GPAT 2025 Question Paper Shift-2 (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

The GPAT 2025 Exam was conducted on 25th May,2025, shift 2 was held from 2:30 P.M. to 5:30 P.M. in more than 100 exam cities across the country and a CBT Mode with more than 50,000 pharmacy graduates to appear in the exam.

The GPAT 2025 Question Paper was include Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Pharmacology, Pharmaceutics, and Pharmacognosy as the fundamental subjects, containing 125 MCQs, making a total of 500 marks.

GPAT 2025 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

GATE 2025 May 25 Shift 2 Question Paper PDF Download Check Solutions
GPAT 2025 May 25 Shift 2 Question Paper PDF With Solutions

Question 1:

Match the following:

(P) Schedule H
(Q) Schedule G
(R) Schedule P
(S) Schedule F2

Descriptions:
(I) Life period of drugs
(II) Drugs used under RMP
(III) List of Prescription Drugs
(IV) Standards for surgical dressing

  • (A) \( P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III \)
  • (B) \( P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II \)
  • (C) \( P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV \)
  • (D) \( P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I \)

Question 2:

Match the following:

(1) Schedule FF
(2) Schedule F3
(3) Schedule V
(4) Schedule Y

Descriptions:
(P) Standards of patent and proprietary medicines
(Q) Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials
(R) Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes
(S) Standards for Ophthalmic preparations

  • (A) \( 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R] \)
  • (B) \( 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S] \)
  • (C) \( 1-[S], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[Q] \)
  • (D) \( 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S] \)

Question 3:

If the label or the container bears the name of an individual or company purporting to be the manufacturer of the drug, which individual or company is fictitious or does not exist, it is:

  • (A) \( Misbranded Drug \)
  • (B) \( Adulterated Drug \)
  • (C) \( Spurious Drug \)
  • (D) \( Not of Standard Quality \)

Question 4:

ISO for quality assurance of Design, Development, Processing, Installation, and Servicing is:

  • (A) \( ISO 9000 \)
  • (B) \( ISO 9001 \)
  • (C) \( ISO 9002 \)
  • (D) \( ISO 9003 \)

Question 5:

According to the ICH guidelines for stability studies, Climatic Zone II temperature and relative humidity are respectively:

  • (A) \( 25^\circ C \) and RH \( 60% \)
  • (B) \( 30^\circ C \) and RH \( 65% \)
  • (C) \( 40^\circ C \) and RH \( 75% \)
  • (D) \( 25^\circ C \) and RH \( 75% \)

Question 6:

How much volume of Raw spirit can an excise officer withdraw as sample?

  • (A) \( One sample of 200 ml \)
  • (B) \( Two samples of 150 ml each \)
  • (C) \( Three samples of same batch, each not more than 100 ml \)
  • (D) \( One sample of 500 ml \)

Question 7:

Minimum manufacturing space for 'Habb-Unani medicine' as per Schedule of D and C Act?

  • (A) \( 50 Sq. Ft. \)
  • (B) \( 75 Sq. Ft. \)
  • (C) \( 100 Sq. Ft. \)
  • (D) \( 150 Sq. Ft. \)

Question 8:

Manufacturing Specification for tooling has been standardized by?

  • (A) \( USFDA \)
  • (B) \( CDSCO \)
  • (C) \( Indian Pharmacopoeial Commission \)
  • (D) \( WHO \)

Question 9:

Match the pair of drugs and their family:

Column A (Drugs):
1. Snake root
2. Artemisia
3. Bitter almond
4. Myrrh

Column B (Family):
(P) Compositae
(Q) Rosaceae
(R) Apocynaceae
(S) Burseraceae

  • (A) \( 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S] \)
  • (B) \( 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S] \)
  • (C) \( 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R] \)
  • (D) \( 1-[S], 2-[P], 3-[R], 4-[Q] \)

Question 10:

Which of the following alkaloids are found as salts of meconic acid?

