TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Question Paper with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. The exam was conducted by Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of TSCHE on May 25, 2023 in Shift 3. The question paper comprised a total of 120 questions.

TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years Questions with Solutions

TS LAWCET 2023 5 Years LLB Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

Who Invented the 3-D printer?

  • (1) Chuck Hull
  • (2) Nick Holonyak
  • (3) Elias Howe
  • (4) Christiaan Huygens
Correct Answer: (1) Chuck Hull
View Solution



Chuck Hull is credited with inventing the 3D printer in 1983. He developed the technology known as stereolithography, which became the foundation for modern 3D printing.
Quick Tip: When learning about technological inventions, focus on the pioneers who introduced fundamental innovations that shaped the field.


Question 2:

Which Vitamin is responsible for blood clotting?

  • (1) Vitamin A
  • (2) Vitamin B
  • (3) Vitamin E
  • (4) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: (4) Vitamin K
View Solution



Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting by facilitating the production of clotting factors. It is essential for proper wound healing and prevents excessive bleeding.
Quick Tip: When studying vitamins, focus on their specific roles in the body, such as Vitamin K's role in blood coagulation.


Question 3:

Who established the 'Brahmo Samaj reformist movement'?

  • (1) Subhas Chandra Bose
  • (2) Annie Besant
  • (3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  • (4) Bhagat Singh
Correct Answer: (3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
View Solution



Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj reformist movement, which aimed at reforming Hindu society by promoting monotheism, abolishing caste discrimination, and encouraging women's rights.
Quick Tip: When studying historical movements, focus on their leaders and the reforms they advocated for, such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy's work in the Brahmo Samaj.


Question 4:

India celebrates 'Civil Services Day' to commemorate the address of which leader to the Administrative Service Officers?

  • (1) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (2) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (3) Indira Gandhi
  • (4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: (4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
View Solution



Civil Services Day in India is celebrated on April 21st each year to commemorate the speech delivered by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the first Home Minister of India, to the Administrative Service Officers in 1947.
Quick Tip: Focus on key dates and figures in India's history, such as the role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the development of civil services.


Question 5:

In which state, the Indus International School introduced the first Teaching Robot in India?

  • (1) Punjab
  • (2) Gujarat
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) Telangana
Correct Answer: (4) Telangana
View Solution



Indus International School in Telangana introduced the first Teaching Robot in India. This initiative marks a significant step in integrating robotics and artificial intelligence in education.
Quick Tip: When learning about technological advancements in education, focus on the geographical regions and institutions leading such innovations.


Question 6:

Which State has the longest coastline in India?

  • (1) Goa
  • (2) Gujarat
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) Kerala
Correct Answer: (2) Gujarat
View Solution



Gujarat has the longest coastline in India, extending over 1,600 kilometers. This coastline is significant for trade, tourism, and maritime activities.
Quick Tip: When studying geographical features of states, pay attention to coastlines, as they play a key role in trade and tourism.


Question 7:

Quit India Movement was started in the year ___\.

  • (1) 1920
  • (2) 1930
  • (3) 1940
  • (4) 1942
Correct Answer: (4) 1942
View Solution



The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Kranti, was launched in 1942 by Mahatma Gandhi to demand an end to British rule in India.
Quick Tip: When studying major Indian movements, focus on their key dates and the leaders associated with them, such as the Quit India Movement in 1942.


Question 8:

Where is Guindy National Park located?

  • (1) Telangana
  • (2) Himachal Pradesh
  • (3) Tamil Nadu
  • (4) New Delhi
Correct Answer: (3) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



Guindy National Park is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It is one of the smallest national parks in India and is located within the city limits of Chennai.
Quick Tip: When learning about protected areas in India, pay attention to their location and size, as they are often unique for biodiversity.


Question 9:

Which of the following rivers has Musi River as one of its tributaries?

  • (1) Mahanadi
  • (2) Yamuna
  • (3) Ganga
  • (4) Krishna
Correct Answer: (4) Krishna
View Solution



Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River. It flows through the Indian states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, passing through Hyderabad.
Quick Tip: When studying rivers, focus on their tributaries and the geographical regions they pass through, as they are essential for understanding river systems.


Question 10:

Hirakud Dam is located in ____\ State.

  • (1) Odisha
  • (2) Sikkim
  • (3) Arunachal Pradesh
  • (4) Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: (1) Odisha
View Solution



Hirakud Dam is located in Odisha, India. It is one of the longest earthen dams in the world and serves multiple purposes, including irrigation and power generation.
Quick Tip: When learning about dams, remember to focus on their geographical locations and their contributions to water management and energy production.


Question 11:

Who discovered bacteria?

  • (1) Louis Pasteur
  • (2) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  • (3) Satyendra Nath Bose
  • (4) Thomas Alva Edison
Correct Answer: (2) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
View Solution



Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch scientist, is credited with the discovery of bacteria using a microscope he designed himself in the 17th century.
Quick Tip: Focus on pioneering scientists in microbiology, such as Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, who made significant contributions to our understanding of microorganisms.


Question 12:

How many goals are there in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the UN?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 20
Correct Answer: (3) 17
View Solution



There are 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the United Nations, which aim to address global challenges such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and peace.
Quick Tip: When studying the SDGs, focus on their global relevance and how they address environmental, social, and economic challenges.


Question 13:

Gibraltar straits connect which of the following?

  • (1) The Pacific Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
  • (2) The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
  • (3) The Red Sea and the Arabian Sea
  • (4) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
Correct Answer: (4) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
View Solution



The Gibraltar Strait connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea, and it separates the southern tip of Spain and the northern tip of Morocco.
Quick Tip: When learning about geographical straits, remember their role in connecting major seas or oceans and their strategic importance for maritime trade.


Question 14:

Who was known as Martin Luther of India?

  • (1) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  • (2) Chittaranjan Das
  • (3) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (4) Motilal Nehru
Correct Answer: (1) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
View Solution



Swami Dayanand Saraswati was known as the "Martin Luther of India" for his efforts to reform Hindu society, particularly through his advocacy for the Arya Samaj movement and his opposition to social practices like idol worship.
Quick Tip: When studying social reformers, look at their impact on both religious and social aspects of society, like Swami Dayanand's role in religious reform.


Question 15:

BHIM full form is _____ .

  • (1) Bharat Investing Money Scheme
  • (2) Bharat Interface for Money
  • (3) Bank International for Money
  • (4) Bharat International Money Security
Correct Answer: (2) Bharat Interface for Money
View Solution



BHIM stands for Bharat Interface for Money, a mobile app developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for facilitating fast and secure digital payments using the UPI platform.
Quick Tip: When learning about payment systems, focus on their purpose and how they enable digital transactions, like the role of BHIM in UPI-based payments.


Question 16:

Who among the following renounced his Knighthood following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

  • (1) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (2) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • (4) Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (2) Rabindranath Tagore
View Solution



Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919, where British troops killed hundreds of unarmed Indians.
Quick Tip: When studying Indian independence movements, remember the important protests and acts of defiance, such as Rabindranath Tagore's renouncement of knighthood.


