  • (3) President of India
  • (4) Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: (3) President of India
View Solution

The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
Quick Tip: The role of the Attorney General is crucial in advising the government on legal matters and representing it in the Supreme Court.


Question 99:

Which of the following is entrusted with a statutory duty of laying down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates in India?

  • (1) Bar Association of India
  • (2) Bar Council of India
  • (3) Delhi Bar Council
  • (4) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (2) Bar Council of India
View Solution

The Bar Council of India is responsible for laying down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates in India. It also regulates the legal profession and ensures discipline among advocates.
Quick Tip: The Bar Council of India plays a significant role in the governance of the legal profession in India. Remember its functions when studying Indian legal systems.


Question 100:

A person dying intestate means ____ .

  • (1) Died without any property
  • (2) Died without any legal heirs
  • (3) Died without sons
  • (4) Died without executing a will
Correct Answer: (4) Died without executing a will
View Solution

A person dying intestate refers to a person who has passed away without leaving behind a valid will. In such cases, the distribution of their property follows the rules set by law.
Quick Tip: Make sure to distinguish between the terms related to inheritance laws, like intestate (dying without a will) and testate (dying with a will).


Question 101:

Debenture holders of a company are the company's ____ .

  • (1) creditors
  • (2) customers
  • (3) owners
  • (4) strangers
Correct Answer: (1) creditors
View Solution

Debenture holders are creditors of a company. A debenture is a form of debt that a company issues to raise capital, and the holders of debentures are entitled to receive interest on their investment.
Quick Tip: Debenture holders are not owners of the company, but creditors who lend money to the company for a fixed rate of return.


Question 102:

"Apostasy" means ____ .

  • (1) Renunciation of society
  • (2) Renaissance of Religion
  • (3) Renunciation of a Religion
  • (4) Celibacy
Correct Answer: (3) Renunciation of a Religion
View Solution

Apostasy refers to the act of renouncing or abandoning one's religion or faith. It is often considered a serious offense in some cultures and religions.
Quick Tip: The term "apostasy" is commonly used in religious and legal contexts to describe the abandonment of religious beliefs.


Question 103:

A prerogative writ used to command a person or a public authority who is detaining another in custody to produce that person before the court is ____ .

  • (1) Habeas Corpus
  • (2) Certiorari
  • (3) Quo Warranto
  • (4) Mandamus
Correct Answer: (1) Habeas Corpus
View Solution

Habeas Corpus is a legal writ used to demand that a person who is detained or imprisoned be brought before a court. It is typically used to ensure that a person's detention is lawful.
Quick Tip: Habeas Corpus is one of the most important legal protections, especially in preventing illegal detentions.


Question 104:

By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years?

  • (1) 61st Amendment of 1988
  • (2) 7th Amendment of 1956
  • (3) 42nd Amendment of 1976
  • (4) 54th Amendment of 1986
Correct Answer: (1) 61st Amendment of 1988
View Solution

The 61st Amendment of 1988 to the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years, making the right to vote more accessible to young adults.
Quick Tip: The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 was a significant step towards increasing voter participation among younger citizens in India.


Question 105:

United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is headquartered at ____ .

  • (1) Vienna, Austria
  • (2) Canberra, Australia
  • (3) Geneva, Switzerland
  • (4) The Hague, Netherlands
Correct Answer: (3) Geneva, Switzerland
View Solution

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It aims to maximize the trade and development opportunities for developing countries.
Quick Tip: UNCTAD plays a key role in integrating developing countries into the global economy. Its headquarters in Geneva hosts major international trade and development discussions.


Question 106:

Which High Court exercises jurisdiction over Lakshadweep?

  • (1) Madras High Court
  • (2) Calcutta High Court
  • (3) Kerala High Court
  • (4) Bombay High Court
Correct Answer: (3) Kerala High Court
View Solution

The Kerala High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Lakshadweep Islands. This is due to the geographical proximity and administrative jurisdiction of the state of Kerala over Lakshadweep.
Quick Tip: Remember the jurisdictional distribution of courts in India, especially concerning areas that are geographically distinct, like Lakshadweep.


Question 107:

CEDAW is the acronym of ____ .

  • (1) Conference on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
  • (2) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
  • (3) Convention on the Eradication of Discrimination against Women
  • (4) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Widows
Correct Answer: (2) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
View Solution

CEDAW stands for the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women. It is an international treaty adopted by the United Nations aimed at achieving equality for women.
Quick Tip: CEDAW is one of the most comprehensive international human rights instruments for the protection and promotion of women's rights.


Question 108:

Whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ____ , under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

  • (1) Imprisonment for life
  • (2) Imprisonment for three years
  • (3) Imprisonment for seven years
  • (4) Imprisonment for ten years
Correct Answer: (4) Imprisonment for ten years
View Solution

Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, cyber terrorism is punishable with imprisonment that may extend to ten years. Cyber terrorism includes activities like hacking, damaging computers or networks, or causing disruption through digital means.
Quick Tip: Cyber terrorism is a serious offense under Indian law. It's crucial to understand the implications of the Information Technology Act in protecting national security.


Question 109:

The High Courts in India do not possess ____ .

  • (1) Original jurisdiction
  • (2) Appellate jurisdiction
  • (3) Advisory jurisdiction
  • (4) Revisory jurisdiction
Correct Answer: (3) Advisory jurisdiction
View Solution

The High Courts in India do not possess advisory jurisdiction. The advisory jurisdiction, which involves advising the President of India on legal matters, is exercised by the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution of India.
Quick Tip: When studying the functions of the judiciary, focus on the distinct powers of the High Courts and the Supreme Court, particularly in matters of jurisdiction.


Question 110:

What is the name of the first Chief Justice of India?