  • (A) \( Rauwolfia Alkaloid \)
  • (B) \( Tropane Alkaloid \)
  • (C) \( Ergot Alkaloid \)
  • (D) \( Opium Alkaloid \)

Question 11:

Choose the correct statement from the following:

(P) Anthraquinone derivatives are generally detected by Borntrager’s test
(Q) Anthrone is yellow colored and soluble in alkali
(R) Anthranol is insoluble in alkali and shows strong red fluorescence
(S) Borntrager’s test gives negative result with Anthranol (Reduced form)

  • (A) \( P and S Only \)
  • (B) \( R Only \)
  • (C) \( Q and R Only \)
  • (D) \( P Only \)

Question 12:

Choose the correct statement from the following:
(A) Tannin solution precipitate alkaloid
(B) Hydrolysable tannin produce gallic and ellagic acid by enzymatic and acid hydrolysis
(C) Condensed tannin converted into red color substance known as phlobaphene on acid and enzymatic hydrolysis
(D) Tannin are insoluble in water

  • (A) \( A and C Only \)
  • (B) \( B Only D Only \)
  • (C) \( C Only \)
  • (D) \( A, B and C are correct \)

Question 13:

Trikatu in Ayurveda is a combination of:

  • (A) \( Black mustard, Long pepper, Ginger \)
  • (B) \( Black pepper, Long pepper, Betal \)
  • (C) \( Black pepper, Long pepper, Ginger \)
  • (D) \( Black pepper, Small pepper, Ginger \)

Question 14:

Glycogenic amino acids enter TCA cycle except:

  • (A) \( Alanine \)
  • (B) \( Glycine \)
  • (C) \( Glutamate \)
  • (D) \( Aspartate \)

Question 15:

Match the following:

(P) Tuberculosis
(Q) Diphtheria
(R) Yellow fever
(S) Malaria

Descriptions:
(1) Bacterial
(2) Viral
(3) Toxoids
(4) Protozoal

  • (A) \( P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 \)
  • (B) \( P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 \)
  • (C) \( P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 \)
  • (D) \( P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 \)

Question 16:

Which of the following is used to evaluate disinfectant?

  • (A) \( Widal test \)
  • (B) \( VRDL test \)
  • (C) \( Chick Martin test \)
  • (D) \( None of these \)

Question 17:

Oral vaccine such as Dukoral® and Shanchol™ is used for prevention of:

  • (A) \( Pneumonia \)
  • (B) \( Ebola virus \)
  • (C) \( Cholera \)
  • (D) \( Polio \)

Question 18:

Which parasitic worm is responsible for causing lymphatic filariasis?

  • (A) \( Wuchereria bancrofti \)
  • (B) \( Brugia malayi \)
  • (C) \( Onchocerca volvulus \)
  • (D) \( Ancylostoma duodenale \)

Question 19:

Which statistical test is used to compare mean of two identical group?

  • (A) ANOVA
  • (B) Sample t test
  • (C) Paired t test
  • (D) Pooled t test

Question 20:

Which enzyme is responsible for albinism?

  • (a) Beta-hydroxylase
  • (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  • (c) Hydroxylase
  • (d) Tyrosinase

Question 21:

Which anemia is caused due to Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells?

  • (a) Pernicious anemia
  • (b) Aplastic anemia
  • (c) Iron deficiency anemia
  • (d) Hemolytic anemia

Question 22:

Which of the following is the differential test i.e. it does not require the need to make assumption of population following normal or differential distributed?

  • (a) ANOVA
  • (b) Student T test
  • (c) Fisher LSD test
  • (d) Kruskal-Wallis test

Question 23:

Which of the following is correct stability order of alkenes?