Question 17:

The Actor to win the first-ever film fare award in the category of best actor for the film Daag is

  • (1) Manoj Kumar
  • (2) Guru Dutt
  • (3) Dilip Kumar
  • (4) Ashok Kumar
Correct Answer: (3) Dilip Kumar
View Solution



Dilip Kumar was the first actor to win the Filmfare Award for Best Actor in 1954 for his performance in the film "Daag."
Quick Tip: When studying Bollywood history, focus on key milestones like the introduction of Filmfare Awards and the first recipients of various categories.


Question 18:

Daily a human being must consume less than _____ grams of salt.

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4) 5
View Solution



It is recommended that a human being must consume less than 5 grams of salt daily to reduce the risk of hypertension and cardiovascular diseases.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to health guidelines, especially related to nutrition, such as daily salt intake recommendations for better cardiovascular health.


Question 19:

What is the theme of 'World Environment Day 2022'?

  • (1) Love our planet
  • (2) Invest in our Planet
  • (3) Only One Earth
  • (4) Live with the Nature
Correct Answer: (3) Only One Earth
View Solution



The theme for World Environment Day 2022 was "Only One Earth," emphasizing the need to protect the planet and adopt sustainable living practices.
Quick Tip: When studying environmental topics, pay attention to annual themes for global awareness events like World Environment Day.


Question 20:

Which day is celebrated as World Health Day?

  • (1) 8th March
  • (2) 7th April
  • (3) 1st May
  • (4) 10th December
Correct Answer: (2) 7th April
View Solution



World Health Day is celebrated on 7th April every year to mark the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) and to raise awareness about global health issues.
Quick Tip: When studying global health observances, focus on key dates like World Health Day, which promotes important health issues worldwide.


Question 21:

If the 2nd day of a month is Sunday, then what day will it be on the 31st of the same month?

  • (1) Saturday
  • (2) Sunday
  • (3) Monday
  • (4) Tuesday
Correct Answer: (3) Monday
View Solution



If the 2nd day of the month is Sunday, the 31st day will be a Monday. This is because the 31st day is 29 days after the 2nd, and 29 mod 7 equals 1, which means it will fall on the next Monday.
Quick Tip: When calculating days of the week, remember to use modular arithmetic to account for the number of days in a month.


Question 22:

In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code?

  • (1) SHFDQ
  • (2) HEDSQ
  • (3) RSAFD
  • (4) QDFHS
Correct Answer: (4) QDFHS
View Solution



The code shifts each letter of the word by a certain pattern. Using the same pattern applied to MONKEY, TIGER is coded as QDFHS.
Quick Tip: When working with coding puzzles, observe the shifts or patterns used in letter transformations.


Question 23:

If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT = ?

  • (1) 39
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 46
  • (4) 56
Correct Answer: (3) 46
View Solution



The values are based on the sum of the positions of letters in the alphabet. For example, Z = 26, so 26 + 26 = 52. Similarly, the sum of the letters in ACT gives 48, and the same calculation applies to BAT to get 46.
Quick Tip: For letter-based puzzles, try assigning numerical values to letters and look for patterns in their sums or differences.


Question 24:

Grass : Erosion :: Dam : ?

  • (1) Earth
  • (2) Water
  • (3) Sun
  • (4) Wind
Correct Answer: (2) Water
View Solution



The relationship between Grass and Erosion is that grass prevents erosion. Similarly, a Dam controls water, making "Water" the correct answer.
Quick Tip: In analogy-based questions, identify the relationship between the first pair of words and apply the same relationship to the second pair.


Question 25:

A clock is set right at 05:00 A.M. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 10:00 P.M. on the fourth day?

  • (1) 01:00 P.M.
  • (2) 02:00 P.M.
  • (3) 11:00 P.M.
  • (4) 12:00 P.M.
Correct Answer: (2) 02:00 P.M.
View Solution



The clock loses 16 minutes every 24 hours, meaning it loses 64 minutes in 4 days (16 minutes x 4). Thus, when the clock shows 10:00 P.M., the true time will be 10:00 P.M. + 64 minutes, which is 02:00 P.M.
Quick Tip: For such problems, calculate the total time lost and then add it to the given time to determine the actual time.


Question 26:

A and B are married couple, A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has died. How is E related to C?

  • (1) Aunt
  • (2) Daughter
  • (3) Grandmother
  • (4) Sister
Correct Answer: (4) Sister
View Solution



E is the sister of D, who is the son of C. Hence, E is C's daughter.
Quick Tip: In family relation problems, draw a family tree to visualize the relationships clearly.


Question 27:

A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

  • (1) Son
  • (2) Nephew
  • (3) Cousin
  • (4) Brother
Correct Answer: (3) Cousin
View Solution



The man is the son of the brother of the woman's mother, which makes him the woman's cousin.
Quick Tip: For family relationship questions, remember to break down the description and understand the connections between relatives.


Question 28:

Find the odd one out: Veranda, Cabin, Room, Chamber

  • (1) Veranda
  • (2) Cabin
  • (3) Room
  • (4) Chamber
Correct Answer: (1) Veranda
View Solution



The odd one out is "Veranda" as it is an open space, while the others are enclosed spaces.
Quick Tip: In odd one out problems, look for characteristics that are different from the rest, such as enclosed vs. open spaces.


Question 29:

Your mother is 4 years younger than your father. Your father is 6 times older than you. If you are 6 years old, what is your mother's age?

  • (1) 38 years
  • (2) 37 years
  • (3) 26 years
  • (4) 32 years
Correct Answer: (3) 26 years
View Solution



Let your age be \( x = 6 \) years. Your father's age is \( 6x = 36 \) years. Your mother is 4 years younger than your father, so her age is \( 36 - 4 = 32 \) years.
Quick Tip: In age-related problems, set up an equation using the given conditions and solve step by step.


Question 30:

Find the next letters in the given series: JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?

  • (1) OEP
  • (2) NEO
  • (3) MEN
  • (4) PFQ
Correct Answer: (2) NEO
View Solution



Each position in the letters follows a pattern. The first letter progresses by one step alphabetically, the second letter progresses by one step as well, and the third letter follows the same pattern. The next letters in the sequence are N, E, and O.
Quick Tip: Look for alphabetical patterns in series problems where letters follow a predictable stepwise progression.


Question 31:

The RBI has recently announced withdrawal of the Rs.2000 denomination banknotes from circulation, and allowed deposit or exchange of the Rs.2000 notes at Banks until

  • (1) 30th September, 2023
  • (2) 31st October, 2023
  • (3) 30th August, 2023
  • (4) 31st December, 2023
Correct Answer: (1) 30th September, 2023
View Solution



The RBI announced the withdrawal of the Rs. 2000 denomination notes from circulation and allowed their deposit or exchange until 30th September, 2023.
Quick Tip: Stay updated with official announcements from RBI and other financial institutions for important updates related to currency notes and policies.


Question 32:

Which institution released the 'Landslide Atlas of India'?

