GPAT 2024 Question Paper is available for download here. National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBE) conducted GPAT 2024 exam on June 8, 2024. GPAT 2024 question paper consists a total of 125 questions divided among 5 sections.
GPAT 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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GPAT 2024 Questions with Solutions
SECTION A
Question 2:
Chikusetsu saponin is present in:
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Question 3:
What is the best time to collect the medicinal bark material?
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Question 4:
Which of the following steps are not involved in gravimetric analysis:
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Question 5:
Which of the following is a meta directing group?
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Question 6:
The Wilson's disease is a rare inherited disorder due to accumulation in brain, liver, and other vital organs of:
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Question 7:
The starting raw material for synthesis of lignocaine is:
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Question 8:
Coating of Eudragit NE40D on tablets is done to prepare:
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Question 9:
During compression of tablets, dwell time is:
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Question 10:
According to the SAR of Chloroquine, electron:
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Question 11:
Size of a pilot plant batch is:
Question 12:
Nitrostat® is an example of:
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Question 13:
The dried juice of Pterocarpus marsupium belongs to the family:
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Question 14:
Spin Quantum number of 13C NMR is:
Question 15:
The rate limiting step for the absorption of controlled release tablet is the:
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Question 16:
Which antibiotic undergoes light catalysed autoxidation:
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Question 17:
Which of the following is not a method for solubility enhancement:
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Question 18:
Schedule T of Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 deals with:
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Question 19:
The key intermediate for the biosynthesis of C6-C3 units is:
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Question 20:
Rancidity of oil is detected by:
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Question 21:
Which one of the following enzymes comprises a major part of enzyme-linked receptors:
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Question 22:
Core tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to a patient. Where do you expect the drug to be released:
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Question 23:
Examples of BCS class III drugs are:
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Question 24:
The bloom strength is directly proportional to:
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Question 25:
Famotidine contains:
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SECTION B
Question 1:
An elixir contains 47% v/v alcohol, what is the proof spirit according to USP:
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Question 2:
Alfa Alfa belongs to which of the following families:
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Question 3:
Name the following drug molecule:
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Question 4:
The biological name of Indian Bdellium is:
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Question 5:
According to Oppenauer Oxidation reaction, oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketone by reagent (X) in acetone takes place, what is "X":
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Question 6:
Which of the following climatic zones can be categorized into the hot and dry zone?
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Question 7:
The IUPAC name of tartaric acid is:
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Question 8:
H1 receptor protein in humans is made up of:
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Question 9:
Based on the rheological behavior of fluid, all of the following shows time independent property, except:
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Question 10:
Etoposide and Teniposide are the semi-synthetic derivatives of:
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Question 11:
Which of the following is/are in-process QC test(s) for tablets:
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Question 12:
Which is the active form of Ganciclovir?
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Question 13:
Which of the following volatile oils are heavier than water:
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Question 14:
Which of the following mills is based on the mechanism of impact and attrition for size reduction:
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Question 15:
Which of the following is Phase-II metabolism reaction:
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Question 16:
Antioxidant which is obtained from a desert plant and shows synergistic action with citric acid is:
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Question 17:
Calculate the λmax of the following molecule:
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Question 18:
The most suitable test for digitoxose is:
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Question 19:
Which of the following protective colloids has a high gold number?
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Question 20:
The equivalent weight of Potassium permanganate in acidic medium is:
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Question 21:
Match the following disease with their test for detection:
Disease | Diagnostic tests |
---|---|
P. Tuberculosis | (i) Lepromin test |
Q. AIDS | (ii) ELISA |
R. Syphilis | (iii) Mantoux test |
S. Leprosy | (iv) Kahn's test |
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Question 22:
Which of the following type of viscometer is used for the measurement of viscosity of a Newtonian fluid:
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Question 23:
The composition of "Lindlar catalyst" is:
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Question 24:
5-Fluorouracil, an anti-metabolite used in cancer treatment, is activated to:
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Question 25:
Which of the following drugs has a 1,3,4-thiadiazole ring system?