  • (a) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene
  • (b) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene
  • (c) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Trans-2-butene
  • (d) Isobutene \(>\) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) but-1-ene

Question 24:

Cis-trans (E/Z) Isomers, EXCEPT

  • (a) 1-butene
  • (b) 2-butene-1-ol
  • (c) 2-chloro-3-hexene
  • (d) 4-chloro-2-pentene

Question 25:

Number of stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 26:

In Friedel-Crafts reaction, benzene reacts with isopropyl bromide in the presence of aluminium trichloride to give:

  • (A) \( Benzophenone \)
  • (B) \( Acetophenone \)
  • (C) \( Isopropyl benzene \)
  • (D) \( n-Propyl benzene \)

Question 27:

Number of conformational isomers of \emph{n}-butane:

  • (A) One-anti \& one-gauche
  • (B) One-anti \& two-gauche
  • (C) Two-anti \& one-gauche
  • (D) Two-anti \& two-gauche

Question 28:

Debye is a unit of:

  • (A) Dipole moment
  • (B) Field effect
  • (C) Dissociation constant
  • (D) Bond energy

Question 29:

Which is considered an exception to Markovnikov's rule \emph{EXCEPT}:

  • (A) Addition of HI in an alkene
  • (B) Addition of HCl in an alkene
  • (C) Addition of HBr in the presence of peroxide in an alkene
  • (D) Addition of H\(_2\)O in the presence of acid

Question 30:

In Baeyer strain theory, which cycloalkane is more stable?

  • (A) Cyclopropane
  • (B) Cyclobutane
  • (C) Cyclopentane
  • (D) Cyclooctane

Question 31:

Walden inversion includes:

  • (A) SN1
  • (B) SN2
  • (C) Both SN1 and SN2
  • (D) Elimination

Question 32:

Diels-Alder reaction is:

  • (A) Cyclo addition
  • (B) Elimination
  • (C) Nucleophilic addition
  • (D) Electrophilic substitution

Question 33:

Alkyl halide is converted to alkane:

  • (A) Wurtz Reaction
  • (B) Birch reaction
  • (C) Sabatier-Senderens reaction
  • (D) Grignard reaction

Question 34:

Aryl diazonium reacts with fluoroborate to give aryl fluoride:

  • (A) Balz-Schiemann reaction
  • (B) Stephen reaction
  • (C) Gattermann reaction
  • (D) Gomberg reaction

Question 35:

Pyridine is a base with \(K_b\) value:

  • (A) \(1.7 \times 10^{-9}\)
  • (B) \(2.3 \times 10^{-12}\)
  • (C) \(3.2 \times 10^{-6}\)
  • (D) \(3.8 \times 10^{-7}\)

Question 36:

Naturally occurring pilocarpine is:

  • (A) 2R,4R (+) Pilocarpine
  • (B) 3S,5R (−) Pilocarpine
  • (C) 2S,4R (−) Pilocarpine
  • (D) 3R,4S (+) Pilocarpine

Question 37:

In a drug discovery process:

1. Lead optimization

2. Target selection

3. Lead findings

  • (A) 3-2-1
  • (B) 1-2-3
  • (C) 2-3-1
  • (D) 3-1-2

Question 38:

Methotrexate, used as an antimetabolite, is a product of N-methylation of para-aminobenzoic acid and pyridine hydroxyl. The isosteric group is

  • (A) SH
  • (B) CH_3
  • (C) NH_2
  • (D) CF_3

Question 39:

A/B Trans steroidal hydrogen in the 5th position

  • (A) Beta configuration
  • (B) Eclipsed conformation
  • (C) Alpha configuration
  • (D) Gauche conformation

Question 40:

Total Number of Carbon atoms in pregnane is

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 19
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 27

Question 41:

Hypnotics and sedative barbiturate pK\(_a\) value

  • (A) 4–6
  • (B) 5–8
  • (C) 9–11
  • (D) 7–9

Question 42:

Structure of hybrid in methadone and meperidine

  • (A) Pentazocine
  • (B) Tramadol
  • (C) Methotrexate
  • (D) Labetalol

Question 43:

Steroidal cholestane ring fused with

  • (A) 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 13
  • (B) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11
  • (C) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 13
  • (D) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 14

Question 44:

UV absorbance value of Morphine

  • (A) 266 nm
  • (B) 276 nm
  • (C) 256 nm
  • (D) 286 nm

Question 45:

Complexometric titration indicators Except

  • (A) Mordant black - II
  • (B) Ferroin
  • (C) Catechol violet
  • (D) Xylene orange

Question 46:

In complexometric titration, the masking agent used to mask Iron (II) ion

  • (A) KCN
  • (B) Thio glycerol
  • (C) Tri ethanol amine
  • (D) Ammonium Fluoride

Question 47:

Which is used as Fajan's method indicator

  • (A) Dichlorofluorescein
  • (B) Methyl red
  • (C) Phenolphthalein
  • (D) Xylene orange

Question 48:

Cyanide used in nepheloturbidometry as a salt of

  • (A) Ag
  • (B) Au
  • (C) Na
  • (D) K

Question 49:

How to prepare 200 mL of a 0.15 M sodium hydroxide solution?

  • (A) 1.0 g
  • (B) 1.2 g
  • (C) 1.5 g
  • (D) 1.8 g

Question 50:

Stationary phase for steroidal chromatography is:

  • (A) Acylated paper
  • (B) Carboxy Paper
  • (C) Kieselguhr paper
  • (D) Silica Paper

Question 51:

Choose the correct statement in a potentiometric titration: Salt bridge is used as


(i) Prevent contamination of reference electrode to test solution

(ii) No use of design reference electrode of salt bridge

(iii) No effect in test solution

(iv) Solidified with 3% agar

  • (a) Only I
  • (b) I and III
  • (c) I and IV
  • (d) III and IV

Question 52:

Which of the following is not a Karl Fischer reagent

  • (a) Iodine
  • (b) Pyridine
  • (c) Pyrimidine
  • (d) Sulphur dioxide

Question 53:

In Ilkovic equation, m\textprime{} determines

  • (a) Determine mass of analyte
  • (b) Determine mass of electron transfer
  • (c) Determine mass of mercury flow transfer
  • (d) Determine drop time

Question 54:

Enzyme activation energy (E\textsubscript{a}) for thermal decomposition of glucose in a first-order reaction is calculated by

  • (a) The x-axis intercept of the Arrhenius plot
  • (b) The y-axis intercept of the Arrhenius plot
  • (c) Slope of the Arrhenius plot
  • (d) Rate constant at room temperature

Question 55:

In conductometric titration of acetic acid with 0.1 N sodium hydroxide, complete neutralization occurs. Further addition of titrant results in

  • (a) Increase the conductance
  • (b) Decrease the conductance
  • (c) No change in the conductance
  • (d) Colour change (orange to red)

Question 56:

Vincristine in ultraviolet spectrophotometry \(\lambda_{max}\) value

  • (a) 217 nm
  • (b) 245 nm
  • (c) 290 nm
  • (d) 360 nm

Question 57:

Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension at 20°C?

  • (a) Carbon tetrachloride
  • (b) Mercury
  • (c) Oleic acid
  • (d) Octane

Question 58:

Which diluent is incompatible with primary amines?

  • (a) Lactose
  • (b) Mannitol
  • (c) Microcrystalline cellulose
  • (d) Dextrose

Question 59:

Maximum limit of iron used in gelatin for manufacturing Soft Gelatin capsule shell should not exceed

  • (a) 15 PPM
  • (b) 20 PPM
  • (c) 25 PPM
  • (d) 50 PPM

Question 60:

If the log of microorganisms is plotted against time, an initially straight line results. The inverse slope of this line is called

  • (a) Thermal death line
  • (b) D value
  • (c) Z value
  • (d) Half-life

Question 61:

Sedimentation volume is measured by

  • (a) Ultimate volume of sediment / initial volume of total suspension
  • (b) Flocculation of sedimentation
  • (c) Initial volume of total suspension / ultimate volume of sediment
  • (d) Volume of flocculated suspension

Question 62:

According to USP, the range of sparingly solubility required to dissolve 1 part of solute should be

  • (a) 1 - 10
  • (b) 10 - 30
  • (c) 30 - 100
  • (d) 100 - 1000

Question 63:

Rheogram of which type of flow does not start from the origin

  • (a) Plastic Flow
  • (b) Dilatant Flow
  • (c) Pseudoplastic Flow
  • (d) Newtonian

Question 64:

A powder has a Carr's compressibility index in the range of 12-16. The flowability of the powder will be

  • (a) Fair
  • (b) Excellent
  • (c) Good
  • (d) Very poor

Question 65:

As per USP, the maximum concentration of benzalkonium chloride used as a preservative in parenteral formulations is

  • (a) 0.01%
  • (b) 0.001%
  • (c) 0.05%
  • (d) 0.005%

Question 66:

Which of the following is commonly used as a broad-spectrum preservative in pharmaceutical formulations?

  • (a) Benzoic acid
  • (b) Benzalkonium chloride
  • (c) Ascorbic acid
  • (d) Vitamin C

Question 67:

Statement of deflocculated suspension

  • (a) Sedimentation for rapidly
  • (b) Sedimentation for slowly
  • (c) Easy to redisperse
  • (d) Unpleasant in appearance

Question 68:

Common name of convective transport

  • (a) Pore transport
  • (b) Active transport
  • (c) Passive transport
  • (d) Endocytosis transport

Question 69:

Particle size range of optical microscopy

  • (a) 500–1000 \mu
  • (b) 0.001–0.1 \mu
  • (c) 200–500 \mu
  • (d) 0.5–1.50 \mu

Question 70:

Select the statement of Smectic liquid crystal

  • (a) Mobility in two directions or no rotation
  • (b) Three directions or no rotation
  • (c) Mobility in two directions or rotation in one axis
  • (d) Mobility in three directions or rotation in one axis

Question 71:

The flow of viscosity increases when the substance is sheared. This is known as

  • (a) Dilatant
  • (b) Plastic
  • (c) Pseudoplastic
  • (d) Newtonian

Question 72:

Equipment used in structured breakdown of thixotropy

  • (a) Viscometer
  • (b) Planimeters
  • (c) Rotameters
  • (d) Orifice meter

Question 73:

Thixotropic behavior is associated with

  • (a) Increase in viscosity
  • (b) Decrease in viscosity
  • (c) Solid \& Liquid behavior
  • (d) Sol-gel transformation

Question 74:

Match the following:


I. True density \hfill (P) Reciprocal of bulk density

II. Granule density \hfill (Q) Graduated cylinder method

III. Bulk density \hfill (R) Helium Pycnometer

IV. Bulkiness \hfill (S) Mercury displacement method

  • (a) (I)-(S), (II)-(P), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(R)
  • (b) (I)-(Q), (II)-(S), (III)-(P), (IV)-(R)
  • (c) (I)-(R), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)
  • (d) (I)-(S), (II)-(R), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)

Question 75:

Kozeny-Carman equation is related to

  • (a) Pressure drop in turbulent flow
  • (b) Sedimentation velocity
  • (c) Heat transfer
  • (d) Permeability to particle size \& bed porosity

Question 76:

Theory of filtration is related to

  • (a) Dalton's method
  • (b) Darcy equation
  • (c) BET equation
  • (d) Stokes' equation

Question 77:

The equation \[ \log \left( \frac{P_1}{P_2} \right) = \frac{2.303 \cdot \Delta H_v \cdot (T_2 - T_1)}{R \cdot T_1 \cdot T_2} \]
is related to:

  • (a) Clausius-Mossotti equation
  • (b) BET equation
  • (c) Boltzmann-Planck equation
  • (d) Clausius-Clapeyron equation

Question 78:

Nitrodisc is an example of which type of Drug Delivery System?

  • (a) Ocular
  • (b) Transdermal
  • (c) Mucosal
  • (d) Nasal

Question 79:

CLASS-II method for tonicity adjustment is:

  • (a) Cryoscopic
  • (b) NaCl Equivalent
  • (c) White Vincent
  • (d) Mole fraction

Question 80:

If the granule density of potassium bicarbonate is 2.350 g/cc and the true density is 3.560 g/cc, determine the interparticle porosity of the powder.