  • (1) ONGC
  • (2) DRDO
  • (3) ISRO
  • (4) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: (2) DRDO
View Solution



The 'Landslide Atlas of India' was released by the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) to help in understanding and mitigating landslide risks.
Quick Tip: When studying government reports or documents, note the key agencies responsible for specific research areas like DRDO for disaster management.


Question 33:

Sammanara, also known as the 'Hockey Village', is located in which State?

  • (1) Rajasthan
  • (2) Odisha
  • (3) Assam
  • (4) Bihar
Correct Answer: (2) Odisha
View Solution



Sammanara, known as the 'Hockey Village' for its contribution to the sport, is located in Odisha, which is renowned for producing many prominent hockey players.
Quick Tip: When studying sports-related topics, focus on areas known for producing athletes or contributing significantly to a particular sport.


Question 34:

Recently, due to non-payment of salaries nearly 100 pilots reported sick in which airlines?

  • (1) Spice Jet
  • (2) Indigo
  • (3) Air India
  • (4) Alliance Air
Correct Answer: (4) Alliance Air
View Solution



Alliance Air faced the issue where nearly 100 pilots reported sick due to non-payment of their salaries. This led to severe operational disruptions in the airline.
Quick Tip: When studying current events in the airline industry, pay attention to labor-related issues such as salary disputes or worker strikes.


Question 35:

‘Safe Harbour Principle’ is associated with which Act?

  • (1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • (2) The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021
  • (3) The Information Technology Act, 2000
  • (4) The Maintenance & Welfare of Parents & Senior Citizens Act, 2007
Correct Answer: (3) The Information Technology Act, 2000
View Solution



The Safe Harbour Principle is associated with the Information Technology Act, 2000, which provides guidelines to internet service providers and websites to avoid liability for third-party content under certain conditions.
Quick Tip: When studying legal principles, focus on their application in modern technology law, such as the Safe Harbour Principle in the IT Act.


Question 36:

T-Hub (Technology Hub) is an innovation intermediary and business incubator based in which State?

  • (1) Telangana
  • (2) Karnataka
  • (3) Haryana
  • (4) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (1) Telangana
View Solution



T-Hub, which stands for Technology Hub, is based in Telangana and is known for promoting innovation and entrepreneurship by providing support to startups and businesses.
Quick Tip: When studying innovation hubs, note their role in fostering startups and entrepreneurship, such as T-Hub in Telangana.


Question 37:

Which institution introduced the 'Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure'?

  • (1) World Bank
  • (2) World Health Organization
  • (3) International Monetary Fund
  • (4) World Meteorological Organization
Correct Answer: (4) World Meteorological Organization
View Solution



The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) introduced the 'Global Greenhouse Gas Monitoring Infrastructure' to track and analyze global emissions and contribute to climate change mitigation.
Quick Tip: For climate-related studies, focus on the role of global organizations like WMO that work towards monitoring and addressing environmental challenges.


Question 38:

Who became the first Tennis player to win 80 matches in all 4 Grand Slams?

  • (1) Carlos Alcaraz
  • (2) Novak Djokovic
  • (3) Roger Federer
  • (4) Daniil Medvedev
Correct Answer: (2) Novak Djokovic
View Solution



Novak Djokovic became the first tennis player to win 80 matches in all 4 Grand Slams, marking a historic milestone in his career.
Quick Tip: When learning about records in sports, focus on milestone achievements that highlight players' dominance across various tournaments.


Question 39:

Shri C R Rao, a well-known Indian and American mathematician and statistician, was awarded the International Prize in Statistics which is equal to Nobel Prize. He is at present _____ years old?

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 101
  • (3) 102
  • (4) 99
Correct Answer: (4) 99
View Solution



Shri C R Rao, a distinguished mathematician, is currently 99 years old, and he received the International Prize in Statistics, which is regarded as equivalent to the Nobel Prize.
Quick Tip: When studying historical figures in science, focus on their key achievements and contributions, as well as their current age if relevant.


Question 40:

Which institution launched its Right to Information (RTI) online portal?

  • (1) Election Commission of India
  • (2) Supreme Court of India
  • (3) Central Bureau of Investigation
  • (4) Chief Vigilance Commission
Correct Answer: (1) Election Commission of India
View Solution



The Election Commission of India launched its RTI online portal to promote transparency and allow citizens to easily access information related to elections and related processes.
Quick Tip: RTI portals are important for increasing transparency in government organizations. Always check the official portal for accurate and up-to-date information.


Question 41:

Which organization released the 'Women, Business and the Law Index'?

  • (1) World Bank
  • (2) Asian Development Bank
  • (3) Amnesty International
  • (4) World Intellectual Property Organization
Correct Answer: (1) World Bank
View Solution



The 'Women, Business and the Law Index' was released by the World Bank to track the legal and regulatory barriers that hinder women's economic participation around the world.
Quick Tip: When learning about global indices, pay attention to organizations like the World Bank, which provide valuable insights into gender equality and economic participation.


Question 42:

Which city corporation launched the World Bank’s Flagship Gender Toolkit?

  • (1) Nainital
  • (2) Nashik
  • (3) Chennai
  • (4) Coimbatore
Correct Answer: (3) Chennai
View Solution



The Chennai city corporation launched the World Bank’s Flagship Gender Toolkit aimed at empowering women through better infrastructure and policies focused on gender inclusivity.
Quick Tip: Focus on cities that lead in gender-inclusive initiatives and partnerships with global organizations like the World Bank.


Question 43:

Which Union Ministry is set to host the 'World Food India 2023' event?

  • (1) Ministry of External Affairs
  • (2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
  • (3) Ministry of Tourism
  • (4) Ministry of Rural Development
Correct Answer: (2) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
View Solution



The Ministry of Food Processing Industries will host the 'World Food India 2023' event, aiming to promote food processing and attract investments in the food processing sector.
Quick Tip: When studying major international events, focus on the organizing institutions and their roles in promoting industries or sectors.


Question 44:

Who laid the foundation stone for the National Forensic Sciences University?

  • (1) Shri Kiren Rijiju
  • (2) Shri Rajnath Singh
  • (3) Shri Amit Shah
  • (4) Shri Nitin Jairam Gadkari
Correct Answer: (3) Shri Amit Shah
View Solution



Shri Amit Shah, the Home Minister of India, laid the foundation stone for the National Forensic Sciences University, which aims to provide specialized education and research in forensic sciences.
Quick Tip: When studying developments in the education sector, note the involvement of key leaders and the areas of study being promoted, such as forensic sciences in this case.


Question 45:

Which company has initiated 'Project ELLORA' to promote local languages in India's Digital world?

  • (1) Samsung
  • (2) Microsoft
  • (3) Google
  • (4) Amazon
Correct Answer: (2) Microsoft
View Solution



Microsoft initiated 'Project ELLORA' to promote local languages in India's digital ecosystem, ensuring more accessibility to digital content in regional languages.
Quick Tip: When studying technological projects, focus on their goals of inclusivity and digital accessibility, like Project ELLORA in promoting local languages.


Question 46:

In which city did Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the Arabic Academy?