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SECTION C
Question 1:
Leprosy is a:
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Question 2:
The appendicular skeleton in an adult consists of:
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Question 3:
Histogram can be drawn only for:
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Question 4:
Murmurs are generally heard in disorders affecting the following:
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Question 5:
Which of the following is first prodrug for sulfonamide:
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Question 6:
Which oral hypoglycemic agent increases the levels of incretin hormone by inhibiting the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4):
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Question 7:
Biological activity of synthetic adrenaline is almost:
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Question 8:
Central Government approved factory premises where Opium alkaloids are processed is situated at:
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Question 9:
Tetracycline undergoes epimerization at C4 between pH 4-8 to give:
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Question 10:
The etiology of jaundice could be haemolytic anaemia if:
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Question 11:
Precursor for corticosteroids synthesis is:
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Question 12:
Which one of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of niacin:
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Question 13:
Enzyme commonly targeted by drugs to treat hypertension is:
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Question 14:
How many optical isomers are possible for lactic acid:
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Question 15:
If one event is unaffected by the outcome of another event, the two events are said to be:
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Question 16:
Which functional group in drug molecules is most likely to undergo phase I metabolic oxidation by cytochrome P450 enzymes:
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Question 17:
Which ring of warfarin is essential for its therapeutic activity:
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Question 18:
Following are the examples of negative feedback system except:
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Question 19:
Which of the following is called as cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity:
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Question 20:
Which ionization technique in mass spectrometry is most suitable for large biomolecules like proteins:
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Question 21:
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the human placenta:
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Question 22:
Which of the following is an aryl acetic acid derivative:
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Question 23:
Melatonin is secreted by:
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Question 24:
Which hormone stimulates red blood cell production:
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Question 25:
Which of the following drug does NOT require therapeutic drug monitoring:
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SECTION D
Question 1:
The short-acting anticholinesterase drug is:
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Question 2:
Which among the following is an example of a high shear mixer:
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Question 3:
In a homologous series of any general anesthetic, increasing the chain length increases the lipid solubility and produces a corresponding increase in anesthetic potency, is proposed by:
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Question 4:
Influenza viruses are RNA viruses and belong to which family:
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Question 5:
Two drugs producing the same clinical effects and safety profile when administered to patients are considered:
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Question 6:
Aerobic dehydrogenase in biological oxidation contains:
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Question 7:
Match the following antibodies with their correct description:
Antibody | Description |
---|---|
P. IgE | (i) Cross the placenta |
Q. IgG | (ii) Dominant antibody produced in immune responses |
R. IgM | (iii) It is found in the mother's milk |
S. IgA | (iv) Responsible for autoimmune responses including allergies |
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Question 8:
Plasma protein bound drugs are:
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Question 9:
Which of the following equipment measures weight variation using reflected energy:
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Question 10:
Which among the following is not the process of drug degradation:
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Question 11:
The term of a patent granted under the Indian Patent Act is:
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Question 12:
Choose the incorrect statement regarding Cathode rays:
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Question 13:
Among the following, which is known as "SPIRIT OF SALT”?
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Question 14:
Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200°C gives:
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Question 15:
As per Bronsted-Lowry concept, acid is defined as:
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Question 16:
Which of the following is a correct expression of average particle size with the value of p = 1 (size index) and frequency index f = 2:
A | B | C | D |
---|---|---|---|
din= Σnd2⁄Σnd3 | din= Σnd2⁄Σnd2 | dsl= Σnd3⁄Σnd2 | dsl= Σnd3⁄Σnd2 |
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Question 17:
Which of the following is a peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-alpha (PPAR-α) agonist:
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Question 18:
The given equation represents which law:
E = Kk ln d1⁄d2
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Question 19:
In which limit test is Thioglycolic acid used:
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Question 20:
Who has the power to fix the ceiling price of scheduled formulations:
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Question 21:
Which of the following is not a GABA derivative:
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Question 22:
A hypothesis stipulating that there is no difference between the situations, groups, and outcomes is called:
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Question 23:
How many Pharmacists are required for a hospital having up to 300 beds:
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Question 24:
Which of the following is easily nitrated using a mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4:
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Question 25:
If the spin of the electrons in the excited state are parallel, it is called as:
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SECTION E
Question 1:
The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle is:
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Question 2:
Virus-mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another cell is known as:
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Question 3:
What should be the log P value for an ideal drug candidate for transdermal permeation:
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Question 4:
Which of the following formula for calculating child dose is based on body weight:
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Question 5:
Salivary amylase helps in digestion of which of the following nutrients:
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Question 6:
In the drying process, which of the following parameters is the same as the adiabatic saturation temperature:
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Question 7:
What is the proposed mechanism of action of artemisinin in the treatment of malaria:
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Question 8:
The optimum temperature for rapid growth of mesophiles is:
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Question 9:
The fluoroquinolones act by:
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Question 10:
The cranial nerve that regulates the heartbeat is:
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Question 11:
Which of the following is a causative organism for Syphilis:
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Question 12:
Coomb's test is used for detection of:
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Question 13:
In Michaelis-Menten equation when Km = C:
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Question 14:
Which of the following is NOT a Class 1C anti-arrhythmic drug
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Question 15:
Which of the following is an example of physical incompatibility:
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Question 16:
Which of the following is a Partial Fatty acid oxidation (pFox) inhibitor:
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Question 17:
Renin is released from:
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Question 18:
Which of the following cranial nerve is instrumental in motor function:
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Question 19:
The most common neoplasm in patients with AIDS is:
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Question 20:
The Phase in which two identical copies of DNA are formed is:
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Question 21:
Progressive loss of bone that occurs in osteoporosis is an example of:
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Question 22:
The visible coloured ring of the eye is called:
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Question 23:
Sarcoma is the cancer of:
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Question 24:
Outer covering of the testes is:
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Question 25:
Which of the following is the best technique for detecting HIV:
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