  • (a) 0.56
  • (b) 0.44
  • (c) 0.66
  • (d) 0.34

Question 81:

Triple point of water occurs at which temperature and pressure?

  • (a) 0.098°C and 4.58 mmHg
  • (b) 0.0098°F and 4.58 mmHg
  • (c) 0.098°F and 4.58 mmHg
  • (d) 0.0098°C and 4.58 mmHg

Question 82:

In supercritical fluid extraction, what will be the critical temperature (CT) and critical pressure (CP)?

  • (a) 34°C and 50 atm
  • (b) 31.1°C and 73.8 atm
  • (c) 54°C and 78 atm
  • (d) 40°C and 60 atm

Question 83:

Examples of continuous shelf moving dryer are

  • (a) Vacuum dryer
  • (b) Tray dryer
  • (c) Spray dryer
  • (d) Turbo tray dryer

Question 84:

An antibiotic dissolves completely in 250 mL of aqueous solution at pH range 1–6.8 and 37°C, and after dissolution, it shows 85% absorption in the body. Based on the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), in which class does this drug belong?

  • (a) Class I
  • (b) Class II
  • (c) Class III
  • (d) Class IV

Question 85:

Manucol is also known as

  • (a) Sodium alginate
  • (b) Alginic acid
  • (c) Carbopol
  • (d) Guargum

Question 86:

Which of the following anticancer drugs produces hand-foot syndrome?

  • (a) Methotrexate
  • (b) Capecitabine
  • (c) Vincristine
  • (d) Doxorubicin

Question 87:

Which of the following is a P2Y₁₂ enzyme inhibitor?

  • (a) Clopidogrel
  • (b) Aspirin
  • (c) Dipyridamole
  • (d) Tirofiban

Question 88:

Vigabatrin is an inhibitor of

  • (a) GABA synthase
  • (b) GABA transaminase
  • (c) Voltage-gated Na channel
  • (d) Chloride channel

Question 89:

PDE 4 inhibitor used in COPD

  • (a) Montelukast
  • (b) Roflumilast
  • (c) Cromoglicate
  • (d) Omalizumab

Question 90:

Which of the following is an antidote for organophosphorus poisoning?

  • (a) Pralidoxime
  • (b) Naloxone
  • (c) Physostigmine
  • (d) Sodium thiosulfate

Question 91:

Which of the following is a Proliferator-Activated Receptor-Alpha (PPAR-α) agonist?

  • (a) Sulfonylurea
  • (b) Metformin
  • (c) Acarbose
  • (d) Pioglitazone

Question 92:

Bambuterol is a prodrug of

  • (a) Salmeterol
  • (b) Terbutaline
  • (c) Albuterol
  • (d) Theophylline

Question 93:

Anticonvulsant drug used as a selective molecular target

  • (a) Vigabatrin
  • (b) Gabapentin
  • (c) Lamotrigine
  • (d) Tiagabine

Question 94:

Common name of convective transport

  • (a) Endocytosis
  • (b) Active transport
  • (c) Passive transport
  • (d) Pore transport

Question 95:

After which phase of clinical trials do pharmaceutical companies submit a New Drug Application (NDA) to the regulatory authority?

  • (a) Phase I
  • (b) Phase II
  • (c) Phase III
  • (d) Phase IV

Question 96:

Match the following:


I. Alpha (α) cells \hfill [P] Glucagon

II. Beta (β) cells \hfill [Q] Somatostatin

III. Delta (δ) cells \hfill [R] Gastrin

IV. G cells \hfill [S] Proinsulin

  • (a) (I)-(P), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(R)
  • (b) (I)-(Q), (II)-(S), (III)-(P), (IV)-(R)
  • (c) (I)-(R), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)
  • (d) (I)-(S), (II)-(R), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)

Question 97:

Which of the following drugs, when given with warfarin, induces hepatic CYP450 enzyme?