  • (1) Kanpur
  • (2) Kottayam
  • (3) Mumbai
  • (4) Pune
Correct Answer: (3) Mumbai
View Solution



Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the Arabic Academy in Mumbai, aiming to promote the Arabic language and culture in India.
Quick Tip: When studying major government events, pay attention to the location and its significance in promoting culture and language.


Question 47:

Which country’s first underground Air Force Base is Eagle 44 (Oghlab 44)?

  • (1) Indonesia
  • (2) India
  • (3) Israel
  • (4) Iran
Correct Answer: (4) Iran
View Solution



Iran's Eagle 44 (Oghlab 44) is the first underground Air Force Base, designed to protect its military assets from attacks.
Quick Tip: When studying military innovations, note the significance of underground bases for protection against airstrikes and modern warfare tactics.


Question 48:

Which country has launched pilot project called 'Welcome Corps' for refugees?

  • (1) France
  • (2) Russia
  • (3) U.S.A.
  • (4) Malaysia
Correct Answer: (3) U.S.A.
View Solution



The United States of America launched the 'Welcome Corps' pilot project to provide support and integration services to refugees.
Quick Tip: When studying refugee-related initiatives, focus on countries that actively implement projects to help with resettlement and integration.


Question 49:

Which of the following became the first Indian Union Territories to completely shift to e-governance mode?

  • (1) Jammu & Kashmir
  • (2) Chandigarh
  • (3) Lakshadweep
  • (4) Puducherry
Correct Answer: (1) Jammu & Kashmir
View Solution



Jammu & Kashmir became the first Union Territory in India to fully adopt e-governance, providing online government services to its residents.
Quick Tip: When learning about digital governance, focus on regions that lead in the adoption of e-governance to make government services more accessible.


Question 50:

US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved 'Lecanemab' medication to treat which disease?

  • (1) COVID-19
  • (2) Cancer
  • (3) Alzheimer
  • (4) Diabetes
Correct Answer: (3) Alzheimer
View Solution



The FDA approved 'Lecanemab', a drug aimed at treating Alzheimer's disease, to help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.
Quick Tip: For health-related approvals, focus on new medications that target chronic diseases like Alzheimer's, which have global implications for aging populations.


Question 51:

Which country launched the domestic card scheme AfriGo to boost its cashless economy?

  • (1) Nigeria
  • (2) Netherlands
  • (3) Norway
  • (4) Namibia
Correct Answer: (1) Nigeria
View Solution



Nigeria launched the AfriGo domestic card scheme to boost its cashless economy, aiming to increase financial inclusion and streamline transactions.
Quick Tip: When studying financial innovations, focus on how countries implement schemes to increase digital payments and reduce cash dependency.


Question 52:

Which State Government has passed the Bill providing 30% horizontal reservation to domiciled women of the State?

  • (1) West Bengal
  • (2) Uttarakhand
  • (3) Jharkhand
  • (4) Telangana
Correct Answer: (4) Telangana
View Solution



The Telangana State Government has passed the Bill providing 30% horizontal reservation to domiciled women of the state, ensuring greater representation for women in various public services.
Quick Tip: When studying state-level policies, focus on specific initiatives aimed at empowering women, such as horizontal reservations in various sectors.


Question 53:

National Cadet Corps (NCC) signed MoU with which institution to tackle the issue of plastic pollution?

  • (1) UNICEF
  • (2) World Health Organization
  • (3) International Monetary Fund
  • (4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Correct Answer: (4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
View Solution



The National Cadet Corps (NCC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to tackle plastic pollution and promote environmental awareness.
Quick Tip: Focus on international collaborations in environmental conservation, as organizations like UNEP often partner with local entities to address global challenges.


Question 54:

As per Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) data, which city was the most polluted place in India in 2022?

  • (1) New Delhi
  • (2) Kanpur
  • (3) Mumbai
  • (4) Varanasi
Correct Answer: (2) Kanpur
View Solution



According to the CPCB data, Kanpur was identified as the most polluted city in India in 2022, primarily due to industrial activities and vehicular emissions.
Quick Tip: When studying pollution data, focus on industrial and urban factors that contribute to high pollution levels in major cities.


Question 55:

Which of the following teams has won Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2023 final?

  • (1) Delhi Capitals
  • (2) Mumbai Indians
  • (3) Royal Challengers Bangalore
  • (4) Gujarat Giants
Correct Answer: (2) Mumbai Indians
View Solution



Mumbai Indians won the Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2023 final, making history in women’s cricket by winning the inaugural edition of the league.
Quick Tip: When studying cricket leagues, note the teams that have made significant achievements in their inaugural seasons.


Question 56:

Which country signed a deal with India to relocate dozens of Cheetahs?

  • (1) Afghanistan
  • (2) Argentina
  • (3) Australia
  • (4) South Africa
Correct Answer: (4) South Africa
View Solution



South Africa signed a deal with India to relocate dozens of Cheetahs to India, aiming to restore the cheetah population and promote wildlife conservation efforts.
Quick Tip: When studying international wildlife conservation efforts, focus on agreements between countries for species relocation and conservation initiatives.


Question 57:

Which country’s population has dropped by 8,50,000, declining for the first time since the Great Famine of 1961?

  • (1) Egypt
  • (2) China
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) Brazil
Correct Answer: (2) China
View Solution



China's population has dropped by 8,50,000, marking the first decline since the Great Famine of 1961. This decline is attributed to various factors such as demographic shifts and the effects of the one-child policy.
Quick Tip: When studying demographic trends, focus on countries with aging populations or significant shifts due to government policies.


Question 58:

Which institution declares ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’ in India?

  • (1) Reserve Bank of India
  • (2) Ministry of Finance
  • (3) SEBI
  • (4) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: (1) Reserve Bank of India
View Solution



The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) declares Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) in India, identifying banks whose failure could potentially harm the stability of the financial system.
Quick Tip: When studying financial systems, focus on the role of central banks like RBI in ensuring the stability of the economy by monitoring systemically important institutions.


Question 59:

The World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen which city for establishing its Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution?

  • (1) Indore
  • (2) Jaipur
  • (3) Hyderabad
  • (4) Madurai
Correct Answer: (3) Hyderabad
View Solution



Hyderabad has been chosen by the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish its Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution, aiming to drive innovation in various industries.
Quick Tip: When studying international developments in technology, note cities that serve as hubs for industrial revolutions and global innovations.


Question 60:

Which District in India has become the country’s first Constitution literate district?

  • (1) Thrissur
  • (2) Kollam
  • (3) Mahabubnagar
  • (4) Medak
Correct Answer: (1) Thrissur
View Solution



Thrissur became the first Constitution literate district in India, aiming to promote constitutional awareness among its residents.
Quick Tip: When studying district-level initiatives, focus on those that promote constitutional literacy and civic education.


Question 61:

Constitutional Amendment discontinued the nomination of two Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha.

  • (1) 102nd
  • (2) 103rd
  • (3) 104th
  • (4) 105th
Correct Answer: (3) 104th
View Solution



The 104th Constitutional Amendment Bill was passed, which discontinued the nomination of Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha. This change was made to reflect the evolving social structure.
Quick Tip: When studying Constitutional amendments, focus on the key amendments that have significantly impacted the structure of Indian governance.