  • (1) B.N. Mukherjee
  • (2) H.J. Kania
  • (3) B.R. Ambedkar
  • (4) Aslam Khan
Correct Answer: (2) H.J. Kania
View Solution

The first Chief Justice of India was Harilal Jekisundas Kania, appointed on 26th January 1950. He was the first person to hold the office after the establishment of the Supreme Court of India.
Quick Tip: Remember that the first Chief Justice of India played a pivotal role in the establishment of judicial authority in the newly independent country.


Question 111:

What are the rights enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Right to Equality and Equal Protection of the Law
  • (2) Right to Excel and Perform
  • (3) Right to Liberty
  • (4) Right to Remedy
Correct Answer: (1) Right to Equality and Equal Protection of the Law
View Solution

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality, ensuring that no person shall be denied the equal protection of the laws. This article provides a foundation for all citizens to have equal rights before the law.
Quick Tip: The right to equality under Article 14 is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India. It ensures fair and just treatment for all citizens.


Question 112:

Who is entitled to the right to equality under the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Every old person
  • (2) all the Citizens
  • (3) only children
  • (4) Aliens
Correct Answer: (2) all the Citizens
View Solution

The right to equality under the Indian Constitution is available to all citizens of India as per Article 14. This includes every person who is a citizen, not just specific age groups or categories.
Quick Tip: Remember, Article 14 ensures that no person is discriminated against on the basis of race, religion, caste, sex, or place of birth.


Question 113:

What is the basis of the Indian legal system?

  • (1) Common law principles
  • (2) Western law principles
  • (3) Contract law principles
  • (4) Liberal law principles
Correct Answer: (1) Common law principles
View Solution

The Indian legal system is based on common law principles. This means that it is primarily derived from judicial decisions and precedents, which help in interpreting the law. It also incorporates elements of statutes, regulations, and customs.
Quick Tip: Common law systems are rooted in case law and judicial rulings, unlike civil law systems which are based primarily on codified statutes.


Question 114:

What is the function of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (1) Only to Judge the case
  • (2) Only to interpret the Constitution
  • (3) Only to punish
  • (4) To interpret the Constitution and make binding judgments
Correct Answer: (4) To interpret the Constitution and make binding judgments
View Solution

The Supreme Court of India is responsible for interpreting the Constitution and making binding judgments. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that laws and policies adhere to the principles of the Constitution. The Court has the authority to settle disputes and its decisions are binding on all lower courts.
Quick Tip: The role of the Supreme Court extends beyond interpreting laws—it also ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and protects fundamental rights.


Question 115:

Indian Judiciary is ________

  • (1) Independent
  • (2) Impartial
  • (3) Dependent
  • (4) Independent and Impartial
Correct Answer: (4) Independent and Impartial
View Solution

The Indian Judiciary is designed to be both independent and impartial. It operates free from influence by the executive or legislature, ensuring that judgments are based purely on the law, with fairness and neutrality. This independence allows it to act without bias or external pressures.
Quick Tip: An independent and impartial judiciary is crucial for upholding justice and the rule of law. In India, this is guaranteed by the Constitution.


Question 116:

As per the above passage which is the best antonym for skeptical?

  • (1) doubtful
  • (2) careful
  • (3) sympathetic
  • (4) trustworthy
Correct Answer: (4) trustworthy
View Solution

The word "skeptical" refers to being doubtful or questioning, while the opposite of that would be someone who is "trustworthy," as they are reliable and without doubt.
Quick Tip: When looking for antonyms, look for words that imply certainty and confidence in comparison to doubt.


Question 117:

The main purpose of the passage is to ________

  • (1) expose the logical flaws in potential counterarguments
  • (2) assert that the helmet law does not encroach upon personal freedom
  • (3) emphasize the importance of rider education in preventing motorcycle accidents
  • (4) prove that the author shares common ground with opponents of the law
Correct Answer: (3) emphasize the importance of rider education in preventing motorcycle accidents
View Solution

The passage focuses on how motorcycle accidents can be reduced through education and helmet laws, emphasizing the importance of educating riders to reduce accidents.
Quick Tip: When identifying the main purpose of a passage, look for statements that summarize the central message and argument of the text.


Question 118:

The tone of the author can best be described as ________

  • (1) fiery
  • (2) rigid
  • (3) coercive
  • (4) firm
Correct Answer: (4) firm
View Solution



The tone of the author can be described as firm because it reflects a strong, assertive attitude without being overly emotional or harsh.
Quick Tip: When identifying the tone of an author, focus on the strength and certainty of the language used in the passage.


Question 119:

According to the opinion of author some accidents are ________

  • (1) Unavoidable
  • (2) Avoidable
  • (3) Doubtful
  • (4) Acceptable
Correct Answer: (1) Unavoidable
View Solution



The author suggests that some accidents are inevitable and cannot be avoided, emphasizing the role of external factors that contribute to such incidents.
Quick Tip: In comprehension questions, pay attention to the author's perspective on whether events are seen as unavoidable or preventable.


Question 120:

Which of the following statements can be described as one of the author’s unstated assumptions?

  • (1) Motorcyclists should be properly educated and should ride responsibly.
  • (2) Helmets help to prevent injury in only the most serious motorcycle accidents.
  • (3) Individuals are responsible for ensuring their own safety and protection when the government fails to do so.
  • (4) Individuals should be responsible for the costs of their own medical care if they bear some responsibility for their injuries.
Correct Answer: (4) Individuals should be responsible for the costs of their own medical care if they bear some responsibility for their injuries.
View Solution



The author assumes that individuals should take responsibility for their own medical expenses if they are partially at fault for their injuries, reflecting a broader theme of personal responsibility.
Quick Tip: In comprehension, unstated assumptions often reflect underlying beliefs or principles that guide the author's arguments, even if they are not directly stated.



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