  • (a) Ciprofloxacin
  • (b) Metronidazole
  • (c) Carbamazepine
  • (d) Diltiazem

Question 98:

Blood concentration ratio of the combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole after being given in a 1:5 ratio is

  • (a) 1:1
  • (b) 1:5
  • (c) 1:10
  • (d) 1:20

Question 99:

Furosemide mechanism of action

  • (a) Inhibit Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter in the ascending limb of Henle
  • (b) Inhibit Na⁺-K⁺ cotransporter in the collecting duct
  • (c) Inhibit Na⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter in the distal loop of Henle
  • (d) Aldosterone antagonist

Question 100:

Match the following drugs and their Mechanism of Action (MOA):


\

  • (a) (1)-(R), (2)-(S), (3)-(P), (4)-(Q)
  • (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(S), (3)-(P), (4)-(R)
  • (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
  • (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)

Question 101:

Match the following Class and their Antiarrhythmic Drug:



  • (a) (1)-(P), (2)-(Q), (3)-(R), (4)-(S)
  • (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
  • (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
  • (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

Question 102:

Which effect is associated with amphotericin B?

  • (a) Hyponatremia
  • (b) Hypokalemia
  • (c) Hypermagnesemia
  • (d) Hypercalcemia

Question 103:

Which of the following drugs used to treat influenza targets an enzyme?

  • (a) DNA polymerase
  • (b) Reverse transcriptase
  • (c) Neuraminidase
  • (d) Protease

Question 104:

Choose the correct match of laxative and its Mechanism of Action (MOA):



  • (a) (1)-(Q), (2)-(P), (3)-(R), (4)-(S)
  • (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
  • (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
  • (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

Question 105:

BPALM combination drug names include moxifloxacin

  • (a) Bedaquiline, pyrazinamide, linezolid, moxifloxacin
  • (b) Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, linezolid, montelukast
  • (c) Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, linezolid, moxifloxacin
  • (d) Bedaquiline, pyrazinamide, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

Question 106:

Mirabegron is used in the management of overactive bladder

  • (a) Beta 2 agonist
  • (b) Beta 3 agonist
  • (c) M3 antagonist
  • (d) Beta 1 agonist

Question 107:

Which PDE 4 inhibitor is used in COPD?

  • (a) Montelukast
  • (b) Theophylline
  • (c) Cromoglicate
  • (d) Omalizumab

Question 108:

5-HT\textsubscript{2A}/2C antagonist used in migraine

  • (a) Methysergide
  • (b) Ketanserin
  • (c) Sumatriptan
  • (d) Rizatriptan

Question 109:

If 50% of women who are diagnosed with venous thrombosis are found to be taking oral contraceptives compared to those without thrombosis, which type of study is this?

  • (a) Cohort
  • (b) Case Study
  • (c) Cross-Sectional
  • (d) ANOVA

Question 110:

pH of Jejunum

  • (a) 6.8±4
  • (b) 1±4
  • (c) 3±8
  • (d) 5±1

Question 111:

GnRH agonist EXCEPT

  • (a) Goserelin
  • (b) Gani
  • (c) triptorelin
  • (d) buserlin

Question 112:

Which of the following are responsible for a rightward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

  • (a) Lower PO\textsubscript{2}
  • (b) Higher H\textsuperscript{+}
  • (c) Higher pCO\textsubscript{2}
  • (d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 113:

Match the following Class and their Drug:


(1) Alkylating

(2) Platinum analog

(3) Antimetabolite

(4) EGF receptor inhibitor


(P) 5-fluorouracil

(Q) Cisplatin

(R) Cetuximab

(S) Chlorambucil

  • (a) (1)-(P), (2)-(S), (3)-(Q), (4)-(R)
  • (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
  • (c) (1)-(S), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(R)
  • (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

Question 114:

Which of the following nasal decongestants is an \(\alpha_2\) agonist?