Question 62:

Which of the following High Courts exercises jurisdiction over the Union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

  • (1) Bombay High Court
  • (2) Orissa High Court
  • (3) Calcutta High Court
  • (4) Madras High Court
Correct Answer: (2) Orissa High Court
View Solution



The Orissa High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This arrangement ensures legal and judicial functions are conducted under the jurisdiction of a designated High Court.
Quick Tip: When studying jurisdiction, note that certain Union Territories fall under specific High Courts for legal matters.


Question 63:

Absolute liability means ____\ .

  • (1) a person is liable for his fault
  • (2) a person is liable for no fault of his
  • (3) a person is exempted for his act
  • (4) amounts to criminal liability
Correct Answer: (2) a person is liable for no fault of his
View Solution



Absolute liability refers to a legal principle where a person or entity can be held responsible for their actions even if there is no fault on their part. This principle is applied in certain types of law, particularly in strict liability cases.
Quick Tip: When studying legal concepts, focus on the distinction between absolute and strict liability, as both have significant implications in legal cases.


Question 64:

NALSA vs. Union of India 2014, case is related to ____\.

  • (1) recognition of transgenders as third gender
  • (2) recognition of same sex marriages
  • (3) marital rape
  • (4) decriminalization of adultery
Correct Answer: (1) recognition of transgenders as third gender
View Solution



The NALSA vs. Union of India 2014 case is related to the recognition of transgenders as the third gender in India. The judgment directed the government to grant legal recognition to transgender people and ensure their rights are protected.
Quick Tip: Focus on landmark cases like NALSA vs. Union of India for significant changes in law, particularly for marginalized communities.


Question 65:

Who was the First Woman Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (1) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
  • (2) Justice R. Banumathi
  • (3) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
  • (4) Justice Indira Banerjee
Correct Answer: (3) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
View Solution



Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India. She was appointed in 1989 and made history as the first woman to hold such a position in India’s judicial system.
Quick Tip: When studying significant judicial appointments, pay attention to the historical firsts and the impact they had on the legal system.


Question 66:

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Protection against Arrest and Detention in certain cases?

  • (1) Article 20
  • (2) Article 21
  • (3) Article 22
  • (4) Article 23
Correct Answer: (3) Article 22
View Solution



Article 22 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of rights related to arrest and detention in certain cases. It guarantees protection against arbitrary arrest and detention, while providing exceptions in certain situations.
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with the fundamental rights and their corresponding articles to better understand the legal protections provided under the Indian Constitution.


Question 67:


In Cognizable offences _______

  • (1) A police officer shall not arrest without warrant
  • (2) A police officer may arrest without warrant
  • (3) Arrest is not required
  • (4) A police officer himself can arrest and release
Correct Answer: (2) A police officer may arrest without warrant
View Solution



In cognizable offences, a police officer may arrest without a warrant if the offence is of a serious nature. This allows them to take immediate action to prevent further harm or ensure the accused is available for trial. Arrest without warrant is not applicable for all types of offences, especially non-cognizable ones.
Quick Tip: In cases of cognizable offences, familiarize yourself with the rights of the police regarding arrest without a warrant. This can be critical in urgent legal situations.


Question 68:


‘In camera proceedings’ in a court refers to _______

  • (1) Private hearing
  • (2) Public hearing
  • (3) Open Trial
  • (4) Oral Submission
Correct Answer: (1) Private hearing
View Solution



In camera proceedings refer to legal proceedings held in private, usually to protect sensitive information, victims, or to avoid public disturbance. In such cases, the public and press are excluded from the courtroom.
Quick Tip: Always remember that 'in camera' proceedings are typically confidential and may involve sensitive or private matters.


Question 69:


Extradition means _______

  • (1) Punishing an accused in another country
  • (2) Transportation of the accused or offender with mutual understanding between the two countries
  • (3) Arresting a person wherever he is found
  • (4) Providing protection to an accused in a different country based on a mutual understanding between the two countries
Correct Answer: (2) Transportation of the accused or offender with mutual understanding between the two countries
View Solution



Extradition refers to the formal process by which one country hands over an accused or convicted person to another country, usually based on a mutual agreement or treaty between the two countries.
Quick Tip: When studying extradition, remember that it involves international agreements to ensure criminals are brought to justice in the appropriate country.


Question 70:


A writ by court, to a person or body of persons to compel it to perform some public duty is _______

  • (1) Quo Warranto
  • (2) Habeas Corpus
  • (3) Mandamus
  • (4) Prohibition
Correct Answer: (3) Mandamus
View Solution



A writ of Mandamus is a court order directing a public official or a body to perform a public duty which they have failed to do. It is a way to ensure accountability in the public sector.
Quick Tip: Mandamus is often used to compel public officials or bodies to carry out duties that are legally required, ensuring that laws are enforced.


Question 71:


‘In lieu’ means _______

  • (1) in place of
  • (2) same
  • (3) different
  • (4) contrast
Correct Answer: (1) in place of
View Solution



The phrase "in lieu" means "in place of," often used when referring to a substitution or replacement. It is commonly used in legal or contractual language.
Quick Tip: Remember that 'in lieu' is commonly used in legal and formal documents, indicating a substitution for something else.


Question 72:


Who can file an election petition in India?

  • (1) Only candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
  • (2) Only an elector can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.
  • (3) An elector or a candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during election.
  • (4) Only contesting political parties can file an election petition.
Correct Answer: (3) An elector or a candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during election.
View Solution



Under Indian law, both electors and candidates have the right to file an election petition if they believe malpractice occurred during the election process. The petition can challenge the validity of the election.
Quick Tip: Election petitions can be filed not only by candidates but also by any elector who believes that there was malpractice in the election.


Question 73:


Entry to a person’s land or property without permission is called _______

  • (1) Criminal Misappropriation
  • (2) Mischief
  • (3) Trespass
  • (4) Assault
Correct Answer: (3) Trespass
View Solution



Trespass refers to the unlawful entry onto someone else's property without permission. It is a civil wrong and, in some cases, can lead to criminal charges.
Quick Tip: When studying property law, understand that trespass involves entering someone’s property without consent, even if no damage is caused.


Question 74:


Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? _______

  • (1) The Prime Minister of India
  • (2) The President of India
  • (3) The Vice President of India
  • (4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: (3) The Vice President of India
View Solution



The ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the Vice President of India, as per the Constitution of India.
Quick Tip: The Vice President of India also plays a crucial role in the legislative processes of the Rajya Sabha, including maintaining decorum.


Question 75:


Donoghue vs. Stevenson case relates to _______

  • (1) Defamation
  • (2) Negligence
  • (3) Assault
  • (4) Battery
Correct Answer: (2) Negligence
View Solution



The Donoghue vs. Stevenson case is a landmark decision in the law of torts that established the principle of negligence. It is famous for the "neighbour principle" that a person owes a duty of care to those who are closely and directly affected by their actions.
Quick Tip: The Donoghue vs. Stevenson case is essential for understanding the concept of negligence and its role in tort law.


Question 76:


The Governor General who is known as ‘The Liberator of The Press’ is _______

  • (1) Lord Dalhousie
  • (2) Charles Metcalfe
  • (3) William Bentinck
  • (4) Lord Hastings
Correct Answer: (2) Charles Metcalfe
View Solution



Charles Metcalfe, who served as the Governor General of India, earned the title ‘The Liberator of The Press’ for his role in lifting the restrictive press laws imposed by the British.
Quick Tip: Remember that Charles Metcalfe is often associated with liberalizing policies for the press in colonial India.


Question 77:


Who among the following is the author of the book "Off the Bench"?

  • (1) Justice A. R. Lakshman
  • (2) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
  • (3) Justice J. S. Verma
  • (4) Justice Y. V. Chandrachud
Correct Answer: (3) Justice J. S. Verma
View Solution



Justice J. S. Verma, a former Chief Justice of India, is the author of the book "Off the Bench," which shares his experiences and reflections on legal matters.
Quick Tip: When studying books by legal experts, focus on the experiences and perspectives they provide on the judicial system.


Question 78:


Who is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

  • (1) The Parliament
  • (2) The President
  • (3) The Supreme Court
  • (4) The Prime Minister
Correct Answer: (3) The Supreme Court
View Solution



The Supreme Court of India is the custodian of the Constitution. It is responsible for interpreting the Constitution and ensuring its protection through judicial review.
Quick Tip: Understanding the role of the Supreme Court in safeguarding the Constitution is crucial for constitutional law studies.


Question 79:


Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?

  • (1) To protect and improve the natural environment
  • (2) To safeguard public property
  • (3) To defend the country
  • (4) To pay income tax
Correct Answer: (4) To pay income tax
View Solution



Fundamental duties are listed in the Constitution under Article 51A. While duties such as protecting the environment and safeguarding public property are fundamental, paying income tax is a legal obligation, not a fundamental duty.
Quick Tip: Focus on understanding the distinction between legal obligations and fundamental duties in the Constitution.


Question 80:


Who among the following presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly?

  • (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • (2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • (3) Dr. Sachidananda Sin
  • (4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
View Solution



Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly in 1947.
Quick Tip: The role of the President of India in the Constituent Assembly was pivotal in shaping the Constitution.


Question 81:


The oldest High Court in India is _______

  • (1) Calcutta High Court
  • (2) Bombay High Court
  • (3) Madras High Court
  • (4) Allahabad High Court
Correct Answer: (1) Calcutta High Court
View Solution



The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India, established in 1862. It has played a significant role in the judicial history of India.
Quick Tip: The Calcutta High Court is a landmark institution in India's judicial system and has contributed to shaping the nation's legal landscape.


Question 82:


The ‘Electoral College’ for the election of the President of India consists of _______

  • (1) Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
  • (2) Members of the Lok Sabha
  • (3) Elected Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assemblies of all the States and all Union Territories
  • (4) Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the States
Correct Answer: (3) Elected Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assemblies of all the States and all Union Territories
View Solution



The Electoral College for the election of the President of India consists of elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and Union Territories.
Quick Tip: Remember that the President of India is elected by an indirect election method involving elected representatives from various legislative bodies.


Question 83:


The Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament comprises of _______ members.

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (3) 20
View Solution



The Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of 20 members. It is primarily responsible for examining and evaluating the expenditure of government departments.
Quick Tip: The Estimates Committee plays a key role in ensuring that government funds are used appropriately and within budget.


Question 84:


The boundary line between India and China is known as _______

  • (1) Radcliffe Line
  • (2) Mc Mohan Line
  • (3) Indira Point
  • (4) Durant Line
Correct Answer: (2) Mc Mohan Line
View Solution



The boundary line between India and China is known as the Mc Mohan Line. This line was drawn during the Simla Accord of 1914.
Quick Tip: Understanding historical agreements like the Mc Mohan Line is crucial in analyzing border disputes in international relations.


Question 85:


Arun instigates Balu to murder Kumar. Balu refuses to do so. Arun is guilty of _______

  • (1) Culpable homicide
  • (2) Murder
  • (3) Abetment
  • (4) Attempt to murder
Correct Answer: (3) Abetment
View Solution



In this case, Arun is guilty of abetment. He instigated Balu to commit murder, but since Balu did not act, Arun is guilty of abetment, not murder.
Quick Tip: Abetment refers to the act of encouraging or instigating another person to commit a crime, even if the crime is not carried out.


Question 86:


Minimum age required to contest for office of the President is _______

  • (1) 25 years
  • (2) 21 years
  • (3) 35 years
  • (4) 30 years
Correct Answer: (3) 35 years
View Solution



As per the Constitution of India, the minimum age required to contest for the office of the President of India is 35 years.
Quick Tip: In addition to age, a candidate must also fulfill other eligibility criteria such as being an Indian citizen and qualified to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.


Question 87:


In case of vacancy of office of both the President and Vice President of India, who shall act as the President of India?

  • (1) Chief Justice of India
  • (2) Prime Minister
  • (3) Attorney General of India
  • (4) Senior Judge of the Supreme Court
Correct Answer: (1) Chief Justice of India
View Solution



In case of a vacancy in both the offices of President and Vice President, the Chief Justice of India is appointed to act as the President of India, as per the provisions of the Constitution.
Quick Tip: Remember that the Chief Justice of India steps in temporarily during such situations, until the election of a new President.


Question 88:


Double jeopardy means _______

  • (1) A person can be punished twice for the same offence
  • (2) A person cannot be punished twice for the same offence
  • (3) A person can be punished once during his lifetime
  • (4) A person is not punishable
Correct Answer: (2) A person cannot be punished twice for the same offence
View Solution



Double jeopardy is a legal concept that protects an individual from being tried or punished twice for the same offence. It is a fundamental principle of law that ensures fairness in criminal proceedings.
Quick Tip: In criminal law, double jeopardy safeguards individuals from being repeatedly prosecuted for the same crime.


Question 89:


Who was the First Chief Information Commissioner of India?

  • (1) Irfan Khan
  • (2) Tahir Hussain
  • (3) Najma Heptullah
  • (4) Wajahat Habibullah
Correct Answer: (4) Wajahat Habibullah
View Solution



Wajahat Habibullah was appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) of India in 2005, following the establishment of the Right to Information Act.
Quick Tip: Remember that the Chief Information Commissioner plays a vital role in ensuring transparency and accountability in government functioning.


Question 90:


De novo means _______

  • (1) New
  • (2) Nothing
  • (3) Decline
  • (4) Waive
Correct Answer: (1) New
View Solution



"De novo" is a Latin term meaning "new." In legal terms, it refers to a trial or process that is started anew, without considering previous decisions or actions.
Quick Tip: The term "de novo" is frequently used in legal contexts, especially when a case is heard again from the beginning.


Question 91:


Which of the following bodies is not set up under the Constitution of India?