  • (a) Oxymetazoline
  • (b) Terbutaline
  • (c) Salbutamol
  • (d) Methotrexate

GPAT 2025 Expected Paper Analysis

As per the previous year's analysis, the GPAT 2025 Question paper is expected to be moderately difficult, with an equal distribution of conceptual, factual and application-based questions in the subject of pharmacy.

Section/Subject Area Expected Number of Questions Expected Difficulty Level Important Topics
Pharmaceutical Chemistry 25–30 Moderate to Difficult
  • Organic chemistry
  • Drug synthesis
  • NMR and IR
Pharmaceutics 20–25 Moderate
  • Dosage forms
  • Biopharmaceutics
  • calculations
Pharmacology 20–25 Moderate
  • Drug classification
  • Mechanisms
  • side effects
Pharmacognosy 15–20 Easy to Moderate
  • Plant sources
  • Phytochemicals
  • traditional uses
Other Subjects (Biochem, Microbio, etc.) 15–20 Moderate The mix of factual and conceptual questions
General Aptitude & Analytical Skills 10–15 Easy to Moderate
  • Logical reasoning
  • Quantitative aptitude

GPAT 2025 Topic-Wise Weightage

By understanding the topic-wise weightage of GPAT 2025, Candidates can prioritise the high-weightage topics and plan their preparation accordingly. As per the previous year's trends, the question distribution will be as follows:

Pharmaceutical Chemistry

Topics Expected No. of Questions
Organic Chemistry (Drugs, Reactions) 8–10
Medicinal Chemistry 6–8
Analytical Chemistry 4–6
Physical Chemistry 2–4

Pharmaceutics

Topics Expected No. of Questions
Dosage Forms & Formulations 6–8
Biopharmaceutics & Pharmacokinetics 5–7
Pharmaceutical Engineering & Technology 3–5
Physical Pharmaceutics 3–4

3. Pharmacology

Topics Expected No. of Questions
General Pharmacology 5–6
Autonomic Nervous System 4–6
Cardiovascular, CNS & Chemotherapy Drugs 5–7
Adverse Effects & Drug Interactions 2–4

4. Pharmacognosy

Topics Expected No. of Questions
Plant Constituents & Sources 5–6
Phytochemistry 4–5
Herbal Formulations & Applications 2–4

Other Subjects

Topics Expected No. of Questions
Microbiology & Biotechnology 3–4
Biochemistry 2–3
Clinical Pharmacy & Health Education 2–3
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Ethics 2–3
General Aptitude (Quant + Logical) 10–15

GPAT Questions

  • 1.
    Which of the following alkaloids are found as salts of meconic acid?

      • $ \text{Rauwolfia Alkaloid} $
      • $ \text{Tropane Alkaloid} $
      • $ \text{Ergot Alkaloid} $
      • $ \text{Opium Alkaloid} $

    • 2.
      How much volume of Raw spirit can an excise officer withdraw as sample?

        • $ \text{One sample of 200 ml} $
        • $ \text{Two samples of 150 ml each} $
        • $ \text{Three samples of same batch, each not more than 100 ml} $
        • $ \text{One sample of 500 ml} $

      • 3.
        Which anemia is caused due to Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells?

          • Pernicious anemia
          • Aplastic anemia
          • Iron deficiency anemia
          • Hemolytic anemia

        • 4.
          Which of the following nasal decongestants is an \(\alpha_2\) agonist?

            • Oxymetazoline
            • Terbutaline
            • Salbutamol
            • Methotrexate

          • 5.
            According to the ICH guidelines for stability studies, Climatic Zone II temperature and relative humidity are respectively:

              • $ 25^\circ C $ and RH $ 60\% $
              • $ 30^\circ C $ and RH $ 65\% $
              • $ 40^\circ C $ and RH $ 75\% $
              • $ 25^\circ C $ and RH $ 75\% $

            • 6.
              pH of Jejunum

                • 6.8±4
                • 1±4
                • 3±8
                • 5±1

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General2000
              Women1000
              sc1000
              pwd1000

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