  • (1) Election Commission
  • (2) Union Public Service Commission
  • (3) Supreme Court of India
  • (4) National Human Rights Commission
Correct Answer: (4) National Human Rights Commission
View Solution



The National Human Rights Commission is not set up under the Constitution of India. It was established by an act of Parliament in 1993. The other bodies are specifically mentioned in the Constitution.
Quick Tip: Understanding the constitutional bodies is key to understanding the framework of governance in India.


Question 92:


What is the maximum duration of a Money Bill in the Rajya Sabha?

  • (1) 18 days
  • (2) 16 days
  • (3) 14 days
  • (4) 12 days
Correct Answer: (4) 12 days
View Solution



The maximum duration allowed for a Money Bill in the Rajya Sabha is 14 days. If no decision is made within this time, the bill is deemed passed.
Quick Tip: For Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject the bill, but it can delay the passage for a maximum of 14 days.


Question 93:


Who for the first time put forward the idea of Constituent Assembly for India in 1934?

  • (1) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  • (2) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (3) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (4) M N Roy
Correct Answer: (4) M N Roy
View Solution



M N Roy was the first to put forward the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934, which later played a significant role in framing India's Constitution.
Quick Tip: Remember that M N Roy is known for his contributions to the Indian freedom struggle and his advocacy for a Constituent Assembly.


Question 94:


Which Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances that warranted the declaration of an Emergency in 1975?

  • (1) Khosla Commission
  • (2) Sarkaria Commission
  • (3) Manwani Commission
  • (4) Shah Commission
Correct Answer: (4) Shah Commission
View Solution



The Shah Commission was appointed to investigate the reasons for the Emergency declared in 1975. The Commission's report looked into the events and the abuse of power during the period.
Quick Tip: The Shah Commission's findings are important in understanding the political climate during the Emergency in India.


Question 95:


A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a period of _______

  • (1) 9 months
  • (2) 3 months
  • (3) 12 months
  • (4) 6 months
Correct Answer: (4) 6 months
View Solution



A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President, but they must become a member of Parliament within 6 months.
Quick Tip: If someone is appointed as a Minister and is not a member of Parliament, they must win a seat in the next election within 6 months.


Question 96:


Fundamental Rights have been taken from _______ Constitution.

  • (1) French Constitution
  • (2) German Constitution
  • (3) American Constitution
  • (4) Australian Constitution
Correct Answer: (3) American Constitution
View Solution



Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution have been largely inspired by the American Constitution, particularly the Bill of Rights, which guarantees certain fundamental freedoms.
Quick Tip: The concept of Fundamental Rights in India is modeled after the American system, which has had a significant influence on modern democracies.


Question 97:


The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to the Constitution of India _______

  • (1) Deleted the Fundamental Right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property
  • (2) Introduced the Fundamental Right to free and compulsory education
  • (3) Deleted Fundamental Right to work
  • (4) Suspended the Fundamental Right to constitutional remedies
Correct Answer: (1) Deleted the Fundamental Right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property
View Solution



The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the Fundamental Right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, which had been previously enshrined in the Constitution.
Quick Tip: The 44th Amendment was a significant reform, altering property rights in India and reshaping the Fundamental Rights.


Question 98:


Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

  • (1) Chief Justice of India
  • (2) Vice President of India
  • (3) President of India
  • (4) Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: (3) President of India
View Solution



The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India, as per the Constitution. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government of India.
Quick Tip: The Attorney General of India plays a crucial role in representing the Indian government in legal matters.


Question 99:


Which of the following is entrusted with a statutory duty of laying down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates in India?

  • (1) Bar Association of India
  • (2) Bar Council of India
  • (3) Delhi Bar Council
  • (4) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (2) Bar Council of India
View Solution



The Bar Council of India is entrusted with the statutory duty of laying down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates in India. It regulates the practice and conduct of lawyers in India.
Quick Tip: Understanding the role of the Bar Council is important for those pursuing legal careers in India.


Question 100:


A person dying intestate means _______

  • (1) Died without any property
  • (2) Died without any legal heirs
  • (3) Died without sons
  • (4) Died without executing a will
Correct Answer: (4) Died without executing a will
View Solution



A person dying intestate means they have passed away without leaving behind a will, which would typically determine the distribution of their property among heirs.
Quick Tip: Intestate succession refers to the distribution of a deceased person's estate when no will is present, governed by legal statutes.


Question 101:


Debenture holders of a company are the company's _______

  • (1) Creditors
  • (2) Customers
  • (3) Owners
  • (4) Strangers
Correct Answer: (1) Creditors
View Solution



Debenture holders are considered creditors of the company, as they lend money to the company in exchange for interest. They have a claim on the company's assets.
Quick Tip: Debenture holders are distinct from shareholders because they do not own the company but have a fixed interest claim.


Question 102:


“Apostasy” means _______

  • (1) Renunciation of society
  • (2) Renaissance of Religion
  • (3) Renunciation of a Religion
  • (4) Celibacy
Correct Answer: (3) Renunciation of a Religion
View Solution



Apostasy refers to the abandonment or renunciation of one's religion or faith. It is often used in legal and religious contexts.
Quick Tip: When studying religious or cultural concepts, understand how terms like apostasy can have different meanings in different contexts.


Question 103:


A prerogative writ used to command a person or a public authority who is detaining another in custody to produce that person before the court is _______

  • (1) Habeas Corpus
  • (2) Certiorari
  • (3) Quo Warranto
  • (4) Mandamus
Correct Answer: (1) Habeas Corpus
View Solution



Habeas Corpus is a writ that commands the person detaining another to bring the detainee before the court to determine if the detention is lawful. It is a fundamental safeguard against unlawful detention.
Quick Tip: Habeas Corpus is one of the most important legal rights, ensuring the protection of personal liberty.


Question 104:


By which Constitutional Amendment was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years?

  • (1) 61st Amendment of 1988
  • (2) 7th Amendment of 1956
  • (3) 42nd Amendment of 1976
  • (4) 54th Amendment of 1986
Correct Answer: (1) 61st Amendment of 1988
View Solution



The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the minimum age for voting from 21 years to 18 years. This significant change aimed to expand the democratic base and encourage youth participation in elections.
Quick Tip: Remember that the 61st Amendment Act was a key reform that made elections more inclusive.


Question 105:


United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is headquartered at _______

  • (1) Vienna, Austria
  • (2) Canberra, Australia
  • (3) Geneva, Switzerland
  • (4) The Hague, Netherlands
Correct Answer: (3) Geneva, Switzerland
View Solution



The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It focuses on the promotion of international trade and development.
Quick Tip: UNCTAD plays a vital role in fostering development by enhancing global trade and cooperation.


Question 106:


Which High Court exercises jurisdiction over Lakshadweep?

  • (1) Madras High Court
  • (2) Calcutta High Court
  • (3) Kerala High Court
  • (4) Bombay High Court
Correct Answer: (3) Kerala High Court
View Solution



The Kerala High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, which is geographically located in the Arabian Sea.
Quick Tip: Jurisdiction of High Courts in India is defined by geography, with each High Court handling cases from specific states and territories.


Question 107:


CEDAW is the acronym of _______

  • (1) Conference on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
  • (2) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
  • (3) Convention on the Eradication of Discrimination against Women
  • (4) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Widows
Correct Answer: (2) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
View Solution



CEDAW stands for the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women. It is an international treaty aimed at eliminating discrimination against women in all areas of life.
Quick Tip: CEDAW is a fundamental treaty that supports women's rights globally and was adopted by the United Nations.


Question 108:


Whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to _______ under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

  • (1) Imprisonment for life
  • (2) Imprisonment for three years
  • (3) Imprisonment for seven years
  • (4) Imprisonment for ten years
Correct Answer: (1) Imprisonment for life
View Solution



Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, cyber terrorism is a serious crime, and the punishment for it can extend to life imprisonment.
Quick Tip: Cyber terrorism is a critical threat, and the law imposes severe penalties to deter such activities.


Question 109:


The High Courts in India do not possess _______

  • (1) Original jurisdiction
  • (2) Appellate jurisdiction
  • (3) Advisory jurisdiction
  • (4) Revisory jurisdiction
Correct Answer: (4) Revisory jurisdiction
View Solution



The High Courts in India do not possess revisory jurisdiction, which is the power to review or revise judgments of lower courts. However, they have original, appellate, and advisory jurisdictions.
Quick Tip: Revisory jurisdiction is not conferred on High Courts, but it is a function performed by appellate courts in certain circumstances.


Question 110:


What is the name of the first Chief Justice of India?

  • (1) B.N. Mukherjee
  • (2) H.J. Kania
  • (3) B.R. Ambedkar
  • (4) Aslam Khan
Correct Answer: (2) H.J. Kania
View Solution



The first Chief Justice of India was Harilal Jekisundas Kania. He served as the Chief Justice from 1950 to 1951.
Quick Tip: The role of the Chief Justice of India is critical in the judiciary, and it’s important to know the first person to hold this position.


Question 111:


What are the rights enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Right to Equality and Equal Protection of the Law
  • (2) Right to Excel and Perform
  • (3) Right to Liberty
  • (4) Right to Remedy
Correct Answer: (1) Right to Equality and Equal Protection of the Law
View Solution



Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality, which ensures that every individual is treated equally before the law and has equal protection under the law.
Quick Tip: Article 14 is a fundamental provision for safeguarding individual rights and promoting justice in India.


Question 112:


Who is entitled to the right to equality under the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) Every old person
  • (2) All the Citizens
  • (3) Only children
  • (4) Aliens
Correct Answer: (2) All the Citizens
View Solution



The right to equality under the Indian Constitution is available to all citizens, ensuring that everyone is treated equally by the law. Non-citizens are not entitled to this right.
Quick Tip: The right to equality applies to all citizens and is essential for fostering a just and equal society.


Question 113:


What is the basis of the Indian legal system?

  • (1) Common law principles
  • (2) Western law principles
  • (3) Contract law principles
  • (4) Liberal Law Principles
Correct Answer: (1) Common law principles
View Solution



The Indian legal system is based on common law principles, which were inherited from the British colonial period and have evolved over time.
Quick Tip: The foundation of India's legal system is rooted in the principles of common law, which prioritize judicial precedents and case law.


Question 114:


What is the function of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (1) Only to judge the case
  • (2) Only to interpret the Constitution
  • (3) Only to punish
  • (4) To interpret the Constitution and make binding judgments
Correct Answer: (4) To interpret the Constitution and make binding judgments
View Solution



The Supreme Court of India has the authority to interpret the Constitution and make binding judgments on legal matters. It is the highest court in the country.
Quick Tip: The Supreme Court plays a crucial role in upholding constitutional principles and ensuring the rule of law in India.


Question 115:


Indian Judiciary is _______

  • (1) Independent
  • (2) Impartial
  • (3) Dependent
  • (4) Independent and Impartial
Correct Answer: (4) Independent and Impartial
View Solution



The Indian Judiciary is independent and impartial, ensuring that justice is delivered without any external influence, as mandated by the Constitution.
Quick Tip: An independent judiciary is essential to the democratic framework of India, ensuring checks and balances in governance.


Question 116:


As per the above passage, which is the best antonym for skeptical?

  • (1) Doubtful
  • (2) Careful
  • (3) Sympathetic
  • (4) Trustworthy
Correct Answer: (4) Trustworthy
View Solution



The passage contrasts the skeptical view against those who trust in the value of helmet laws. Hence, the antonym of skeptical would be trustful or trustworthy.
Quick Tip: When reading critically, identify words that suggest doubt or belief, as these can often be opposites.


Question 117:


The main purpose of the passage is to _______

  • (1) Expose the logical flaws in potential counterarguments
  • (2) Assert that the helmet law does not encroach upon personal freedom
  • (3) Emphasize the importance of rider education in preventing motorcycle accidents
  • (4) Prove that the author shares common ground with opponents of the law
Correct Answer: (1) Expose the logical flaws in potential counterarguments
View Solution



The passage addresses the logical flaws in the arguments against helmet laws, particularly focusing on the fallacies about personal freedom and rider education.
Quick Tip: Identifying the main purpose of a passage helps in understanding the author’s intention and the key points discussed.


Question 118:

The tone of the author can best be described as _______.

  • (1) fiery
  • (2) rigid
  • (3) coercive
  • (4) firm
Correct Answer: (4) firm
View Solution



The tone described in the question refers to the author's attitude or manner of expression. The word "firm" implies a strong, determined tone, which is most appropriate for the context given. The other options such as "fiery," "rigid," and "coercive" imply extremes that are not suitable for the author's tone in this case.
Quick Tip: When analyzing tone, consider the connotations of the words and whether they align with the author's attitude in the text.


Question 119:

According to the opinion of author some accidents are _______.

  • (1) Unavoidable
  • (2) Avoidable
  • (3) Doubtful
  • (4) Acceptable
Correct Answer: (1) Unavoidable
View Solution



The author seems to imply that some accidents are inevitable or unavoidable, which is why the option "unavoidable" fits best in this context. The other options, such as "avoidable" or "acceptable," do not align with the author's perspective as implied by the context.
Quick Tip: When evaluating the author’s tone or perspective, pay close attention to how they frame issues such as preventability and responsibility.


Question 120:

Which of the following statements can be described as one of the author's unstated assumptions?

  • (1) Motorcyclists should be properly educated and should ride responsibly.
  • (2) Helmets help to prevent injury in only the most serious motorcycle accidents.
  • (3) Individuals are responsible for ensuring their own safety and protection when the government fails to do so.
  • (4) Individuals should be responsible for the costs of their own medical care if they bear some responsibility for their injuries.
Correct Answer: (4) Individuals should be responsible for the costs of their own medical care if they bear some responsibility for their injuries.
View Solution



The author assumes that individuals should be held accountable for the costs associated with their own injuries if they have some responsibility for them. This aligns with option (4). The other options focus more on safety or responsibility in general, which are not directly linked to the concept of medical costs for personal injuries.
Quick Tip: To identify unstated assumptions, think about what the author implicitly expects the reader to agree with based on their argument.



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